JEEA-MT-(Paper-1)-1

FIITJEE MOCK TEST

JEE (Advanced)
PAPER-1
(18.04.2024)
Time: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 186
 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specially for this purpose.
 You are not allowed to leave the examination hall before end of the test.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on Side–1 and Side–2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use to Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Instructions
Note:
1. The question paper contains 3 sections (Sec-1, Physics, Sec-II, Chemistry & Sec-III, Mathematics.)
2. Each section is divided into two parts, PART-A and PART-C.
3. PART – A contains 13 questions which are further divided as follows:
 Q. 1 – 5 are multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one is correct.
 Q. 6 – 13 are multiple correct answer type questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which one or more answer(s) is/are correct.
4. PART–C contains 5 Numerical Based questions with Single Digit Integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9.

Marking Scheme
1. For each question in the group Q. 1 – 5 to PART – A you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other cases, minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
2. For each question in the group Q. 6 – 13 of PART – A you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened all
the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In all other
cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
3. PART-C (1 – 5) contains 5 Numerical Based questions with Single Digit Integer as answer, ranging from 0 to
9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer. No negative marks will be awarded in this section.

Name of the Candidate :

Enrolment Number :

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Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected from origin with initial velocity [uiˆ  vˆj ] . Uniform
electric and magnetic field exist in the region along +y direction of magnitudes E and B respectively.
Then particle will definitively return to the origin if
vB (u2  v 2 )1/ 2
(A) is an integer (B) is an integer
2E [B / E]
vB vB
(C) is an integer (D) is an integer
E 3E

2. One end of a thin bar AB of mass m and length is hanging from a

massless string. The other end is held at an angle of 45° with horizontal.
Find the tension in the string immediately after release of the bar. (Bar is
released from point B)
2 3
(A) mg (B) mg
5 5
B
4 2 2
(C) mg (D) mg 45°
5 5 A

3. A uniform electric field E is present horizontally along the paper throughout A

region but uniform magnetic field B0 is present horizontally (perpendicular to
plane of paper in inward direction) right to the line AB as shown. A charge E  B0
particle having charge q and mass m is projected vertically upward and
crosses the line AB after time t0. Find the speed of projection if particle
moves after t0 with constant velocity. (given qE = mg)
(A) gt0
(B) 2gt0 q, m
gt 0
(C) B
2
(D) particle can’t move with constant velocity after crossing AB

4. A copper sphere is suspended in a evacuated chamber maintained at 300 K. The sphere is

maintained at constant temperature of 900 K by heating electrically. A total of 300 W electric power is
needed to do this. When half of the surface of the copper sphere is completely blackened, 600 W is
needed to maintain the same temperature of sphere. The emissivity of copper is
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
4 3 2
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5. A charge particle enters into a region containing uniform electric field (E) and uniform magnetic field
(B) along x-axis and y-axis respectively. If it passes the region undeviated, the velocity of charge
particle is given by
E Eˆ E
(A) 2iˆ + k̂ (B) 2jˆ  k (C) – k̂ (D) none of these
B B B

(Multiple Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

6. In the adjoining figure block A is of mass m and block B is of

mass 2m. The spring has a force constant k. All the surfaces A
are smooth and the system is released from rest with spring
unstretched B

4mg
(A) The maximum extension of the spring is
k
2mg 2m
(B) The speed of block A when extension in spring is , is 2 g
k 3k
2
(C) Net acceleration of block B when the extension in the spring is maximum, is g.
3
2mg
(D) Tension in the thread for extension of in spring is mg.
k

7. The bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface areas
of the two bodies are equal. The two bodies emit total radiant power at the same rate. The
wavelength B corresponding to maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from B is shifted from the
wavelength corresponding to maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from A, by 1.00 m. If the
temperature of A is 5802 K:
(A) the temperature of B is 1934 K (B) B = 1.5 m
(C) the temperature of B is 1160 K (D) the temperature of B is 2901 K
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8. In the arrangement shown in figure, gas is thermally insulated. An ideal gas is

filled in the cylinder having pressure P greater than atmospheric pressure P0.
The spring of force constant K is initially unstretched. The piston of mass m
and area s is frictionless. In equilibrium, the piston rises up a distance x0, then K
Kx 0 mg
(A) final pressure of the gas is P0   m,s
s s
1 P
(B) work done by the gas is Kx 02  mgx 0
2

1
(C) decrease in internal energy of the gas is Kx 02  mgx 0  P0 sx 0
2
(D) all of the above

9. Using screw gauge the radius of the wire is found to be 2.50 mm. The length of wire is measured by
using a scale and is found to be 50.0 cm. If mass of wire is measured as 25 g, then mark the correct
statement(s) [Take  = 3.14]
(A) The density has to be computed upto 2 significant digit.
(B) The least count of scale used to measure length of wire is 1 mm.
(C) The density of wire is 2.5 g/cm 3.
(D) The least count of screw gauge is 0.01 mm

10. A ball at O is in equilibrium as it is attached with two strings AO A(+q) D(–q)

and DO which are tied at A and D. AO = DO = a 5. The charges
at A, B, C and D are + q, + Q, + 2Q and – q respectively. Find the
correct options. The ball at O is positively charged. 2a 2a
(A) The ball O can not remain in equilibrium
(B) If the charge at C is + Q, the ball will remain in equilibrium O
(C) The ball O may remain in equilibrium B(+Q) C(+2Q)
(D) If the charges at A and D and charges at B and C are a a
interchanged, the ball may remain in equilibrium.

11. Two plates of a parallel plate capacitors carry changes q and –q and are
separated by a distance x from each other. The capacitor is connected to a
V0
constant voltage source V0 . The distance between the plates is changed
to x  dx. Then in steady state.
+q –q
 Udx
(A) change in electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is , where
x x
U is initial potential energy.
Ux
(B) change in electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor is 
dx
1
(C) attraction force between the plates is qE
2
(D) attraction force between the plates is qE. (where E is electric field between the plates)
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12. Capacitor C1 of capacitance 1 µF and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 µF are separately charged fully
by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to discharge through equal
resistors at time t = 0.
(A) The current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0
(B) The current in two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but not zero
(C) The current in two discharging circuits at t = 0 are unequal
(D) Capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge.

13. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 divisions on circular scale. When there is
nothing between the two ends (studs) of screw gauge 95 th divisions of circular scale is coinciding with
screw gauge and in this situation zero of main scale is not visible. When a wire is placed between the
studs the linear scale reads 2 division and 20th divisions of circular scale coincides with reference line.
For this situation mark the correct statement(s). Each division on the main scale to 1 mm.
(A) LC of the instrument is 0.01 mm. (B) Zero correction for the instrument is +0.05 mm.
(C) Thickness of wire is 1.20 mm (D) Thickness of the wire is 2.25 mm.

PART – C
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)

1. A small body A is fixed to the inside of a thin rigid hoop of R

radius R and mass equal to that of the body A. The hoop rolls
without slipping over a horizontal plane. At the moment when v0
the body A gets into the lower position the centre of the hoop
moves with velocity v0. The maximum value of v0 = ngR for
which hoop move without bouncing. Find the value of ‘n’. A

B Screen
2. In an interference experiment as shown in the figure, the source
and the screen are separated by a distance of 1m. At a certain S 
1
position of source the fringe-width is mm and by moving the A
4
source away from the mirror along the line AB by 0.6 mm the Mirror
1
fringe width changed to mm. The wavelength of light used is
6 1m
n × 10–7 m. Find the value of ‘n’.

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y
3. A point object is located at a distance 15 cm from the pole
of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm on its principal
x
axis is moving with a velocity (8iˆ  11 ˆj ) cm/s and velocity (8iˆ  11 ˆj cm/s
(4iˆ  2 ˆj cm/s

of mirror is (4iˆ  2 ˆj ) cm/s as shown. If V is the velocity of O
 15cm
image. Then the value of V is 5n cm/s. Find the value of
‘n’.

Q0
4. Two identical capacitor connected as shown and having initial charge v +–
Q0. Separation between plates of capacitor is d0. Suddenly the left +–
plate of upper capacitor and right plate of lower capacitor start moving +–
with speed v towards left while other plate of capacitor remains fixed.
Q0 v +–
(given =10amp). The value of current in the circuit is 4x amp. +–
2d +–
Find the value of ‘x’. Q0 v

5. Intensity observed in an interference pattern is I = I0 sin2 . At  =300 intensity I = 5  0.0020 w/m2.

x
The percentage error in angle is 3  102% if I0 = 20 w/m2. Find the value of ‘x’.

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Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. 4 mol He gas is heated from 300 K to 400 K according to

following process. The heat given in the process is P
(A) 400 Cal (B) 600 Cal
(C) 1000 Cal (D) 800 Cal

1/V2
2. Given:
En, z = Magnitude of total energy of electron in nth orbit of a single electron species having atomic
number ‘Z’.
Pn, z = Magnitude of total energy of electron in nth orbit of a single electron species having atomic
number ‘Z’.
 P2,1
Then calculate the value of  
 8  E3,1 
(A) 4/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/3

Br Br

3.

BuLi
 Identify product ?

(A) (B)

(C) C (D)

4. Which of the following cations form coloured (Not white) precipitate with aqueous solution of KI but
ppt. does NOT dissolve in excess of reagent?
(A) Hg2+ (B) Hg22 (C) Bi3+ (D) Cu2+
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5. Which of the following compounds give NH3 on heating?

(A) NH4ClO4 (B) (NH4)3PO4 (C) NH4IO3 (D) (NH4)2Cr2O7

(Multiple Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

6. Which of the following compounds do not consist of P – P linkage?

(A) Hypophosphoric acid (B) Pyrophosphorous acid
(C) Di-polyphosphoric acid (D) Metaphosphoric acid

7. In the following Latimer diagram, the species that undergoes disproportionation reaction is
MnO4 
0.56 V
 MnO24 
0.27 V
 MnO34 
0.93 V
 MnO2

0.15 V

1.56 V
Mn   Mn  OH2 
0.25 V
 Mn2O3

(A) MnO24 (B) MnO34 (C) Mn2O3 (D) Mn(OH)2

8. The appropriate reagents required for carrying out the following transformation are:
COOH
OH

(A) (i) PCC, CH2Cl2, (ii) Ph3P = CH – COOEt, (iii) Aq. NaOH, Heat then acidify
(B) (i) CrO3, H2SO4, Aq. acetone, (ii) Ac2O, NaOAc
(C) (i) MnO2 (ii) CH2(COOH)2, piperidene, pyridine
(D) (i) PCC, CH2Cl2 (ii) BrCH2CO2C(CH3)3, Zn,(iii) H3O+

9. Which of the following statements are correct for SNAr reaction?

(A) Follow second order kinetics (B) KH/KD > 1
(C) Involves carbanion type intermediate (D) Involve two T.S

10. Which of the following type of isomerism is/are possible for the compound
[CoCl(en)2(NH2 – C6H4Me)]Cl2.
(A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Linkage isomerism
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Ligand isomerism

11. Which of the following complexes is/are square planar?

(A) [AgF4]– (B) [AuCl4]– (C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (D) [NiCl2(PMe3)2]
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12. Which of the following reaction(s) take place in the Bessemer converter for the extraction of Cu?
(A) 2CuFeS2  4O2   Cu2S  2FeO  3SO2
3
(B) Cu2S  O2 
 Cu2O  SO2
2
(C) Cu2S  Cu2O 
 6Cu  SO2
(D) FeO  SiO2 
 FeSiO3

13. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) The entropy in isolated system with P-V work only is always maximized at equilibrium.
(B) It is possible for the entropy of a close system to decrease substantially in an irreversible process
(C) Entropy can be created but NOT destroyed
(D) Ssystem is zero for reversible process in an isolated system

PART – C
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)

1. 160 g HCl solution (sp gravity = 1.6, % w/w = 50) is diluted such that specific gravity of final solution is
1.2. If % w/v of HCl in final solution is x. Calculate z, where z = 0.075.

2. What is double bond equivalent (DBE) for the following compound?

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3. O O
O O
H3 O 
NH3

  H 

O
(c)
(a)
(b)
Cl OH MeO OMe
COOEt

SbCl5
 COOEt
H
 Complete H3O ,  

(d)
 
(f)

(e)
3

2Fe


2 Na

(g)
(h)
Number of reactions in which final product is aromatic?

4. X = number of reactions in which aldehydes is formed as the product?

O
CN
1 AlH iBu 
R  CN 
 2  H2O 
3
Cl H2
P d.BaSO4 

SnCl2
HCl
 
H3 O
 (iii)

(i)
(ii)
CH3
CH3 - C - OC 2H5 CH3

(i) DIBAL H
O   CrO3  Ac 2 O 
(ii) H2O 
273 K
 
H3 O
 
CO,HCl
anhy.AlCl3
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
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5. Identify the total number of carbohydrates which given mutarotation?

OH OH

OH OH
O H O H H O H

H H OH H H OH
H OMe H OH OH
HO
OH H
OH OH H OH HO

H OMe
H OH
HO OH OH
O H O H OH
O H
OH H H OH
H OH H OMe H OH

H OH OH H CH 2OH

HOCH 2 OMe HOH 2C OH

O
H OH HO H
H OH H OH
H H O
H H
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Section – III (Mathematics)

PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which only
ONE option is be correct.

1. If the function f  x  is continuous then the Value of



f x 2018n  x 2017n  ...............  xn  x n  .........x 2018n  ln x dx is equal to

0
1 x 2

(A) 5 (B)3 (C)1 (D) 0

20 
k k2  k  3 
2.  k  1 !
k 2
is equal to

1 19 20 1 20 19 1 19 19 1 19 20
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
2 20! 21! 2 21! 20! 3 20! 21! 3 20! 21!

3. The area bounded by the tangents, drawn to the circle x2  y2  4 at its point of intersection with the
curve y = 3 x and the circle, is
4 2 2  2 2 4 2
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

4. The ends A and B of a line segment of constant length c slide upon x and y axes respectively. If the
rectangle OAPB is completed where O is the origin, if the locus of the foot of perpendicular drawn
from P on AB is the curve xa  yb  c d then the vaue of a+b+d is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6

5. Consider three natural numbers n1, n2, n3 defined as

n1  x1 x2 x3 x4 (4digit number)

n2  y1,y2,y3 (3digit number)

and n3  z1z2 (2digit number)

where x1,.....x4 , y1,.....y3 ,z1,z2 are all non – zero distinct digits.
Then total number of nine digit numbers formed by picking up all the
Digits Used in the numbers n1, n2, n3 if digits are taken only from the
right side of either of the numbers n1, n2 and n3
(A) 1250 (B)1217 (C)1266 (D) 1260
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(Multiple Correct Choice Type)

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

 n  3 n  odd
6. A function f from integers to integers is defined as f(x) =  suppose k  odd and
 n / 2 n  even
f(f(f(k))) = 27 then

(A) k can be 45 (B) sum of the digit of k is 6

(C) sum of the digit of k is 9 (D) k can be 105

7. In triangle ABC, a=4 and b  c  2 2 . A point P moves with the triangle such that the square of its
distance from BC is half the rectangle contained by its distances from the other two sides. If D be the
centre of P, then
2
(A) locus of P is an ellipse with eccentricity
3
3
(B) locus of P is a hyperbola with eccentricity
2
16
(C) area of the quadrilateral ABCD= sq.units
3
32
(D) area of the quadrilateral ABCD=  sq.units
3

8. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?

(A) If f(x) is differentiable  x  [0, 1], then f(x) must be bounded in [0, 1]
(B) There exist a bijective function f : [0, 1]  [0, 1] which is not continuous.
(C) Let f : [1, 2]  R be defined as f(x) = x2 – cos x + 4, then f(c) = 2 for some c  (1, 2).
1
(D) If f(x) = 3 + x + ex, then (f1)(4) is equal to .
2

9. If three planes P1  2x + y + z – 1 = 0, P2  x – y + z – 2 = 0 and P3  x – y + 3z – 5 = 0 intersects

each other at point P on XOY plane and at point Q on YOZ plane, where O is the origin then identify
the correct statement(s)?
(A) The value of  is 4
x 1 y 1 z
(B) Straight line perpendicular to plane P3 and passing through P is  
4 1 3
(C) The length of projection of PQ on x-axis is 1
 1 1 1 
(D) Centroid of the triangle OPQ is  , , 
3 2 2
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10. Let u  x  be a twice differentiable function defined in 0  x  1 , holds the relation

u"  x   exu  x  in x   0,1. if 0  x0  1, then
(A) u(x) can’t have a positive local maximum at x0
(B) u(x) can have a negative local maximum at x0
(C) u(x) can’t have a negative local maximum at x0
(D) u(x) can have a positive local minimum at x0

11. Let  and f    be the eccentricity of the ellipse

x2
3b  2a
2 2

y2
2b  a
2 2 
 1, 3b2  2a2  and

2b  a
x2
2 2

y2
b 2  
 1, 2b2  a2 then


(A) f     ,b  R  0
1  2
1
ffff    d 
1/ 2
(B) 0 4
 
  
(C)  e  f     f "     d  e 
 1 
 C
2 
 
3/2
 1  
2 1  


(D) f     ,b  R  0
2 1  2

12. If one of the roots of x2 + f(a) .x + a= 0 is equal to the third power of the other for all real a then:
(A) The domain of the real-valued function f is the set of non-negative real numbers
(B) f(x)   x1/ 4 (1 x1/ 2 )
(C) f(x)  x1/ 4  x3 / 4
(D) None of these

13. If y  f  x  (defined for all x  R ) solvings the differential equation

 dy  x
 
x
 x x
 dx  1 e  e  y e  e  0 then   
(A) maximum value of f  x  is 1 (B) minimum value of f  x  is –1
(C) range of f  x  is (–1, 1)  
(D) equation f x  x has exactly one solution
space for rough work

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 JEEA-MT-(Paper-1)-15

PART – C
This section contains 05 multiple choice questions. The answer to each question is a single digit integer, ranging from 0
to 9 (both inclusive)

 y3 1 
1. If log  x3     log x  log y , then the value of 9 (x3 +y3)is
 3 9

 1  1
2. No. of integral points in the Range of the function f  x    x    x    2 x
 2  2

3. f(x) and g(x) are quardractic polynomials and f  x   g  x  , x  R .Also f(x) = 0 have real roots.

Then number of distinct roots of equation h  x  h''  x   h'  x   

2
 0 are (where h(x) = f(x)g(x)

4. Consider the polynomial

xn  a1xn 1a2 xn  2  ..........  an  0 having real roots with coefficients a1,a2.............. an belongs
to 1,  1 then maximum value of n is __________

1 1  A  k
5. If A and B are two independent events such that P(A)  , P(B)  , then P    then
2 5  A B  k 1
k=
space for rough work

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 JEEA-MT-(Paper-1)-16

FIITJEE MOCK TEST

JEE (Advanced)
PAPER-1
(18.04.2024)

ANSWERS
SECTION – I (Physics)
Part – A
1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B
5. B 6. AC 7. AB 8. AC
9. ABCD 10. CD 11. AC 12. BD
13. ABD
Part – C
1. 8 2. 6 3. 4 4. 5
5. 4

SECTION – II (Chemistry)
Part – A
1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B
5. B 6. BCD 7. B 8. AC
9. ACD 10. ACD 11. ABCD 12. BCD
13. ABCD
Part – C
1. 2 2. 8 3. 8 4. 6
5. 4

SECTION – III (Mathematics)

Part – A
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A
5. D 6. BD 7. AC 8. BCD
9. ABCD 10. ABD 11. AB 12. AB
13. ABCD
Part – C
1. 4 2. 2 3. 4 4. 3
5. 5

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