T4 Q+a Drishti Ias King R Queen P

flfoy lsok (izkjafHkd) VsLV lhjhT+k&2024
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe
ijh{k.k iqfLrdk
Test Code:
P1/P2-2404 lkekU; vè;;u
VsLV – 04
le; % nks ?k.Vs iw.kk±d % 200
vuqns'k
1. ijh{kk izkjEHk gksus ds rqjUr ckn] vki bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk dh iM+rky vo'; dj ysa fd blesa dksbZ fcuk Nik] iQVk ;k
NwVk gqvk i`"B vFkok iz'u vkfn u gksA ;fn ,slk gks rks bls lgh ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ls cny yhft,A
2. mÙkj&i=kd esa lgh LFkku ij ijh{k.k iqfLrdk vuqØe A, B, C ;k D ;FkkfLFkfr Li"V :i ls dwVc¼ dhft;sA
3. bl iafDr ds lkFk esa fn;s x, dks"Bd esa vkidks viuk vuqØekad fy[kuk
gSA ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ij vkSj oqQN u fy[ksaA
4. bl ijh{k.k iqfLrdk esa 100 iz'uka'k (iz'u) fn;s x, gSaA izR;sd iz'uka'k
fgUnh vkSj vaxzs”kh esa Nik gSA izR;sd iz'uka'k esa pkj izR;qÙkj (mÙkj) fn;s
x, gSaA buesa ls ,d izR;qÙkj dks pqu ysa ftls vki mÙkj&i=kd ij vafdr djuk pkgrs gSaA ;fn vkidks ,slk yxs fd ,d ls vfèkd
izR;qÙkj lgh gSa rks ml izR;qÙkj dks vafdr djsa tks vkidks loksZÙke yxsA izR;sd iz'uka'k ds fy;s dsoy ,d gh izR;qÙkj pquuk gSA
5. vkidks vius lHkh izR;qÙkj vyx ls fn;s x, mÙkj&i=kd ij gh vafdr djus gSaA mÙkj&i=kd esa fn;s x, funsZ'k ns[k ysaA
6. lHkh iz'uksa ds vad leku gSaA
7. blls igys fd vki ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds fofHkUu iz'uka'kksa ds izR;qÙkj mÙkj i=kd ij vafdr djuk 'kq: djsa] vkidks izos'k izek.k&i=k
ds lkFk izsf"kr vuqns'kksa ds vuqlkj dqN fooj.k mÙkj&i=kd esa nsus gSaA
8. vki vius lHkh izR;qÙkjksa dks mÙkj&i=kd esa Hkjus ds ckn rFkk ijh{kk ds lekiu ij dsoy mÙkj&i=kd vèkh{kd dks lkSai nsaA vkidks
vius lkFk ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ys tkus dh vuqefr gSA
9. dPps dke ds fy;s dqN i=kd ijh{k.k iqfLrdk ds var esa layXu gSaA
10. xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM%
oLrqfu"B iz'u&i=kksa esa mEehnokj }kjk fn;s x, xyr mÙkjksa ds fy;s naM fn;k tk,xkA
(i) izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s pkj oSdfYid mÙkj gSaA mEehnokj }kjk izR;sd iz'u ds fy;s fn;s x, ,d xyr mÙkj ds fy;s iz'u gsrq fu;r
fd;s x, vadksa dk ,d&frgkbZ naM ds :i esa dkVk tk,xkA
(ii) ;fn dksbZ mEehnokj ,d ls vfèkd mÙkj nsrk gS] rks bls xyr mÙkj ekuk tk,xk] pkgs fn;s x, mÙkjksa esa ls ,d mÙkj lgh gks] ml
iz'u ds fy;s mi;qZDrkuqlkj gh naM fn;k tk,xkA
(iii) ;fn mEehnokj }kjk dksbZ iz'u gy ugha fd;k tkrk gS] vFkkZr~ mEehnokj }kjk mÙkj ugha fn;k tkrk gS] rks ml iz'u ds fy;s dksbZ
n.M ugha fn;k tk,xkA
tc rd vkidks ;g ijh{k.k iqfLrdk [kksyus dks u dgk tk, rc rd u [kksysa

è;ku nsa % vuqns'kksa dk vaxzs”kh :ikUrj bl iqfLrdk ds vafre i`"B ij Nik gSA
FREE BY KING R QUEEN P[ऋषभ राजपूत]

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Watermark PDFelement
1. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 5. ;k=kh ekdkZs iksyks ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
1. çFke fo'o ;q¼ ds nkSjku Hkkjr ds vkS|ksfxd mRiknu dhft;s%
esa rs”kh vkbZA 1. og dqrqcqíhu ,scd dk ledkyhu FkkA
2. ;q¼ ds i'pkr~ fczVsu dHkh Hkh Hkkjrh; ck”kkj esa 2. og 1292 bZ- esa Hkkjr ds dksjkseaMy rV ij mrjkA
viuh iwoZ fLFkfr dks iqu% çkIr ugha dj ldkA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
6. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu ^roje* 'kCn dh lokZsÙke O;k[;k
2. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% djrk gS\
1. chloha lnh esa] jk"Vªokn ds fodkl ds lkFk] Hkkjr (a) pksy dky ds eafnjksa esa çpfyr ,d ikjaifjd u`R;
dh igpku Hkkjr ekrk dh Nfo ds lkFk n`f"Vxr 'kSyh
:i ls tqM+us yxhA (b) dUuM+ fo}kuksa }kjk fyf•r n'kZu ij ,d çkphu xzaFk
2. 1870 ds n'kd esa cafde paæ pV~Vksikè;k; us ekr`Hkwfe
(c) çeq• u;ukjksa dh dforkvksa dk laxzg
dh Lrqfr esa ôans ekrje* fy•kA
(d) ,d çdkj dk ikjaifjd nf{k.k Hkkjrh; laxhr ok|;a=k
3. Hkkjr ekrk dh ewy Nfo dks jktk jfo oekZ us fpf=kr
fd;k FkkA 7. fl• èkeZ ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. ckck xq# ukud fdlh u, èkeZ dh LFkkiuk ugha djuk
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
pkgrs FksA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
2. xq# xksfcan flag us xq# ukud ds inksa dks vkfn xzaFk
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
lkfgc esa ladfyr fd;kA
3. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
1. f•ykiQr rFkk vlg;ksx vkanksyu ds ckn eqlyekuksa
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
dk ,d cM+k oxZ dkWUxzsl ds lkFk tqM+k gqvk eglwl
djus yxkA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
2. 1920 ds n'kd ds eè; ls dkWUxzsl Li"V :i ls 8. Hkkjr ds lkaLÑfrd bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa
fganw èkkfeZd jk"Vªoknh lewgksa ds fo#¼ gks xbZA ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 1. eqyiQq”kkr % lwiQh larksa dh ckrphr
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 2. r”kfdjk % lwiQh larksa dk thoupfj=k
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 3. eDrqckr % lwiQh larksa }kjk fy•s x, i=kksa dk
4. fuEufyf•r esa ls fdlds }kjk o"kZ 1930 esa ¶Lora=krk dh
laxzg
mn~?kks"k.kk¸ çfrKk dk elkSnk rS;kj fd;k Fkk\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
(a) tokgj yky usg: (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe
(b) egkRek xkaèkh (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
(c) fugkjsanq nÙk (c) lHkh rhu ;qXe
(d) oYyHkHkkbZ iVsy (d) dksbZ Hkh ;qXe ugha
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1. Consider the following statements : 5. Consider the following statements with reference to
1. During the first world war, industrial production the traveller Marco Polo :
boomed in India. 1. He was a contemporary of Qutb-ud-din Aibak.
2. After the war, Britain could never recapture its 2. He landed on the Coromandel Coast of India
old position in the Indian market. in 1292 AD.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following : 6. Which of the following best explains the term
‘Tevaram’?
1. In the twentieth century, with the growth of
nationalism, that the identity of India came to (a) A traditional dance form practiced in temples
be visually associated with the image of Bharat of Chola period
Mata. (b) An ancient text on philosophy written by
Kannada scholars.
2. In the 1870s Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the (c) A collection of poems by prominent Nayanars.
motherland. (d) A type of traditional South Indian musical
instrument.
3. The painting of Bharat Mata was originally
created by Raja Ravi Verma. 7. With reference to Sikhism, consider the following
statements :
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. Baba Guru Nanak did not wish to establish a
(a) Only one (b) Only two
new religion.
(c) All three (d) None
2. Guru Gobind Singh compiled Guru Nanak’s
3. Consider the following statements : hymns in the Adi Granth Sahib.
1. After the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat movement, Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a large section of Muslims felt closely associated (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
with the Congress.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. From the mid-1920s the Congress came to be
8. With reference to cultural history of India, consider
more visibly against Hindu religious nationalist
the following pairs :
groups.
1. Malfuzat : Conversations of Sufi saints
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Tazkiras : Biographical accounts of Sufi
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only saints
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Maktubat : Collection of letters written by
4. Who among the following drafted the “Declaration Sufi saints
of Independence” pledge in 1930? How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (a) Only one pair
(b) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Only two pairs
(c) Niharendu Dutta (c) All three pairs
(d) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) None of the pairs
3 3
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9. eè;dkyhu Hkkjr ds fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl 'kkld us mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
'kkludyk ds fo"k; esa ^veqDreY;n* uked Ñfr dh (a) dsoy ,d
jpuk dh\ (b) dsoy nks
(a) gfjgj (c) lHkh rhu
(b) cqDdk (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
(c) nsojk; f}rh;
14. dfo&lar dchj ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(d) Ñ".knso jk;
1. muds in vkSj f'k{kk,¡ chtd esa lajf{kr gSaA
10. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% 2. mUgksaus ije lR; dk o.kZu djus ds fy;s bLyke
1. vkbu&,&vdcjh esa mÙkj Hkkjr esa mxkbZ tkus okyh rFkk fganw èkeZ nksuksa ls çsj.kk yhA
iQlyksa dh lwph esa rackdw dk mYys• gSA
2. vdcj rackdw dh yr ls fpafrr Fkk] blfy;s mlus
bl ij çfrcaèk yxk fn;kA
15. eè;dkyhu Hkkjr esa çeq• jktuhfrd fodkl ds lanHkZ esa
fuEufyf•r ?kVukvksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. iqrZxkfy;ksa }kjk xksok ij vfèkdkj
11. îksyt*] îjrh*] ^ppj* vkSj ^catj* ds :i esa Hkwfe dk
2. xksydqaMk lYrur dk mn;
oxhZdj.k fd;k x;k Fkk
3. mM+hlk ds xtifr lkezkT; dh LFkkiuk
(a) vdcj ds 'kkludky esa
mi;ZqDr ?kVukvksa dk lgh dkykuqØfed Øe D;k gS\
(b) 'ksj'kkg lwjh ds 'kkludky esa
(a) 1–2–3
(c) eqgEen fcu rqxyd ds 'kkludky esa
(b) 2–1–3
(d) vykmíhu f•yth ds 'kkludky esa
(c) 3–2–1
12. eè;dkyhu Hkkjr esa] ¶uLrfyd¸ 'kCn dk lacaèk gS%
(d) 3–1–2
(a) fpf=kr lqys•u ds ,d çkphu :i ls
16. ^nks & iQly@ Do-fasla* vkS j ^ftUl&,&dkfey* 'kCn
(b) o.kks± dks tksM+us ls fufeZr iQkjlh lqys•u 'kSyh ls
fuEufyf•r esa ls fdlls lacafèkr gSa\
(c) eqxy y?kq fp=kdyk 'kSyh ds ,d :i ls
(a) eè;dkyhu Hkkjrh; Ñf"k i¼fr;k¡
(d) fot;uxj lkezkT; ds nkSjku dkxt eksM+us dh ,d
(b) bLykeh n'kZu vkSj jgL;okn
ikjaifjd dyk ls
(c) çkphu Hkkjrh; diM+k cqukbZ
13. fyaxk;r laçnk; ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
(d) Hkwfe eki bdkb;k¡
dhft;s%
1. os f'ko ds fujkdkj rFkk fyax jfgr :i dh iwtk 17. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r esa ls fdls ¶lokj¸
djrs gSaA ds uke ls tkuk tkrk Fkk\
2. os Jk¼ laLdkj tSls vafre laLdkj dk leFkZu ugha (a) vjc O;kikjh
djrs gSa rFkk e`rdksa dks niQukrs gSaA (b) ?kqM+lokj
3. mUgksaus tkfr ,oa czkã.koknh opZLo ds fopkj dks (c) iQkjlh lqys•d
pqukSrh nhA (d) iSny lsuk ds lSfudksa dk okgu
4 4
9. Which of the following rulers of Medieval India has How many of the above statements are correct?
composed a work on state craft known as the (a) Only one
‘Amuktamalyada’? (b) Only two
(a) Harihar (c) All three
(b) Bukka (d) None
(c) Deva Raya II 14. With reference to poet-saint Kabir, consider the
(d) Krishna Deva Raya following :
1. His writings and teachings are preserved in
10. Consider the following :
Bijak.
1. Ain-i-Akbari mentions tobacco in the list of
2. He drew inspiration from both Islam and
crops grown in the north India.
Hinduism to describe the ultimate reality.
2. Akbar was concerned about tobacco’s
addiction, so he banned it.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
15. With reference to major political developments in
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 medieval India, consider the following events :
11. The classification of lands as ‘Polaj’, ‘Parauti’, 1. Conquest of Goa by Portuguese
‘Chachar’ and ‘Banjar’ was done in the reign of 2. Emergence of Sultanate of Golconda
(a) Akbar 3. Establishment of Gajapati Kingdom of Orissa
(b) Sher Shah Suri What is the correct chronological sequence of the
(c) Mohammad bin Tughlaq above events?
(d) Allaudin Khilji (a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-1-3
12. In medieval India, the term “Nastaliq” referred to :
(c) 3-2-1
(a) An ancient form of brush calligraphy
(d) 3-1-2
(b) A style of cursive Persian calligraphy
16. The terms ‘Do-fasla’ and ‘Jins-i-kamil’ are
(c) A form of Mughal miniature painting style
associated with which of the following?
(d) A traditional art of paper folding during (a) Medieval Indian agricultural practices
Vijayanagar empire (b) Islamic philosophy and mysticism
13. With reference to Lingayat sect, consider the (c) Ancient Indian textile weaving
following statements : (d) Land measurement units
1. They worship Shiva in a formless and genderless 17. With reference to Indian history, who of the
form. following were known as “Sawar”?
2. They do not practice funerary rites such as (a) Arab Merchants
cremation and perform burial of the dead. (b) Men on horses
3. They challenged the idea of caste and Brahmanical (c) Persian Calligraphist
supremacy. (d) Vehicle of infantry soldiers
5 5
18. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 21. fuEufyf•r 'kgjksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dFku&I% 1. dydÙkk
iwohZ Hkkjr esa igyk vaxzs”kh dkj•kuk o"kZ 1651 esa gqxyh 2. cacbZ
unh ds rV ij LFkkfir fd;k x;k FkkA 3. lwjr
dFku&II% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus 'kgj vBkjgoha lnh ds var esa
vaxzs”kksa us dkj•kus ds pkjksa vksj ,d fdyk cukuk 'kq: egÙoiw.kZ çsftMsalh 'kgjksa ds :i esa mHkjs\
fd;k tks ckn esa dydÙkk 'kgj cu x;kA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
lgh gS\
22. Hkkjr ds lkaLÑfrd bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r esa
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] ls dkSu&lk ^•kudkg* 'kCn dk lgh o.kZu gS\
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gS (a) lwiQh lar dk edcjk
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] (b) ,d lwiQh LFkku ftldk mi;ksx ;kf=k;ksa ds foJke
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS ?kj ds :i esa fd;k tkrk gS
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gS (c) eqlyekuksa dk ,d •qyk çkFkZuk LFky
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gS (d) eqfLye mysekvksa dh njxkg
19. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa ¶uhy foæksg¸ fuEufyf•r 23. vBkjgoha 'krkCnh ds nkSjku oL=k m|ksx ds lanHkZ esa]
esa ls fdl ?kVuk dk o.kZu gS\ fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) 1859-60 dk uhy foæksg 1. dSfydks vfèkfu;e us Hkkjr esa eqfær lwrh oL=kksa ds
(b) 1921 dk eksiyk foæksg mi;ksx ij çfrcaèk yxk fn;kA
2. Hkkjrh; oL=kksa ds lkFk çfrLi¼kZ ds dkj.k baXySaM esa
(c) fcjlk eqaMk dk foæksg 1899-1900
rduhdh uokpkj dh •kst gqbZA
(d) 1857 dk flikgh foæksg
20. 1857 ds foæksg ds ifj.kkeksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. bZLV bafM;k daiuh ds lkjs vfèkdkj fczfV'k lkezkT;
ds gkFk esa lkSai fn;sA
1. Hkw{ks=k ij fot; ds vykok fczfV'k lkaLÑfrd fe'ku
2. 'kkldksa dks muds {ks=k dh lqj{kk dk vk'oklu fn;k
ds vius fl¼kar esa fo'okl djrs FksA
x;kA
2. gSujh VkWel dksyczqd us iQkjlh jpukvksa dk vaxzs”kh
3. lsuk esa Hkkjrh; lSfudksa dh la[;k de dj nh xbZA
esa vuqokn djus esa ;ksxnku fn;kA
4. eqlyekuksa dh laifÙk;k¡ ”kCr dj yh xb±A 3. ,f'k;kfVd fjlpZ if=kdk çkP;okfn;ksa dh ,d igy FkhA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(a) dsoy ,d (a) dsoy ,d
(b) dsoy nks (b) dsoy nks
(c) dsoy rhu (c) lHkh rhu
(d) lHkh pkj (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
6 6
18. Consider the following statements : 21. Consider the following cities :
Statement-I : 1. Calcutta
The first English factory in the eastern India was set 2. Bombay
up on the banks of the river Hugli in 1651.
3. Surat
Statement-II :
The British began building a fort around the How many of the above cities rose to importance as
settlement which later became the city Calcutta. presidency cities in late eighteenth century ?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (a) Only one (b) Only two
the above statements? (c) All three (d) None
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
22. With reference to the cultural history of India, which
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
one of the following is the correct description of the
Statement-I
term ‘Khanqah’?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(a) The tomb of a Sufi saint
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I (b) A Sufi lodge, used as rest house for travellers
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (c) An open prayer place of Muslims
incorrect (d) The shrine of Muslim ulemas
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is 23. In context of textile industry during the eighteenth
correct century, consider the following statements :
19. With reference to Indian history, the “Blue 1. The Calico Act banned the use of printed cotton
Rebellion” describes which of the following event? textiles in India.
(a) The Indigo revolt of 1859-60 2. Competition with Indian textiles led to search
(b) The Mappila rebellion of 1921 for technological innovation in England.
(c) Birsa Munda’s revolt of 1899-1900 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) The Sepoy Mutiny of 1857
20. With reference to consequences of the revolt of 1857, (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
consider the following statements :
24. Consider the following statements :
1. The power was transferred from East India
1. Apart from territorial conquest, British believed
Company to the British Crown.
in their theory of cultural mission.
2. Ruling chiefs were assured of protection of
their territory. 2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke contributed to the
3. Number of Indian soldiers in the army was translation of Persian works into English.
reduced. 3. The journal Asiatick Researches was an
4. Properties of Muslims were confiscated. initiative of Orientalists.
How many of the statements given above are correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three
(d) All four (d) None
7 7
25. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 28. Lons'kh vkanksyu ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
dFku&I% dhft;s%
oqM~l fMLiSp us rdZ fn;k fd ;wjksih; f'k{kk ls Hkkjrh;ksa 1. blds ihNs rkRdkfyd dkj.k caxky dk foHkktu FkkA
ds uSfrd pfj=k esa lqèkkj gksxkA 2. bldk çHkko {ks=k caxky çkar rd gh lhfer FkkA
dFku&II% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
;wjksih; f'k{kk Hkkjrh;ksa dks f'k{kk ds vkfFkZd egÙo dks (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
igpkuus esa l{ke cuk,xhA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds lacaèk esa fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk
29. o`¼koLFkk tula[;k ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij
lgh gS\
fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
igy mís';
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
1. çèkkuea=kh o; oanu % ofj"B ukxfjdksa dks isa'ku
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
;kstuk (PMVVY) dk xkjaVhÑr Hkqxrku
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA 2. SAMPANN iksVZy % jks”kxkj ds voljksa ds
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA fy;s vkWuykbu jks”kxkj
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA fofue; eap
26. vfèkxe dh Lons'kh ç.kkyh] îkB'kkyk* ds lanHkZ esa 3. SACRED iksVZy % fuckZèk vkWuykbu isa'ku
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% çlaLdj.k vkSj Hkqxrku
1. dksbZ fuf'pr 'kqYd ugha Fkk] dksbZ eqfær iqLrdsa ugha ç.kkyh
Fkha] dksbZ vyx Hkou ugha Fkk vkSj dksbZ okf"kZd mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
ijh{kk,¡ ugha gksrh FkhaA (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
2. bu laLFkkuksa dh LFkkiuk bZlkbZ fe'kufj;ksa }kjk bZlkbZ (c) dsoy rhu ;qXe (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
èkeZ dks yksdfç; cukus ds ç;kl ds :i esa dh xbZ FkhA 30. Hkkjr esa foeqDr] ?kqearw vkSj v¼Z&?kqearw tutkfr;ksa ds lanHkZ
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy 1 1. dkdk dkysydj vk;ksx dh fjiksVZ ds vkèkkj ij
(b) dsoy 2 vkijkfèkd tutkfr vfèkfu;e dks fujLr dj fn;k x;kA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa 2. o"kZ 1871 ds vkijkfèkd tutkfr vfèkfu;e ds rgr
fczfV'k 'kklu ds nkSjku mUgsa ^tUetkr vijkèkh* ds
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
:i esa ^vfèklwfpr* fd;k x;k FkkA
27. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
3. vuqlwfpr tkfr] vuqlwfpr tutkfr vkSj vU; fiNM+k
lekt lqèkkjd çHkko {ks=k oxZ ls lacafèkr ckfydkvksa ds fy;s MkW- vacsMdj
1. jktk jkeeksgu jkW; % caxky çh&eSfVªd vkSj iksLV&eSfVªd Nk=ko`fÙk çnku dh tkrh gSA
2. ohjs'kfyaxe iarqyq % vkaèkz mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
3. Jh ukjk;.k xq# % rfeyukMq (a) dsoy ,d
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (b) dsoy nks
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) lHkh rhu
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
8 8
25. Consider the following statements : 28. With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider
Statement-I : the following statements :
Wood’s Despatch argued that European learning 1. Partition of Bengal was the immediate cause
would improve the moral character of Indians. behind it.
Statement-II : 2. Its sphere of influence was limited to Bengal
European learning would enable Indians to recognize province.
the economic importance of education.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 29. With reference to old age population, consider the
Statement-I following pairs :
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Initiative Objective
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation 1. Pradhan Mantri : guaranteed payout
for Statement-I Vaya Vandana of pension to senior
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Yojana (PMVVY) citizens
incorrect 2. SAMPANN Portal : online employment
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is exchange platform
for job opportunities
correct
3. SACRED Portal : seamless online
26. With reference to the indigenous system of learning, pension processing
‘pathshala’, consider the following statements : and payment system
1. There was no fixed fee, no printed books, no
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
separate buildings and no annual examinations.
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
2. These institutions were set up by Christian
(c) All three pairs (d) None
missionaries in an attempt to popularize
Christianity. 30. With reference to Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-
Nomadic Tribes in India, consider the following :
1. The Criminal Tribes Act was repealed based
(a) 1 only
on the report of Kaka Kalelkar Commission.
(b) 2 only
2. They were ‘notified’ as being ‘born criminals’
(c) Both 1 and 2
during the British regime under the Criminal
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Tribes Act of 1871.
27. Consider the following pairs : 3. Dr. Ambedkar Pre-Matric and Post-Matric
Social reformer Region of influence Scholarship is provided for SC, ST and OBC
1. Raja Rammohun Roy : Bengal girl child.
2. Veerasalingam Pantulu : Andhra How many of the statements given above are correct?
3. Shri Narayan Guru : Tamil Nadu (a) Only one
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) All three
(c) All three (d) None (d) None
9 9
31. la;qDr jk"Vª esa cky e`R;q nj ds vuqeku ds fy;s xfBr 35. ôk;jksoksj* (Virovore) fuEufyf•r esa ls fdldks lokZsÙke
varj&,tsalh lewg (UN IGME), tks cky vfLrRo y{;ksa :i ls lanfHkZr djrk gS\
dh fn'kk esa çxfr dk fooj.k çLrqr djrk gS% (a) igyk Kkr tho tks fo"kk.kqHk{kh gSA
(a) vÚhdh ns'kksa ds fy;s UNICEF }kjk çpkfjr vkSj (b) fo"kk.kqvksa dk lewg tks thok.kqvksa dks laØfer djrk gSA
foÙkiksf"kr ,tsalh gSA (c) fuikg ok;jl dk u;k laLdj.k
(b) cky e`R;q nj dks de djus ds fy;s lkoZtfud&futh (d) dksfoM oSDlhu esa ekStwn çfrtu
lg;ksx gSA 36. oU;tho laj{k.k ckW.M ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj
(c) UNICEF ds usr`Ro okyk lewg gS ftlesa WHO dhft;s%
vkSj fo'o cSad tSls dbZ laxBu 'kkfey gSaA 1. ;g ,d ifj.kke&vkèkkfjr foÙkh; lkèku gSA
(d) cPpksa ds LokLF; dks csgrj cukus ds fy;s WHO 2. bldk mi;ksx ou laj{k.k ds fy;s fd;k tkrk gSA
}kjk fodflr fd;k x;k MsVkcsl gSA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
32. SMART çksxkz e ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% (a) dsoy 1
1. dk;ZØe dk mís'; vk;qonsZ egkfo|ky;ksa vkSj vLirkyksa (b) dsoy 2
ds ekè;e ls oSKkfud vuqlèa kku dks c<+kok nsuk gSA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
2. LokLF; ,oa ifjokj dY;k.k ea=kky; dk;kZUo;u laLFkk gSA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 37. iVOFm rduhd ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 1. bls Hkkjrh; foKku f'k{kk ,oa vuqlaèkku laLFkku
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (IISER)] iq.ks }kjk fodflr fd;k x;k gSA
33. Hkkjr çokg ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% 2. ;g ok;q çnw"k.k dks lacksfèkr djus ds fy;s vfHkdfYir gSA
1. ;g jks”kejkZ dh f”kanxh esa ufn;ksa] canjxkgksa vkSj mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
tgk”kjkuh ds egÙo vkSj dYiuk ij çdk'k MkysxkA (a) dsoy 1
2. bldk y{; laHkkfor eRL; {ks=k ds fuekZ.k ds mís'; (b) dsoy 2
ls ,d lk>k eap rS;kj djuk gSA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
3. ;g i;ZVu ea=kky; dh ,d çeq• igy gSA (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 38. dsaæh; vkS"kfèk ekud fu;a=k.k laxBu (CDSCO) ds lanHkZ
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 3 esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (d) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 1. ;g ns'k esa fufeZr] vk;kfrr vkSj forfjr fpfdRlk
mRiknksa dh lqj{kk] çHkkodkfjrk vkSj xq.koÙkk lqfuf'pr
34. fuEufyf•r fooj.kksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
djrk gSA
1. lrg ls lrg ij ekj djus okyh felkby 2. ;g LokLF; ,oa ifjokj dY;k.k ea=kky; ds varxZr
2. de nwjh dh cSfyfLVd felkby ,d lkafofèkd fudk; gSA
3. flaxy&LVst felkby mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
4. lkWfyM Ý;wYM felkby (a) dsoy 1
i`Foh&II felkby ds lanHkZ esa mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus lgh gSa\ (b) dsoy 2
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, 10
Harsh 10
31. United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child 35. ‘Virovore’ best refers to which one of the following?
Mortality Estimation (UN IGME) which reports (a) First known organism that eats virus.
progress towards child survival goals is : (b) Group of viruses that infect bacteria.
(a) Agency promoted and financed by UNICEF (c) Novel variant of Nipah virus
for the African nations. (d) Antigen present in Covid vaccine
(b) Public-Private Cooperation to curtail the child
36. With reference to Wildlife Conservation Bond,
mortality.
consider the following :
(c) UNICEF led group that includes multiple
1. It is an outcome-based, financial instrument.
organization like WHO and World Bank.
(d) Database developed by WHO for enhancing 2. It is used for the conservation of forests.
children’s well being. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
32. With reference to SMART Program, consider the (a) 1 only
following : (b) 2 only
1. The program aims to boost scientific research (c) Both 1 and 2
through Ayurveda colleges and hospitals. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare is 37. With reference to iVOFm Technique, consider the
the implementing authority. following :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. It is developed by Indian Institute of Science
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Education and Research (IISER), Pune.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It is designed to tackle air pollution.
33. With reference to Bharat Pravah, consider the following : Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. It will highlight the significance and imagery (a) 1 only
of rivers, ports, and shipping in everyday life. (b) 2 only
2. It aims to create a common platform for the (c) Both 1 and 2
purpose of creating potential fishing zones. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is a flagship initiative of Ministry of Tourism.
38. Consider the following statements with reference to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (CDSCO) :
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only 1. It ensures the safety, efficacy and quality of
34. Consider the following particulars : medical products manufactured, imported and
1. Surface to Surface Missile distributed in the country.
2. Short-Range Ballistic Missile 2. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of
3. Single staged Missile health and family welfare.
4. Solid fuelled Missile Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many of the above are correct with reference (a) 1 only
to Prithvi-II missile? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three (d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 11
39. gky gh esa lekpkjksa esa jgk in ^xzhu'kw vkWI'ku* lanfHkZr 42. lkfo=kh ckbZ iQqys ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
djrk gS dhft;s%
(a) vkjafHkd lkoZtfud fuxZe (Initial Public Offer– 1. mUgksaus iq.ks esa ckfydkvksa ds fy;s çFke Lons'kh :i
IPO) ds nkSjku gkehnkjksa dks lger la[;k ls vfèkd ls lapkfyr fo|ky; LFkkfir fd;kA
'ks;j foØ; dh vuqefr çnku djukA 2. mUgksaus eqacbZ rFkk iq.ks esa ukbZ;ksa dh gM+rky dk
(b) cgqjk"Vªh; daifu;ksa dks ?kjsyw Lrj ij dkWikZjs Vs lkekftd liQyrkiwoZd vk;kstu fd;k ftldk mís'; foèkokvksa
mÙkjnkf;Ro esa ;ksxnku djus dh vuqefr nsukA ds flj eqaMokus dh çpfyr çFkk dk fojksèk djuk FkkA
(c) dkWjiksjsV ?kjkuksa dks vius dsaæh; dj dk 10% gfjr 3. mUgksaus efgykvksa ds vfèkdkjksa ds ckjs esa tkx:drk
ifj;kstukvksa esa ;ksxnku gsrq iznku fd;k x;k fodYiA c<+kus ds fy;s efgyk lsok eaMy dh 'kq#vkr dh FkhA
(d) fons'kh fuos'kdksa ds fy;s Hkkjr esa xzhu ckW.M esa fuos'k mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
gsrq miyCèk fodYiA (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
40. b±èku ds :i esa gkbMªkstu xSl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r
dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 43. flaèkq ?kkVh lH;rk ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. gkbMªkts u ÅtkZ dk HkaMkj gS u fd ,d egÙoiw.kZ lzkrs A 1. èkkSykohjk ls tyk'k;ksa ds lk{; feys gSaA
2. gkbMªkstu dk mi;ksx vkerkSj ij isVªksfy;e 'kksèku 2. loZçFke •kstk x;k LFky eksgutksnM+ks FkkA
vkSj moZjd mRiknu esa fd;k tkrk gSA 3. ¶iqjksfgr&jktk¸ dh ewfrZ eksgutksnM+ks ls çkIr gqbZA
3. gfjr gkbMªkstu dk mRiknu çkÑfrd xSl ls fd;k mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
tkrk gS] tgk¡ dkcZu vfHkxzg.k vkSj HkaMkj.k dk (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
mi;ksx djds mRltZu dks vfHkxzfgr fd;k tkrk gSA (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 44. egktuin dky ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 1. bl dky esa ykSg dk mi;ksx c<+ x;k FkkA
(c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 2. bl dky esa nkSjku ckS¼ èkeZ vkSj tSu èkeZ dk fodkl
gqvkA
3. blesa ls dqN jkT; x.k&la?k FksA
dFku&I%
;wjksi esa dksbZ nqyZHk e`nk rÙo HkaMkj ugha ik;k x;kA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&ls lgh gSa\
dFku&II% (a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
;wjksih; la?k (EU) }kjk mi;ksx fd;s tkus okys nqyZHk i`Foh (c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3
•fut dk yxHkx 98% phu ls vk;kr fd;k tkrk gSA 45. twukx<+ f'kykys• ds lacaèk esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d fopkj dhft;s%
lgh gS\ 1. blesa 'kd 'kkld #æneu dh miyfCèk;k¡ dk mYys•
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] feyrk gSA
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gS 2. blesa çkÑfrd tyk'k; lqn'kZu >hy dk mYys• Hkh
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] fd;k x;k gSA
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gS (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gS (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 12
39. The term ‘greenshoe option’ recently in news refers to 42. Consider the following statements with reference to
(a) allowing the underwriters to sell more shares Savitri Bai Phule :
than the agreed number during the initial public 1. She established the first indigenously run school
offering. for girls in Pune.
(b) permission to multinational companies to 2. She successfully organized a barber’s strike in
contribute to domestic corporate social Mumbai and Pune to oppose the prevailing
responsibility. custom of shaving heads of widows.
(c) option given to the corporate houses to 3. She started the Mahila Seva Mandal to raise
contribute 10% of their central tax to green awareness about women’s rights.
projects. How many of the statements given above are correct?
(d) option available for foreign investors to invest (a) Only one (b) Only two
in green bonds in India.
43. With reference to Indus Valley Civilisation, consider
Hydrogen gas as fuel :
the following :
1. Hydrogen is store of energy, not a source of
1. Water reservoirs are found in Dholavira.
energy.
2. The first site to be discovered was Mohenjodaro.
2. Hydrogen is most commonly used in petroleum
3. The ‘priest-king’ is excavated from Mohenjodaro.
refining and fertilizer production.
3. Green hydrogen is produced from natural gas, How many of the statements given above are correct?
where the emissions are captured using carbon (a) Only one (b) Only two
capture and storage. (c) All three (d) None
How many of the above statements are correct? 44. With reference to Mahajanapadas period, consider
(a) Only one (b) Only two the following :
(c) All three (d) None 1. It is an era associated with growing use of iron.
41. Consider the following statements : 2. It witnessed the growth of Buddhism and
Statement-I : Jainism.
No rare earth mineral reserves are found in Europe. 3. Some of the kingdoms were Gana-Sanghas.
Statement-II : Which of the statements given above are correct?
Around 98% of rare earth minerals used by the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
European Union (EU) are imported from China. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? 45. According to Junagadh rock inscription, consider
the following :
(a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 1. It records the achievements of Shaka ruler
Statement-I Rudradaman.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 2. It mentions about the natural reservoir
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Sudarshana Lake.
for statement-I Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement -II is correct (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 13
46. laxe ;qx ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 50. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. osYykyj % dk'rdkj 1. lalkj fuf'pr gSA
2. mYoj % gy pykus okys 2. lalkj fu"çk.k gSA
3. vf.kebZ % nkl 3. nq%• ekuo vfLrRo dk LokHkkfod vax gSA
mi;ZqDr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu&lk lgh lqesfyr gS\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ckS¼ èkeZ ds nk'kZfud fl¼kar gS\
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3 (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
(c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
47. Hkkjr ds lkekftd bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij 51. Hkkjr&vkseku lacaèk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij
fopkj dhft;s% fopkj dhft;s%
1. o.kks± dh la[;k pkj fuèkkZfjr dh xbZA 1. Hkkjr us lSU; mi;ksx vkSj jln lgk;rk ds fy;s vkseku
2. tkfr;ksa dh la[;k fuf'pr FkhA ds çeq• canjxkg nqDe rd igqp ¡ izkIr dj yh gSA
3. czkã.koknh laLFkkvksa dks yksxksa dks tkfr;ksa esa oxhZÑr 2. bZLVuZ fcz”k nksuksa ns'kksa ds eè; ok;q lsuk vH;kl gSA
djus dk vfèkdkj FkkA 3. vkseku] gkse”qZ k tyMe:eè; ds fy;s Hkkjr dk ços'k
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ }kj gSA
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(c) dsoy 2 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3 (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
48. lkrokgu 'kkldksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
dhft;s% 52. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. bu 'kkldksa dh iRuh ds uke muds firk ds xks=k ls
1. pkSFkh vkS|ksfxd Økafr fMftVy] HkkSfrd vkSj tSfod
mn~Hkwr FksA
nqfu;k ds chp dh lhekvksa dks de djus ds fy;s
2. ;s 'kkld cgqiRuh çFkk dk ikyu djrs Fks vFkkZr~
çkS|ksfxdh ds mi;ksx dh fo'ks"krk dks lanfHkZr djrh gSA
mudh ,d ls vfèkd ifRu;k¡ FkhaA
2. fo'o vkfFkZd eap us pkSFkh vkS|ksfxd Økafr dk dsaæ
3. mudh igpku muds firk ds uke ls dh xbZA
LFkkfir djus ds fy;s caxyw: dks pquk gSA
4. fla g klu ij mudk mÙkjkfèkdkj vkerkS j ij
fir`lÙkkRed FkkA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj 53. varjkZ"Vªh; eqæk dks"k (IMF) ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
ij fopkj dhft;s%
49. fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu ^rfeyde* dh O;k[;k djrk gS\
1. bldk çkFkfed mís'; varjkZ"Vªh; eqæk ç.kkyh dh
(a) Hkkjrh; miegk}hi dk lcls mÙkjh {ks=k] tks viuh
fLFkjrk lqfuf'pr djuk gSA
oSfnd ijaijkvksa ds fy;s tkuk tkrk gSA
2. ;g fo'o O;kikj laxBu (WTO) ds lkFk czsVu
(b) Hkkjr ds nf{k.kh {ks=k] ftuesa çeq•r% pksy] psj vkSj
oqM~l fV~oUl dk xBu djrk gSA
ikaMÔ jkT; 'kkfey gSaA
3. ;g oYMZ bdksukWfed vkmVyqd fjiksVZ çdkf'kr djrk gSA
(c) Hkkjr dk eè; {ks=k] tks xaxk vkSj ;equk tSlh çeq•
ufn;ksa ds laxe ls fpfÉr gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(d) O;kikj vkSj leqæh xfrfofèk;ksa ds fy;s if'peh rVh; {ks=kksa (a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks
dk o.kZu djus ds fy;s ç;qDr fd;s tkus okyk 'kCnA (c) lHkh rhu (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 14
46. With reference to the Sangam age, consider the 50. Consider the following :
following pairs : 1. The world is definite.
1. Vellalar : Tenants 2. The world is soulless.
2. Uzhavar : Ploughmen 3. Sorrow is intrinsic to human existence.
3. Adimai : Slaves How many of the above is the philosophy of Buddhism?
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) All three (d) None
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 51. With reference to India-Oman relation consider the
47. With reference to the ancient history of India, following statements :
consider the following : 1. India has secured access to the key Port of
1. The number of varnas was fixed at four. Duqm in Oman for military use and logistical
2. There was restriction on the number of jatis. support.
3. The Brahmanical authorities had the right to 2. Eastern Bridge is the air force exercise between
classify people into jatis. the two countries.
3. Oman is India’s gateway to Strait of Hormuz
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Only one (b) Only two
48. With reference to Satavahana rulers, consider the
following statements : 52. Consider the following statements :
1. The wife of these rulers derived their names 1. The Fourth Industrial Revolution is
from their father’s gotras. characterized by the use of technology to blur
2. They were polygynous, that is, had more than the boundaries of digital, physical, and
one wife. biological worlds.
3. They were identified through their father’s names. 2. The World Economic Forum has chosen
4. Their succession to the throne was generally Bangalore for establishing its centre for the
patrilineal. fourth industrial revolution.
How many of the above statements is/ are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Only three (d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which one of the following explains ‘Tamilakam’? 53. With reference to International Monetary Fund
(IMF) consider the following statements :
(a) The northernmost region of the Indian
1. Its primary purpose is to ensure the stability of
subcontinent, known for its Vedic traditions.
the international monetary system .
(b) The southern regions of India, including the
2. It along with the World Trade Organization
Chola, Chera, and Pandya chiefdoms.
(WTO) constitute the Bretton Woods Twins.
(c) The central region of India, marked by the
3. It publishes the World Economic Outlook.
confluence of major rivers like the Ganges and
Yamuna. How many of the above statements are correct?
(d) A term used to describe the western coastal (a) Only one (b) Only two
areas, famous for trade and maritime activities. (c) All three (d) None
Harsh 15
54. dHkh&dHkh ppkZ esa jgus okyk fo'o LokLF; laxBu 57. gky gh esa Hkkjr us fuEufyf•r esa ls fdl ns'k ds lkFk
(WHO) dk ‘REPLACE’ vfHk;ku fuEufyf•r esa ls AK 203 jkbiQyksa ds la;qDr mRiknu ds fy;s ,d le>kSrs
fdldks lanfHkZr djrk gS\ ij gLrk{kj fd;s gSa\
(a) u, çdkj ds ok;jl ls iQSyus okys lapkjh jksxksa dks (a) tkiku
fu;af=kr djuk (b) :l
(b) oSf'od •k| vkiwfrZ ls vkS|ksfxd :i ls mRikfnr (c) Úk¡l
Ñf=ke Vªkal&olk dks lekIr djuk (d) la;qDr jkT; vesfjdk
(c) •k| inkFkks± esa ,d ?kVd ds :i esa vkaf'kd :i 58. çfl¼ rhFkZLFky ikyhrkuk ,oa 'k=kqat; igkM+h lacafèkr gS
ls gkbMªkstuhÑr rsyksa dks çfrLFkkfir djuk (a) ckS¼ èkeZ ls
(d) fofHkUu dk;kZRed Årdksa esa cnyus ds fy;s ^LVse
(b) tSu èkeZ ls
dksf'kdkvksa* dks izsfjr djuk
(c) oS".kookn ls
55. gky gh esa •ksts x, cfgZxzg LHS 475b ds lanHkZ esa (d) 'kSookn ls
fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
59. v"Vkè;k;h ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj
1. ;g ,d pV~Vkuh] ikfFkZo xzg gS ftldk O;kl i`Foh
dhft;s%
ds leku gSA
1. ;g fo}ku ikf.kfu }kjk jfpr ,d çkphu xzaFk gSA
2. ;g i`Foh ls lSdM+ksa fMxzh vfèkd BaMk gSA
2. ;g xzaFk laLÑr Hkk"kk dh èoU;kRedrk] okD;&foU;kl
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ vkSj O;kdj.k dh fo'kn tkudkjh nsrk gSA
(a) dsoy 1 3. bldk mi;ksx daI;wVj fl•k, tk ldus okys laLÑr
(b) dsoy 2 Hkk"kk ds ,Yxksfjne ds :i esa fd;k tk ldrk gSaA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (a) dsoy ,d
56. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (b) dsoy nks
dFku&I% (c) lHkh rhu
cSfyfLVd felkbysa i`Foh ds ok;qeaMy ls ckgj fudydj (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
iqu% mlesa ços'k djrh gSaA
60. f'k{kk dh okf"kZd fLFkfr fjiksVZ (ASER) 2022 ds lanHkZ
dFku&II%
esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
cSfyfLVd felkbysa xfr ds lhèks ç{ksi iFk dk vuqlj.k
1. bls NGO ^çFke* }kjk tkjh fd;k x;k gSA
djrh gSaA
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d 2. ;g ,d okf"kZd] ukxfjd&usrR` o okyk ?kjsyw loZ{s k.k gSA
lgh gS\ 3. ;g fo'ofo|ky; Lrj ij Nk=kksa ds ukekadu dh
(a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] fLFkfr dk vkdyu djrk gSA
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II] (a) dsoy ,d
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA (b) dsoy nks
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA (c) lHkh rhu
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 16
54. World Health Organization (WHO)’s “REPLACE” 57. Recently India signed a deal for the joint production
campaign sometimes talked about with reference to of AK 203 rifles with which one of the following
which one of the following? countries?
(a) Controlling the communicable diseases spread (a) Japan
by novel strains of viruses (b) Russia
(b) To eliminate industrially produced artificial (c) France
trans-fats from global food supply
(d) USA
(c) To replace partially hydrogenated oils as an
ingredient in foods 58. The well-known pilgrimage of Palitana and
(d) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into Shatrunjaya Hill belongs to
diverse functional tissues (a) Buddhism
55. With reference to the recently discovered exoplanet (b) Jainism
LHS 475b consider the following statements : (c) Vaishnavism
1. It is a terrestrial, rocky planet similar in size to (d) Shaivism
Earth. 59. With reference to Ashtadhyayi, consider the
2. It is hundreds of degrees cooler than Earth. following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 1. It is an ancient text written by the scholar
(a) 1 only Panini.
(b) 2 only 2. It delves deep into the Sanskrit language’s
(c) Both 1 and 2 phonetics, syntax and grammar.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. It can be used as a language algorithm that can
56. Consider the following statements : be taught to computers.
Statement-I : How many of the above statements are correct?
Ballistic missiles leave the earth’s atmosphere and (a) Only one
re-enter it. (b) Only two
Statement-II :
(c) All three
Ballistic missiles follow a straight trajectory of
(d) None
motion.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 60. With reference to Annual Status of Education Report
the above statements? (ASER) 2022, consider the following :
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct 1. It is released by NGO Pratham.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for 2. It is an annual, citizen led household survey.
Statement-I 3. It assesses the enrolment status of students at
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct university level.
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
(a) Only one
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect (b) Only two
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (c) All three
correct (d) None
Harsh 17
61. fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa ds ckjs esa] fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ,d
1. bZ&LiksV~lZ (bysDVªkWfud LiksV~lZ) çfrLi¼hZ •sy gS lgh gS\
tgk¡ xselZ fofHkUu •syksa esa çfrLi¼kZ djus ds fy;s (a) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
viuh 'kkjhfjd vkSj ekufld {kerkvksa dk mi;ksx dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k gSA
djrs gSaA
(b) dFku&I vkSj dFku&II nksuksa lgh gSa rFkk dFku&II]
2. ;qok dk;ZØe vkSj •sy ea=kky; ^bZ&LiksV~lZ* ds fy;s
dFku&I dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gSA
uksMy ea=kky; gS tcfd bysDVªkWfuDl ,oa lwpuk
(c) dFku&I lgh gS fdarq dFku&II xyr gSA
çkS|ksfxdh ea=kky; ^vkWuykbu xsfeax* dk çcaèku djrk gSA
(d) dFku&I xyr gS fdarq dFku&II lgh gSA
3. bZ&LiksV~lZ Hkkjr esa cgq•sy vk;kstu Js.kh dk Hkkx gSA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 64. fczfV'k Hkkjr esa Hkw&jktLo cankscLr ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r
(a) dsoy ,d dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(b) dsoy nks 1. caxky esa LFkk;h cankscLr vkSj ckWEcs nDdu esa jS;rokM+h
(c) lHkh rhu cankscLr dh 'kq#vkr dh xbZA
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 2. LFkk;h cankscLr jktkvksa vkSj rkyqdnkjksa ds lkFk vkSj
62. lgk;rk izkIr tuuh; çkS|ksfxdh (fofu;eu) vfèkfu;e] jS;rokM+h cankscLr okLrfod Ñ"kdksa ds lkFk fd;k
2021 ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% x;k FkkA
1. bl vfèkfu;e ds rgr us'kuy vflLVsM fjçksMfDVo 3. jS;rokM+h cankscLr esa Hkw&jktLo fuf'pr gksrk Fkk ,oa
VsDuksykWth (ART) ,aM ljksxslh cksMZ vfèkfu;e ds LFkk;h cankscLr esa o`f¼ çfr 30 o"kZ esa dh tkrh FkhA
rgr ,d lkafofèkd fudk; gSA mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
2. ,d cSad 21 ls 55 o"kZ dh vk;q ds iq#"kksa ls 'kqØk.kq
(a) dsoy ,d
vkSj 23 ls 35 o"kZ dh vk;q dh efgykvksa ls vaMk.kq
(b) dsoy nks
çkIr dj ldrk gSA
(c) lHkh rhu
3. ART çfØ;kvksa ls lacafèkr mipkj dsoy 'kkfey
;qxy ;k ,dy i{kdkjksa (deh'kfuax ikVhZ) vkSj nkrk (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
dh fyf•r LohÑfr ds ckn gh fd;k tk ldrk gSA 65. fczfV'k Hkkjr esa laFkkyksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa
4. vfèkfu;e ijySafxd&O;fDr;ksa vkSj leySafxd tksM+ksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
dks ART lsokvksa dk ykHk ysus ls oafpr djrk gSA 1. 1857 ds foæksg ds ckn laFkky foæksg gqvkA
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ 2. laFkky foæksg ds usrk flèkw eka>h FksA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 3. laFkky foæksg igkfM+;k yksxksa ds chp gqvk tks
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj LFkkukarfjr Ñ"kd Fks vkSj laFkky tks LFkk;h Ñ"kd FksA
63. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
dFku&I%
(a) dsoy ,d
çoklh Hkkjrh; fnol (PBD) 9 tuojh dks euk;k tkrk gSA
dFku&II% (b) dsoy nks
blh fnu o"kZ 1915 esa egkRek xkaèkh nf{k.k vÚhdk ls (c) lHkh rhu
Hkkjr ykSVs FksA (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 18
61. Consider the following : Which one of the following is correct in respect of
1. E-sports (Electronic Sports) is a competitive the above statements?
sport where gamers use their physical and (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
mental abilities to compete in various games. and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
2. Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports is the Statement-I
nodal ministry for ‘E-sports’ while Ministry of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Electronics and Information Technology and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
oversees ‘Online Gaming’. for Statement-I
3. E-Sports is a part of the multisport event (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
category in India. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
How many of the above statements are correct? 64. Consider the following statements with reference to
land revenue settlements in British India :
(a) Only one
1. The Permanent Settlement was introduced in
(b) Only two
Bengal and Ryotwari settlement in Bombay
(c) All three Deccan.
(d) None 2. The Permanent Settlement was made with the
62. With reference to Assisted Reproductive Technology rajas and taluqdars and Ryotwari Settlement
(Regulation) Act, 2021, consider the following with actual cultivators.
statements : 3. The land revenue was fixed in Ryotwari
1. National Assisted Reproductive Technology Settlement and increased every 30 years in
(ART) and Surrogacy Board is a statutory body Permanent settlement.
under the act. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. A bank may obtain semen from males between (a) Only one
21 and 55 years of age, and eggs from females (b) Only two
between 23 and 35 years of age. (c) All three
3. ART procedures must be conducted only with (d) None
the written consent of the commissioning
parties and the donor. Santhals in British India :
4. The Act excludes trans-persons and homosexual 1. The Santhal Rebellion happened after the revolt
couples from availing ART services. of 1857.
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. Sidhu Manjhi was the leader of the Santhal
(a) Only one (b) Only two Rebellion.
(c) Only three (d) All four 3. Santhal Rebellion occurred between the
Paharias who were shifting cultivators and
Santhals who were settled agriculturalists.
Statement-I :
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated on 9th How many of the above statements are correct?
January. (a) Only one
Statement-II : (b) Only two
It was in 1915 that Mahatma Gandhi, returned to (c) All three
India from South Africa on the same day. (d) None
Harsh 19
66. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% 69. 1857 ds foæksg ij vkèkkfjr çfl¼ rLohj ^fjyhiQ vkWiQ
1. vesfjdk esa x`g ;q¼ dh lekfIr y•uÅ* ftlesa fp=kdkj us gsujh gSoykWd] dkWfyu dSaicsy
2. jS;rksa dh ½.kxzLrrk esa o`f¼ vkSj tsEl vkmVªe tSls fczfV'k uk;dksa dk xq.kxku fd;k
3. Hkw&jktLo esa o`f¼ gS] ftUgksaus vaxzs”kksa dks cpk;k vkSj foæksfg;ksa dk neu
fd;k] bls fpf=kr fd;k x;k Fkk
4. lkgwdkjksa ds ½.ki=k vkSj nLrkos”k
(a) VkWel tksUl ckdZj }kjk
mi;ZDq r esa ls fdrus o"kZ 1875 ds nDdu naxksa ds dkj.k Fks\
(b) tkslsiQ uks,y iSVu }kjk
(c) iQsfyl chVks }kjk
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj
(d) Úk¡fll xzkaV }kjk
67. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
70. ykWVjh lfefr (o"kZ 1817) lacafèkr gS
O;fDrRo usr`Ro dk LFkku (a) iQksVZ lsaV tkWtZ 'kgj esa uxjikfydk lqèkkjA
1. ukuk lkgc % dkuiqj (b) voèk esa dq'kklu dh tk¡p
2. dq¡oj flag % vkjk (c) ckWEcs esa Iysx jksx dk çlkjA
3. fcjftl dæ % y•uÅ (d) iQksVZ fofy;e 'kgj dk uxj lqèkkjA
4. ekSyoh vgenqYykg 'kkg % esjB
71. Hkkjrh; bfrgkl ds lanHkZ esa] ,iQ-MCY;w- LVhoal] ,p- lsaV
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus O;fDrRo 1857 ds foæksg esa muds Dys;j fofYdal] duZy FkkWel dkmij vkSj tsEl LdkWV
usr`Ro ds LFkku ls lgh lqesfyr gSa\ fdlls tqM+s Fks\
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks (a) LFkkiR; vfHkdYiuk
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj (b) iqjkrRo mR•uu
68. lgk;d lafèk ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj (c) ppZ ds iknjh
dhft;s% (d) jsyos ds fuekZ.k
1. jkT; esa ,d fczfV'k lSU; VqdM+h fu;qDr djus dk 72. uoacj 1931 ds nwljs xksyest lEesyu ds lanHkZ esa
çkoèkku FkkA fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
2. vU; 'kkldksa ds lkFk le>kSrs djus ;k ;q¼ esa 'kkfey 1. ;g ^xkaèkh&bjfou le>kSrs* dk ifj.kke FkkA
gksus dh vuqefr nh xbZA 2. egkRek xkaèkh us ^vNwrksa* ds jktuhfrd mRFkku ds
3. lg;ksfx;ksa dh ckgjh vkSj vkarfjd pqukSfr;ksa ls j{kk fy;s vyx fuokZpu {ks=k dh ekax dk leFkZu fd;kA
dh f”kEesnkjh ugha FkhA 3. lEesyu esa lafoèkku lHkk ds rRdky xBu dk fu.kZ;
4. ,d fczfV'k jsthMsaV dks U;k;ky; ls lac¼ fd;k x;kA fy;k x;kA
fczfV'kksa ds lkFk lgk;d lafèk ij gLrk{kj djus okys 4. tc lEesyu yanu esa vk;ksftr fd;k x;k Fkk rc
Hkkjrh; 'kkldksa ij mijksDr esa ls fdrus fu;e ,oa 'krs± ykWMZ fofyaXMu Hkkjr ds ok;ljk; FksA
ykxw dh xbZ Fkha\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(c) dsoy rhu (c) dsoy rhu
(d) lHkh pkj (d) lHkh pkj
Harsh 20
66. Consider the following with reference to Indian 69. The famous painting ‘Relief of Lucknow’ based on
History : the revolt of 1857 in which the painter commemorated
1. End of civil war in America British heroes like Henry Havelock, Colin Campbell,
2. Increase indebtedness of ryots and James Outram who saved the English and
3. Increase in land revenue repressed the rebels, is painted by
4. Bonds and deeds of moneylenders (a) Thomas Jones Barker
How many of the above were the reasons for the (b) Joseph Noel Paton
Deccan Riots of 1875? (c) Felice Beato
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) Francis Grant
(c) Only three (d) All four 70. Lottery Committee (1817) is related to
67. Consider the following pairs : (a) municipal reform in Fort St. George City.
Personality Place of leadership (b) enquiring the misgovernance in Awadh
1. Nana Sahib : Kanpur (c) spread of plague disease in Bombay.
2. Kunwar Singh : Arrah (d) town improvement of Fort William City.
3. Birjis Qadr : Lucknow
71. With reference to the Indian History, F.W. Stevens,
4. Maulvi Ahmadullah : Meerut
H. St. Clair Wilkins, Colonel Thomas Cowper and
Shah
James Scott were associated with
How many of the personalities are correctly matched (a) Architectural designing
with the place of their leadership in the revolt of
(b) Archaeological excavations
1857?
(c) Church’s priests
(d) Construction of railways
(c) Only three (d) All four
the Second Round Table Conference of November
Subsidiary Alliance :
1931 :
1. A British armed contingent would be stationed
in the territory. 1. It was the outcome of ‘Gandhi-Irwin Pact’.
2. Allowed to enter into agreements with other 2. Mahatma Gandhi supported the demand of
rulers or engage in warfare. separate electorate for ‘Untouchables’ for their
political upliftment.
3. Not responsible for protecting from external
and internal threats. 3. The Conference came to a solid conclusion for
4. A British Resident to be attached to the court. immediate formation of constituent assembly.
4. Lord Willingdon was a viceroy of India when
How many of the above terms and conditions were
the conference was held in London.
imposed on Indian rulers who had signed Subsidiary
Alliance with the British ? How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four (d) All four
Harsh 21
73. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 77. eksB dh efLtn dk fuekZ.k ,d ea=kh }kjk fd;k x;k Fkk
ok;ljk; çeq• ?kVuk (a) fldanj yksèkh ds 'kkludky esa
1. ekmaVcsVu % Hkkjr dh Lora=krk (b) dqrqcqíhu ,scd ds 'kkludky esa
2. ososy % çR;{k dkjZokbZ fnol (c) x;klqíhu cycu ds 'kkludky esa
3. fyufyFkxks % f}rh; fo'o;q¼ (d) fiQjks”k 'kkg rqxyd ds 'kkludky esa
4. fofyaXMu % nkaMh ;k=kk 78. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ 1. ohj'kSo vkanksyu cloUuk }kjk çkjaHk fd;k x;k FkkA
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy nks 2. ohj'kSoksa us lHkh euq";ksa dh lekurk ds fy;s n`<+rk
(c) dsoy rhu (d) lHkh pkj ls rdZ çLrqr fd;sA
74. dkWUxzsl ds fdl vfèkos'ku esa îw.kZ Lojkt* dks Lora=krk mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
laxzke dk y{; Lohdkj fd;k x;k\ (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(a) o"kZ 1929 dk ykgkSj vfèkos'ku (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(b) o"kZ 1928 dk dydÙkk vfèkos'ku 79. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(c) o"kZ 1931 dk djkph vfèkos'ku 1. vfHkys• çLrj vFkok èkkrq tSlh dBksj lrgksa ij
(d) o"kZ 1920 dk ukxiqj vfèkos'ku mRdhf.kZr ys• gSaA
75. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 2. ikaMfq yfi;k¡ vkerkSj ij rkM+ ds iÙks ij fy•h tkrh gSAa
1. v'kksd us vfèkdkfj;ksa dh fu;qfDr dh] ftUgsa èkEe mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
egkekÙk ds uke ls tkuk tkrk FkkA (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
2. v'kksd ds vfèkdka'k vfHkys• czkãh fyfi esa gSaA (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ 80. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
(a) dsoy 1 1. Jsf.k;ksa us cSadksa ds :i esa dk;Z fd;k] tgk¡ dqyhu
(b) dsoy 2 iq#"k vkSj efgyk,¡ èku tek djrs FksA
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa 2. vfjdkesMq ,d ,slk LFky gS tgk¡ jkseu ySai] dk¡p
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 ds crZu vkSj jRu ik, x, gSaA
76. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
jktk lkezkT; (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
1. fot;ky; % pksy (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
2. nafrnqxZ % çfrgkj 81. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
3. i`Fohjkt r`rh; % pkSgku lar jkT;
4. ukxHkV~V çFke % jk"VªdwV 1. lar dchj % xqtjkr
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ 2. lar ,dukFk % egkjk"Vª
(a) dsoy ,d ;qXe 3. lar R;kxjkt % rfeyukMq
(b) dsoy nks ;qXe mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
(c) dsoy rhu ;qXe (a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
(d) lHkh pkj ;qXe (c) lHkh rhu ;qXe (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 22
73. Consider the following pairs : 77. Moth ki Masjid was built by a minister during the
Viceroy Major event reign of
1. Mountbatten : Free India (a) Sikander Lodhi
2. Wavell : Direct Action Day (b) Qutb-ud-din Aybak
3. Linlithgow : Second World War (c) Ghiyasuddin Balban
(d) Firuz shah Tughluq
4. Willingdon : Dandi March
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. The Virashaivas movement was initiated by
Basavanna.
(c) Only three (d) All four
2. The Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality
74. ‘Purna Swaraj’ was accepted as goal for freedom of all human beings.
struggle, at which session of the congress? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Lahore session of 1929 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) Calcutta Session of 1928 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Karachi Session of 1931 79. Consider the following statements :
(d) Nagpur Session of 1920 1. Inscriptions are writings on hard surfaces such
75. Consider the following statements : as stone or metal.
1. Ashoka appointed officials, known as the 2. Manuscripts are usually written on palm leaf.
Dhamma Mahamattas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Most Ashokan inscriptions are in the Brahmi (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
script. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 80. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only 1. Shrenis served as banks, where rich men and
(b) 2 only women deposited money.
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Arikamedu is a site where Roman lamps, glass
ware and gems have been found.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
76. Consider the following pairs :
King Dynasty
1. Vijayalaya : Chola
81. Consider the following pairs :
2. Dantidurga : Pratihara
Saints State
3. Prithviraj III : Chahamanas
1. Saint Kabir : Gujarat
4. Nagabhata I : Rashtrakuta
2. Saint Eknath : Maharashtra
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? 3. Saint Tyagaraja : Tamil Nadu
(a) Only one pair How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) Only two pairs matched?
(c) Only three pairs (a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs
(d) All four pairs (c) All three pairs (d) None
Harsh 23
82. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 86. xqIrdkyhu lekt ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj
1. vkWy bafM;k eqfLye yhx ds ykgkSj vfèkos'ku esa dhft;s%
îkfdLrku çLrko* ikfjr fd;k x;kA 1. vNwrksa dh la[;k esa o`f¼ gqbZA
2. ;wfu;fuLV ikVhZ caxky esa O;kikfj;ksa ds fgrksa dk 2. bl dky esa 'kwæksa dh fLFkfr vkSj •jkc gks xbZA
çfrfufèkRo djus okyh ,d jktuhfrd ikVhZ FkhA 3. fuEu o.kZ dh efgykvksa dks viuh vkthfodk vftZr
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ djus dh Lora=krk FkhA
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (b) dsoy 2 vkSj 3
83. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (d) 1, 2 vkSj 3
Hkwfe dh Js.kh ftlls lacafèkr gS
87. Hkkjrh; flDdksa ds lanHkZ esa] fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. osYyuoxkbZ % xSj&czkã.k fdlku Lokeh dh Hkwfe
1. vkgr flDds <kys x, lcls çkphure flDds FksA
2. czãns; % czkã.kksa dks migkj esa nh xbZ Hkwfe
2. 'kkldksa dh çfrek okys igys flDds xqIrksa }kjk tkjh
3. ifYyPpane % fdlh fo|ky; ds j•j•ko ds
fy;s Hkwfe fd;s x, FksA
4. 'kkykHkksx % tSu laLFkkvksa dks nku nh xbZ Hkwfe mik;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
(a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(c) dsoy rhu ;qXe (d) lHkh pkj ;qXe 88. èkeZlw=kksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s%
84. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 1. blus fookg ds lkr çdkjksa dks LohÑfr nhA
laLFkkid çkar 2. ;g lkekftd O;ogkj ds fy;s foLr`r vkpkj lafgrkvksa
1. lvknr •ku % voèk dks mfYyf•r djrs gSaA
2. eq'khZn dqyh •ku % gSnjkckn mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
3. vkliQ tkg % caxky (a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\ (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(a) dsoy ,d ;qXe (b) dsoy nks ;qXe
89. çkphu Hkkjr dk fuEufyf•r esa ls dkSu&lk ukVd ,d
(c) lHkh rhu ;qXe (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
uk;d dh tfVy fLFkfr dks n'kkZrk gS tks czkã.k vkSj
85. Hkkjr ds lkaLÑfrd bfrgkl ds lanHkZ es]a fuEufyf•r esa ls O;kikjh nksuksa gS\
dkSu&lk ^dqVkxkj'kkyk* 'kCn dk lgh fooj.k çnku djrk gS\ (a) LoIuoklonÙkk
(a) ckS¼ fHk{kqvksa ds fy;s è;ku vkSj vkè;kfRed foJke
(b) ekyfodkfXufe=ke~
dk LFkkuA
(c) es?knwr
(b) uqdhyh Nr okyh ,d >ksiM+h tgk¡ nk'kZfud foe'kZ
(d) e`PNdfVde~
vkSj foospuk,¡ gksrh FkhaA
(c) ,d lkeqnkf;d jlksbZ tgk¡ Hkkstu rS;kj fd;k tkrk 90. fdl xzaFk esa ckS¼ èkeZ dk {ks=kh; bfrgkl feyrk gS\
Fkk rFkk eB ds fuokfl;ksa ds eè; ijkslk tkrk FkkA (a) nhioa'k (b) fnO;konku
(d) èkkfeZd xzaFkksa vkSj ifo=k xzaFkksa ds fy;s HkaMkj.k lqfoèkkA (c) cq¼pfjr (d) fou; fiVd
Harsh 24
82. Consider the following statements : 86. With reference to the society during the Gupta
1. The ‘Pakistan Resolution’ was passed at Lahore period, consider the following :
session of All India Muslim League. 1. The untouchables increased in number.
2. Unionist party was a political party representing 2. The position of shudras degraded during this
interest of businessmen in the Bengal. period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. The women of lower varnas were free to earn
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only their livelihood.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are correct?
83. Consider the following pairs : (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Category of Land Related to (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Vellanvagai : Land of non-Brahamana
87. With reference to the Indian coinage, consider the
peasant proprietors
following :
2. Brahmadeya : Land gifted to brahmanas
1. Die-struck coins were the earliest to be minted.
3. Pallichchhandam : Land for the maintenance
2. The first coins to bear the images of rulers were
of a school
issued by Guptas.
4. Shalabhoga : Land donated to Jaina
institutions Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three pairs (d) All four pairs 88. With reference to Dharmasutras, consider the following :
84. Consider the following pairs : 1. It recognised as many as seven forms of
Founder Province marriage.
1. Saadat Khan : Awadh 2. It lays down the codes of social behaviour in
2. Murshid Quli Khan : Hyderabad detail.
3. Asaf Jah : Bengal Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one pair (b) Only two pairs (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three pairs (d) None 89. Which one of the following play of ancient India
85. With reference to the cultural history of India, which depicts the complex situation of a protagonist who
one of the following is the correct description of the is both a Brahmana and a merchant?
term ‘Kutagarashala’? (a) Swapnavasavadatta
(a) A place of meditation and spiritual retreat for (b) Malavikagnimitra
Buddhist monks.
(c) Meghadoota
(b) A hut with a pointed roof where philosophical
(d) Mrichchhakatika
debates and discussions took place.
(c) A communal kitchen where food was prepared 90. Which of the texts contain the regional history of
and shared among the residents of a monastery. Buddhism?
(d) A storage facility for religious scriptures and (a) Dipavamsa (b) Divyavadana
sacred texts. (c) Buddhacharita (d) Vinaya Pitaka
Harsh 25
91. tSu èkeZ ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 94. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. bldk ewy fl¼kar oèkZeku egkohj }kjk fodflr 1. ryd"kZ.k fdlh tyk'k; ds ry ij tek jsr] ctjh
fd;k x;k FkkA vkSj xkn tSls ryNV dks gVkus dh çfØ;k gSA
2. bldk lcls çeq• fopkj ;g gS fd laiw.kZ fo'o 2. cM+s ck¡èk cukus ds ekeys esa Hkkjr fo'o esa nwljs
vkaf'kd :i ls çk.koku gS vkSj vkaf'kd :i ls LFkku ij gSA
futhZo gSA 3. volknhdj.k vi{k; ,oa vijnu tSlh çfØ;kvksa
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ ds ekè;e ls LokHkkfod :i ls gks ldrk gSA
(a) dsoy 1 mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\
(b) dsoy 2 (a) dsoy ,d
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (b) dsoy nks
(d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (c) lHkh rhu
92. çkjafHkd eè;;qxhu Hkkjr esa rkaf=kdokn ds lanHkZ esa (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
fuEufyf•r ij fopkj dhft;s% 95. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s%
1. blds varxZr L=kh vkSj iq#"k nksuksa gh 'kkfey gks 1. Hkwfe voryu@vèkksxeu i`Foh dh lrg dk èkhjs&èkhjs
ldrs FksA èk¡luk ;k vpkud èk¡luk gSA
2. blds vH;kldÙkkZ tkfr ,oa oxZ ds Hksn dk ikyu 2. tks'kheB ,d HkwL•yu&èk¡lko {ks=k gS tks mPp tksf•e
djrs FksA okys Hkwdaih; {ks=k&V esa vkrk gSA
3. blds fopkjksa us 'kSo èkeZ dks çHkkfor fd;kA mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ (a) dsoy 1
(a) dsoy ,d (b) dsoy 2
(b) dsoy nks (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(c) lHkh rhu (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha 96. fuEu ij fopkj dhft;s%
93. dyanjksa vkSj eyaxksa ds lwiQh jgL;okfn;ksa esa D;k lekurk@ 1. jk"Vªh; gfjr vfèkdj.k ,d fo'ks"k U;kf;d fudk;
lekurk,¡ gS@gSa\ gS tks ns'k esa i;kZoj.kh; ekeyksa ij fu.kZ;u gsrq
1. nksuksa us vuq"Bkuksa dks u”kjvank”k fd;k vkSj 'kfj;k fo'ks"kKrk ls lqlfTtr gSA
dh vogsyuk dhA 2. Hkkjrh; ou vfèkfu;e 1927 ouksa] ouksRikn dh
2. nksuksa bLykeh dkuwu ,oa fl¼karksa dh O;k[;k djus vkoktkgh] ikjxeu] dk"B vkSj vU; ouksitksa ij
okys çeq• fo}ku FksA vkjksfir 'kqYd ls lacafèkr dkuwu dks lesfdr djus
3. nksuksa us oSjkX; ds pje :iksa dks ns•kA dk ç;kl djrk gSA
uhps fn;s x, dwV dk ç;ksx dj lgh mÙkj pqfu;s% mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\
(a) dsoy 1 vkSj 2 (a) dsoy 1
(b) dsoy 2 (b) dsoy 2
(c) dsoy 1 vkSj 3 (c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa
(d) mi;ZqDr esa ls dksbZ ugha (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2
Harsh 26
91. With reference to Jainism, consider the following 94. Consider the following statements :
statements : 1. Dredging is the process of removing sediments,
1. Its basic philosophy was developed by such as sand, gravel, and silt, accumulated at
Vardhamana Mahavira. the bottom of a reservoir.
2. India is ranked second in the world in terms of
2. Its most important idea is that the world is
building large dams.
partially animated and partially unanimated.
3. Sedimentation can occur naturally through
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? processes such as weathering and erosion.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three
92. With reference to Tantricism in early medieval India, (d) None
consider the following : 95. Consider the following :
1. It was open to both men and women. 1. Land subsidence is a gradual settling or sudden
2. Its practitioners obeyed the caste and class sinking of the Earth’s surface
difference. 2. Joshimath is a landslide-subsidence zone falling
in high-risk seismic Zone-V.
3. Its ideas influenced Shaivism.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
93. What is/are common to the Sufi mystics of Qalandars 1. National Green Tribunal is a specialized judicial
and Malangs? body equipped with expertise for adjudicating
1. Both ignored rituals and defied shariat. environmental cases in the country.
2. Both were prominent scholars who interpreted 2. The Indian Forest Act 1927 seeks to consolidate
the law relating to forests, transit of forest
Islamic law and principles.
produces, and duty levied on timber and other
3. Both observed extreme asceticism.
forest produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Harsh 27
97. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% 99. bl m¼j.k ds ekè;e ls ;k=kh Mksfeaxks isl us fuEufyf•r
1. ghV Mkse rc gksrk gS tc fuEu nkc dk {ks=k ,d esa ls fdl lkezkT; dk o.kZu fd;k gS\
txg ij yacs le; xeZ ok;q dks vfèkxzfgr j•rk gSA ¶ogk¡ ls eSaus tks ns•k og eq>s jkse ftruk fo'kky çrhr
2. tsV èkkjk,¡ ok;qeaMy ds Åijh Lrjksa esa rs”k iouksa dh gqvk rFkk ns•us esa vR;ar lqanj_ blesa isM+ksa ds dbZ miou
vis{kkÑr ladjh iV~Vh gksrh gSaA gSa] vkoklksa ds cxhpksa esa rFkk ikuh dh dbZ ukfy;k¡ tks
mi;ZqDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu&lk@ls lgh gS@gSa\ blesa vkrh gSa rFkk dbZ LFkkuksa ij >hysa gSa---¸
(a) dsoy 1 (b) dsoy 2 (a) fot;uxj lkezkT;
(c) 1 vkSj 2 nksuksa (d) u rks 1 vkSj u gh 2 (b) eqxy lkezkT;
98. fuEufyf•r dFkuksa ij fopkj dhft;s% (c) iYyo lkezkT;
1. dksjy ikWyhIl NksVs vkSj ekaly leqæh ,uheksu gSa tks (d) cgeuh lkezkT;
m".kdfVcaèkh; rFkk miks".kdfVcaèkh; egklkxjksa ,oa 100. fuEufyf•r ;qXeksa ij fopkj dhft;s%
leqæksa esa jgrs gSaA
jk"Vªh; m|ku viokfgr unh
2. rVh; çoky fHkfÙk;k¡ egk}hi ds fudV fodflr gksrh
1. eksfyax jk"Vªh; m|ku % uksvk fnfgax
gSa rFkk leqæ rV ds fudV jgrh gSaA
2. ukeniQk jk"Vªh; m|ku % fl;kse
3. çoky jksfèkdk,¡ egk}hih; 'ksYiQ ds virVh; {ks=kksa
ij ikbZ tkrh gSaA 3. vksjkax jk"Vªh; m|ku % czãiq=k
mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gSa\ mi;ZqDr esa ls fdrus ;qXe lgh lqesfyr gSa\
(c) lHkh rhu (c) lHkh rhu
(d) dksbZ Hkh ugha (d) dksbZ Hkh ugha
Harsh 28
97. Consider the following statements : 99. Which of the following empires is described by the
1. A heat dome occurs when an area of low- traveller Domingo Paes through this excerpt?
pressure traps warm air over a region for an “What I saw from thence seemed to me as large as
extended period. Rome, and very beautiful to the sight; there are many
2. Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of groves of trees within it... and many conduits of
strong wind in the upper levels of the water which flow into the midst of it, and in places
atmosphere.
there are lake...”
(a) Vijayanagara Empire
(b) Mughal Empire
(c) Pallava Empire
(d) Bahamani Empire
1. Coral polyps are tiny and fleshy sea anemones
that live in tropical and subtropical oceans and 100. Consider the following pairs :
seas. National Park River flowing
2. Fringing reefs evolve and develop near the 1. Mouling national park : Noa Dihing
continent and remain close to the coastline. 2. Namdapha national park : Siyom
3. Barrier reefs are found offshore on the
3. Orang national park : Brahmaputra
continental shelf.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None
Harsh 29
jQ dk;Z gsrq
Harsh 30
jQ dk;Z gsrq
Harsh 31
CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
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TEST BOOKLET SERIES
TEST BOOKLET
Test Code:
P1/P2-2404 GENERAL STUDIES
TEST – 04
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CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) TEST SERIES – 2024
TEST BOOKLET SERIES

ANSWER & EXPLANATION
Test Code:
P1/P2-2404 GENERAL STUDIES
(English Version) TEST – 04
ANSWERS
Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers Q. No. Answers
1 (c) 26 (a) 51 (c) 76 (b)
2 (b) 27 (b) 52 (a) 77 (a)
3 (d) 28 (a) 53 (b) 78 (c)
4 (b) 29 (a) 54 (b) 79 (c)
5 (b) 30 (a) 55 (a) 80 (c)
6 (c) 31 (c) 56 (c) 81 (b)
7 (a) 32 (a) 57 (b) 82 (a)
8 (c) 33 (a) 58 (b) 83 (b)
9 (d) 34 (c) 59 (c) 84 (a)
10 (d) 35 (a) 60 (b) 85 (b)
11 (a) 36 (a) 61 (c) 86 (c)
12 (b) 37 (a) 62 (d) 87 (d)
13 (b) 38 (c) 63 (a) 88 (b)
14 (c) 39 (a) 64 (b) 89 (d)

15 (d) 40 (b) 65 (a) 90 (a)
16 (a) 41 (d) 66 (d) 91 (d)
17 (b) 42 (c) 67 (c) 92 (b)
18 (b) 43 (b) 68 (b) 93 (c)
19 (a) 44 (d) 69 (a) 94 (b)
20 (d) 45 (a) 70 (d) 95 (c)
21 (b) 46 (b) 71 (a) 96 (c)
22 (b) 47 (b) 72 (b) 97 (b)
23 (b) 48 (c) 73 (c) 98 (c)
24 (c) 49 (b) 74 (a) 99 (a)
25 (b) 50 (b) 75 (c) 100 (a)

1. (c) In subsequent years, the image of Bharat Mata acquired
many different forms, as it circulated in popular prints,
Explanation: and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this
Till the First World War, industrial growth was slow.
mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s
The war created a dramatically new situation. With
nationalism.
British mills busy with war production to meet the
needs of the army, Manchester imports into India 3. (d)
declined.
Suddenly, Indian mills had a vast home market to supply. Explanation:
As the war prolonged, Indian factories were called upon Some of the Muslim political organisations in India
to supply war needs: jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, were lukewarm in their response to the Civil
tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddles and a Disobedience Movement.
host of other items. New factories were set up and old After the decline of the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat
ones ran multiple shifts. movement, a large section of Muslims felt alienated
Many new workers were employed, and everyone was from the Congress. Hence, statement (1) is NOT
made to work longer hours. Over the war years correct.
industrial production boomed. Hence, statement (1) From the mid-1920s the Congress came to be more
is correct. visibly associated with openly Hindu religious
After the war, Manchester could never recapture its nationalist groups like the Hindu Mahasabha. Hence,
old position in the Indian market. Unable to modernise statement (2) is NOT correct.
and compete with the US, Germany and Japan, the As relations between Hindus and Muslims worsened,
economy of Britain crumbled after the war. Hence, each community organised religious processions with
statement (2) is correct. militant fervour, provoking Hindu-Muslim communal
Cotton production collapsed and exports of cotton cloth clashes and riots in various cities. Every riot deepened
from Britain fell dramatically. Within the colonies, local the distance between the two communities.
industrialists gradually consolidated their position, The Congress and the Muslim League made efforts
substituting foreign manufactures and capturing the to renegotiate an alliance, and in 1927 it appeared that
home market. such a unity could be forged.
2. (b)
4. (b)
Explanation:
Explanation:
The identity of the nation is most often symbolised in
Irwin, announced in October 1929, a vague offer of
a figure or image. This helps create an image with
‘dominion status’ for India in an unspecified future,
which people can identify the nation.
and a Round Table Conference to discuss a future
It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of
constitution.
nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually
This did not satisfy the Congress leaders. The radicals
associated with the image of Bharat Mata. Hence,
statement (1) is correct. within the Congress, led by Jawaharlal Nehru and
In the 1870s Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Subhash Chandra Bose, became more assertive. The
‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later liberals and moderates, who were proposing a
it was included in his novel Anandmath and widely constitutional system within the framework of British
sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. Hence, dominion, gradually lost their influence.
statement (2) is correct. In December 1929, under the presidency of Jawaharlal
Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Nehru, the Lahore Congress formalised the demand of
Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata (1905). ‘Purna Swaraj’ or full independence for India. It was
In this painting Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic declared that 26 January 1930, would be celebrated as
figure; she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. the Independence Day when people were to take a
Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct. pledge to struggle for complete independence.
641, 1st Floor, 21, Pusa Road, 13/15 Tashkent Marg, 47/CC, Burlington Arcade Mall, Plot No. 45& 45A, Harsh 2
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While the Poorna Swaraj Resolution was drafted by 7. (a)
Jawaharlal Lal Nehru, the “Declaration of
Explanation:
Independence” pledge was drafted by Mahatma
Baba Guru Nanak (1469-1539) was born in a Hindu
Gandhi in 1930 and it echoed the essence of American
merchant family in a village called Nankana Sahib near
Declaration of Independence. Hence, option (b) is
the river Ravi in the predominantly Muslim Punjab. He
correct.
was married at a young age, but he spent most of his
5. (b) time among Sufis and bhaktas.
The message of Baba Guru Nanak is spelt out in his
Explanation :
hymns and teachings. These suggest that he advocated
Marco Polo was born in 1254, in Venice, Italy. His
a form of Nirguna bhakti. He firmly repudiated the
father Niccolo and uncle Maffeo were gem traders who
external practices of the religions he saw around him.
travelled far, establishing trade relations.
For Baba Guru Nanak, the Absolute or “rab” had no
Marco Polo was also a trader and adventurer who
gender or form. It appears that Baba Guru Nanak did
journeyed from Europe to Asia. In the 13th century, he not wish to establish a new religion, but after his death
went through Asia on the Silk Road. The account of his followers consolidated their own practices and
his voyages is told in ‘Travels of Marco Polo’. distinguished themselves from both Hindus and
Qutb-ud-din Aibak was the founder of slave dynasty. Muslims. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
He died in the year 1210 whereas Marco was born in The fifth preceptor, Guru Arjan, compiled Baba Guru
1254. Hence, option (1) is NOT correct. Nanak’s hymns along with those of his four successors
Marco was 17 years old when his voyage began in 1271. and other religious poets like Baba Farid, Ravidas (also
He travelled to Kublai Khan’s court in China with his known as Raidas) and Kabir in the Adi Granth Sahib.
father and uncle. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
Marco Polo landed on the Coromandel Coast of India Guru Gobind Singh included the compositions of the
in 1292 AD after a two-year trip by sea across the Indian ninth guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur, and this scripture
Ocean on his way home from China. Hence, option (2) was called the Guru Granth Sahib. Guru Gobind Singh
is correct. also laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth (army of
During the reign of Rudramma Devi of the Kakatiya the pure) and defined its five symbols: uncut hair, a
Dynasty, he travelled to Southern India. dagger, a pair of shorts, a comb and a steel bangle.
6. (c) 8. (c)
Explantion: Explanation:
The poems of Appar, Sambandar and Sundarar Malfuzat literally means “uttered”; conversations of
(Nayanars/Shaivite saints) form the ‘Tevaram’, a Sufi saints. An early text on malfuzat is the Fawa’id-
collection that was compiled and classified in the tenth al-Fu’ad, a collection of conversations of Shaikh
century on the basis of the music of the songs. Hence, Nizamuddin Auliya, compiled by Amir Hasan Sijzi
option (c) is correct. Dehlavi, a noted Persian poet. Hence, pair (1) is
Tevaram primarily focuses on devotion and praise of correctly matched.
Lord Shiva, one of the principal deities in Hinduism. Maktubat literally means “written” collections of
The poets express their deep love, devotion, and spiritual letters written by Sufi masters, addressed to their
experiences related to Lord Shiva in their verses. disciples and associates. While these tell us about the
Tevaram holds immense cultural and religious Shaikh’s experience of religious truth that he wanted to
significance in the Tamil Nadu region of South India. share with others, they also reflect the life conditions
It not only serves as a source of spiritual guidance but of the recipients and are responses to their aspirations
also as a cultural treasure that has been passed down and difficulties, both spiritual and mundane. Hence,
through generations. pair (3) is correctly matched.

Tazkiras (literally, “to mention and memorialise” Â Polaj is land which is annually cultivated for each
biographical accounts of saints). The fourteenth crop in succession and is never allowed to lie fallow.
century Siyar-ul-Auliya of Mir Khwurd Kirmani was Â Parauti is land left out of cultivation for a time that
the first sufi tazkira written in India. It dealt it may recover its strength.
principally with the Chishti saints. Hence, pair (2) is
Â Chachar is land that has lain fallow for three or four
correctly matched.
years.
9. (d) Â Banjar is land uncultivated for five years and more.
Explanation: Of the first two kinds of land, there are three classes,
Krishnadeva Raya (ruled 1509-29), the most famous good, middling, and bad. They add together the produce
ruler of Vijayanagara, composed a work on statecraft of each sort, and the third of this represents the medium
in Telugu known as the Amuktamalyada. produce, one-third part of which is exacted as the Royal
He was the 3rd ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty and dues. Hence, option (a) is correct.
presided over the Vijayanagara empire at its zenith. The above classification of land is provided in Ain-i-
His rule was characterised by expansion and Akbari, written by Abu Fazl.
consolidation. He also founded a suburban township
near Vijayanagar called Nagalapuram after his mother. 12. (b)
He distributed the wealth he gained during wars to all Explanation:
big temples of South India for the purpose of constructing Nastaliq, predominant style of cursive Persian
temple gateways (gopura), called ‘Rayagopuram,’ in calligraphy was a combination of the Nakshi and Taliq
his honour. styles, featuring elongated horizontal strokes and
Krishnadevaraya built huge irrigation tanks and exaggerated rounded forms. The diacritical marks were
reservoirs for harvesting rainwater. casually placed, and the lines were flowing rather than
Hence, option (d) is correct. straight. Hence, option (b) is correct.
10. (d) Nastaliq was frequently incorporated into the
paintings and is traditionally considered to be the most
Explanation: elegant of the Persian scripts.
Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan, spread to
Muhammad Husayn of Kashmir was one of the finest
northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century.
calligraphers at Akbar’s court. He was honoured with
The Ain-i-Akbari does not mention tobacco in the lists
the title of “Zarrin Qalam” or “Golden pen” in
of crops in northern India. Akbar and his nobles came
recognition of his talent for calligraphy.
across tobacco for the first time in 1604. Hence,
The Nastaliq style is cursive and easy to read. On the
statement (1) is NOT correct.
other hand, the Shikaste (another form of writing) is
At this time smoking tobacco (in hookahs or chillums)
denser and more difficult.
seems to have caught on in a big way. Jahangir was so
concerned about its addiction that he banned it. Hence, 13. (b)
statement (2) is NOT correct.
This ban was totally ineffective because by the end of the Explanation:
seventeenth century, tobacco had become a major article The twelfth century witnessed the emergence of a new
of consumption, cultivation and trade all over India. movement in Karnataka, led by a Brahmana named
Basavanna (1106-68) who was a minister in the court
11. (a) of a Kalachuri ruler.
Explanation: His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of
The emperor Akbar in his profound sagacity classified Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). Lingayats
the lands and fixed a different revenue to be paid by continue to be an important community in the region to
each. date.

They worship Shiva in his manifestation as a linga, 15. (d)
and men usually wear a small linga in a silver case on
Explanation:
a loop strung over the left shoulder. Hence, statement
(1) is NOT correct. Time period Events
Those who are revered include the jangama or 1200-1300 AD Establishment of the Delhi Sultanate (1206)
wandering monks. Lingayats believe that on death the
devotee will be united with Shiva and will not return to
1300-1400 AD Establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire
this world.
(1336); establishment of the Bahmani
Therefore, they do not practise funerary rites such as
kingdom (1347); Sultanates in Jaunpur,
cremation, prescribed in the Dharmashastras. Instead,
Kashmir and Madura
they ceremonially bury their dead. Hence, statement
(2) is correct.
1400-1500 AD Establishment of the Gajapati kingdom
The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the
of Orissa (1435); Establishment of the
“pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas.
Sultanates of Gujarat and Malwa;
They also questioned the theory of rebirth. Hence,
Emergence of the Sultanates of Ahmadnagar,
statement (3) is correct.
Bijapur and Berar (1490)
Our understanding of the Virashaiva tradition is
derived from vachanas (literally, sayings) composed
1500-1600 AD Conquest of Goa by the Portuguese
in Kannada by women and men who joined the
(1510); Collapse of the Bahmani kingdom,
movement.
emergence of the Sultanate of Golconda
14. (c) (1518); Establishment of the Mughal
empire by Babur (1526)
Explanation:
Kabir (14th-15th centuries) is perhaps one of the most Hence, option (d) is correct.
outstanding examples of a poet-saint who emerged
16. (a)
within this context.
Verses ascribed to Kabir have been compiled in three Explanation:
distinct but overlapping traditions. The Kabir Bijak Agriculture was organised around two major seasonal
is preserved by the Kabirpanth (the path or sect of cycles, the kharif (autumn) and the rabi (spring). This
Kabir) in Varanasi and elsewhere in Uttar Pradesh. would mean that most regions, except those terrains that
Hence, statement (1) is correct. were the most arid or inhospitable, produced ‘do-fasla’
The Kabir Granthavali is associated with the i.e., a minimum of two crops a year.
Dadupanth in Rajasthan, and many of his compositions This ensured an enormous variety of produce. For
are found in the Adi Granth Sahib. instance, Ain-i-Akbari that the Mughal provinces of
Also striking is the range of traditions Kabir drew on Agra produced 39 varieties of crops and Delhi produced
to describe the ‘Ultimate Reality’. These include Islam, 43 over the two seasons. Bengal produced 50 varieties
yogic traditions, Brahman, Atman, etc. Hence, of rice alone.
statement (2) is correct. However, the focus on the cultivation of basic staples
Diverse and sometimes conflicting ideas are expressed did not mean that agriculture in medieval India was only
in these poems. Some poems draw on Islamic ideas and for subsistence. The term ‘jins-i kamil’ means the
use monotheism and iconoclasm to attack Hindu perfect crops is also mentioned in the sources. The
polytheism and idol worship; others use the Sufi Mughal state also encouraged peasants to cultivate such
concept of zikr and ishq (love) to express the Hindu crops as they brought in more revenue. Crops such as
practice of Nam-Simaran (remembrance of God’s cotton and sugarcane were jins-i kamil par excellence.
name). Hence, option (a) is correct.

17. (b) The Company tried continuously to press for more
concessions and manipulate existing privileges.
Explanation:
Aurangzeb’s farman, for instance, had granted only the
In medieval India, the term “Sawar” referred to
Company the right to trade duty free.
mounted soldiers or cavalrymen who were an integral
But officials of the Company, who were carrying on
part of the Indian military system. Hence, option (b) is
private trade on the side, were expected to pay duty.
correct.
This they refused to pay, causing an enormous loss of
These Sawars were often part of the feudal system and
revenue for Bengal.
served under the authority of local rulers, kings, or
nobles. They played a crucial role in warfare, Hence, statement (I) and statement (II) are correct but
characterized by their expertise in horseback riding and statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation for
combat skills. statement (I).
The Sawars were known for their mobility and speed
19. (a)
on the battlefield, their horses constitute a special
feature of their mobility. Explanation:
They were armed with weapons such as swords, spears, The “Blue Rebellion,” also known as the “Indigo
and bows, which made them formidable opponents. The Revolt,” was a significant agrarian uprising that
use of cavalry, including Sawars, was a strategic occurred in the late 1850s in British India, particularly
advantage in battles, allowing for swift manoeuvring in the Bengal Presidency (now West Bengal and
and surprise attacks. Bangladesh). Hence, option (a) is correct.
Sawars were not just warriors but also important in the It was driven by the oppressive indigo cultivation system
social hierarchy. They were granted land and revenue imposed by British indigo planters on Indian peasants.
in return for their military service, forming the basis The indigo planters compelled Indian farmers to
of the feudal system. cultivate indigo, a cash crop used for making dye,
This system helped in maintaining law and order in the instead of food crops, as it was in high demand in the
region and contributed to the economic stability of the European textile industry.
time. The farmers were subjected to exploitative contracts
18. (b) and forced to sell their produce at low prices to the
planters.
Explanation: They were also required to provide free labor for the
The first English factory in the eastern India was set up
cultivation of indigo.
on the banks of the river Hugli in 1651. This was the
This exploitative system led to widespread resentment
base from which the Company’s traders, known at that
among the indigo cultivators, known as ryots.
time as “factors”, operated.
The revolt against this system, which came to be
The factory had a warehouse where goods for export
known as the “Blue Rebellion” due to the indigo dye’s
were stored, and it had offices where Company officials
blue color, was marked by non-violent protests,
sat.
boycotts, and refusals to cultivate indigo.
As trade expanded, the Company persuaded merchants
Worried by the rebellion, the government, the government
and traders to come and settle near the factory. By 1696,
it began building a fort around the settlement. brought in the military to protect the planters from
Two years later, it bribed Mughal officials into giving assault and set up the indigo commission.
the Company zamindari rights over three villages. One
20. (d)
of these was Kalikata, which later grew into the city
of Calcutta or Kolkata as it is known today. Explanation:
It also persuaded the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb to The British had regained control of the country by the
issue a farman granting the Company the right to trade end of 1859, but they could not carry on ruling the land
duty free. with the same policies anymore.

The British Parliament passed a new Act in 1858 and Similarly, earlier centres of regional power collapsed
transferred the powers of the East India Company to the when local rulers were defeated by the British and new
British Crown to ensure a more responsible centres of administration emerged. The process is often
management of Indian affairs. Hence, statement (1) described as de-urbanization. Cities such as
is correct. Machilipatnam, Surat and Seringapatam were de-
A member of the British Cabinet was appointed urbanized during the nineteenth century.
Secretary of State for India and made responsible for
22. (b)
all matters related to the governance of India.
All ruling chiefs of the country were assured that their Explanation:
territory would never be annexed in future. They were Khanqah is a Sufi lodge, often used as rest house for
allowed to pass on their kingdoms to their heirs, travellers and a place where people come to discuss
including adopted sons. However, they were made to spiritual matters, get the blessings of saints, and hear
acknowledge the British Queen as their Sovereign Sufi music. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Paramount. Hence, statement (2) is correct. It is associated with history of medieval India,
It was decided that the proportion of Indian soldiers in particularly during the Sultanate and Mughal eras. It
the army would be reduced, and the number of represents a place where Sufi mystics and followers
European soldiers would be increased. Hence, gathered for spiritual activities and religious retreats.
statement (3) is correct. Sufism, a mystical and spiritual dimension of Islam,
It was also decided that instead of recruiting soldiers aimed to seek a personal connection with the divine
from Awadh, Bihar, central India and south India, more through meditation, prayer, and devotion.
Khanqahs played a vital role in the spread of Sufi
soldiers would be recruited from among the Gurkhas,
beliefs and practices across the Indian subcontinent.
Sikhs and Pathans.
These centres of spirituality were often led by prominent
The land and property of Muslims was confiscated on
Sufi saints and scholars who attracted disciples and
a large scale, and they were treated with suspicion and
common people seeking spiritual guidance.
hostility. The British believed that they were responsible
Khanqahs served as hubs for religious discussions,
for the rebellion in a big way. Hence, statement (4) is
music, and poetry, all intended to deepen one’s
correct.
understanding of the divine and foster a sense of unity
21. (b) and brotherhood among followers.
These spiritual retreats were not confined to a
Explanation: particular region but were scattered across India,
In the late eighteenth century, Calcutta, Bombay and reflecting the diverse cultural and religious landscape
Madras rose in importance as Presidency cities. Hence, of the country. Some of the most renowned Sufi saints,
option (b) is correct. like Nizamuddin Auliya and Moinuddin Chishti, had
For administrative purposes, colonial India was divided khanqahs associated with them.
into three “Presidencies” (Bombay, Madras and Bengal),
which developed from the East India Company’s 23. (b)
“factories” (trading posts) at Surat, Madras and Explanation:
Calcutta. By the early eighteenth century, worried by the
They became the centres of British power in the different popularity of Indian textiles, wool and silk makers in
regions of India. At the same time, a host of smaller England began protesting against the import of Indian
cities declined. Many towns manufacturing specialized cotton textiles.
goods declined due to a drop in the demand for what In 1720, the British government enacted a legislation
they produced. banning the use of printed cotton textiles- chintz – in
Old trading centres and ports could not survive when England. This act was known as the Calico Act. Hence,
the flow of trade moved to new centres. statement (1) is NOT correct.

At this time textile industries had just begun to develop 25. (b)
in England. The English producers wanted a secure
market within the country by preventing the entry of Explanation:
Indian textiles. In 1854, the Court of Directors of the East India
Competition with Indian textiles also led to search for Company in London sent an educational despatch
technological innovation in England. In 1764, the known as Wood’s Despatch.
• Outlining the educational policy that was to be
spinning jenny was invented by John Kaye which
increased the productivity of traditional spindles. followed in India, it emphasized once again the
The invention of the steam engine by Richard
practical benefits of a system of European learning,
as opposed to Oriental knowledge.
Arkwright in 1786 revolutionized cotton textile
One of the practical uses the Despatch pointed to was
weaving. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
economics. European learning, it said, would enable
Cloth could now be woven in immense quantities and
Indians to recognize the advantages that flow from the
cheaply too. However, Indian textiles continued to
expansion of trade and commerce, and make them see
dominate world trade till the eighteenth century.
the importance of developing the resources of the country.
24. (c) Introducing them to European ways of life, would
change their tastes and desires, and create a demand
Explanation:
for British goods, for Indians would begin to appreciate
The British in India wanted not only territorial conquest
and buy things that were produced in Europe.
and control over revenues. They also felt that they had Wood’s Despatch also argued that European learning
a cultural mission: they had to “civilize the natives”, would improve the moral character of Indians.
change their customs and values. Hence, statement (1) It would make them truthful and honest, and thus supply
is correct. the Company with civil servants who could be trusted
Those with a scholarly knowledge of the language and depended upon.
and culture of Asia were termed Orientalists. The literature of the East was not only full of grave
One such personality was William Jones. He studied errors, but it could also not instill in people a sense of
ancient Indian texts on law, philosophy, religion, politics, duty and a commitment to work, nor could it develop
morality, arithmetic, medicine and the other sciences. the skills required for administration. Hence, statements
Jones discovered that his interests were shared by many (I) and (II) are correct but statement (II) is NOT the
British officials living in Calcutta at the time. Englishmen correct explanation for statement (I).
like Henry Thomas Colebrooke and Nathaniel Halhed
also discovered the ancient Indian heritage, mastered 26. (a)
Indian languages and translated Sanskrit and Persian In the 1830s, William Adam, a Scottish missionary,
works into English. Hence, statement (2) is correct. toured the districts of Bengal and Bihar. He found that
Henry Thomas Colebrooke , Nathaniel Halhed and there were over 1 lakh pathshalas in Bengal and Bihar.
William Jones set up the Asiatic Society of Bengal, These were small institutions with no more than 20
and started a journal called Asiatick Researches. Hence, students each.
statement (3) is correct. These institutions were set up by wealthy people, or
They shared a deep respect for ancient cultures, both of the local community. At times they were started by a
India. Indian civilization, they felt, had attained its glory teacher (guru). Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
in the ancient past, but had subsequently declined. The system of education was flexible, suited to the
To understand India, it was necessary to discover local needs.
the sacred and legal texts that were produced in the There was no fixed fee, no printed books, no separate
ancient period. only those texts could reveal the real school building, no benches or chairs, no blackboards,
ideas and laws of the Hindus and Muslims, and only a no system of separate classes, no roll-call registers,
new study of these texts could form the basis of future no annual examinations, and no regular time-table.
development in India. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

Fees depended on the income of parents: the rich had The partition of Bengal infuriated people all over India.
to pay more than the poor. All sections of the Congress – the Moderates and the
Teaching was oral, and the guru decided what to teach, Radicals, as they may be called – opposed it.
in accordance with the needs of the students. Large public meetings and demonstrations were
Students were not separated into different classes. All organized, and novel methods of mass protest
of them sat together in one place. The guru interacted developed. The struggle that unfolded came to be
separately with groups of children with different levels known as the Swadeshi movement. Hence, statement
of learning. (1) is correct.
The Swadeshi movement was strongest in Bengal but
27. (b) with echoes elsewhere too – in deltaic Andhra for
Explanation: instance, it was known as the Vandemataram
From the early nineteenth century, debates and Movement. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
discussions about social customs and practices started The Swadeshi movement sought to oppose British rule
taking on a new character. These debates were often and encourage the ideas of self-help, swadeshi enterprise,
initiated by Indian reformers and reform groups. national education, and use of Indian languages. To fight
for swaraj, the radicals advocated mass mobilization and
One such reformer was Raja Rammohun Roy, who
boycott of British institutions and goods.
founded a reform association known as the Brahmo
Sabha (later known as the Brahmo Samaj) in Calcutta. 29. (a)
He was particularly moved by the problems widows
faced in their lives. He began a campaign against the Explanation:
Current Schemes Related to Old Age Population:
practice of sati. His region of influence spans across
Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY):
Bengal. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
launched in 2017 by the Ministry of Finance, offers a
By the second half of the nineteenth century, the
guaranteed payout of pension to senior citizens every
movement in favour of widow remarriage spread to
month. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
other parts of the country.
Integrated Program for Older Persons (IPOP): Aims
In the Telugu-speaking areas (Andhra region) of the
to improve the quality of life of the Senior Citizens
Madras Presidency, Veerasalingam Pantulu formed
by providing basic amenities like shelter, food, medical
an association for widow remarriage. Hence, pair (2)
care and entertainment opportunities and by encouraging
is correctly matched.
productive and active ageing through providing support
In what is present-day Kerala, a guru from Ezhava
for capacity building of State/UT Governments/Non-
caste, Shri Narayana Guru, proclaimed the ideals of Governmental Organisations (NGOs)/Panchayati Raj
unity for his people. He argued against treating people Institutions (PRIs) / local bodies and the community at
unequally on the basis of caste differences. large.
According to him, all humankind belonged to the same SAMPANN Project: Launched in 2018, it is a seamless
caste. One of his famous statements was: “oru jati, oru online pension processing and payment system for
matam, oru daivam manushyanu” (one caste, one Department of Telecommunications pensioners. It
religion, one God for humankind). Hence, pair (3) is provides direct credit of pension into the bank accounts
NOT correctly matched. of pensioners. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly
matched.
28. (a)
SACRED Portal for Elderly: It is an online
Explanation: employment exchange platform to cater to senior
In 1905, Viceroy Curzon partitioned Bengal. At that citizens seeking job opportunities. The portal developed
time Bengal was the biggest province of British India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is
and included Bihar and parts of Orissa. The British named Senior Able Citizens for Re-Employment in
argued for dividing Bengal for reasons of administrative Dignity (SACRED). Hence, pair (3) is NOT correctly
convenience. matched.

30. (a) 31. (c)
Explanation: Explanation:
Denotified, Nomadic and Semi-Nomadic Tribes are United Nations Inter-agency Group for Child
communities that are the most vulnerable and deprived. Mortality Estimation (UN IGME) was formed in 2004
DNTs (Denotified) are communities that were to share data on child mortality, improve methods for
‘notified’ as being ‘born criminals’ during the British child mortality estimation, report on progress towards
regime under a series of laws starting with the child survival goals and enhance country capacity to
Criminal Tribes Act of 1871. Hence, statement (II) produce timely and properly assessed estimates of child
is correct. mortality.
These Acts were repealed by the Independent Indian It was established to address the need for reliable and
Government in l952, and these communities were “De- consistent data on child mortality at the global, regional,
Notified”. and national levels.
Many commissions and committees constituted since UN IGME is led by United Nations Children’s Fund
Independence have referred to the problems of these (UNICEF) and includes the World Health
communities. Organization, the World Bank Group and the United
Â Criminal Tribes Inquiry Committee, 1947
Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs,
constituted in the United Provinces (now Uttar
Population Division. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Pradesh).
These agencies work together to compile and analyze
Â Ananthasayanam Ayyangar Committee in 1949
data from various sources, including vital registration
(it was based on the report of this committee the systems, surveys, and censuses, to estimate child
Criminal Tribes Act was repealed). mortality rates. The IGME publishes its estimates in
Â Kaka Kalelkar Commission (also called first OBC periodic reports and updates, providing valuable
Commission) constituted in 1953. Hence, statement insights into trends in child mortality and progress
(I) is NOT correct. toward global development goals, such as the Sustainable
Â B P Mandal Commission constituted in 1980 also Development Goals.
made some recommendations on the issue.
Â National Commission to Review the Working of
32. (a)
the Constitution (NCRWC), 2002 held that DNTs Explanation:
have been wrongly stigmatised as crime prone. The National Commission for Indian System of
Developmental Efforts for These Tribes: Medicine (NCISM) and the Central Council for
Dr. Ambedkar Pre-Matric and Post-Matric Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS)have
Scholarship for DNTs: This Centrally Sponsored launched the ‘SMART’ program. Hence, statement
Scheme was launched in 2014-15 for the welfare of (2) is NOT correct.
those DNT students who are not covered under SC, ST The SMART (Scope for Mainstreaming Ayurveda
or OBC. Research in Teaching Professionals) program aims
The scheme of Pre-matric Scholarship for DNT students to boost scientific research through Ayurveda colleges
is helpful in spreading education amongst DNT and hospitals. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
children especially the girl child. Hence, statement It was observed that the research potential of the large
(III) is NOT correct. community of Ayurveda teachers remains underutilised
Nanaji Deshmukh Scheme of Construction of Hostels mostly. Therefore, the ‘SMART’ program will have a
for DNT Boys and Girls: This Centrally Sponsored deep long term rejuvenating impact on research in the
Scheme, launched in 2014-15, aims to provide hostel field of Ayurveda.
facilities to those DNT students; who are not covered It aims to identify, support and promote innovative
under SC, ST or OBC; to enable them to pursue higher research ideas in healthcare research areas including
education. Osteoarthritis, Iron Deficiency Anaemia, Chronic

Bronchitis, Dyslipidemia, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Prithvi II class is a single-stage liquid-fuelled missile
Obesity, Diabetes Mellitus, Psoriasis, Generalised that has warhead mounting capability of 500 kg-1000kg.
Anxiety Disorder, Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease Hence, option (3) is correct, but option (4) is NOT correct.
(NAFLD). The missile is a proven system and is capable of striking
Ayush is Traditional & Non-Conventional Systems targets with a very high degree of precision.
of Health Care and Healing which includes The state-of-the-art missile uses an advanced inertial
Ayurveda, Yoga, Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and guidance system with maneuvering trajectory to hit
Homoeopathy. its target.
It is developed by Defense Research and Development
33. (a) Organization (DRDO)
It was initially developed for the Indian Air Force as its
Explanation:
primary user and was later inducted into the Indian Army
The Ministry of Shipping, Waterways, and Ports has
as well.
launched ‘Bharat Pravah-India along its Shores’.
While the missile was inducted into India’s Strategic
Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
Forces Command for the first time in 2003, it was the
It highlights the significance and imagery of rivers,
first missile developed under the Integrated Guided
ports, and shipping in everyday life through a series Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
of nationwide events. Hence, statement (1) is correct. Its development began in 1983, and it was India’s first
Bharat Pravah will serve as a common platform to indigenous ballistic missile.
bring together stakeholders from different walks for
the purpose of creating a larger vision of shipping, 35. (a)
rivers, seas & people. Hence, statement (2) is NOT Explanation:
correct. Researchers have found the first known “Virovore,” or
It will highlight the challenges, policy issues and future organism that eats viruses. Hence, option (a) is correct.
goals relating to the maritime sector. These virus-eating species of protists — which are their
Themes: own kingdom on the tree of life and are not an animal,
Â Rivers and Sea-Centric Development in India- the plant, or fungi — are now classified as Virovores.
Historical lens. It is a species of Halteria - microscopic ciliates that
Â Sea, River, Ports and Ship in Folk Culture and Literature. populate freshwater worldwide.
They’re made up of nucleic acids, nitrogen, and
Â Representation of Ports and Shipping in Popular Culture.
phosphorus.
Â Role of Shipping and Ports in India’s Development
It can eat huge numbers of infectious chloroviruses that
in the last 30 years. share their aquatic habitat.
Â The Politics and Economy of Privatization of Ports. Chloroviruses are known to infect microscopic green
Â Inland Waterways – Arteries of Growth, their Role algae.
and Significance. These organisms can sustain themselves with viruses,
Â Greening Ports and Shipping Industry. consuming many and growing in size.
A virus-only diet, termed “virovory,” is enough to fuel
Â Future of Ports and Shipping Industry- Management,
the physiological growth and even population growth
Challenges and Policies.
of an organism.
34. (c) 36. (a)
Prithvi-II is an indigenously developed Surface-to In 2022, the World Bank priced the world’s first
Surface, Short-Range Ballistic Missile (SRBM), wildlife bond, raising USD 150 million that will be
which has a range of around 350 km and can carry one partly used for the conservation of black rhinos in
tonne payload. Hence, option (1) and (2) are correct. South Africa.

The Wildlife Conservation Bond is a first-of-its-kind, The Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and rules 1945 have
outcome-based, financial instrument that channels entrusted various responsibilities to central & state
investments to achieve conservation outcomes regulators for regulation of drugs & cosmetics.
measured in this case by an increase in black rhino It envisages uniform implementation of the provisions
populations. Hence, statement (1) is correct but of the Act & Rules made there under for ensuring the
statement (2) is NOT correct. safety, rights and well-being of the patients by
The program could be expanded to protect other regulating the drugs and cosmetics.
wildlife species. CDSCO is constantly thriving upon bringing out
transparency, accountability and uniformity in its
There are five rhino species globally (white and black
services in order to ensure safety, efficacy and quality
rhinos in Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan, and
of the medical product manufactured, imported and
Sumatran), with most of the animals in South Africa
distributed in the country. Hence, statement (1) is
and almost all of them are white rhinos as the number
correct.
of black rhinos is decreasing day by day. CDSCO is responsible for approval of Drugs, Conduct
37. (a) of Clinical Trials, laying down the standards for Drugs,
control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country
Explanation: and coordination of the activities of State Drug Control
In order to tackle the problem of water contamination Organizations by providing expert advice with a view
and enhance access to clean and drinkable water, the of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the
Indian Institute of Science Education and Research Drugs and Cosmetics Act.
(IISER), Pune has introduced a macro/microporous
39. (a)
ionic organic framework - iVOFm - to clean polluted
water. Hence, statement (1) is correct but statement Explanation:
(2) NOT correct. The greenshoe option, also known as the overallotment
Viologen-unit grafted organic-framework (iVOFm) option, allows the underwriters to sell more shares than
is a unique molecular sponge-like material to clean the agreed number during the initial public offering.
polluted water by soaking up the contaminants in it. Hence, option (a) is correct.
iVOFm employs amalgamation of electrostatics driven Under this clause, the underwriter is permitted to sell
ion-exchange combined with nanometersized up to 15% excess shares than the initially agreed number
macropores and specific binding sites for the targeted within 30 days of issuing an IPO.
The IPO underwriting contract between the issuing
pollutants.
company and the underwriters underlines the
Unlike normal sorbent materials, this material is found
specifications of the allotment. If the shares have more
to be very selective toward toxic pollutants. It can be
significant interest and the sale price exceeds the offer
used several times just like a bath sponge. price, the underwriters may exercise this option.
Ion Exchange (IX) is a process of deionisation where Benefit of Greenshoe Option:
dissolved impurity ions in water are replaced by Â High Demand: To benefit from the demand for a
hydrogen and hydroxyl ions, purifying the water. company’s shares, the underwriters may execute the
Water softeners are very similar to IX systems since greenshoe option.
both systems can remove magnesium and calcium ions Â Price Stabilisation: When the demand for a company’s
from the water. shares increases or decreases, overallotment can also
be utilized as a price stabilisation tactic.
38. (c)
Â Selling Price is More Than Offer Price: Share
Explanation: prices may rise above the offer price due to
The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization increasing demand for a company’s shares. In this
(CDSCO) is a statutory body under Ministry of case, the underwriters cannot repurchase the shares
Health & Family Welfare. Hence, statement (2) is at the current market price since they would suffer
correct. a loss.

40. (b)
Explanation:
National Green Hydrogen Mission aims to make India
a ‘global hub’ for using, producing and exporting green
hydrogen. It is a program to incentivise the commercial
production of green hydrogen and make India a net
exporter of the fuel.
Sub Schemes:
Â Strategic Interventions for Green Hydrogen
Transition Programme (SIGHT): It will fund the
domestic manufacturing of electrolysers and 41. (d)
produce green hydrogen.
Explanation:
Â Green Hydrogen Hubs: States and regions capable
Recently, Sweden’s state-owned mining company
of supporting large scale production and/or
LKAB discovered Europe’s largest deposit of rare earth
utilization of hydrogen will be identified and metals.
developed as Green Hydrogen Hubs. The store, situated in Kiruna located in the northern
Hydrogen is an energy carrier, not an energy source and region of Sweden, holds a stockpile of over 1 million
can deliver or store a tremendous amount of energy. metric tons of rare earth oxides. Hence, Statement (I)
Hence, statement (1) is correct. is NOT correct.
Hydrogen is a key industrial fuel that has a variety of This discovery bolsters Europe’s ambition to rely less
applications including the production of ammonia (a on imported raw materials needed for the green
key fertilizer), steel, refineries and electricity. Hence, transition.
statement (2) is correct. Currently, no rare earths are mined in Europe, and it
However, all the hydrogen manufactured now is the mostly imports them from other regions. Around 98%
so-called ‘black or brown’ hydrogen because they of rare earths used by the European Union (EU) are
are produced from coal. sent by China.
Hydrogen is the most abundant element in the universe. The discovery can prove to be a significant turning point
But pure, or the elemental hydrogen, is very scarce. It not just for the EU but also for other western countries
as they have been trying to reduce their reliance on
almost always exists in compounds like oxygen to form
China for the import of these rare earth elements. Hence,
H2O, or water.
statement (II) is correct.
But when electric current is passed through water, it
Rare Earth Elements a set of 17 metallic elements.
splits it into elemental oxygen and hydrogen through
These include the 15 lanthanides on the periodic table
electrolysis. And if the electricity used for this process
in addition to scandium and yttrium that show similar
comes from a renewable source like wind or solar then physical and chemical properties to the lanthanides.
the hydrogen thus produced is referred to as green Significance: They are important in technologies of
hydrogen. consumer electronics, computers and networks,
Colors attached to hydrogen indicate the source of communications, clean energy, advanced transportation,
electricity used to derive the hydrogen molecule. For healthcare, environmental mitigation, and national
instance, if coal is used, it is referred to as brown defence, among others.
hydrogen. India has 6% of the world’s rare earth mineral
Blue hydrogen is produced from natural gas, where the reserves. It only produces 1% of global output and
emissions are captured using carbon capture and meets most of its requirements of such minerals from
storage. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct. China.

42. (c) because archaeologists were familiar with Mesopotamian
history and its “priest-kings” and have found parallels
Explanation: in the Indus region. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Savitribai Jyotirao Phule was a prominent Indian
social reformer, educationist and poet who played an 44. (d)
instrumental role in women education and empowerment
Explanation:
during the nineteenth century.
The sixth century BCE (Mahajanapada) is often
She took great effort towards educating and emancipating
regarded as a major turning point in early Indian history.
child widows, campaigned against child marriage and
It is an era associated with early states, cities, the
sati pratha, and advocated for widow remarriage.
growing use of iron, the development of coinage, etc.
The first indigenously run school for girls in Pune
Hence, statement (1) is correct.
(at that time Poona) was started by Jyotirao and
It also witnessed the growth of diverse systems of
Savitribai in 1848. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
thought, including Buddhism and Jainism. Hence,
Savitribai became the first teacher at that school.
She also started the Mahila Seva Mandal with the
Early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention, amongst
objective of creating awareness among women
other things, sixteen states known as mahajanapadas.
regarding their rights, dignity and other social issues in
Some of these were- Vajji, Magadha, Koshala, Kuru,
1852. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
She successfully organized barber’s strike in
Panchala, Gandhara and Avanti.
While most mahajanapadas were ruled by kings, some,
Mumbai and Pune to oppose the prevailing custom
of shaving heads of widows. Hence, statement (2) is known as ganas or sanghas, were oligarchies, where
correct. power was shared by a number of men, often collectively
called rajas. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
43. (b) Both Mahavira and the Buddha belonged to such
Explanation: ganas. In some instances, as in the case of the Vajji

Terracotta models of the plough have been found at
sangha, the rajas probably controlled resources such as
sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana). land, collectively.
Archaeologists have also found evidence of a ploughed Each mahajanapada had a capital city, which was
field at Kalibangan (Rajasthan), associated with often fortified.
Early Harappan levels. 45. (a)
Most Harappan sites are located in semi-arid lands,
where irrigation was probably required for Explanation:
agriculture. The Junagadh inscription also known as Girnar
Traces of canals have been found at the Harappan site inscription of Rudradaman I gives a glimpse into
of Shortughai in Afghanistan, but not in Punjab or water management in ancient India.
Sind. The Sudarshana lake was an artificial reservoir.
It is also likely that water drawn from wells was used Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
for irrigation. We know about it from a rock inscription (2nd century
Water reservoirs found in Dholavira (Gujarat) may CE) in Sanskrit, composed to record the achievements
have been used to store water for agriculture. Hence, of the Shaka ruler Rudradaman. Hence, statement
statement (1) is correct. (1) is correct.
Although Mohenjodaro is the most well-known site, The inscription mentions that the lake, with embankments
the first site to be discovered was Harappa. Hence, and water channels, was built by a local governor
statement (2) is NOT correct. during the rule of the Mauryas.
A stone statue at Mohenjodaro was labelled and However, a terrible storm broke the embankments and
continues to be known as the “priest-king”. This is water gushed out of the lake.

Rudradaman, who was then ruling in the area, Jatis which shared a common occupation or profession
claimed to have got the lake repaired using his own were sometimes organised into shrenis or guilds.
resources, without imposing any tax on his subjects. One interesting stone inscription (c. fifth century CE),
Another inscription on the same rock (c. fifth century) found in Mandsaur (Madhya Pradesh) provides a
mentions how one of the rulers of the Gupta dynasty fascinating glimpse of complex social processes and
got the lake repaired once again. provides insights into the nature of guilds or shrenis.
Although membership was based on a shared craft
46. (b) specialisation, some members adopted other
Explanation: occupations.
During the Sangam Age, the large landholders, as well It also indicates that the members shared more than
as the village headman (whose position was often a common profession – they collectively decided to
hereditary), emerged as powerful figures, and often invest their wealth, earned through their craft, to
exercised control over other cultivators. construct a splendid temple in honour of the sun god.
Early Tamil literature (the Sangam texts) also
48. (c)
mentions different categories of people living in the
villages – Explanation:
Â Vellalar- large landowners. Hence, option (1) is The Satavahanas originally seem to have been a tribe
NOT correct. of the Deccan. But they were Brahmanized later.
Â Uzhavar- ploughmen. Hence, option (2) is correct. Some of the Satavahana rulers were polygynous (that
is, had more than one wife). Hence, statement (2) is
Â Adimai- slaves. Hence, option (3) is correct.
correct.
It is likely that these differences were based on An examination of the names of women who married
differential access to land, labour and some of the new Satavahana rulers indicates that many of them had
technologies. names derived from gotras such as Gotama and
In such a situation, questions of control over land must Vasistha, their father’s gotras. Hence, statement (1)
have become crucial, as these were often discussed in is correct.
legal texts They evidently retained these names instead of
adopting names derived from their husband’s gotra name
47. (b)
as they were required to do according to the Brahmanical
Explanation: rules.
The social complexities in ancient India are reflected in What is also apparent is that some of these women
another term used in texts to refer to social categories belonged to the same gotra.
– jati. As is obvious, this ran counter to the ideal of exogamy
In Brahmanical theory, jati, like varna, was based recommended in the Brahmanical texts.
on birth. In fact, it exemplified an alternative practice, that of
However, while the number of varnas was fixed at endogamy or marriage within the kin group, which
four, there was no restriction on the number of jatis. was (and is) prevalent amongst several communities in
Hence, statement (1) is correct but statement (2) is south India.
NOT correct. Such marriages amongst kinfolk (such as cousins)
In fact, whenever Brahmanical authorities ensured a close-knit community.
encountered new groups – for instance, people living The Satavahana rulers were identified through
in forests such as the nishadas or wanted to assign a metronymics (names derived from that of the
name to occupational categories such as the goldsmith mother). Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
or suvarnakara, which did not easily fit into the fourfold Although this may suggest that mothers were important,
varna system, they classified them as a jati. Hence, we need to be cautious before we arrive at any
statement (3) is correct. conclusion.

In the case of the Satavahanas the succession to the 51. (c)
throne was generally patrilineal. Hence, statement
(4) is correct. Explanation:
Oman is a strategic partner of India in the Gulf and
49. (b) an important interlocutor at the Gulf Cooperation
Council (GCC), Arab League and Indian Ocean Rim
Explanation:
Association (IORA) forum.
The region where new kingdoms emerged in the
In a strategic move to expand its footprint in the Indian
Deccan and further south, including the chiefdoms
Ocean region, India has secured access to the key Port
of the Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas was known as
of Duqm in Oman for military use and logistical
Tamilakam. Hence, option (b) is correct.
support. This is part of India’s maritime strategy to
It is the name of the ancient Tamil country, which
counter Chinese influence and activities in the region.
included parts of present-day Andhra Pradesh and The Port of Duqm is strategically located, in close
Kerala, in addition to Tamil Nadu. proximity to the Chabahar port in Iran. With the
This region was stable and prosperous. Assumption Island being developed in Seychelles and
We know about these states from a variety of sources. Agalega in Mauritius, Duqm fits into India’s proactive
For instance, the early Tamil Sangam texts contain maritime security roadmap. Hence, statement (1) is
poems describing chiefs and the ways in which they correct.
acquired and distributed resources. Defence cooperation has emerged as a key pillar for the
A lot of information is available in the Sangam literature robust India-Oman strategic partnership.
to understand the position of women during the Sangam Oman is the only country in the Gulf region with which
age. all three services of the Indian armed forces conduct
These dynasties promoted early literature on the Indian regular bilateral exercises and staff talks, enabling close
subcontinent and built important Hindu temples. cooperation and trust at the professional level.
Â Army exercise: Al Najah
50. (b)
Â Air Force exercise: Eastern Bridge. Hence,
Explanation: statement (2) is correct.
The Buddha’s teachings have been reconstructed from Â Naval Exercise: Naseem Al Bahr
stories, found mainly in the Sutta Pitaka. Oman is at the gateway of Strait of Hormuz through
These stories were narrated in the language spoken which India imports one-fifth of its oil imports. Hence,
by ordinary people so that these could be easily statement (3) is correct.
understood.
According to Buddhist philosophy, the world is 52. (a)
transient (anicca) and constantly changing. Hence, Explanation:
statement (1) is NOT correct. Fourth Industrial Revolution (4IR): It is characterized
It is also soulless (anatta) as there is nothing by the use of technology to blur the boundaries amongst
permanent or eternal in it. Hence, statement (2) is the digital, physical, and biological worlds, and is driven
correct. by data. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Within this transient world, sorrow (dukkha) is The term ‘4IR’ was coined by Klaus Schwab, executive
intrinsic to human existence. Hence, statement (3) is chairperson of the WEF, in 2016.
correct. Key technologies include cloud computing, big data,
It is by following the path of moderation between autonomous robots, cybersecurity, simulation, additive
severe penance and self-indulgence that human beings manufacturing, and the internet of things (IoT).
can rise above these worldly troubles. Major Examples of its Application:
In the earliest forms of Buddhism, whether or not God Â Pacemaker: The four wireless sensors of the
existed was irrelevant. pacemaker monitor vitals such as temperature,

oxygen levels and the heart’s electrical activity. The The two organizations agreed to be set up at a conference
device then analyses the vitals and decides when to in Bretton Woods in the US. Hence, they are known as
pace the heart and at what rate. Doctors can the Bretton Woods twins. Hence, statement (2) is
wirelessly access the information on a tablet or NOT correct.
smartphone. The IMF is governed by and accountable to the 190
Â Xenobots: These are less than a millimetre long, countries that make up its near-global membership.
and are known to be the first living robot, were India joined on 27th December 1945.
created in 2020 from the stem cells of the African Reports: Global Financial Stability Report, World
clawed frog and can be programmed using artificial Economic Outlook. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
intelligence. 54. (b)
Recently, the World Economic Forum (WEF) has
Explanation:
chosen Hyderabad, Telangana for establishing its
A new report from the World Health Organization
Center for the Fourth Industrial Revolution (C4IR).
(WHO) has found that 5 billion people globally remain
The C4IR Telangana will be an autonomous, nonprofit
unprotected from harmful trans fats, increasing their
organization with a thematic focus on healthcare and
risk of heart disease and death.
life sciences. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
WHO first called for the global elimination of
53. (b) industrially produced trans fats in 2018, with an
elimination target set for 2023.
Explanation: WHO released REPLACE, which provides six
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an strategic actions to ensure the prompt, complete, and
organization of 190 member countries, each of which sustained elimination of industrially produced trans
has representation on the IMF’s executive board in fats from the food supply. They are:
proportion to its financial importance, so that the most Â Review dietary sources of industrially produced
powerful countries in the global economy have the most trans fats and the landscape for required policy
voting power. change.
Purpose of IMF: Its primary purpose is to ensure the Â Promote the replacement of industrially produced
stability of the international monetary system — the trans fats with healthier fats and oils.
system of exchange rates and international payments Â Legislate or enact regulatory actions to eliminate
that enables countries (and their citizens) to transact industrially produced trans fats.
with each other. Hence, statement (1) is correct. Â Assess and monitor trans fats content in the food
The Fund’s mandate was updated in 2012 to include all
supply and changes in trans-fat consumption in the
macroeconomic and financial sector issues that bear on population.
global stability.
Â Create awareness of the negative health impact
It has three critical missions:
of trans fats among policymakers, producers,
Â Furthering international monetary cooperation,
suppliers, and the public.
encouraging the expansion of trade and economic
Â Enforce compliance of policies and regulations.
growth.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Â Discouraging policies that would harm prosperity.
Â To fulfil these missions, IMF member countries 55. (a)
work collaboratively with each other and with other Explanation:
international bodies. Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space
The IMF was set up along with the World Bank after Administration’s (NASA) James Webb Space
the Second World War to assist in the reconstruction of Telescope has discovered its first new exoplanet
war-ravaged countries. named- LHS 475b.

LHS 475 b is roughly the same size as Earth, its 57. (b)
diameter is 99% the same as Earth. Hence, statement
Explanation:
(1) is correct.
India and Russia have begun the joint production of
It is a terrestrial, rocky planet about 41 light-years
AK 203 rifles at a factory in Amethi, Uttar Pradesh.
away from Earth in the constellation Octans. It differs
Hence, option (b) is correct.
from Earth in that it completes an orbit in just two days Key Points:
and is hundreds of degrees hotter than Earth. Hence, Â More than six lakh rifles are to be manufactured in
statement (2) is NOT correct. India as part of a joint venture — Indo-Russia Rifles
It differs from Earth in that it completes an orbit in just Private Limited established between the Indian
two days and is hundreds of degrees hotter than Earth. Ordnance Factory Board (OFB), Kalashnikov
It is also closer to its star than any planet in our solar Concern, and Rosoboronexport, (both subsidiaries
system is to the sun, although its star is less than half of the Rostec State Corporation).
the temperature of the sun. Â The deal aims to have rifles made of 100%
Its red dwarf star is less than half the temperature of the indigenous components over a period of 128 months.
Sun, so the researchers are expecting that it still could AK-203 assault rifle is considered to be the latest
have an atmosphere. and most advanced version of the AK-47 rifle.
Significance of this discovery: These first observations Â It is expected to replace the Indian Small Arms
result from an Earth-size rocky planet open the door to System (INSAS) 5.56×45 mm assault rifle, which
many future possibilities for studying rocky planet are presently being used by Army, Navy and the Air
atmospheres. Force besides other security forces.
56. (c) 58. (b)

Ballistic Missile: The Jain community has been protesting over demands
It is a rocket-propelled self-guided strategic-weapons related to two holy sites — Sammed Shikhar on
system that follows a parabolic trajectory to deliver Parasnath hill in Jharkhand and Shatrunjaya hill in
a payload from its launch site to a predetermined fixed Palitana of Gujarat.
target. Hence, statement (II) is NOT correct. In Jharkhand, Parasnath hill was declared a tourist spot
Cruise missile follows a straight trajectory of motion. and an eco-sensitive zone without consulting the people
Ballistic missiles can carry conventional high explosives from the Jain community, while in Gujarat, the row is
as well as chemical, biological, or nuclear munitions. over the vandalizing of a shrine and related security
Since ballistic missiles travel in projectile motion and
concerns in Shatrunjaya Hill.
Shatrunjaya Hill is a sacred site containing hundreds of
trajectory depends on gravity, air resistance and Coriolis
shrines in Palitana town, Bhavnagar District,
force. So, they leave the earth’s atmosphere and re-enter
Gujarat. Hence, option (b) is correct.
it. Hence, statement (I) is correct.
The shrines were sanctified when Rishabha, the first
Ballistic missiles are launched directly into the upper
Tirthankara of Jainism, gave his first sermon in the
layers of the earth’s atmosphere. They travel outside the temple on the hilltop. It is believed that Adinath (also
atmosphere, where the warhead detaches from the known as Rishabha), the founder of Jainism, meditated
missile and falls towards a predetermined target. beneath the rayan tree at the summit.
They are rocket-propelled self-guided weapons
systems which can carry conventional or nuclear 59. (c)
munitions. They can be launched from aircraft, ships, Explanation:
submarines, and land. Written more than 2,000 years ago, Ashtadhyayi or
They are long-range missiles (300 km to 12,000 km). ‘Eight Chapters’, is an ancient text written by the
E.g., Prithvi I, Prithvi II, Agni I, Agni II and Dhanush scholar Panini towards the end of the 4th century BC.
missiles. Hence, statement (1) is correct.

It is a linguistic text that sets the standard for how The report unveils high enrolment of children in schools
Sanskrit was meant to be written and spoken. which are a good performance indicator for government
It delves deep into the language’s phonetics, syntax programmes like Nipun Bharat Mission.
and grammar, and also offers a ‘language machine’, According to the ASER, 2022 the country has observed
where one can feed in the root and suffix of any Sanskrit an increase in the enrolment of children in government
word and get grammatically correct words and sentences schools.
in return. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
61. (c)
The Ashtadhyayi laid down more than 4,000
grammatical rules. Later Indian grammars such as the Explanation:
Mahabhasya of Patanjali (2nd century BC) and the Esports (Electronic Sports) is a competitive sport
Kasika Vritti of Jayaditya and Vamana (7th century where gamers use their physical and mental abilities to
AD), were mostly commentaries on Panini. compete in various games in a virtual, electronic
Recently, a Cambridge scholar Dr Rishi Rajpopat environment. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
has claimed to have solved Sanskrit’s biggest puzzle—a Examples of E-sports include Counter Strike, PUBG,
grammar problem found in the ‘Ashtadhyayi’. League of Legends, Overwatch, Fortnite, DOTA 2.
The Scholar took a simpler approach, arguing that the According to a gazette notification, E-Sports has now
meta-rule has been wrongly interpreted throughout become a part of the multisport event category in
history; what Panini actually meant was that for rules India. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
applying to the left and right sides of a word, readers It has received its sporting recognition from the
should use the right-hand side rule. International Olympic Committee (IOC), which is
Using this logic, Dr Rajpopat found that the the apex body of sports along with Olympic Council of
‘Ashtadhyayi’ could finally become an accurate Asia (OCA), Commonwealth Games etc.
E-Sports will be taken care of by the Department of
‘language machine’, producing grammatically sound
Sports under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
words and sentences almost every time.
While ‘Online Gaming’ will be overseen by MEITY
The discovery now makes it possible to construct
(Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology).
millions of Sanskrit words using Panini’s system and
since his grammar rules were exact and formulaic, they
can act as a Sanskrit language algorithm that can be 62. (d)
taught to computers. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Explanation:
60. (b) Legal Provisions: The Assisted Reproductive
Technology (ART) Act 2021 provides a system for the
Explanation: implementation of the law on surrogacy by setting up
17th Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2022
of the National Assisted Reproductive Technology and
was released by NGO Pratham, which highlights the Surrogacy Board. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
impact of the pandemic on education. Hence, statement Definition: The Act defines ART to include all
(1) is correct. techniques that seek to obtain a pregnancy by
It is an annual, citizen-led household survey that aims handling the sperm or the oocyte (immature egg cell)
to understand whether children in rural India are outside the human body and transferring the gamete or
enrolled in school and whether they are learning. Hence, the embryo into the reproductive system of a woman.
statement (2) is correct. These include gamete donation (of sperm or egg), in
As per the report there has been a decline in the basic vitro fertilisation (IVF), and gestational surrogacy.
reading and arithmetic skills of young children in Class Eligibility Criteria for Donors: A bank may obtain
3 and Class 5 in India. semen from males between 21 and 55 years of age,
The report estimates the enrolment status of children and eggs from females between 23 and 35 years of
aged 3 to 16 years and the basic reading and arithmetic age. The woman may donate eggs only once in her life
levels of children aged 5-16 at the national, state and and not more than seven eggs may be retrieved from
district level. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct. her. Hence, statement (2) is correct.

Conditions for Offering Services: ART procedures 64. (b)
must be conducted only with the written consent of the
commissioning parties and the donor. The commissioning Explanation:
party will be required to provide insurance coverage in The Permanent Settlement had come into operation
favour of the egg donor (for any loss, damage, or death). in 1793. The East India Company had fixed the revenue
Hence, statement (3) is correct. that each zamindar had to pay. The estates of those who
Rights of a child born through ART: A child born failed to pay were to be auctioned to recover the revenue.
through ART will be deemed to be a biological child of Since the raja had accumulated huge arrears, his estates
the commissioning couple and will be entitled to the had been put up for auction.
rights and privileges available to a natural child of the Charles Cornwallis (1738-1805) was the commander
commissioning couple. A donor will not have any of the British forces during the American War of
parental rights over the child. Independence and the Governor General of Bengal
Limitations: The Act excludes unmarried men, when the Permanent Settlement was introduced there
divorced men, widowed men, unmarried yet cohabiting in 1793.
heterosexual couples, trans-persons and homosexual Permanent Settlement was made with the rajas and
couples (whether married or cohabiting) from taluqdars of Bengal. They were classified as zamindars,
availing ART services. Hence, statement (4) is correct. and they had to pay the revenue demand that was fixed
in perpetuity. In terms of this definition, the zamindar
63. (a) was not a landowner in the village, but a revenue
Explanation: collector of the state.
Pravasi Bharatiya Divas (PBD) is celebrated on 9th The first revenue settlement in the Bombay Deccan
January to mark the contribution of the Overseas Indian was made in the 1820s called Ryotwari settlement.
community to the development of India. Hence, Hence, statement (1) is correct.
statement (I) is correct. The revenue system that was introduced in the Bombay
9th January was chosen as the day to celebrate PBD Deccan came to be known as the ryotwari settlement.
since it was on this day in 1915 that Mahatma Gandhi, Unlike the Bengal system, the revenue was directly
returned to India from South Africa, led India’s settled with the ryot. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
freedom struggle and changed the lives of Indians The average income from different types of soil was
forever. Hence, statement (II) is correct. estimated, the revenue-paying capacity of the ryot was
A commemorative stamp, ‘Surakshit Jaayen, assessed and a proportion of it fixed as the share of the
Prashikshit Jaayen’ was also released on the occasion. state.
This day came into effect in 2003 but was revised in The lands were resurveyed every 30 years and the
2015. It was then a theme-based conference that was revenue rates increased. Therefore, the revenue
set up every year during the interim period. PBD demand was no longer permanent. Hence, statement
Conventions are held once every two years. (3) is NOT correct.
The theme for PBD 2023 was “Diaspora: Reliable
65. (a)
partners for India’s progress in Amrit Kaal”.
On this day, the Government also confers Pravasi Explanation:
Bharatiya Samman Award. It is the highest honour Santhals had moved into Rajmahal Hill areas around
conferred on NRI, PIO or an organisation or 1800, displaced the hill folk called as Paharias who
institution established and run by NRI or PIO, who lived on these lower slopes, cleared the forests and
have made significant contributions to a better settled the land.
understanding of India abroad, support India’s causes Zamindars hired them to reclaim land and expand
and concerns in a tangible way. cultivation, and British officials invited them to settle
Therefore, both statement (I) and statement (II) are in the Jangal Mahals. Having failed to subdue the
correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Paharias and transform them into settled agriculturists,
Statement (I). the British turned to the Santhals.

The Santhals were given land and persuaded to settle Organisations such as the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
in the foothills of Rajmahal. By 1832 a large area of also threw their weight behind the peasantry and
land was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh. campaigned actively for relief to the struggling
The Santhals, however, soon found that the land they agriculturalists.
had brought under cultivation was slipping away from A Deccan Riots Commission was formed to investigate
their hands. into the riots, and it submitted its report to the British
The state was levying heavy taxes on the land that the
Parliament in 1878.
Santhals had cleared, moneylenders (dikus) were
The demonstration of anger by the peasantry compelled
charging them high rates of interest and taking over the
the administration to swing into action, and the Deccan
land when debts remained unpaid, and zamindars were
asserting control over the Damin area. Agriculturalists Relief Act was passed in 1879 to
By the 1850s, the Santhals felt that the time had come extend protection to them against the moneylenders.
to rebel against zamindars, moneylenders and the Hence, option (d) is correct.
colonial state, in order to create an ideal world for
67. (c)
themselves where they would rule. Hence, statement
(3) is NOT correct. Explanation:
It was after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56) that the Bahadur Shah was the nominal leader of the rebellion
Santhal Pargana was created, carving out 5,500 square in Delhi. The real command lay with the court of soldiers
miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. headed by General Bakht Khan who had led the revolt
Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. of Bareilly troops and brought them to Delhi.
Sidhu Manjhi was the leader of the Santhal rebellion. In Kanpur, the sepoys and the people of the town gave
Nana Sahib, the successor to Peshwa Baji Rao II, no
66. (d) choice save to join the revolt as their leader. Hence, pair
(1) is correctly matched.
Explanation:
In Jhansi, the Rani Laxmibai was forced by the popular
The Deccan Riots, which took place in 1875, began in
pressure around her to assume the leadership of the
Pune, Maharashtra. The “riots” were an expression of
the peasant discontent against the British administration uprising.
that had systematically ruined agriculture with Kunwar Singh, a local zamindar in Arrah in Bihar
exaggerated revenue demands and maladministration. played a leadership role in the revolt of 1857. Hence,
Most notable factors which contributed to the outbreak pair (2) is correctly matched.
of peasant agitations in 1875 was the exaggerated land In Awadh, where the displacement of the popular
revenue demand made by the British. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah and the annexation of the state
During the American Civil War, most peasants had were still very fresh in the memory of the people, the
switched to cotton farming, attracted by the high prices, populace in Lucknow celebrated the fall of British rule
but the prices crashed dramatically in 1864 when the by hailing Birjis Qadr, the young son of the Nawab,
War concluded, and supply of Cotton resumed from and his mother Begum Hazrat Mahal as their leader.
America. The situation was made worse by a series of Hence, pair (3) is correctly matched.
bad harvests over the next several years. It was during
Shah Mal mobilised the villagers of pargana Barout in
this period of crisis that the British administration
Uttar Pradesh in the revolt.
suddenly raised land revenue by over 50%.
Gonoo, a tribal cultivator of Singhbhum in Chotanagpur,
The peasantry, which had gathered for the weekly
bazaar, launched attacks on the moneylenders and became a rebel leader of the Kol tribals of the region.
destroyed the debt contracts and bonds. The ryots Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah of Faizabad was one of the
came to see the moneylender as devious and deceitful. many maulvis who played an important part in the revolt
They complained of moneylenders manipulating laws of 1857. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly matched.
and forging accounts. Deeds and bonds appeared as At Bareilly, Khan Bahadur Khan, a descendant of the
symbols of the new oppressive system. former ruler of Rohilkhand, was placed in command.

68. (b) To the British public such paintings were reassuring.
They created a sense that the time of trouble was past,
Explanation: and the rebellion was over; the British were the victors.
Subsidiary Alliance was a system devised by Lord Hence, option (a) is correct.
Wellesley in 1798.
The ally had to disband his military force, allow the 70. (d)
British to position their troops within the kingdom, and
Explanation:
act in accordance with the advice of the British
In 1817, during the British colonial period in India, there
Resident who was now to be attached to the court.
were Lottery Commissions established by the British
Deprived of his armed forces, the ally became
authorities after the departure of Wellesley from
increasingly dependent on the British to maintain law
Calcutta.
and order within the kingdom. He could no longer assert
The City of Calcutta grew from three villages called
control over his internal and external matters. Hence,
Sutanati, Kolkata and Govindapur and a new fort
city is bult there, named Fort William.
All those who entered into such an alliance with the
These lotteries were used as a means to raise revenue
British had to accept certain terms and conditions:
for town improvement, including financing public
Â The British would be responsible for protecting
works, like road building, sanitation and clearing
their ally from external and internal threats to
the encroachments. The lotteries were a common form
their power. Hence, statement (3) is NOT correct.
of taxation and fundraising during that time.
Â In the territory of the ally, a British armed In the early decades of nineteenth century raising funds
contingent would be stationed. Hence, statement for the city was thought to be the responsibility of
(1) is correct. public-minded citizens and not exclusively of
Â The ally would have to provide the resources for government.
maintaining this contingent. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Â The ally could enter into agreements with other
rulers or engage in warfare only with the 71. (a)
permission of the British. Hence, statement (2) Explanation:
is NOT correct The Town Hall was designed by Colonel Thomas
Cowper who was one of the best engineers in Bombay
69. (a) (Mumbai). With a span of 200 feet and height of 100
Explanation: feet, the structure was inspired by Greek and Roman
“Relief of Lucknow” was painted by Thomas Jones styles of architecture. The entrance of the building is
Barker, 1859. adorned with a Grecian portico and 8 impressive Doric
British pictures offer a variety of images that were meant styled pillars.
to provoke a range of different emotions and reactions. Elphinstone Circle, Fort was built in 1869 when the city
Some of them commemorate the British heroes who of Bombay was booming under the direct administration
saved the English and repressed the rebels. “Relief of of the British crown. A good example of fine colonial
Lucknow”, painted by Thomas Jones Barker in 1859, urban planning, it was designed by James Scott, Chief
is an example of this type. Engineer of the Elphinstone Land Corporation. It is
Barker’s painting celebrates the moment of Campbell’s quite similar to Bath’s Royal Crescent.
entry. At the centre of the canvas are the British heroes Bombay Secretariat was designed by H. St Clair
– Campbell, Outram and Havelock. The gestures of the Wilkins.
hands of those around lead the spectator’s eyes towards Victoria Terminus Railway station and the Municipal
the centre. The heroes stand on a ground that is well lit, Corporation Building, Bombay was designed by F. W.
with shadows in the foreground and the damaged Stevens.
Residency in the background. Hence, option (a) is correct.

72. (b) Mountbatten. Mountbatten called one last round of talks,
but when these too proved inconclusive he announced
Explanation: that British India would be freed, but also divided. The
The British government convened a series of “Round formal transfer of power was fixed for 15 August.
Table Conferences” in London. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
The first meeting was held in November 1930, but Lord Willingdon (1931-36): Second Round Table
without the pre-eminent political leader in India, thus conference was held.
rendering it an exercise in futility. Lord Irwin (1926-31): Dandi March was organised
Gandhiji was released from jail in January 1931 and the from March 12, 1930. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly
following month had several long meetings with the matched.
Viceroy. These culminated in what was called the
“Gandhi-Irwin Pact’, by the terms of which civil 74. (a)
disobedience would be called off. Hence, Statement
Explanation:
(1) is correct.
In the end of December 1929, the Congress held its
A second Round Table Conference was held in London
annual session in the city of Lahore.
in November 1931.
The meeting was significant for two things:
The Conference in London was inconclusive, so
Â The election of Jawaharlal Nehru as President,
Gandhiji returned to India and resumed civil
signifying the passing of the baton of leadership to
disobedience. The new Viceroy, Lord Willingdon, was
the younger generation;
deeply unsympathetic to the Indian leader. Hence,
Statement (3) is NOT correct. Â The proclamation of commitment to “Purna Swaraj”,
At the Second Round Table Conference, London, or complete independence. Hence, option (a) is
November 1931, Mahatma Gandhi opposed the correct.
demand for separate electorates for “lower castes”. On 26 January 1930, “Independence Day” was observed,
He believed that this would prevent their integration with the national flag being hoisted in different venues,
into mainstream society and permanently segregate and patriotic songs being sung on the bank of River
them from other caste Hindus. Hence, Statement (2) Ravi, in Lahore.
is NOT correct. In the Lahore Session, Congress declared Purna Swaraj
The Lord Willingdon was a viceroy of India when the as the main motive. It motivated people come up with
conference was held in London. Hence, Statement (4) great energy and ask for full freedom.
is correct. The struggle for freedom, which was by some
nationalists, was now become the struggle of common
73. (c) people.
Explanation:
75. (c)
Lord Linlithgow (1936-43): The Second World War
broke out in 1939. In the meeting the nature of India’s Explanation:
involvement in the War was discussed. When Ashoka’s Dhamma did not involve worship of a god, or
negotiations with the Viceroy broke down, the Congress performance of a sacrifice.
ministries resigned. Hence, pair (3) is correctly He felt that just as a father tries to teach his children, he
matched. had a duty to instruct his subjects. He was also inspired
Lord Wavell (1944-1947): Jinnah called for a “Direct by the teachings of the Buddha. So, he appointed
Action Day” to press the League’s demand for Pakistan officials, known as the Dhamma Mahamatta who went
on the designated day, 16 August 1946. Hence, pair (2) from place-to-place teaching people about dhamma.
is correctly matched. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
Lord Mountbatten (1947-1948): The Indian There were a number of problems that troubled him.
Independence bill passed in House of Commons. In People in the empire followed different religions, and
February 1947, Wavell was replaced as Viceroy by Lord this sometimes led to conflict. Animals were sacrificed.

Ashoka felt it was his duty to solve these problems. He was the first ruler who tried to take his message to
Besides, Ashoka got his messages inscribed on rocks the people through inscriptions. Most of Ashoka’s
and pillars, instructing his officials to read his message inscriptions were in Prakrit and were written in the
to those who could not read it themselves. Brahmi script. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
76. (b)
Explanation:
King Dynasty Associated facts
Vijayalaya Chola The Chola Empire was founded by Vijayalaya.
He took over the Tanjore kingdom in the 8th century and led to the rise of the mighty
Cholas by defeating the Pallavas.Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
Dantidurga Rashtrakuta Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta empire who fixed his capital at
Manyakheta or Malk-hed near modern Sholapur. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly
matched.
Prithviraja III Chahamanas He ruled in 12th century from 1178 to 1192 AD.
He ruled Ajmer and Delhi in central North India and his capital was located in Ajmer.
Hence, pair (3) is correctly matched.
Nagabhata I Pratiharas The foundation of Pratihara dynasty’s magnitude was positioned by Nagabhatta I,
who ruled between 730-756 C.E. Hence, pair (4) is NOT correctly matched.
77. (a) This movement began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth
Explanation: century.
The Delhi sultans built several mosques in cities all The Virashaivas argued strongly for the equality of all
over the subcontinent. These demonstrated their claims human beings and against Brahmanical ideas about
to be protectors of Islam and Muslims, mosques also caste and the treatment of women. They were also
helped to create a sense of a community of believers against all forms of ritual and idol worship. Hence,
who shared a belief system and a code of conduct. statement (2) is correct.
Moth ki Mosque is a heritage building located in Delhi, Basavanna was a great saint, a true visionary and a
and was built in 1505 by Wazir Miya Bhoiya, Prime revolutionary who gave a universal religion to mankind.
Minister during the reign of Sikander Lodi (1489– He fought for the freedom of an individual.
1517) of the Lodi dynasty. Hence, option (a) is correct. He created tremendous awareness among the people by
The mosque moth is built on a high platform of declaring, “None is high or low just by birth. Greatness
sandstone. The layout of this mosque is completely
can be acquired only through personality and pursuit of
square. The Mosque has a unique sample of Mughal
principles. Thus, the whole of mankind should get
and Hindu art in the design of arches. Above the stairs
religious sanctification”.
of the entrance is a large courtyard of 38.6 meters width.
Within the courtyard is the main mosque on the west 79. (c)
side. It has a rectangular prayer hall.
Explanation:
78. (c) Inscriptions:
Explanation: These are writings on relatively hard surfaces such as
Virashaiva movement was initiated by Basavanna and stone or metal. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
his companions like Allama Prabhu and Akkamahadevi. Sometimes, kings got their orders inscribed so that
Hence, statement (1) is correct. people could see, read and obey them.

There are other kinds of inscriptions as well, where men provided training, procured raw material and distributed
and women (including kings and queens) recorded what the finished product. Then shrenis of merchants
they did. For example, kings often kept records of organised the trade.
victories in battle. Shrenis also served as banks where rich men and
Manuscript: women deposited money. This was invested, and part
There are several ways of finding out about the past.
of interest was returned or used to support religious
One is to search for and read books that were written
institution such as monasteries. Hence, statement (1)
long ago. is correct.
These are called manuscripts, because they were written Arikamedu:
by hand (this comes from the Latin word ‘manu’, Between 2200 and 1900 years ago, Arikamedu was a
meaning hand). coastal settlement where ships unloaded goods from
These were usually written on palm leaf, or on the distant lands.
specially prepared bark of a tree known as the birch, The finds at Arikamedu include pottery from the
which grows in the Himalayas. Hence, statement (2) Mediterranean region, such as amphorae and
is correct. stamped red glazed pottery, known as Arretine Ware,
which was named after a city in Italy. This was made
80. (c) by pressing wet clay into a stamped Mould.
Explanation: There was yet another kind of pottery which was made
Shrenis: locally, though Roman designs were used. Roman
Craftspersons and merchants formed association lamps, glassware and gems have also been found at
known as shrenis. These shrenis of craftsperson the site. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
81. (b)
Explanation:
Saint State Important Facts
Saint Kabir Uttar Pradesh He was a 15th century mystic poet, saint and social reformer.
Kabir Das’ writings had a great influence on the Bhakti movement and include titles
like Kabir Granthawali, Anurag Sagar, Bijak, and Sakhi Granth. Hence, pair (1)
is NOT correctly matched.
Saint Eknath Maharashtra Eknath, poet-saint and mystic of Vaishnavism, the branch of Hinduism that reveres
the deity Vishnu and his avatars (incarnations).
Eknath is best known for his translations of various Sanskrit texts into Marathi. Hence,
pair (2) is correctly matched.
Saint Tyagaraja Tamil Nadu Tyagaraja is widely regarded as one of three major composers – known as the Trinity
– of Carnatic Music who flourished in Tanjore or Thanjavur in the early 19th century,
the others being Muthuswami Dikshitar and Syama Sastri. Hence, pair (3) is
correctly matched.
82. (a)
The Unionist Party mainly represented the interests
Explanation: of the landed gentry and landlords of Punjab, which
Unionist party: included Muslims, Hindus and Sikhs. Hence, statement
The National Unionist Party was a political party based (2) is NOT correct.
in the Punjab Province during the period of British The party was particularly powerful during the period
rule in India. 1923-1947.

The Pakistan Resolution: 84. (a)
The ‘Pakistan Resolution’ was passed at Lahore
Explanation:
session of All India Muslim League. Hence, statement
Amongst the states that were carved out of the old
(1) is correct.
Mughal provinces in the eighteenth century three stand
The Pakistan demand was formalised gradually. On 23
out very prominently These were Awadh, Bengal, and
March 1940, the All-India Muslim League moved a
Hyderabad. All three states are founded by members of
resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the
high Mughal nobility who had been governor of large
Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent. This provinces.
ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or
Pakistan. Hyderabad:
Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah, the founder of Hyderabad
83. (b) state was one of the most powerful members at court of
Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar .
Explanation:
He was entrusted first with governorship of Awadh and
The Cholas (8th-12th century AD) are remembered as
later given charge of deccan.
one of the longest ruling dynasties in the southern He appointed Mansabdars and granted jagirs. Hence,
regions of India. pair (2) is NOT correctly matched.
The reign of the Cholas began in the 9th century when
they defeated the Pallavas to come into power. This Awadh:
Burhan-ul-Mulk Saadat Khan was appointed
rule stretched over for over five long centuries until
subahdar of Awadh in 1722.
the 13th century.
Awadh was a prosperous region, controlling rich alluvial
The system of rule was such that each village acted as
ganga plain and main trade route between North India
a self-governing unit during the era of the Cholas. The
and Bengal. Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
Cholas were ardent patrons of art, poetry, literature
Burhan-ul-Mulk also held the combined offices of
and drama, the administration was seen investing in subadari,diwani and faujdari.
the construction of several temples and complexes
with sculptures and paintings. Bengal:
This province gradually broke away from Mughal
The king remained the central authority who would
control under Murshid Quli Khan who was appointed
make the major decisions and carry out the governance.
as the naib, deputy to the governor of province.
Chola inscriptions mention several categories of land-
He commanded the revenue administration of the state.
Types of Land Related to He transferred all Mughal Jagirdars to Orissa and
ordered a major reassessment of the revenues of Bengal.
Land of non-Brahmana peasant proprietors Hence, pair (3) is NOT correctly matched.
Vellanvagai
Hence, pair (1) is correctly matched.
85. (b)
Land gifted to brahmanas. Hence, pair
Brahmadeya Explanation:
(2) is correctly matched. There were lively discussions and debates mentioned
Buddhist texts, which contains as many as 64 sects or
Land for maintenance of school.
schools of thought.
Shalabhoga Hence,pair (4) is NOT correctly
Teachers travelled from place to place, trying to
matched. convince one another as well as laypersons, about
the validity of their philosophy or the way they
Devadana Land gifted to temples
understood the world.
Land donated to Jaina institutions. Debates took place in the ‘Kutagarashala’ – literally,
Pallichchhandam Hence,pair (3) is NOT correctly a hut with a pointed roof – or in groves where
matched. travelling mendicants halted. Hence, option (b) is
correct.

If a philosopher succeeded in convincing one of his The fact that women of the two lower varnas were free
rivals, the followers of the latter also became his to earn their livelihood gave them considerable
disciples. So, support for any particular sect could grow freedom which was denied to women of the upper
and shrink over time. varnas. Hence, statement (3) is correct.
Many of these teachers, including Mahavira and the
Buddha, questioned the authority of the Vedas. 87. (d)
They also emphasised individual agency – suggesting Explanation:
that men and women could strive to attain liberation Punch-marked coins made of silver and copper (c.
from the trials and tribulations of worldly existence. sixth century BCE onwards) were amongst the
This was in marked contrast to the Brahmanical earliest to be minted and used. Hence, statement (1)
position, wherein, an individual’s existence was is NOT correct.
thought to be determined by his or her birth in a Attempts made to identify the symbols on punchmarked
specific caste or gender. coins with specific ruling dynasties, including the
Mauryas, suggest that these were issued by kings. It is
86. (c)
also likely that merchants, bankers and townspeople
Explanation: issued some of these coins.
Land grants to the brahmanas on large scale suggest The first coins to bear the names and images of rulers
that the brahmana supremacy continued in Gupta were issued by the Indo-Greeks, who established control
times. over the north-western part of the subcontinent c. second
The Guptas who were originally vaishyas came to be century BCE. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
looked upon kshatriyas by the brahmanas. The first gold coins were issued in the first century
The brahmanas presented the Gupta kings as CE by the Kushanas. These were virtually identical
possessing the attributes of gods, thus, legitimising in weight with those issued by contemporary Roman
the position of Gupta princes. emperors and the Parthian rulers of Iran and have
The caste proliferated into numerous sub-castes due been found from several sites in north India and Central
to- large number of foreigner assimilation into the Asia.
Indian society and each group of foreigners was The widespread use of gold coins indicates the enormous
considered a kind of caste. value of the transactions that were taking place.
The position of shudras improved in this period. Besides, hoards of Roman coins have been found from
Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. archaeological sites in south India.
They were now permitted to listen to the Ramayana, Coins were also issued by tribal republics such as
the Mahabharata and the Puranas and worship a new that of the Yaudheyas of Punjab and Haryana (c.
god called Krishna. first century CE).
They were also allowed to as perform certain domestic Archaeologists have unearthed several thousand copper
rites which naturally brought fee to the priests. All this coins issued by the Yaudheyas, pointing to the latter’s
can be attributed to a change in the economic status of interest and participation in economic exchanges.
the shudras. Some of the most spectacular gold coins were issued
But during this period, the untouchables increased in by the Gupta rulers. The earliest issues are
number, especially the chandalas. Hence, statement remarkable for their purity. These coins facilitated
(1) is correct. long-distance transactions from which kings also
In the Gupta period, like the shudras, women were also benefited.
allowed to listen to the Ramayana, the Mahabharata and
the Puranas, and advised to worship, Krishna. 88. (b)
But women of higher orders did not have access to Explanation:
independent sources of livelihood in pre-Gupta and With the emergence of new towns during 600BCE-
Gupta times. 600CE, social life became more complex.

People from near and far met to buy and sell their Meghadoota: Poem written by Kalidasa. It is the
products and share ideas in the urban milieu. lament of an exiled yaksha pining for his beloved on a
This may have led to a questioning of earlier beliefs lonely mountain peak.
and practices.
Faced with this challenge, the Brahmanas responded 90. (a)
by laying down codes of social behaviour in great Explanation:
detail known as Dharmasutras and Dharmashastras. The Buddha (and other teachers) taught orally –
Hence, statement (2) is correct. through discussion and debate.
These were meant to be followed by Brahmanas in None of the Buddha’s speeches were written down
particular and the rest of society in general. during his lifetime. After his death (c. fifth-fourth
From 500 BCE, these norms were compiled in century BCE) his teachings were compiled by his
Sanskrit texts known as the Dharmasutras and disciples at a council of “elders” or senior monks at
Dharmashastras. Vesali (Pali for Vaishali in present-day Bihar).
The most important of such works, the Manusmriti, These compilations were known as Tipitaka – literally,
was compiled between c. 200 BCE and 200 CE. three baskets to hold different types of texts.
While the Brahmana authors of these texts claimed that They were first transmitted orally and then written and
their point of view had universal validity and had to be classified according to length as well as subject matter.
obeyed by everybody. The Vinaya Pitaka included rules and regulations
What is interesting is that the Dharmasutras and for those who joined the sangha or monastic order; the
Dharmashastras recognised as many as eight forms Buddha’s teachings were included in the Sutta
of marriage. Hence, statement (1) is NOT correct. Pitaka; and the Abhidhamma Pitaka dealt with
Of these, the first four were considered as “good” philosophical matters.
while the remaining were condemned. It is possible Each pitaka comprised a number of individual texts.
that these were practised by those who did not accept Later, commentaries were written on these texts by
Brahmanical norms. Buddhist scholars.
As Buddhism travelled to new regions such as Sri
89. (d) Lanka, other texts such as the Dipavamsa (literally,
Explanation: the chronicle of the island) and Mahavamsa (the
Sanskrit texts and inscriptions used the term vanik to great chronicle) were written, containing regional
designate merchants. histories of Buddhism. Hence, option (a) is correct.
While trade was defined as an occupation for Many of these works contained biographies of the
Vaishyas in the Shastras, a more complex situation Buddha. Some of the oldest texts are in Pali, while later
is evident in plays such as the Mrichchhakatika compositions are in Sanskrit.
written by Shudraka (c. fourth century CE). Hence, When Buddhism spread to East Asia, pilgrims such as
option (d) is correct. Fa Xian and Xuan Zang travelled all the way from China
Here, the hero Charudatta was described as both a to India in search of texts.
Brahmana and a sarthavaha or merchant.
91. (d)
And a fifth-century inscription describes two brothers
who made a donation for the construction of a temple Explanation:
as kshatriya-vaniks. The basic philosophy of the Jainas was already in
Swapnavasavadatta: Sanskrit play written by the poet existence in north India before the birth of
Bhasa. It is the romantic narrative about the Kaushambi Vardhamana, who came to be known as Mahavira,
king Udayana and Vasavadatta, the daughter of the ruler in the sixth century BCE. Hence, statement (1) is NOT
of Avanti. correct.
Malavikagnimitra: Sanskrit play written by Kalidasa. According to Jaina tradition, Mahavira was preceded
It is the love story of Agnimitra, the Shunga Emperor by 23 other teachers or tirthankaras – literally, those
and an exiled servant girl named Mālavikā. who guide men and women across the river of existence.

The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire Relations with other traditions, such as Buddhism or
world is animated: even stones, rocks and water have Jainism, were also often fraught with tension if not open
life. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct. conflict.
Non-injury to living beings, especially to humans,
animals, plants and insects, is central to Jaina 93. (c)
philosophy. Explanation:
In fact, the principle of ahimsa, emphasised within Some Sufi mystics-initiated movements based on a
Jainism, has left its mark on Indian thinking. radical interpretation of sufi ideals.
According to Jaina teachings, the cycle of birth and Many scorned the khanqah and took to mendicancy
rebirth is shaped through karma. and observed celibacy.
Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself They ignored rituals and believed in direct connections
from the cycle of karma. with the almighty. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
This can be achieved only by renouncing the world; Because of their deliberate defiance of the shari‘a they
therefore, monastic existence is a necessary condition were often referred to as be-shari’a. They were known
of salvation. by different names – Qalandars, Madaris, Malangs,
Jaina monks and nuns took five vows: to abstain Haidaris, etc. So, they did not believe in interpretation
from killing, stealing and lying; to observe celibacy; of Islamic law and principles. Their goal was to establish
and to abstain from possessing property. spiritual connection. Hence, statement (2) is NOT
correct.
92. (b)
They observed extreme forms of asceticism. Hence,
Explanation: statement (3) is correct.
Tantricism was– associated with the worship
goddess. 94. (b)
Tantric practices were widespread in several parts of Explanation:
the subcontinent – they were open to women and men, Sedimentation in dams refers to the accumulation of
and practitioners often ignored differences of caste sediments, such as sand, gravel, and silt, at the bottom
and class within the ritual context. Hence, statement of a reservoir created by a dam.
(1) is correct, but statement (2) is NOT correct. This sediment can build up over time, reducing the
Many of these ideas influenced Shaivism as well as overall storage capacity of the reservoir.
Buddhism, especially in the eastern, northern and To maintain the capacity of the reservoir, the sediment
southern parts of the subcontinent. Hence, statement may need to be removed through a process called
(3) is correct. dredging.
There were somewhat divergent and even disparate Dredging is the process of removing sediments, such
beliefs and practices. The divergence is perhaps most as sand, gravel, and silt, that has accumulated at the
stark if we compare Vedic and Puranic traditions. bottom of a reservoir. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The principal deities of the Vedic pantheon, Agni, Indra It can be done using various methods, such as mechanical
and Soma, become marginal figures. dredging with a dredge machine or hydraulic dredging
And Vishnu, Shiva and the goddess in Vedic mantras, with a high-pressure water jet.
these have little in common with the elaborate Tehri dam in Uttarakhand is the highest dam in India
Puranic mythologies. built on Bhagirathi River.
However, despite these obvious discrepancies, the Vedas India is ranked third in the world in terms of building
continued to be revered as authoritative. large dams. China and USA rank first and second
On the other hand those engaged in Tantric practices respectively. Hence, statement (2) is NOT correct.
frequently ignored the authority of the Vedas. Sedimentation can occur naturally through processes
Also, devotees often tended to project their chosen deity, such as weathering and erosion. Hence, statement (3)
either Vishnu or Shiva, as supreme. is correct.

95. (c) The Tribunal is comprised of the Chairperson, the
Judicial Members and Expert Members. They shall hold
Explanation: office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-
Land subsidence is a gradual settling or sudden sinking five years, whichever is earlier and are not eligible for
of the Earth’s surface. Hence, statement (1) is correct. reappointment.
Subsidence or sinking of the ground because of
underground material movement is most often caused Indian Forest Act, 1927:
by the removal of water, oil, natural gas, or mineral It seeks to consolidate the law relating to forests, the
resources out of the ground by pumping, fracking, or transit of forest produces and the duty that can be levied
mining activities. on timber and other forest produce. Hence, statement
Subsidence can also be caused by natural events such (2) is correct.
as earthquakes, soil compaction, glacial isostatic This Act impacted the life of forest-dependent
adjustment, erosion, sinkhole formation, and adding communities.
water to fine soils deposited by wind. The penalties and procedures given in this Act aimed
Joshimath is a hilly town located on the Rishikesh, to extend the state’s control over forests as well as
National Highway (NH-7) in Chamoli district of diminishing the status of people’s rights to forest use.
Uttarakhand. The village communities were alienated from their age-
The city serves as a transit tourist town for people old symbiotic association with forests.
visiting Badrinath, Auli, Valley of Flowers, and
97. (b)
Hemkund Sahib, among other important religious and
tourist locations in the state. Explanation:
Joshimath is also of great strategic importance to the A heat dome occurs when an area of high-pressure
Indian armed forces and is home to one of the Army’s traps warm air over a region, just like a lid on a pot, for
most important cantonments. an extended period of time. Hence, statement (1) is
The town (fall in high-risk seismic Zone-V) is traversed NOT correct.
by running streams with a high gradient from Vishnu The longer that air remains trapped, the more the sun
Prayag, a confluence of the Dhauliganga and the works to heat the air, producing warmer conditions with
Alaknanda River. Hence, statement (2) is correct. every passing day.
Heat domes generally stay for a few days but sometimes
96. (c) they can extend up to weeks, which might cause deadly
Explanation: heat waves.
National Green Tribunal: Scientists suggest that any region of high pressure,
It is a specialized body set up under the National Green whether a heat dome or not, forces air to sink and once
Tribunal Act (2010) for effective and expeditious it reaches the ground, it gets compressed and becomes
disposal of cases relating to environmental protection even warmer.
and conservation of forests and other natural resources. Moreover, when air sinks, it gets drier and further raises
Hence, statement (1) is correct. the temperature of the area.
With the establishment of the National Green Tribunal, Heat Domes and the Jet Stream: The heat dome’s
India became the third country in the world to set up a formation is related to the behaviour of the jet stream.
specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind
and New Zealand, and the first developing country to in the upper levels of the atmosphere. Hence, statement
do so. (2) is correct.
It is mandated to make disposal of applications or The jet stream is believed to have a wave-like pattern
appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. that keeps moving from north to south and then north
It has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal again.
place of sitting and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai When these waves get bigger and elongated, they move
are the other four. slowly and sometimes can become stationary.

This is when a high-pressure system gets stuck and leads Notable among their accounts are those of an Italian
to the occurrence of a heat dome. trader named Nicolo de Conti, an ambassador named
With the rising temperatures, it is expected that the jet Abdur Razzaq sent by the ruler of Persia, a merchant
stream will become wavier and will have larger named Afanasii Nikitin from Russia, all of whom
deviations, causing more frequent extreme heat events. visited the city in the fifteenth century, and those of
Duarte Barbosa, Domingo Paes and Fernao Nuniz
98. (c)
from Portugal, who came in the sixteenth century.
Explanation: This is an excerpt from Domingo Paes’s description
Coral polyps are tiny and fleshy sea anemones that live of Vijayanagara: The size of this city I do not write
in tropical and subtropical oceans and seas. Hence, here... I could not see it all because it lies between
statement (1) is correct. several ranges of hills. What I saw from thence seemed
They live in shallow waters along with microscopic to me as large as Rome, and very beautiful to the sight;
algae called Zooxanthellae, with which they share a there are many groves of trees within it, in the gardens
symbiotic relationship. of the houses, and many conduits of water which flow
Coral reefs in India are found in a lot of areas including into the midst of it, and in places there are lakes...”
the Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Hence, option (a) is correct.
Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep Islands.
The Gulf of Kutch in the northwest has some of the 100. (a)
most northerly reefs in the world. Explanation:
Patches of coral reefs are also found in Ratnagiri,
Mouling national park –Siyom
Malvan and Redi, south Bombay and at the Gaveshani The Siyom river flows along the western fringes of the
Bank located in the west of Mangalore.
park and several small rivers such as siring, Krobong,
India has three major prevailing types of coral reefs: Semong and Subong drain into the Siang River near
Fringing reefs: They evolve and develop near the the eastern boundary of the park. Hence, pair (1) is
continent and remain close to the coastline. These reefs NOT correctly matched.
are separated from the coastline by small, shallow
Namdapha National Park-Nao Dihing:
lagoons. They are the most found reefs in the world.
It is in Changlang district of the northeast Indian state
of Arunachal Pradesh, near the international border
Barrier reefs: They are found offshore on the
with Myanmar.
continental shelf. They usually run parallel to the
It is located between the Dapha bum range of the Mishmi
coastline at some distance. A deep and wide lagoon is
hills and the Patkai range with a wide elevation range
located between the coastline and the barrier reef.
between 200 and 4,571 m.
It is crossed from east to west by the Nao Dihing River
Atolls: They are formed on mid-oceanic ridges. They
are shaped circularly or elliptically and are surrounded that originates at the Chaukan Pass on the Indo-
by seas on all four sides and have shallow waters in the Myanmar border. Hence, pair (2) is NOT correctly
centre called a lagoon. matched.
Orang National Park- Brahmaputra
99. (a)
It is a national park in India located on the northern bank
Explanation: of the Brahmaputra river in the Darrang and Sonitpur
Several travellers visited the city of Vijayanagara and districts of Assam. Hence, pair (3) is correctly
wrote about it. matched.

T4 Q+a Drishti Ias King R Queen P

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56. (c) 58. (b)

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77. (a)  This movement began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth

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77. (a) This movement began in Karnataka in the mid-twelfth