Test Booklet Code Test Booklet Number

AISSEE TEST-02

A
परीक्षा पुस्तिका संके त परीक्षा पुस्तिका संख्या

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. 1455039
इस परीक्षा पुस्तिका को तब तक न खोलें जब तक कहा न जाए।

Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
इस परीक्षा पुस्तिका के पिछले आवरण पर दिए निर्देशों को ध्यान से पढ़ें।

NAME OF THE CANDIDATE (IN CAPITALS) : ___________________________________________________________

परीक्षार्थी का नाम (बड़े अक्षरों में) : ______________________________________________________________________________

ROLL NUMBER (IN FIGURES) : _________________________________________________________________________

अनुक्रमांक (अंको में) : ________________________________________________________________________________________

CENTRE OF EXAMINATION (IN CAPITALS) : ___________________________________________________________

परीक्षा के न्द्र (बड़े अक्षरों में) : ___________________________________________________________________________________

CANDIDATE'S SIGNATURE : _____________________________ परीक्षार्थी के हस्ताक्षर : ___________________________

INVIGILATOR'S SIGNATURE : ____________________________ निरीक्षक के हस्ताक्षर : ___________________________

Case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
प्रश्नों के अनुवाद में किसी अस्पष्टता की स्थिति में, अंग्रेजी संस्करण को ही अंतिम माना जायेगा।

1. This question paper booklet contains FOUR sections. Section "A" Language contains 25 questions of 2 marks each. Section "B"
Mathematics contains 50 questions of 3 marks each. Section "C" General Knowledge and Section "D" Intelligence contain 25
questions of 2 marks cach. In all, the paper consists of 125 questions for a total of 300 marks. Answer all questions.
इस प्रश्नपत्र पुस्तिका में चार विभाग है। विभाग "A" भाषा के 25 प्रश्न हैं, प्रत्येक 2 अंक का है। विभाग "B" गणित के 50 प्रश्न हैं, प्रत्येक प्रश्न 3 अंक का
है। विभाग "C" सामान्य ज्ञान और विभाग "D" बुद्धिमत्ता के 25 प्रश्न हैं, प्रत्येक प्रश्न 2 अंक का है। इस प्रकार प्रश्नपत्र में कु ल 125 प्रश्न हैं एवं कु ल अंक
300 है। सभी प्रश्नों के उत्तर दें।

2. Duration of the test is 2 hours and 30 minutes. (150 minutes) 2

परीक्षा का समय 2 घंटा 30 मिनट (150 मिनट) है।

3. Questions in Section "A" are specific to each language. They vary from language to language. They are not translated from
English. They are to be attempted in the language opted by you in your application form and indicated on your Admit Card. They
will be evaluated with reference to the answer keys of the specific language opted by you. If attempted in any other language, you
may lose marks.
विभाग "A" में प्रश्न प्रत्येक भाषा में विशिष्ट हैं। वे एक भाषा से दूसरी भाषा में अलग हैं। वे अंग्रेजी से अनुवादित नहीं हैं। आपको अपने आवेदन पत्र में
और आपके प्रवेशपत्र पर अंकित आप द्वारा चुनी भाषा में उत्तर देना है। आपके द्वारा चुनी गयी विशिष्ट भाषा की उत्तर कुं जी के सन्दर्भ में मूल्यांकन
होगा। यदि दूसरी भाषा में उत्तर दिया तो आपको अंकों का नुकसान हो सकता है।

4. This question paper contains of THREE sections and you have to answer all questions in the OMR answer sheet.
इस प्रश्न पत्र में तीन खंड हैं और आपको सभी प्रश्नों का उत्तर ओएमआर उत्तर पुस्तिका में देना होगा।

5. Rough work must be done on the additional sheet only and NOT on OMR answer sheet.
रफ कार्य के वल अतिरिक्त शीट पर किया जाना चाहिए, ओएमआर उत्तर पुस्तिका पर नहीं।

6. There are total 6 pages having 125 questions contain in this booklet.
इस पुस्तिका में कु ल 6 पृष्ठ हैं जिनमें 125 प्रश्न हैं।

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [01] P.T.O

ENG/AISSEE /A /TEST-02

ENGLISH LANGUAGE 12. There is....fish in...... bottle.

a) the, the b) a, the
01. Rakesh is ……….. excellent Science teacher. c) a, a d) no article
(Choose correct Article)
a) an b) a 13. I saw........ old man yesterday.
c) the d) no article a) a b) an
c) the d) none of the above
02. A group of soldiers marched into the
battleground. (Choose correct noun) 14. Student should learn from ...... best expert.
a) Troupe b) Trupe a) a b) an
c) Troop d) Truope c) the d) none of the above

03. Mohan gave me a ten-rupee note. (Choose the 15. Many shops were set up in........ enclosed area.
types of sentence) a) a b) an
a) Declarative b) Imperative c) the d) none of the above
c) Exclamatory d) Interrogative
16. .......light comes from the sun.
04. Choose the option that is Synonyms of Labour. a) a b) an
a) Former b) Previous c) the d) none of the above
c) Work d) Later
17. "Tell me where you found those glasses." This
05. There are some diseases that are inherited. is a/an ……………. (kind of sentence)
(Identify the kind of Noun) a) Imperative b) Exclamatory
a) Proper noun b) Abstract noun c) Interrogative d) Declarative
c) Collective noun d) Common noun
18. A declarative sentence ends with a
06. Choose the correct meaning. a) Full stop b) Period
a) Apartement b) Appartment c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
c) Apartment d) Appartmentt
19. The function of a declarative sentence is
07. Choose the option that is Similar to Polite. a) To make a statement
a) Restlessness b) To ask something
b) Nervousness c) To make something
c) Certainty d) none
d) Civil
20. An exclamatory sentence ends with an
08. Football is ........ most popular most popular a) Exclamation mark b) Period
sport in the world. c) Full stop d) All of the above
a) a b) an
c) the d) No Article 21. "Anna, answer the door." is an example of what
kind of sentence?
09. In the given two sentences, select from the a) Declarative Sentence
answer choice the word which has the same b) Imperative Sentence
meaning and can be used in the same context as c) Interrogative Sentence
the underlined part of both the sentences. d) Exclamatory Sentence

I. The stadium is so large that it can seat more than 22. 'Knowledge' is the example of -
two hundred spectators. a) abstract noun
b) proper noun
II. Mohan is willing to adjust his tour programme c) common noun
accordingly. d) collective noun

a) Accommodate 23. Iron is a useful metal. Here 'Iron' is (Types of

b) Hold Noun)
c) Arrange a) a material noun
d) Give Place b) a proper noun
c) a common noun
10. For me, breakfast is........best meal of the day. d) none of the above
a) a b) an
c) the d) none of the above 24. My mother says that we should have faith on
God. Here 'Faith' is
11. They wanted to hear........ end of the story of a) an abstract noun
this comics book. b) a proper noun
a) a b) an c) a common noun
c) the d) none of the above d) a collective noun

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [02] P.T.O

ENG/AISSEE /A /TEST-02

25. Which nouns describe untouchable things like 39. What is the Square of 22?
ideas, feelings, concepts or qualities? a) 220 b) 2200 c) 284 d) 484
a) abstract noun b) proper noun
c) common noun d) collective noun 40. Ronnie picked 152 plums and Suzanne picked
117 plums from a plum tree. How many plums were
MATHEMATICS picked in all?
a) 265 b) 267
26. Which of the following is completely divisible c) 268 d) 269
by 45?
a) 225 b) 451 41. Dora has 672 purple marbles, she gave Josh
c) 181 d) None of the above 308 of the marbles. How many purple marbles
does she now have?
27. What smallest number should be subtracted a) 346 b) 364
from 9805 so that it should be 9800? c) 360 d) 368
a) 6 b) 7 c) 5 d) 8
42. Sally has 149 books. Salma has 218 books.
28. Which of the following number is divisible by How many books do they have together?
9? a) 346 b) 364
a) 67 b) 45 c) 65 d) 75 c) 365 d) 367

29. Which of the following is the unit digit in the 43. Melinda found 328 seashells on the beach. She
product of 8 x 2 x 5 x 3? gave Sarah 209 of the seashells. How many
a) 2 b) 5 c) 6 d) 0 seashells does she now have?
a) 119 b) 120
30. Between any two numbers, there are - c) 121 d) 191
a) Two Whole Numbers
c) Infinite Numbers 44. There are 118 stickers in the drawer. Pamela
b) No Number placed 172 more stickers in the drawer. How many
d) None of the above stickers are now there in total?
a) 289 b) 290
31. Round off to the nearest tens places of 71577. c) 291 d) 292
a) 71500 b) 71000
c) 71580 d) 72000 45. Jack has 734 baseball cards. Benny bought 341
of Jack's baseball cards. How many baseball cards
32. Round off to the nearest thousand place of does Jack have now?
7379. a) 391 b) 392
a) 7000 b) 7500 c) 393 d) 394
c) 8000 d) 70000
46. The Warriors won 80% of their games this
33. A 2-digit number was rounded off to the season. If they have played 55 games so far, then
nearest tens and the result came out as 70. Find how many games have they won?
the interval of the original number. a) 48 games b) 46 games
a) 75 to 80 c) 40 games d) 44 games
b) 65 to 74
c) 85 to 90 47. Find the answer in simplest form of 3/7 x 2/3.
𝟏𝟖 𝟗 𝟔
d) 70 to 75 a) b) c) 6 d)
𝟐𝟏 𝟏𝟎 𝟐𝟏

34. What is the LCM of 20 and 30. 48. Multiply 2/5 x 35/21 and write your answer as a
a) 60 b) 20 fraction in simplest form.
c) 80 d) 50 a) 1/3 b) 4/3 c) 2/3 d) 5/3
35. Mark wants to estimate the product of 293 and 49. Multiply 3/8 x 24/20 and write your answer as a
724. What would be the BEST way to do so? fraction in simplest form.
a) 200 × 700 b) 300 × 700 a) 11/20 b) 7/20
c) 300 × 700 d) 300 × 800 c) 8/20 d) 9/20
36. What is the square root of 225? 50. Multiply 5/3 x 9/10 and write your answer as a
a) 45 b) 15 c) 65 d) none of these fraction in simplest form.
a) 3/2 b) 5/2
37. What is the value of √81 + √841? c) 1/2 d) 7/2
a) 36 b) 29
c) 37 d) 38 51. Which of the following is a perfect square?
[32, 66, 81, 101]
38. What is the value of 16 × 6? a) 32 b) 66
a) 90 b) 100 c) 54 d) 96 c) 81 d) 101

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [03] P.T.O

ENG/AISSEE /A /TEST-02

52. The roman number of 42 is: a) Thirty four Lakh eighty seven three.
a) XLVII b) XIIL b) Three Lakh forty eight thousands seven hundred
c) XLII d) LXII three.
c) Forty three thousands eight thousands and seven
53. The sum of 1+3+5+7+9+11+13+15+17+19 is: hundred three.
a) 121 b) 120 c) 100 d) 1100 d) None of these
2
54. The value of (10) -1 is equal to: 69. Two hundreds million, three hundreds
a) 99 b) 80 c) 79 d) None of the above thousand and three hundreds seven.
a) 300200307 b) 200300207
55. What is the sum of the first four natural c) 200300307 d) 700300200
numbers?
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 10 70. Match the Following.
1) 59 A) XXXVII
56. How many zeros are there for the square of 10? 2) 144 B) LXIX
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6 3) 37 C) CXLIV
4) 98 D) XCII
57. The square of which of the following number
will be an even number? a) 1)-A 2)-B 3)-C 4)-D
a) 7 b) 9 c) 11 d) 16 b) 1)-B 2)-C 3)-A 4)-D
c) 1)-A 2)-C 3)-D 4)-B
58. The square of which of these will have 6 at the d) 1)-B 2)-D 3)-A 4)-C
unit place?
a) 4 b) 6 c) Both a) & b) d) 192 71. All natural numbers are whole numers?
a) Yes b) No c) Can’t say d) None
59. Find the greatest four-digit number using digits
0, 4, 5 and 6. 72. If the division of p by 8 gives a quotient of 9
a) 6450 b) 5604 c) 5640 d) 6540 and remainder 3, find p.
a) 75 b) 63 c) 90 d) 80
60. A perfect square that lies between 40 and 50 is:
a) 42 b) 45 c) 46 d) 49 73. A store owner has 53 lbs. of candy. If he puts
the candy into 7 jars equally and has leftover 4.7
61. Cube root of 512 is: lbs. of candy, how much candy will each jar
a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12 contain?
a) 6.09 lbs. b) 6.70 lbs.
62. By what number should we subtract 134 to get c) 6.80 lbs. d) 6.90 lbs.
a perfect cube?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 74. Nora split a rope that was 67 inches into 5
equal parts and a leftover 2-inch piece. What is the
63. By what number should 81 be divided to get a length of each part?
perfect cube? a) 12 inches b) 14 inches
a) 3 b) 6 c) 7 d) 9 c) 18 inches d) 13 inches

64. Insert the commas according to international 75. Dorian paid $15.95 and $6.50 for two books.
number system in 456730983564. About how much money did he pay for the books?
a) 4,56,73,09,83,564 a) $23 b) $22 c) $25 d) $30
b) 456,730,983,564
c) 45,67,30,98,35,64 GENERAL INTELLIGENCE
d) 456,730,983,56,4
Directions (Q. No’s. 76-80) Figure out the rule
65. Which of the following is not a perfect cube? followed by the given arrangement of alphabets /
a) 216 b) 1000 c) 243 d) 1331 numbers / words.

66. The prime factorisation of 64 is: 76. In a certain code 'MISSIONS' is written as
a) 2 x 2 x 2 'MSIISNOS'. How is 'ONLINE' written in that code?
b) 4 x 4 x 4 a) OLNNIE b) ONILEN c) NOILEN d) LNOENI
c) 8 x 8 x 8
d) None of the above 77. In a certain code 'ROAR' is written as 'URDU'.
How is 'URDU' written in that code?
67. The value of 43 x 1000 is: a) VXDQ b) XUGX c) ROAR d) VSOV
a) 4300 b) 40300 c) 43000 d) 40003
78. In a certain code, RAID is written as %#*$,
68. Which is the following are correct of words RIPE is written as %*@©. How is DEAR written up
name of 348703? (According to Indian number in that code?
system) a) $*37 b) 3$7* c) $©#* d) $©#%

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [04] P.T.O

ENG/AISSEE /A /TEST-02

79. In a certain code, MODERN is written as 92. Based on the given analogies, find odd one out
5%38#@ and WIN is written as 60@. How is RIDE a) National Anthem: Jana Gana Mana
Written in that code? b) National Calendar: Saka Calendar
a) #038 b) #@38 c) #©83 d) ©@38 c) National Tree: Indian Neem
d) National Animal: Royal Bengal Tiger
80. If red is called black, black is called yellow,
yellow is called white, white is called blue, and 93. Find the odd one out in the given options
blue is called violet. In this language, what is the a) Doctor: Patients
color of blood? b) Shopkeepers: Customers
a) White b) Blue c) Teacher: Students
c) Black d) Violet d) Painter: Paintbrush

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) In each of the following 94. Find the odd one out from the given options.
questions, choose the number which will replace a) Kathakali: Kerala
the question mark(?). b) Sattriya: Assam
c) Mohiniyattam: Tamil Nadu
81. 1, 4, 9. 16. ? d) Kuchipudi: Andhra Pradesh
a) 20 b) 25 c) 18 d) 30
95. Find the odd one out from the given options.
82. 63: 21:: 27:? a) Haryana : Chandigarh
a) 6 b) 9 c) 1 d) 3 b) Punjab : Chandigarh
c) Chandigarh : Chandigarh
d) Delhi : Delhi
83. 100: 121 :: 144: ?
a) 160 b) 93 c) 169 d) 426 Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Study the following
information to answer the given questions and
84. 5: 125::6:? maintain the relation among the things or words.
a) 225 b) 216 c) 400 d) 30
96. If 'land' is called 'sky', 'sky' is called 'air', 'air' is
85. 10 : 22 : : 20 : ? called 'water', 'water' is called 'sand' and 'sand' is
a) 24 b) 26 c) 44 d) 46 called 'solid', where do fishes swim?
a) Solid
Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) In each of the following b) Sky
questions, choose the letters' group which will c) Sand
replace the question mark(?). d) Water

86. QTU : ILM :: JMN : ? 97. If 'banana' is called 'jelly', 'jelly' is called 'blue',
a) PSZ b) BEF c) WZA d) UXB 'blue' is called 'green', 'green' is called 'apple' and
'apple' is called 'mango', then what is the colour of
87. RmpL : LpmR :: ? : AcdG leaf?
a) PQnw b) GcAd a) Green
c) GcdA d) GdcA b) Banana
c) Mango
88. LLm : mIL :: TTs : ? d) Apple
a) STL b) STT c) Tts d) stT
98. In a certain code language 'yellow' is called
89. EGIK : LJHF :: SUWY : ? 'red', 'white' is called 'green', 'red' is called
a) ZXVT b) TVXZ 'orange'. 'Orange' is called 'blue' and 'blue' is
c) LNPR d) MOQS called 'white'. What is the colour of sky?
a) Red b) Yellow
90. F : 216 :: I : ? c) Green d) White
a) 729 b) 1600 c) 1700 d) 1723
99. In a certain code language 'yellow' is called
Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) in these question two 'red', 'white' is called 'green', 'red' is called
types of things or words about we have to choose 'orange'. 'Blue' is called 'white' and 'green' is called
the correct option and maintain the relation among 'blue'. What will be the colour of leaf of a tree in
the things or words. that language?
a) Red b) Yellow c) White d) Blue
91. What shall come in place of the blank in the
given analogy? 100. If 'yellow' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called
'white', 'white' is called 'green', 'green' is called
Engineering : Engineer :: MBBS : ? 'brown' and 'brown' is called 'red', then what is the
colour of milk?
a) Doctor b) Lawyer a) Red b) Green
c) Teacher d) Actor c) Blue d) White

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [05] P.T.O

ENG/AISSEE /A /TEST-02

GENERAL STUDIES a) Patna b) Gaya c) Muzaffarpur d) Nalanda

101. When was the national flag adopted by the 114. What is the name of the programme launched
constituent assembly? to spread awareness about lives of national icons?
a) 22nd July 1947 b) 26th January 1950 a) Parakram Netas program
c) 26th January 1948 d) 15th August 1950 b) Know Your Leader program
c) Mera Bharat Mahan program
102. From where the Emblem of India was d) Atmanirbhar India
adopted?
a) Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath 115. How many spokes in Ashoka Chakra?
b) Sanchi stupa c) India's national flag a) 24 b) 30 c) 36 d) 100
d) Both a) and b)
116. The process by which cloud formed?
103. Who wrote the national anthem, "Jana Gana a) Precipitation b) Condensation
Mana."? c) Evaporation d) None of these
a) Rabindranath Tagore b) Prem Chand
c) Jawaharlal Nehru d) None of the above 117… …… occurs when the amount of moisture in
the atmosphere exceeds the saturation capacity of
104. What is Tiranga? air?
a) National Emblem b) National Flag a) Humidity b) Vapours
c) National Anthem d) None of the Above c) Rainfall d) Cyclone

105. When was the National Emblem of India 118. What is the national Micro-Organism of India?
adopted? a) COVID -19 b) HIV Virus
a) 26th January 1990 b) 15th August 1947 c) Lactobacillus d) Pneumoniae
c) 25th February 1950 d) 26th January 1950
119. The name of Method in which cooking food by
106. When was the National Anthem of India exposing it to steam.
adopted? a) Poaching b) Roasting
a) 15th August 1947 b) 26th January 1990 c) Simmering d) Steaming
c) 25th February 1950 d) 24th January 1950
120. Fourth State of Matter-
107. Who among the following scientist invented a) Solid b) Liquid c) Plasma d) BEC
the Steam Engine?
a) Micheal Faraday b) James Watt 121. How Many States and UT are in india?
c) J. C Bose d) Poulson a) 28 and 7 b) 29 and 7
c) 28 and 8 d) 29 and 8
108. Who among the following scientist invented
the Microphone? 122. The factors affect the evaporation is/are-
a) Einstein b) Edison a) Temperature b) Surface Area
c) John & John d) Berline c) Wind Speed d) All of These

109. Kanpur is a city of Uttar Pradesh is situated 123. The point on which Gas change into Liquid
on which river bank? Known as-
a) Ganga b) Sone c) Domodar d) Gomti a) Cooling Point b) Boiling Point
c) Melting Piont d) Freezing Point
110. Who among the following scientist invented
the Dynamo? 124. ASSERTION: We should conserve plants.
a) Einstein b) Edison
c) John & John d) Faraday REASON: Plants provide us oxygen and food.

111. At which place on earth are there days & a) Assertion and reason both are correct.
nights of equal length always?
a) Equator b) Poles b) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.
c) Prime Meridian d) Nowhere
c) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong
112. Who is the Health Minister of India?
a) Shri Raj Nath Singh d) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.
b) Shri Shri Narayan Tatu Rane
c) Shri Mansukh L. Mandaviya 125. The point on which Liquid change into Gas
d) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman Known as-
a) Cooling Point b) Boiling Point
c) Melting Piont d) Freezing Point
113. Where is Indira Gandhi Open University
located in Bihar?

MEHTA GAURAV ARYA [06] P.T.O