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Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6. Exploration of molecular, genetic, and


species level diversity for novel products of
1. Taq polymerase is a: economic importance is known as:
thermostable DNA dependent RNA 1. Biopiracy
1. 2. Bioenergetics
polymerase.
thermostable DNA dependent DNA 3. Bioremediation
2. 4. Bioprospecting
polymerase.
thermolabile DNA dependent RNA
3. 7. Which of the following is not a reason that
polymerase.
accounts for greater biodiversity of tropics?
thermolabile DNA dependent DNA 1. availability of more solar energy
4.
polymerase. 2. more niche specialization
3. more time for species diversification
4. large seasonal variations in environmental
2. Which one of the following microbes forms factors
a symbiotic association with plants and helps
them in their nutrition? 8. Consider the given two statements:
1. Azotobacter Temperature and soil
2. Aspergillus moisture are the most
3. Glomus important climatic factors
4. Trichoderma Assertion (A):
that regulate decomposition
through their effects on the
3. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is activities of soil microbes.
obtained when:
Temperature and soil
1. K=N
Reason (R): moisture affect the activities
2. K>N
of soil microbes.
3. K<N
4. The value of 'r' approaches zero
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. RNAi is a method for: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
1. amplification of DNA correctly explain (A).
detecting a gene of interest in a sample of Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
2. 3.
DNA explains (A).
regulation of gene expression at the level of 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
3.
initiation of transcription
4. post-transcriptional gene silencing
9. An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a
mango branch is an example of:
5. In the anaerobic sludge digesters during 1. Ectoparasitism 2. Endopararsitism
sewage water treatment: 3. Commensalism 4. Mutualism
The primary sludge is treated with aerobic
1.
microbes and activated sludge is created
The primary sludge is treated with 10. The rate of decomposition is faster in the
2. anaerobic microbes and activated sludge is ecosystem due to the following factors
created EXCEPT:
1. Detritus rich in sugars
The activated sludge is digested by
2. Warm and moist environment
3. anaerobic microbes producing biogas
3. Presence of aerobic soil microbes
during the process
4. Detritus richer in lignin and chitin
The activated sludge is digested by aerobic
4. microbes producing biogas during the
process

Page: 1
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

11. The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be 16. Which one of the following is related to Ex-
used for: situ conservation of threatened animals and
1. killing insects plants?
2. biological control of plant diseases 1. Biodiversity hot spots
3. controlling butterfly caterpillars 2. Amazon rainforest
4. producing antibiotics 3. Himalayan region
4. Wildlife safari parks
12. All the following are ‘ex-situ’ methods for
conservation of biodiversity except: 17. Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:
1. Zoological parks 1. Transformation of plant cells
2. Botanical gardens Constructing recombinant DNA by joining
3. Wildlife safari parks 2.
with vectors
4. National parks
3. DNA fingerprinting
13. When population density is plotted 4. Disarming pathogen vectors
against time, the exponential growth curve
is:
1. S shaped 2. Straight line
3. J shaped 4. Hyperbola

18. Which of the following can be used to


14. The colonies of recombinant bacteria induce competence for getting a bacterial cell
appear white because of: transformed during rDNA procedures?
Insertional inactivation of alpha- 1. A divalent cation 2. Ethidium bromide
1.
galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria 3. Polyethylene glycol 4. Anionic proteins
Insertional inactivation of beta-
2.
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in 19. Consider the two statements:
3.
recombinant bacteria In general, species diversity
Non-recombinant bacteria containing increases as we move away
4. Statement I:
beta-galactosidase from the equator towards the
poles.
With very few exceptions,
15. Match each item in Column I with one in Statement II: tropics harbour more species
Column II and select the correct match from than temperate or polar areas.
the codes given:
Column I Column II Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
India’s share of global correct
A P 8.1 %
biodiversity Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
India’s share of world Species area incorrect
B Q
land area relationship Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
Rivet popper correct
C Alexander Humboldt R
hypothesis Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
D Paul Ehrlich S 2.4 % incorrect
Codes:
A B C D
1. S P Q R
2. S P R Q
3. P S Q R
4. P S R Q
Page: 2
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

20. Increased yield of crop during the green 26. What is the reason for the formation of
revolution was due to: embryoids from pollen grain in tissue culture
I. Use of improved crop varieties medium?
II. Use of better management practices 1. Cellular totipotency
2. Organogenesis
Use of agrochemicals [fertilisers and
III. 3. Double fertilization
pesticides]
4. Test tube culture

1. Only I 2. Only I and III 27. RNA interference involves silencing a


3. Only I and II 4. I, II and III specific mRNA by:

interfering with its post transcriptional


21. Somaclonal variations are: 1.
modification
seen in plants that have been produced by not allowing the transport of mRNA from
1. 2.
plant tissue culture. nucleus to cytoplasm
due to environmental factors and have no a dsRNA that binds to it and prevents its
2. 3.
evolutionary advantage. translation
3. induced by mutations and are inherited. post translational degradation of the
4.
4. not useful in plant breeding programs. protein

22. Which of the following is put into 28. A selectable marker is used to:
anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage help in eliminating the non-
treatment? 1. transformants so that the transformants
1. Floating debris can be regenerated.
2. Effluents of primary treatment identify the gene for the desired trait in an
3. Activated sludge 2.
alien organism.
4. Primary sludge
select a suitable vector for transformation
3.
in a specific crop.
23. Who, amongst the following, is revered as
the father of ecology in India? mark a gene on a chromosome for
4.
1. Gurdev Singh Khush isolation using a restriction enzyme.
2. M. S. Swaminathan
3. Ramdeo Misra
4. Salim Ali 29. The ecological pyramids that can never be
inverted in a natural ecosystem include:
24. World Summit on Sustainable I: pyramid of numbers
Development (2002) was held in: II: pyramid of energy in any ecosystem
1. Brazil III: pyramid of biomass in the sea
2. Sweden
3. Argentina 1. Only II
4. South Africa 2. Only III
3. Only II and III
25. The principle of competitive exclusion was 4. All can be inverted
stated by?
1. C. Darwin
2. G. F. Gause
3. MacArthur 30. Which of the following in sewage
4. Verhulst and Pearl treatment removes suspended solids?
1. Secondary treatment
2. Primary treatment
3. Sludge treatment
4. Tertiary treatment
Page: 3
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section B
31. Consider the following statements:
Asexual reproduction preserves genetic
I: information while sexual reproduction 36. Consider the two statements:
permits variations. The evolutions of the flower
Traditional hybridization often leads to and its pollinator species are
Assertion (A):
the inclusion and multiplication of tightly linked with one
II:
undesirable genes along with the desired another.
genes. Plants need the help of
rDNA technology allows us to isolate and animals for pollinating their
Reason (R):
introduce only one or a set of desirable flowers and dispersing their
III:
genes without introducing undesirable seeds.
genes in the target organism.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
Which of the above statements are true? 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
1. I and II only 2. I and III only 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
32. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
37. Consider the following statements:
The proinsulin has an extra peptide called
1. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from
C-peptide
the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases
Functional insulin has A and B chains I:
2. make cuts at specific positions within
linked together by hydrogen bonds.
DNA.
Genetically engineered insulin is produced
3. To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is
in E. Coli.
II: stained with ethidium bromide and seen
In man, insulin is synthesized as in UV light.
4.
proinsulin.
Plasmids and phage DNA are used as
III: vectors in genetic engineering as they are
extrachromosomal DNA molecules.
33. Sacred groves are especially useful in:
1. preventing soil erosion Which of the above statements are true?
2. year-round flow of water in rivers
3. conserving rare and threatened species 1. I and II only 2. I and III only
4. generating environmental awareness 3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
34. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is
found in:
38. What percent of the total incident solar
1. African grasslands radiation is captured by plants?
2. Amazonian rain forest in South America 1. 1 to 5
3. Western Ghats in India 2. 2 to 10
4. Nile delta in Egypt 3. 20 to 30
4. 40 to 60

35. Somaclones are obtained by: 39. The number of times the recognition
1. tissue culture sequence of EcoRI is expected to appear in a
2. plant breeding dsDNA of 10,000 bp length will be:
3. irradiation 1. 1
4. genetic engineering 2. 2
3. 4
4. 8
Page: 4
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

40. A plasmid has a single recognition 43. Parthenium hysterophorus:


sequence for EcoRI. When cut with this is also called as carrot grass or the gajar
enzyme, the number of resultant fragments I: grass.
will be: is a common invasive species in India
1. 1 II:
and came as a contaminant with wheat
2. 2
III: produces allelopathic chemicals
3. 3
4. 4 produces pollens that are common cause
IV:
of allergies in humans
41. Consider the given two statements:
1. Only I, II and III are correct
Heterotrophs generally have 2. Only I, II and IV are correct
high energy conversion 3. Only II, III and IV are correct
Assertion (A):
efficiencies when compared to 4. I, II, III and IV are correct
those of plants.
At higher trophic levels, the
Reason (R): respiratory costs are
dramatically reduced. 44. Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
1. (A) is True but (R) is False labelled as Reason (R).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly Conventional breeding is not
2. the answer if we want to
explains (R) Assertion (A):
Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does increase yield in the existing
3. crop varieties.
not correctly explain (A)
4. Both (A) and (R) are False The existing crop varieties
have evolved into new species
Reason (R):
and traditional hybridisation
is not possible now.
42. A stable community in an ecosystem:
In the light of the above statements, choose
should show a considerable increase in
I: the most appropriate answer from the
productivity every year
options given below :
must be either resistant or resilient to
1. Both (A) and (R) are False.
II: occasional man-made and natural
disturbances Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
explain (A).
must be resistant to invasions by alien
III: 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
species
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R)
4.
1. Only I and II are correct explains (A).
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct 45. Azolla is used in the cultivation of:
1. Maize 2. Sorghum
3. Wheat 4. Rice

Page: 5
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

46. Identify the incorrect statement regarding 49. Consider the following statements:
the use of RNAi for creating transgenic Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne I: a functional level, not a species as such.
incognita: Saprophytes are accorded the position of
Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to II:
1. a top consumer in an ecosystem.
transform the plant cells A species can occupy more than one
Double-stranded RNA was introduced into III: trophic level in the same ecosystem at the
2.
the plant cells same time.
Double-stranded RNA was formed in the
3. Which of the above statements are true?
plant cells that initiated RNAi
A specific mRNA of the nematode was
4. 1. I and II only 2. I and III only
silenced with the help of dsRNA
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III

47. Consider the given two statements:


The large holes in ‘Swiss 50. Which one of the following pairs of
cheese’ are due to production organisms are exotic species introduced in
Statement I: of a large amount of CO2 by a India?
1. Ficus religiosa. Lantana camara
bacterium named
2. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
Propionibacterium shermanii.
3. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are 4. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
ripened by growing a specific
Statement II:
bacteria on them, which gives
them a particular flavour.

Statement I is correct; Statement II is


1.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
correct
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4.
correct

48. The plantlets produced during plant tissue


culture are called somaclones because:
They can be produced in a very short span
1.
of time
They are the result of the somatic
2.
hybridization of two cells
The gametes develop parthenogenetically
3.
to produce genetically identical plantlets
They are genetically identical to the
4.
original plant from which they were grown

Page: 6
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Zoology - Section A
53. Niche of an organism includes:
I: range of conditions that it can tolerate
51. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown II: diversity in the resources it utilises
below and select the right option giving their its distinct functional role in the
source: III:
ecological system

1. Only I 2. Only III


3. Only II and III 4. I, II and III

(a)
54. Given below are two statements : one is
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R).
Biological response modifiers
like alpha interferon can help
Assertion (A): detection and destruction of
tumour cells by the
immune system.
(b) Such biological response
Reason (R): modifiers activate the
immune system of the patient.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
Molecule Source Use options given below :
Accelerates Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
Erythroxylum 1.
1. (a) Cocaine the transport explain (A).
coca
of dopamine 2. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Depressant Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
Cannabis and slows 3.
2. (b) Heroin explains (A).
Sativa down body 4. (A) is True but (R) is False.
functions
Atropa Produces
3. (b) Cannabinoid
belladonna hallucinations 55. Consider the two given statements:
Papaver Sedative and Age structure can indicate
4. (a) Morphine Statement
somniferum painkiller whether a population is
I:
increasing, stable, or declining.
In general terms, a population
52. Which of the following is correct for r- Statement with a very broad base would be
selected species? II:
expected to be stable.
1. Large number of progeny with small size 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2. Large number of progeny with large size incorrect
3. Small number of progeny with small size 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4. Small number of progeny with large size correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct

Page: 7
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

56. A host cell normally does not take up a 59. Consider the given two statements:
foreign DNA until it has been made Vertical distribution of
competent to do so. This is because: different species occupying
1. DNA is a hydrophilic molecule Statement I: different levels in an
2. DNA is a very large molecule ecosystem is called standing
there are no receptors for DNA on the cell state.
3. In an ecosystem, each trophic
membrane
4. DNA is an inert molecule level has a certain mass of
Statement II: living material at a particular
time called as the standing
crop.
57. The given figure shows the chemical
structure of a commonly abused drug. This
drug: Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1.
incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
correct

60. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened


species in viable and fertile conditions can be
1. causes hallucinations in low doses referred to as:
2. is derived from the Indian hemp plant Advanced ex-situ conservation of
1.
3. is sometimes clinically used as a pain killer biodiversity
4. is a CNS stimulant 2. In situ conservation by sacred groves
3. In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
4. In situ conservation of biodiversity
58. A cloning vector has two antibiotic
resistance genes: tetracycline and ampicillin.
A foreign DNA was inserted into the 61. Secondary lymphoid organs:
tetracycline gene. Non-recombinant Are those where immature lymphocytes
transformants would survive on the medium 1. differentiate
containing: Provide a site of interaction between
1. ampicillin but not tetracycline 2.
lymphocytes and antigens
2. tetracycline but not ampicillin
3. Are formed after birth
3. both tetracycline and ampicillin
4. neither tetracycline nor ampicillin 4. Are bone marrow and MALT

62. A foetus receiving some antibodies from


mother through placenta is an example of:
1. Naturally acquired active immunity
2. Artificially acquired active immunity
3. Artificially acquired passive immunity
4. Naturally acquired passive immunity

Page: 8
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

63. The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro 68. Identify the incorrectly matched pair
in 1992 was called: regarding Plasmodium, the protozoan
for immediate steps to discontinue the use responsible for causing malaria in humans:
1. of CFCs that were damaging the ozone Cause of malignant Plasmodium
1.
layer tertian malaria falciparum
to reduce CO2 emissions and global Paroxysm [clinical Release of hemozoin
2. 2.
warming features] of malaria on rupture of RBCs
for the conservation of biodiversity and Fertilization during Gut of female
3. 3.
sustainable utilization of its benefits the life cycle anopheles
to assess the threat posed to native species Infective stage to
4. 4. Trophozoites
by invasive weed species mankind

64. Symptoms like constipation, abdominal 69. Match the drugs in Column I with their
pain and cramps, stools with excess mucous correct attributes given in Column II and
and blood clots are commonly seen in: select the correct answer from the codes
1. Amoebic dysentery given:
2. Ascariasis Drug Attribute
3. Typhoid Hallucinogenic at high
4. Cholera A Opioids P
doses
B Cannabinoids Q Highly effective painkiller
65. Transgenic animals are the animals that:
Can cause cardiovascular
have had their DNA manipulated to possess C Cocaine R
1. side effects
and express an extra [foreign] gene.
Stimulates adrenal
are genetically modified with the use of D Nicotine S
medulla
2. foreign genes from a sexually compatible
donor organism.
3. are produced by interspecific hybridisation. Codes:
4. are produced by inbreeding.
A B C D
1. Q R S P
66. Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, 2. R Q P S
occupy the same niche but lions predate 3. Q R P S
mostly larger animals and leopards take 4. R Q S P
smaller ones. This mechanism of competition
is referred to as:
1. Character displacement
2. Altruism
3. Resource partitioning
4. Competitive exclusion

67. MALT constitutes about _______ percent of


the lymphoid tissue in the human body.
1. 20%
2. 70%
3. 10%
4. 50%

Page: 9
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

70. Match each item in Column I with one in 74. A and B in pBR322, shown in the diagram
Column II and select the correct match from given below, respectively represent
the codes given: recognition sequences of:
Column I Column II
Interferes with dopamine
A Morphine P
transport
Causes release of adrenaline 1. BamH I and Sma I
B Alcohol Q
and noradrenaline 2. Hind II and Sma I
C Nicotine R Cirrhosis of liver 3. BamH I and Sal I
D Cocaine S Pain killer 4. Sal I and Hind II
Codes:
A B C D
1. S R Q P
2. S R P Q
3. R S Q P
4. R S P Q 75. Match each item in Column I with one in
Column II and select the correct match from
the codes given:
71. Which one of the following statements is Column I Column II
correct? Plasmid of E.coli
A ADA deficiency P
Patients, who have undergone surgery are used as vector
1. given Production of Human protein
B Q
cannabinoids to relieve pain human insulin enriched milk
Benign tumours show the property of C Transgenic cow R Retroviral vector
2.
metastasis D Transgenic sheep S Alpha-1-antitrypsin
3. Heroin accelerates body functions Codes:
Malignant tumours may exhibit A B C D
4.
metastasis 1. P R Q S
2. R P S Q
3. P R S Q
72. Which one of the following statements is
4. R P Q S
correct with respect to immunity?
The antibodies against smallpox pathogens
1.
are produced by T-lymphocytes
76. With regard to insulin, choose the correct
Antibodies are protein molecules each of options:
2.
which has four light chains
a: C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of
3. The insulin produced by rDNA technology
B-lymphocytes b:
has C-peptide.
Preformed antibodies need to be injected to
4. c: The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
treat the bite by a viper snake
A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
d:
interconnected by disulphide bridges.
73. If a plasmid is to be used as a cloning Choose the correct answer from the options
vector, the most important feature which given below:
must be present in it is: 1. (a), (c) and (d) only 2. (a) and (d) Only
1. Origin of replication (Ori) 3. (b) and (d) only 4. (b) and (c) only
2. Presence of a selectable marker
Presence of sites for restriction
3.
endonuclease
4. Being linear rather than circular
Page: 10
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

77. Consider the given two statements: 81. The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase
Over 95 per cent of all existing (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently
Assertion (A): by:
transgenic animals are mice.
GEAC does not allow research periodic infusion of genetically engineered
Reason (R): 1.
on any other animal. lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
administering adenosine deaminase
2.
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. activators
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not introducing bone marrow cells producing
2. 3.
correctly explain (A). ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 4. invitro cell culture therapy
3.
explains (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
82. Which one of the following statements for
a pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the
78. What was used to deliver the normal copy remaining three are correct?
of gene in the gene therapy trials for ADA 1. It shows the energy content of different
deficiency? trophic-level organisms
1. Microinjection 2. It is inverted in shape
2. Biolistics 3. It is upright in shape
3. Retrovirus 4. Its base is broad
4. Liposomes

79. The main challenge for the production of 83. Of the total incident solar radiation,
insulin using rDNA techniques was: proportion of PAR is:
culturing bacteria containing recombinant 1. about 60%
1.
DNA in labs 2. about 50%
finding suitable restriction enzymes to cut 3. more than 80%
2.
human DNA 4. about 70%
isolation of DNA in pure form from a
3. 84. The vertical distribution of different
human cell
getting insulin assembled into a mature species occupying different levels in a biotic
4. community is known as:
form
1. divergence
2. stratification
80. For effective treatment of the disease, 3. zonation
early diagnosis and understanding of its 4. pyramid
pathophysiology is very important. Which of
the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection?
1. ELISA Technique
2. Hybridization Technique
3. Western Blotting Technique
4. Southern Blotting Technique

Page: 11
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
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85. Consider the two statements: 87.


Entire biosphere is regarded as For the multiplication of any
Statement I: a global ecosystem by many alien piece of DNA in an
Assertion(A):
ecologists. organism, it needs to be a part
The global ecosystem is divided of a chromosome.
Statement
into terrestrial and aquatic Chromosomes are threadlike
II:
ecosystem for convenience. structures made of protein and
Reason(R): a single molecule of DNA that
1. Only Statement I is correct. serve to carry the genomic
2. Only Statement II is correct. information from cell to cell.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
correct. 1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
incorrect. 2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True.
Zoology - Section B
86.
In order to force bacteria to 88. Statements related to human Insulin are
take up the plasmid, the given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct
Assertion (A): about genetically engineered Insulin?
bacterial cells must be
‘competent’ to take up DNA. Pro-hormone insulin contains extra
(a)
No bacteria have natural stretch of C- peptide
Reason (R): A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin
competence.
were produced separately in E.coli,
(b)
1. (A) is true but (R) is False. extracted and combined by creating
disulphide bond between them.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
2. Insulin used for treating Diabetes was
correct explanation of (A). (c)
extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
3. (A) is False and (R) is True.
Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4. (d) processed for converting into a mature
correct explanation of (A).
and functional hormone.
Some patients develop allergic reactions
(e)
to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. (c), (d) and (e) only
2. (a), (b) and (d) only
3. (b) only
4. (c) and (d) only

Page: 12
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89. Consider the given statements regarding 91.


competition amongst organisms: The thymus and the bone
Only related species can compete for the Assertion (A): marrow constitute the
I:
same resource primary lymphoid organs.
Competition occurs only when the The thymus and the bone
II:
resources are limiting marrow are the sites of
Reason (R):
lymphocyte activation by
The correct statement/s is/are: antigens.

1. I alone 2. II alone 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.


3. Both I and II 4. Neither I nor II Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
90. Given below are two statements : one is 3.
correct explanation of (A).
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R). 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
If a person is infected with
some deadly microbes to
which a quick immune 92.
Assertion (A): response is required as in Symptoms of amoebic
tetanus, we need to directly Assertion (A): dysentery include stools with
inject the preformed excess mucous and blood clots.
antibodies or antitoxin. Enatamoeba histolytica is a
This type of immunization is Reason (R): protozoan parasite in the
Reason (R): large intestine of human.
called passive immunization.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
options given below : correct explanation of (A).
1. Both (A) and (R) are False 2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
3. 4.
explain (A). correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R)
4.
explains (A).

Page: 13
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

93. In the given pie chart showing the global 97. What is true about the population growth
biodiversity of vertebrates, the Amphibians curves shown in the figure given below:
and the Birds are respectively represented by:

Curve a is seen when resources are not


I
limiting
Curve b is seen when resources are
1. B and D 2. A and C II.
limiting
3. A and B 4. D and B III. [K-N]/K is the carrying capacity

1. I and II only 2. I and III only


94.
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
The type of malaria caused by
Assertion (A): Plasmodium falciparum is called
malignant.
98. Consider the two statements:
There is no known cure for Food chains rarely extend for more than 4
Reason (R): infection caused by I:
or 5 levels.
Plasmodium falciparum.
Consumers at each level convert, on an
average, only about 10% of the chemical
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the II:
1. energy in their food to their own organic
correct explanation of (A). tissue.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A). 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. Both I and II are correct but II does not
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.
95. Which of the following is the only floating
national park in the world?
1. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
99. Cryptic colouration is:
2. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya
warning colouration by poisonous
Pradesh 1.
organisms.
3. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
4. Dachigam National Park, Jammu and 2. protective resemblance with the
Kashmir environment.
lack of effect of exposure of sunlight on skin
3.
96. The consumers that feed on herbivores are colour.
correctly described as: contrasting skin colours in males and
4.
1. Primary producers females of a species.
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary carnivores
4. Secondary consumers

Page: 14
Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

100. A patient brought to a hospital with


myocardial infarction is normally
immediately given:
1. penicillin 2. streptokinase
3. cyclosporin-A 4. statins

Fill OMR Sheet*


*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
there

CLICK HERE to get


FREE ACCESS for 2
days of ANY
NEETprep course

Page: 15

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