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com

1. A meteor is 4. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian

a) a rapidly moving star Capital Market, the Government of India has
b) a piece of matter which has entered the assigned regulatory powers to
earth’s atmosphere from outer space a) SEBI
c) part of a constellation b) RBI
d) a comet without a tail c) SBI
Ans: b) d) SBI
Ans: a)
2. The word ‘Hindu’ as reference to the
people of Hind (India) was first used by 5. Consider the table given below providing
a) the Greeks some details of the results of the election to
b) the Romans the Karnataka State Legislative: Assembly
c) the Chinese held in December, 1994.
d) the Arabs
Ans: d)

3. Given below is a map of some countries

which were parts of the erstwhile Soviet
Union, with water bodies shown by shaded
areas:

In terms of electoral analysis, the voter seat

distortion is to be explained as the result of
the adoption of the
a) Hare system
b) Cumulative vote system
c) First-past-the-post system
d) Plural vote system
Ans: c)

6. Who among the following was a

The countries marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are
Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of
respectively
the Vedas?
a) Tajikistan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan, Kirgizia,
a) Lopamudra
Kazakhstan
b) Gargi
b) Turkmenia, Kirgizia, Tajikistan, Uzbekistan,
c) Leelavati
Kazakhstan
d) Savitri
c) Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Tajikistan,
Ans: a)
Kirgizia, Turkmenia
d) Kazakhstan, Turkmenia, Uzbekistan,
7. The Alpine vegetation in the western
Kirgizia, Tajikistan
Himalayas is found only up to a height of
Ans: d)
3000 metres, while in the eastern Himalayas
it is found up to a height of 4000 metres, The

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reason for this variation in the same 10. Match List I with List II and select the
mountain range is that correct answer by using the codes given
a) eastern Himalayas are higher than western below the lists.
Himalayas List I List II
b) eastern Himalayas are nearer to the (Eras) (Reckoned from)
Equator and sea coast than western I. Vikrama era A) 3102 B.C.
Himalayas II. Saka era B) 320 A.D.
c) eastern Himalayas get more monsoon III. Gupta era C) 78 A.D.
rainfall than the western Himalayas IV. Kali era D) 58 B.C.
d) eastern Himalayan rocks are more fertile E) 248 A.D.
than the western Himalayan rocks Codes:
Ans: c) a) I-B, II-D, III-E, IV-A
b) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
8. According to the 1991 Census, the highest c) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-C
percentage of population in India is to be d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
found in the age group of Ans: d)
a) 60 years and above
b) 35 to 55 years 11. The standard time of the following
c) 25 to 34 years countries is ahead or behind Greenwich Mean
d) 5 to 14 years Time depending on whether they are east or
Ans: b) west of the longitude passing through
Greenwich:
9. Which one of the following is correct in I. Cuba
respect of the commencement of the election II. Greece
process in India? III. Iraq
a) The recommendation for election is made IV. Costa Rica
by the government and the notification for V. Japan
election is issued by the Election Commission Which one of the following sequential orders
b) The recommendation for election is made gives the correct arrangement of the
by the Election Commission and the countries according to their standard time
notification for election is issued by the from ahead to behind GMT?
Home Ministry at the Centre and Home a) V, III, II, I, IV
Departments in the States b) II, IV, I, III, V
c) The recommendation for election is made c) IV, I, III, II, V
by the Election Commission and the d) III, V, IV, I, II
notification for election is issued by the Ans: a)
President and Governors of the States
concerned 12. Which one of the following Five-Year Plans
d) Both the exercises of making a recognised human development as the core
recommendation for election and that of of all developmental efforts?
issuing a notification in respect of it are done a) The Third Five-Year Plan
by the Election Commission b) The Fifth Five-Year Plan
Ans: a) c) The Sixth Five-Year Plan
d) The Eighth Five-Year Plan

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Ans: d) commodities at reasonable rates through

public distribution system.
13. Which of the following is/are IV. To ensure maximum price for the farmer.
extra-constitutional and extra-legal device(s) Select the correct answer from the codes
for securing cooperation and coordination given below:
between the States in India? Codes:
I. The National Development Council a) I, II and III
II. The Governors’ Conference b) I, II and IV
III. Zonal Councils c) I, III and IV
IV. The Interstate Council. d) II, III and IV
Choose the correct answer from the codes Ans: a)
given below:
Codes: 17. Which of the following are matters on
a) I, II and III which a constitutional amendment is
b) I, III and IV possible only with the ratification of the
c) III and IV legislatures of not less than one-half of the
d) IV only States?
Ans: a) I. Election of the President
II. Representation of States in Parliament
14. The original home of the gypsies was III. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
a) Egypt IV. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a
b) Russia State
c) India Choose the correct answer from the codes
d) Persia given below:
Ans: c) Codes:
a) I, II and III
15. Which one of the following is the b) I, II and IV
continent with the highest mean elevation in c) I, III and IV
the world? d) II, III and IV
a) Antarctica Ans: a)
b) North America
c) Asia 18. In Sanskrit plays written during the Gupta
d) South America Period women and sudras speak
Ans: a) a) Sanskrit
b) Prakrit
16. Which of the following are the objectives c) Pali
of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and d) Sauraseni
Prices (CACP)? Ans: b)
I. To stabilise agricultural prices.
II. To ensure meaningful real income levels to 19. The graph given below shows the mean
the farmers. average monthly temperatures (in °C) and
III. To protect the interest of the consumers mean monthly rainfall (in cms) of a place:
by providing essential agricultural

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UPSC-CSE Prelims General Studies 1995 Paper
This graph is indicative of which one of the
climatic zones of the world?
a) Wet and dry tropical
b) Rainy tropical
c) Semi-arid tropical
d) Temperate marine
Ans: a)
20. Consider the table given below:
Which one of the following will fit in the place
marked ‘X’?
a) Ministers who are not Members of
Parliament but who have to get themselves
elected to either House of Parliament within
six months after assuming office
b) Not more than 20 nominated members
c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union
Territories
d) The Attorney General who has the right to
speak and take part in the proceedings of
either House of Parliament
Ans: c)
21. The name by which Asoka is generally
referred to in his inscriptions is
a) Chakravarti
b) Dharmadeva
c) Dharmakirti
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d) Priyadarshini
Ans: d)
22. Consider the map given below:
The divisions along India’s coastal region
indicate
a) coastal pollution zones
b) salinity density isopleths
c) the areas up to which sovereignty extends
d) underwater relief contours
Ans: d)
23. Who among the following have the right
to vote in the elections to both Lok Sabha
and Rajya Sabha?
a) Elected members of the Lower House of
the Parliament
b) Elected members of the Upper House of
the Parliament
c) Elected members of the Upper House of
the State Legislature
d) Elected members of the Lower House of
the State Legislature
Ans: d)
24. The Nagara, the Dravida and the Vesara
are
a) the three main racial groups of the Indian
subcontinent
b) the three main linguistic divisions into
which the languages of India can be classified
c) the three main styles of Indian temple
architecture
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d) the three main musical gharanas prevalent c) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-C
in India d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D
Ans: c) Ans: a)

25. In the map given below, three out of the
four places marked indicate places where a
thermal power station is located:
The place where there is no thermal power
station is marked
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans: b)
26. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists.
List I
List II
I. European transcontinental railway
A) Paris to Istanbul
II. Trans Andean railway
B) Leningrad to Vladivostok
III. Trans-Siberian railway
C) Leningrad to Volgograd
IV. Orient Express
D) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
E) Paris to Warsaw
Codes:
a) I-E, II-D, III-B, IV-A
b) I-A, II-D, III-C, IV-B
27. As part of the liberalisation programme
and with a view to attracting foreign
exchange, the Government and the RBI have
devised two schemes known as FCNR­’A’ and
FCNR­’B’. Which of the following is/are true
regarding these two schemes?
I. Under scheme ‘A’ RBI bears exchange rate
fluctuations.
II. Under scheme ‘B’, other banks are to meet
out the difference in exchange rate
fluctuations.
III. Both the schemes stand withdrawn now.
IV. Only scheme ‘A’ has been withdrawn.
Select the correct answer from the codes
given below:
Codes:
a) III only
b) I and II
c) I, II and III
d) I, II and IV
Ans: d)
28. Which one of the following States of India
does not have a Legislative Council so far
even though the Constitution (Seventh
Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it?
a) Maharashtra
b) Bihar
c) Karnataka
d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: d)
29. In the map given below four areas are
differently shaded, three of which indicate
cereal crops production areas and one
indicates non-cereal crop production area.

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32. “Monoculture of commercially viable

trees is destroying the unique natural profile
of ............Thoughtless exploitation of timber,
deforesting vast tracts for palm cultivation,
destruction of mangroves, illegal logging by
tribals and poaching only compound the
problem. Fresh water pockets are fast drying
up due to deforestation and destruction of
mangroves.” The place referred to in this
quotation is
As per the index given, the non-cereal crop a) Sundarbans
production area is b) Kerala Coast
a) 1 c) Orissa Coast
b) 2 d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
c) 3 Ans: a)
d) 4
Ans: d) 33. The Mughal School of Painting formed the
spinal column of the various schools of
30. In the interim government formed in 1946, Indian miniature art. Which one of the
the Vice-president of the Executive Council following painting styles was not affected by
was Mughal painting?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru a) Pahari
b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan b) Rajasthani
c) C. Rajagopalachari c) Kangra
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad d) Kalighata
Ans: a) Ans: d)

31. Which of the following are among the 34. Who among the following were famous
non-plan expenditures of the Government of jurists of medieval India?
India? I. Vijnanesvara
I. Defence expenditure II. Hemadri
II. Subsidies III. Rajasekhara
III. All expenditures linked with the previous IV. Jimutavahana
plan periods Choose the correct answer from the codes
IV. Interest payment given below:
Choose the correct answer from the codes Codes:
given below: a) I, II and III
Codes: b) II, III and IV
a) I and II c) I, II and IV
b) I and III d) I and IV
c) II and IV Ans: c)
d) I, II, III and IV
Ans: d)

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35. Which of the following pairs are correctly

matched? 38. What is the annual growth rate aimed at
I. Increase in foreign exchange reserves in the Eighth FiveYear Plan?
................. Monetary expansion a) 5.6%
II. Low import growth rate in India ................. b) 6%
Recession in Indian Industry c) 6.5%
III. Euro issues ................ Shares held by d) 7%
Indian companies in European countries Ans: a)
IV. Portfolio investment ...................... Foreign
institutional investors 39. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds
Select the correct answer by using the of religion, etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution
following codes: of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable
Codes: under
a) I, II and IV a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
b) III and IV b) the Right against Exploitation
c) I, II and III c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
d) I, II, III and IV d) the Right to Equality
Ans: a) Ans: d)

36. Article 156 of the Constitution of India 40 Match List I with List II and select the
provides that a Governor shall hold office for correct answer by using the codes given
a term of five years from the date on which he below the lists:
enters upon his office. Which of the following List I List II
can be deduced from this? I. Ernesto Zedillo A) Uruguay
I. No Governor can be removed from office till II. Alberto Fujimori B) Brazil
completion of his term. III. Julio Maria Sanguinetti C) Mexico
II. No Governor can continue in office beyond IV. Fernando H. Cardoso D) Bolivia
a period of five years. E) Peru
Select the correct answer from the codes Codes:
given below: a) I-C, II-E, III-A IV-B
Codes: b) I-D, II-E, III-C, IV-A
a) I only c) I-C, II-D, III-V, IV-B
b) II only d) I-E, II-C, III-A, IV-D
c) Both I and II Ans: a)
d) Neither I nor II
Ans: d) 41. Which one of the following is the largest
mutual fund organisation in India?
37. Coffee cultivation in Sri Lanka was a) SBI Mutual Fund
abandoned because of the disease b) GIC Mutual Fund
a) leaf blight c) Industrial Bank Mutual Fund
b) leaf spot d) Unit Trust of India
c) leaf rust Ans: d)
d) rot
Ans: c)

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42. According to the Mimamsa system of 47. In which one of the following States of
philosophy, liberation is possible by means of India it is legal for a Hindu male and illegal for
a) Jnana a Muslim male to have more than one living
b) Bhakti wife?
c) Yoga a) Nagaland
d) Karma b) Mizoram
Ans: d) c) Goa
d) Arunachal Pradesh
43. The lead character in the film The Bandit Ans: c)
Queen has been played by
a) Pratibha Sinha 48. Which of the following constitute the
b) Rupa Ganguly World Bank?
c) Seema Biswas I. International Bank for Reconstruction and
d) Shabana Azmi Development
Ans: c) II. International Finance Corporation
III. International Development Association
44. The Nobel Prize for deciphering the IV. International Monetary Fund.
language of bees was awarded to Choose the correct answer from the codes
a) H.G. Khurana given below:
b) K.V. Frisch Codes:
c) Julian Huxley a) I, II and III
d) Dorothy Hodgkins b) I and II
Ans: b) c) III and IV
d) I, II, III and IV
45. The palaeomagnetic results obtained Ans: a)
from India indicate that in the past, the
Indian land mass has moved 49. Of the four places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 on
a) northward the map, the one indicating a tidal port is
b) southward
c) eastward
d) westward
Ans: a)

46. Corporation tax

a) is levied and appropriated by the States
b) is levied by the Union and collected and
appropriated by the States
c) is levied by the Union and shared by the
Union and the States
d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it a) 1
exclusively b) 2
Ans: d) c) 3
d) 4
Ans: d)

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50. The radical wing of the Congress Party,

with Jawaharlal Nehru as one of its main
leaders, founded the ‘Independence for India
League’ in opposition to
a) the Gandhi Irwin Pact
b) the Home Rule Movement
c) the Nehru Report
d) the Montford Reforms
Ans: a)

51. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the

State Governments by a) 1
a) the Finance Commission b) 2
b) the National Development Council c) 3
c) the Inter-State Council d) 4
d) the Constitution of India Ans: c)
Ans: d)
55. Which one of the following is not an
52. Bronze icons of Nataraja cast during the instrument of selective credit control in
Chola period invariably show the deity with India?
a) eight hands a) Regulation of consumer credit
b) six hands b) Rationing of credit
c) four hands c) Margin requirements
d) two hands d) Variable cost reserve ratios
Ans: c) Ans: d)

53. Willy Willy is 56. The term Yavanapriya, mentioned in

a) a type of tree grown in temperate regions ancient Sanskrit texts, denoted
b) a wind that blows in a desert a) a fine variety of Indian muslin
c) a tropical cyclone of the north-west b) ivory
Australia c) damsels sent to the Greek court for dance
d) a kind of common fish found near performance
Lakshadweep islands d) pepper
Ans: c) Ans: d)

54. Consider the map given below indicating
four places frequently figuring in the news:
Which one of them is Chechenya?
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:
57. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was
concerned with
a) de-nationalisation of banks
b) electoral reforms
c) steps to put down insurgency in the North-
east
d) the problem of the Chakmas
Ans: b)

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58. Which one of the following monuments
has a dome which is said to be one of the
largest in the world?
a) Tomb of Sher Shah, Sasaram
b) Jama Masjid, Delhi
c) Tomb of Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, Delhi
d) Gol Gumbaz, Bijapur
Ans: d)
59. Which one of the following is true
regarding the Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY)?
a) It was launched during the Prime
Ministership of Indira Gandhi
b) It aims at creating one million jobs
annually
c) The target group of JRY are the urban poor
living below the poverty line
d) Under the scheme 30% of the employment
generated is reserved for women
Ans: d)
60. Bank Rate implies the rate of interest
a) paid by the Reserve Bank of India on the
Deposits of Commercial Banks
b) charged by Banks on loans and advances
c) payable on Bonds
d) at which the Reserve Bank of India
discounts the Bills of Exchange
Ans: d)
61. Which one of the following is not explicitly
stated in the Constitution of India but
followed as a convention?
a) The finance minister is to be a Member of
the Lower House
b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses
majority in the Lower House
c) All the parts of India are to be represented
in the Council of Ministers
d) In the event of both the President and the
Vice-president demitting office
simultaneously before the end of their tenure
the Speaker of the Lower House of the
Parliament will officiate as the President
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Ans: c)
62. Which one of the following was an
emigree Communist Journal of M.N. Roy?
a) Kisan Sabha
b) The Worker
c) Vanguard
d) Anushilan
Ans: c)
63. In which one of the following crops
international trades is low in the context of
total produce?
a) Rice
b) Coffee
c) Rubber
d) Wheat
Ans: a)
64. The Narasimham Committee for Financial
Sector Reforms has suggested reduction in
a) SLR and CRR
b) SLR, CRR and Priority Sector Financing
c) SLR and Financing to capital goods sector
d) CRR, Priority Sector Financing and
Financing to capital goods sector
Ans: b)
65. Which of the following are the States in
which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief
Minister in its ambit?
a) West Bengal and Kerala
b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Ans: b)
66. Ashtapradhan was a Council of Ministers
a) in the Gupta Administration
b) in the Chola Administration
c) in the Vijayanagar Administration
d) in the Maratha Administration
Ans: d)
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67. The Indian subcontinent was originally c) Rajendra Chola

part of a huge land mass called d) Malik Kafur
a) Jurassic Land Mass Ans: c)
b) Aryavarta
c) Indiana 71. The clouds float in the atmosphere
d) Gondwana Continent because of their low
Ans: d) a) temperature
b) velocity
68. Which of the following are correctly c) pressure
matched? d) density
I. Hamas—Palestinian extremist group Ans: d)
II. Sinn Fein—IRA’s political wing
III. True Path Party—A major constituent of 72. Which one of the following mountain
the ruling coalition in Turkey ranges is spread over only one State in India?
Choose the correct answer from the codes a) Aravalli
given below: b) Satpura
Codes: c) Ajanta
a) I and II d) Sahyadri
b) I and III Ans: c)
c) I, II and III
d) II and III 73. Hughly was used as a base for piracy in
Ans: c) the Bay of Bengal by
a) the Portuguese
69. Which one of the following does not b) the French
belong to biosphere reserves set-up so far? c) the Danish
a) Great Nicobar d) the British
b) Sunderbans Ans: a)
c) Nanda Devi
d) Gulf of Kachchh 74. In the field of space technology, India has
Ans: d) demonstrated during 1994, her capability to
a) design advance intercontinental ballistic
70. Consider the, map given below: missile warning systems
b) build satellites
c) build stealth missiles
d) launch geo-stationary satellites
Ans: d)

75. The ‘Modi script’ was employed in the

documents of the
a) Wodeyars
The route indicated in the map was followed, b) Zamorins
during the course of his military exploits, by c) Hoysalas
a) Chandragupta II d) Marathas
b) Harshavardhana Ans: d)

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UPSC-CSE Prelims General Studies 1995 Paper
76. One of the reasons for India’s
occupational structure remaining more or
less the same over the years has been that
a) investment pattern has been directed
towards capital-intensive industries
b) productivity in agriculture has been high
enough to induce people to stay with
agriculture
c) ceilings on land holdings have enabled
more people to own land and hence their
preference to stay with agriculture
d) people are largely unaware of the
significance of transition from agriculture to
industry for economic development
Ans: a)
77. Which one of the following countries had
in 1994 voted against joining the European
Union?
a) Norway
b) Sweden
c) Finland
d) Austria
Ans: a)
78. Examine the map given below:
The places marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 were
respectively the seats of powers of the
a) Scindias, Holkars, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
b) Holkars, Scindias, Gaekwads and Bhonsles
c) Gaekwads, Bhonsles, Scindias and Holkars
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d) Scindias, Holkars, Bhonsles and Gaekwads
Ans: a)
79. Which of the following benefits are likely
to accrue to India from the World Trade
Organisation?
I. India’s share in the world trade is to go up
from the present 600 million US dollars to 5
billion US dollars by 2000 A.D.
II. It will help boost exports of agricultural
commodities from India.
III. India’s share in the world trade is likely to
triple by the year 2000 A.D.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
a) I, II and III
b) I and II
c) I and III
d) II and III
Ans: d)
80. Comet Shoemaker-Levy 9 hit the planet
a) Pluto
b) Mars
c) Jupiter
d) Saturn
Ans: c)
81. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
a) Battle of Buxar .............. Mir Jafar vs. Clive
b) Battle of Wandiwash ............... French vs.
East India Company
c) Battle of Chilianwala ............... Dalhousie
vs. Marathas
d) Battle of Kharda ............... Nizam vs. East
India Company
Ans: b)
82. Examine the following statements:
I. All children are inquisitive.
II. Some children are inquisitive.
III. No children are inquisitive.
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IV. Some children are not inquisitive. Among 86. The national highway from Delhi to
these statements, the two statements which Calcutta via Mathura and Varanasi is
cannot both be true simultaneously but can numbered
both be false would be a) 1
a) I and III b) 2
b) I and IV c) 4
c) II and III d) 8
d) III and IV Ans: b)
Ans: a)
87. The word Adivasi was used for the first
83. Arakan Yoma is the extension of the time to refer to the tribal people by
Himalayas located in a) Mahatma Gandhi
a) Baluchistan b) Thakkar Bappa
b) Myanmar c) Jyotiba Phule
c) Nepal d) B.R. Ambedkar
d) Kashmir Ans: b)
Ans: b)
88. The concept of Anuvrata was advocated
84. The signatories to the treaty banning by
chemical weapons include a) Mahayana Buddhism
a) USA, Russia, India, Iran and Israel b) Hinayana Buddhism
b) Iraq, Libya, India, Russia and China c) Jainism
c) Brazil, Angola, North Korea, Pakistan and d) the Lokayata school
USA Ans: c)
d) Syria, Sri Lanka, Japan, Singapore and
France 89. Which one of the following is incorrect in
Ans: a) respect of Local Government in India?
a) According to the Indian Constitution, local
85. What is the correct sequence of the government is not an independent tier in the
following events? federal system
I. The Lucknow Pact b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are
II. The Introduction of Dyarchy reserved for women
III. The Rowlatt Act c) Local government finances are to be
IV. The Partition of Bengal provided by a Commission
Choose the correct answer from the codes d) Elections to local bodies are to be
given below: determined by a Commission
Codes: Ans: a)
a) I, III, II, IV
b) IV, I, III, II 90. The Barrah dacoity was the first major
c) I, II, III, IV venture of the revolutionary terrorist of the
d) IV, III, II, I freedom movement in
Ans: b) a) Bombay Karnataka
b) Punjab
c) East Bengal

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d) The Madras Presidency

Ans: c)

91. Which one of the following pairs is

correctly matched?
a) Battle of Buxar .............. Mir Jafar vs. Clive
b) Battle of Wandiwash ............... French vs.
East India Company
c) Battle of Chilianwala ............... Dalhousie
vs. Marathas
d) Battle of Kharda ............... Nizam vs. East
India Company
Ans: d)

91. Which of the following political parties a) Ladakh, Zanskar, Karakoram and Pir Panjal
is/are national political parties? b) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zanskar and Pir Panjal
I. Muslim League c) Karakoram, Zanskar, Pir Panjal and Ladakh
II. Revolutionary Socialist Party d) Ladakh, Pir Panjal, Karakoram and Zanskar
III. All India Forward Block Ans: b)
IV. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Choose the correct answer from the codes 94. The largest source of financing the public
given below: sector outlay of the Eighth Five-Year Plan
Codes: comes from
a) I, II and III a) balance from current revenue
b) II and IV b) contribution of public enterprises
c) III only c) government borrowings
d) None of the above d) deficit financing
Ans: d) Ans: c)

92. The main reason for low growth rate in 95. The new Exim Policy announced in 1992,
India, in spite of high rate of savings and is for a period of
capital formation is a) 3 years
a) high birth rate b) 4 years
b) low level of foreign aid c) 7 years
c) low capital / output ratio d) 5 years
d) high capital / output ratio Ans: d)
Ans: d)
96. Consider the following:
Q93. Examine the map of Jammu and I. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
Kashmir given below: II. Industrial Credit and Investment
Corporation of India
The mountain ranges marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 are III. Industrial Development Bank of India
respectively IV. Unit Trust of India

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The correct sequence in which the above was c) Ammonium Sulphate

established is d) NPK
a) I, II, IV, III Ans: d)
b) I, III, II, IV
c) IV, III, II, I 101. Which one of the following polymers is
d) I, IV, III, II widely used for making bullet proof material?
Ans: a) a) Polyvinyl chloride
b) Polyamides
97. In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi started Civil c) Polyethylene
Disobedience Movement from d) Polycarbonates
a) Sevagram Ans: b)
b) Dandi
c) Sabarmati 102. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in
d) Wardha photography is
Ans: c) a) sodium sulphate
b) sodium thiosulphate
98. If in an election to a State Legislative c) ammonium persulphate
Assembly the candidate who is declared d) borax
elected loses his deposit, it means that Ans: b)
a) the polling was very poor
b) the election was for a multi-member 103. The technique used to transmit audio
constituency signals in television broadcasts is
c) the elected candidate’s victory over his a) Amplitude Modulation
nearest rival was very marginal b) Frequency Modulation
d) a very large number of candidates c) Pulse Code Modulation
contested the election d) Time Division Multiplexing
Ans: d) Ans: d)

99. Which one of the following pairs is not 104. A parachutist jumps from a height of
correctly matched? 5000 metres. The relationship between his
a) Jamnalal Bajaj ................... Satyagraha falling speed ‘v’ and the distance fallen
Ashram at Wardha through ‘d’ is best represented as
b) Dadabhai Naoroji .................. Bombay
Association
c) Lala Lajpat Rai ................ National School
at Lahore
d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak ..................... Satya
Shodhak Sabha
Ans: d)

100. Which one of the following is a mixed

fertilizer?
a) CAM
b) Urea

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Ans: d) 109. Who among the following anticipated

Newton by declaring that all things gravitate
105. Which one of the following can be used to the earth?
to confirm whether drinking water contains a a) Aryabhata
gamma emitting isotope or not? b) Varahamihira
a) Microscope c) Buddha Gupta
b) Lead plate d) Brahmagupta
c) Scintillation counter Ans: d)
d) Spectrophotometer
Ans: c) 110. Optical fibre works on the principle of
a) total internal reflection
106. The normal temperature of human body b) refraction
on the Kelvin scale is c) scattering
a) 280 d) interference
b) 290 Ans: a)
c) 300
d) 310 111. Suppose a rocketship is receding from
Ans: d) the earth at a speed of 2/10th the velocity of
light. A light in the rocketship appears blue to
107. When the same note is played on a sitar the passengers on the ship. What colour
and a flute, the sound produced can be would it appear to an observer on the earth?
distinguished from each other because of the a) Blue
difference in b) Orange
a) pitch, loudness and quality c) Yellow
b) pitch and loudness d) yellow orange
c) quality only Ans: c)
d) loudness only
Ans: c) 112. Which one of the following pairs of
materials serves as electrodes in chargeable
108. Assertion (A): A diamond sparkles more batteries commonly used in devices such as
than a glass imitation cut to the same shape. torchlights, electric shavers, etc?
Reason (R): The refractive index of diamond is a) Nickel and cadmium
less than that of glass. b) Zinc and carbon
In the context of the above two statements, c) Lead peroxide and lead
which one of the following is correct? d) Iron and cadmium
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct Ans: a)
explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct 113. Cryogenic engines find applications in
explanation of A a) sub-marine propulsion
c) A is true, but R is false b) frost-free refrigerators
d) A is false, but R is true c) rocket technology
Ans: c) d) researches in superconductivity
Ans: c)

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114. The variations in temperatures from 0°C 117. Which one of the following fuels causes
to 100°C with respect to time of two liquids P, minimum environmental pollution?
Q are shown in the graph given below. Which a) Diesel
one of the following statements is correct? b) Coal
c) Hydrogen
d) Kerosene
Ans: c)

118. Zero was invented by

a) Aryabhata
b) Varahamihira
c) Bhaskara I
d) an unknown Indian
Ans: d)
a) During heating, liquid P remained hotter
than liquid Q throughout 119. Which one of the following sets is
b) At no point of time during heating did the correctly matched?
two liquids have the same temperature a) Diphtheria, Pneumonia and Leprosy:
c) P attained the temperature of 100°C faster Hereditary
than Q b) AIDS, Syphilis and Gonorrhoea: Bacterial
d) Q attained the temperature of 100°C faster c) Colour blindness, Haemophilia and Sickle
than P cell anaemia: Sex linked
Ans: d) d) Polio, Japanese B encephalitis and plague:
Viral
115. An air bubble in water will act like a Ans: c)
a) convex mirror
b) convex lens 120. A person with ‘AB’ blood group is
c) concave mirror sometimes called a universal recipient
d) concave lens because of the
Ans: b) a) lack of antigen in his blood
b) lack of antibodies in his blood
116. The difference between a nuclear reactor c) lack of both antigens and antibodies in his
and an atomic bomb is that blood
a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear d) presence of antibodies in his blood
reactor while in the atomic bomb there is a Ans: b)
chain reaction
b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is 121. Which one of the following is a
controlled membrane that protects the developing
c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not embryo from desiccation?
controlled a) Amnion
d) no chain reaction takes place in atomic b) Allantois
bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor c) Chorion
Ans: b) d) Yolk sac
Ans: a)

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122. Which one of the following antimicrobial a) Thyroxine

drugs is suitable for treatment of both b) Testosterone
tuberculosis and leprosy? c) Insulin
a) Isoniazid d) Adrenaline
b) p-aminosalicylic acid Ans: a)
c) Streptomycin
d) Rifampicin 127. “By weaving threads of physics,
Ans: d) chemistry and biology into a rich tapestry,
this remarkable scientist provided a unifying
123. Most of the desert plants bloom during molecular view of the world... He touted the
night time because wonderful properties of Vitamin C first as a
a) their blooming is controlled by low cure of common cold and later as a
temperature preventive agent against cancer.” One of
b) they are sensitive to the phases of moon science’s major figures of all time referred to
c) the desert insects eat away flowers during above is
day time a) G.N. Lewis
d) the desert insects are active during night b) Linus Carl Pauling
time c) Fritz London
Ans: d) d) Walter Heitler
Ans: d)
124. The only snake that builds a nest is
a) Chain viper 128. ‘The final Agent Orange raid in Vietnam
b) King Cobra took place in 1970…. areas have begun to
c) Krait bloom again. But 19 years after the war’s end,
d) Saw scaled viper it seems plain that Agent Orange is killing and
Ans: d) maiming human beings, something it never
intended to do. The apparent toxic fall out
125. Which of the following elements are from those clouds ... is a crop of human
present in all proteins? miseries including cancers, miscarriages and
I. Carbon birth defects—that may persist for decades.”
II. Hydrogen The offensive substance referred to in the
III. Oxygen above quotation is
IV. Nitrogen a) DDT used as insecticide
Select the correct answer from the codes b) a complex mixture of herbicides and
given below: weedicides used to increase agricultural
Codes: output in the then South Vietnam under the
a) II and III US aid programme
b) I, II and IV c) a complex mixture of DDT and other
c) I, III and IV insecticides used as aerial sprays for
d) I, II, III and IV protection against malaria and other tropical
Ans: d) diseases
d) dioxin used as defoliants
126. Which one of the following hormones Ans: d)
contains iodine?

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129. “It begins as a single cell and grows into
a merciless disease that claims millions of
lives year after year. But scientists are
steadily unlocking its mysteries, and the fight
against it may now have reached a dramatic
turning point. New discoveries promise
better therapies and hope in the war against
...” The disease referred to in the above
quotation is
a) Cancer
b) AIDS
c) Tuberculosis
d) Alzheimer’s disease
Ans: a)
130. ‘Yellow cake’, an item of smuggling
across borders is
a) a crude form of heroin
b) a crude form of cocaine
c) uranium oxide
d) unrefined gold
Ans: a)
I am never bored when I have my brother’s
company.
Whenever I go to the theatre, I take my
brother along.
Which one of the following conclusions is
valid in the context of the above statements?
a) If I am bored, I watch TV
b) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company
c) If I am not with my brother, then I watch TV
d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV
Ans: d)
134. In the given diagram, circle A represents
teachers who can teach Physics, circle B
represents teachers who can teach Chemistry
and circle C represents those who can teach
Mathematics. Among the regions marked p,
q, r ........ the one which represents teachers
who can teach Physics and Mathematics but
not Chemistry, is

131. Consider the series given below:

4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96...
The next term of the series is
a) 24/3/96
b) 25/3/96
c) 26/3/96
d) 27/3/96
Ans: b)
a) v
132. In track meets both 100 yards and 100 b) u
metres are used as distances. By how many c) s
metres is 100 metres longer than 100 yards? d) t
a) 0.856 m Ans: b)
b) 8.56 m
c) 0.0856 m 135. Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are
d) 1.0 m standing in a queue in that order. Each one is
Ans: b) wearing a cap of a different colour like violet,
indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D
133. Examine the following statements: is able to see in front of him green and blue
I watch TV only if I am bored. but not violet. E can see violet and yellow,
but not red. G can see caps of all colours

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other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo- centres of the two circles. The area of the
coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn shaded portion is
by F is
a) blue
b) violet
c) red
d) orange
Ans: c)

136. A person travelled from one place to

another at an average speed of 40
𝜋
kilometres/hour and back to the original a)
2
place at an average speed of 50 b)
1
2
kilometres/hour. What is his average speed in 𝜋 1
c) −
kilometres/hour during the entire roundtrip? 4
𝜋
2

a) 45 d) − 1
2
b) 20 Ans: d)
c) 400/9
d) Impossible to find out unless the distance 140. A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a
between the two places is known policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the
Ans: c) thief is 100 metres ahead of the policeman,
then the time required for the policeman to
137. The value of catch the thief will be
(a - m) (b - m) ... (y - m) (z - m) is a) 2 minutes
a) m26 + am25 + abm24 +...+ a.b.c. ...z b) 6 minutes
b) m26 - am25 + abm24 +...- a.b.c. ...z c) 10 minutes
c) 0 d) 3 minutes
d) Indeterminate Ans: d)
Ans: c)
141. A student has 60% chance of passing in
138. A rectangular sump of dimensions 6 m x English and 54% chance of passing in both
5 m x 4 m is to be built by using bricks to English and Mathematics. What is the
make the outer dimension 6.2 m x 5.2 x 4.2 m. percentage probability that he will fail in
Approximately how many bricks of size 20 cm Mathematics?
x 10 cm x 5 cm are required to build the sump a) 12
for storing water? b) 36
a) 1500 c) 4
b) 3000 d) 10
c) 15000 Ans: d)
d) 30000
Ans: c) 142. A table has three drawers. It is known
that one of the drawers contains two silver
139. Consider the figure given below: PQRS is coins, another contains two gold coins and
a square of side 1 unit and Q, S are the the third one contains a silver coin and a gold

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coin. One of the drawers is opened at random
and a coin is drawn. It is found to be a silver
coin. What is the probability that the other
coin in the drawer is a gold coin?
a) 0.25
b) 1.00
c) 0.50
d) 0.60
Ans: c)
143. In the Cartesian plane four points P, Q, R,
S have coordinates (1, 1), (4, 2), (4, 4) and (1,
4). The area of the quadrilateral PQRS is
a) the family spent more than half the income
on food and clothing
b) the amount saved by the family was too
little
c) the family had no health problems
d) the family managed to meet all the
essential expenses out of the income earned
Ans: d)
145. Consider the table given below providing
details of traffic volume per hour for
locations:

a) 9 When the total traffic volume is the same, the

b) 7.5 factor(s) which affect(s) the noise pollution
c) 4.5 level is/are
d) Impossible to find unless the lengths of the a) % of heavy vehicles
diagonals are known b) noise pollution level and average noise
Ans: b) level
c) average noise level and % of heavy vehicles
144. Consider the diagram given below: d) indeterminable on the basis of details
given
Ans: a)

146. The price fluctuations of 4 scrips in a

stock market in the four quarters of a year are
shown in the table below. Four different
investors had the following portfolios of
investment in the four companies throughout
T: Transport the year:
Ec: Education of children Portfolios
H: Housing Investor 1: 10 of A, 20 of B, 30 of C and 40 of D
C: Clothing Investor 2: 40 of A, 10 of B, 20 of C and 30 of D
F: Food Investor 3: 30 of A, 40 of B, 10 of C and 20 of D
S: Savings Investor 4: 20 of A, 30 of B, 40 of C and 10 of D
O: Others Stock Market Performance
From the diagram shown it would be right to
conclude that

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I
II Quarter III Quarter IV Quarter
Quarter
Scrip A Up 10% Down 15% Up 10% Down 10%
Scrip B Up 2% Up 1% Up 2% Up 2%
Scrip C Up 1% Up 1% Down 5% Down 1%
Scrip D Up 20% Down 15% Up 30% Down 10%

In the light of the above which one of the

following statements is correct?
a) Investor 2 has made the best investment
b) Investor 1 has made the best investment
c) Investor 2 suffered a net loss during the
year
d) Investor 3 suffered a net loss during the
year
Ans: b)

147. X and Y are two variables whose values

at any time are related to each other as
shown in Fig. (i). X is known to vary
periodically with reference to time as shown
in Fig. (ii).
Ans: c)
148. Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club,
5% can play all the three instruments guitar,
violin and flute. It so happens that the
number of musicians who can play any two
and only two of the above instruments is 30.
The number of musicians who can play the
guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of
those who can play violin alone or flute
alone?
a) 45
b) 44
c) 38
d) 30
Ans: b)

149. Which of the following can be inferred

Which of the following curves depicts
correctly the dependence of Y on time?
from the statement that ‘Either John is stupid
or John is lazy’?
I. John is lazy / therefore, John is not stupid.
II. John is not lazy / therefore, John is stupid.
III. John is not stupid / therefore, John is lazy.
IV. John is stupid / therefore, John is not lazy.
Choose the correct answer from the codes
given below:

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Codes:
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) III and IV
d) I and IV
Ans: b)

150. A person earns Rs. 2000 per month over

and above his salary as additional charge
allowance. However, 30% of this additional
income will be deducted as additional
income tax at source. If the person would
deposit Rs. 1000 per month on a long-term
saving fetching 12% interest his tax liability
on the additional allowance would reduce to
10%. What is the effective interest for this
person for money invested in the long-term
savings scheme?
a) 12%
b) 18%
c) 19%
d) 20%
Ans: b)

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