Off-site access of sensitive personal information
7 working days
requires a request subject to the approval of the head
of the government agency maintaining the same. The
deadline to have the request approved or disapproved
shall be:
A. 1 calendar day
B. 2 calendar days
C. 1 business day
D. 2 business days
62. There shall be no delay in the notification if the
breach involves at least 100 data subjects, or the
disclosure of sensitive personal information will harm
or adversely affect the data subject. In both
instances, the Commission shall be notified within
_______ based on available information.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
A data subject’s face as captured by a photo is
considered:
A. Personal Information
B. Sensitive Personal Information
C. Privileged Information
D. None of the choices
64. Which of the following can be a valid ground to
deny admissibility of an electronic document?
A. It is in electronic format
B. It is not in the standard written form
C. It is not the best evidence of the
agreement/transaction
D. None of the choices is a valid ground
65. The time of receipt is upon entry in the
information system of the addressee:
A. if the parties has designated an information system
for the purpose of
receiving electronic data messages or electronic
documents.
B. There is a designated information system, but the
originator and the
addressee are both participants in the designated
information system.
C. The electronic message or electronic document
enters an information system of
the addressee that is not the designated information
system.
D. The parties did not designate an information
system.
66. A simple transaction that would pose danger to
public safety would have a maximum processing
period of:
A. 3 working days
B.
C. 20 working days
D. 45 working days
The government agency tasked with the
implementation of the Ease of Doing Business Act:
A. Department of Trade and Industry
B. Securities and Exchange Commission
C. The Anti-Red Tape Authority
D. The Ease of Doing Business Bureau
68. First statement: Where an unpaid seller has made
part delivery of the goods, he may exercise his right
of lien on the remainder.
Second statement: The unpaid seller of goods, having
a lien thereon, does not lose his lien by reason only
that he has obtained judgment or decree for the price
of the goods.
Third statement: As a rule, if the goods are sold to a
third party-buyer, the seller does not lose his right to
possessory lien or right of stoppage in transitu.
Fourth statement: If part delivery of the goods has
been made to the buyer, the remainder of the goods
may be stopped in transit.
A. Only 1 statement is true
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only 3 statements are true
D. All 4 statements are true
69. Consolidation of ownership via judicial order is
required in case of failure to
exercise the right of repurchase/conventional
redemption in the sale of:
I. Real property
II. Personal property
A. Both I and II
B. I only
C. II only
D. Neither I nor II
70. If a buyer of residential realty paid 8 years’ worth
of installment, the right he is entitled to would
include:
A. A grace period of 270 days
B. Cash surrender value of 65% of all payments made
C. Both a grace period of 270 days and 65% of all
payments made
D. Neither a grace period of 270 days nor 65% of all
payments made
Disposal or sale of the thing is absolutely allowed in
this contract:
A. Pledge
B. Real Estate Mortgage
C. Chattel Mortgage
D. All of the choices
72. The requirement of recording the public _____ prior to the closure order issued by the
instrument containing the real estate mortgage is for Monetary Board:
purposes of: A. 60 days
A. Validity B. 90 days
B. Enforceability C. 120 days
C. Convenience D. 150 days
D. None of the choices
78. The required disclosures of the Truth in Lending
73. Zorro purchased a fourth sword from Luffy for Act will be indicated in:
P120,000 payable in 12 equal installments. The A. The loan contract
purchase price is secured by a chattel mortgage over B. The disclosure statement
the sword. Zorro was able to pay 2 installments but C. The promissory note
defaulted in the next 3. Luffy then foreclosed the D. The deed of real estate mortgage
chattel mortgage. In this case,
A. If the proceeds of the sale is P80,000, Luffy can . The liability for non-compliance with the Truth in
recover the deficiency Lending Act is upto a maximum of:
B. If the proceeds of the sale is P120,000, Zorro is A. P100
entitled to the excess B. P1,000
C. Luffy may cancel the sale and retain the installment C. P2,000
payments D. P10,000
D. If Luffy cancelled the sale instead, Zorro will be
allowed to retain the sword 80. The total period of the freeze order issued by the
Court of Appeals shall not exceed:
74. A report is required to be filed by a bank to the A. 20 days
National Treasury in cases of dormant deposits, as an B. 72 days
exception to the confidentiality of deposits, under C. 6 months
the: D. 1 year
A. Bank Secrecy Law
B. Unclaimed Balances Act 81. Suspicious transactions are to be reported to the
C. Anti-Money Laundering Act AMLC within ________ from occurrence thereof:
D. Foreign Currency Deposit Act A. The next banking day
B. The next calendar day
75. In case there is a probable cause for money C. 5 banking days
laundering, the agency allowed to examine bank D. 5 calendar days
accounts is:
A. The BSP 82. A court order is not necessary for the AMLC to
B. The AMLC look into bank deposits in the following predicate
C. The PDIC crimes, except:
D. Any law enforcement agency A. Kidnapping
B. Hijacking
76. The following bank accounts are maintained in C. Violation of the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs
Montreal Bank Philippines, Inc., that was declared Act
insolvent and taken over by the PDIC: D. Conspiracy to Commit Terrorism
Jean ITF Miggy P500,000
Miggy FAO Gabby P500,000 83. Covered transactions for casinos would be a
Gabby By Jean P500,000 transaction in excess of:
Jean and Gabby P500,000 A. P500,000
Miggy or Jean P500,000 B. P5,000,000
How much is the total amount of insured deposits of C. P7,500,000
Jean? D. P10,000,000
A. P250,000
B. P500,000 84. Tax Evasion, as a predicate crime, for money
C. P750,000 laundering purposes must involve a
D. P1,000,000 basic tax in the final assessment in excess of:
A. P10M
77. For a transfer to be considered splitting of B. P25M
deposits, it must be made within C. P50M
D. P100M D. No limit

85. Entities dealing in derivatives are supervised and 91. Under Proclamation No. 368 series of 2023, which
regulated by: of the following is considered a regular holiday?
A. The BSP A. Labor Day
B. The PDIC B. EDSA People Power Revolution
C. The SEC C. Ninoy Aquino Day
D. The Insurance Commission D. Christmas Eve

86. An insurance that covers damages arising from 92. The rate applicable for an employee who worked
earthquake is classified as: on a rest day that is at the same
A. Casualty insurance time a regular holiday:
B. Marine insurance A. 130%
C. Fire insurance B. 150%
D. Variable insurance C. 195%
D. 260%
87. The amount of contributions, premiums and fees
in a microinsurance cannot exceed __ the Statutory 93. If the drawer and issuer of the check acted in good
Minimum Wage in Metro Manila for the non- faith, despite the fact that the check bounced, he
agricultural sector: may still be liable for:
A. 2.5% A. Violation of BP Blg 22
B. 5% B. Estafa
C. 7.5% C. Both violation of BP Blg 22 and Estafa
D. 10% D. Neither violation of BP Blg 22 nor Estafa

88. Who has insurable interest? 94. In the prosecution of BP Blg 22, a notice of
I.Peter over the life of his Aunt May, the latter paying dishonor is required to be provided to the drawer. He
for his education. shall be then given __ from receipt thereof to pay the
II. Bruce over the life of Alfred, the executor of his holder or make arrangements for payment of the
(Bruce’s) parents’ will. amount due thereon.
III. Love over the life of his adopted father Thor A. 3 banking days
A. I, II and III B. 3 calendar days
B. I and II only C. 5 banking days
C. I and III only D. 5 calendar days
D. II and III only
95. Which of the following is an example of an
89. Who among the following retirees is/are entitled unconscionable sales acts or practices?
to a monthly pension under the SSS Law? A. The transaction that the seller or supplier induced
I. Pao, who is 60 years old and contributed 150 the consumer to enter into was excessively one-sided
monthly contributions and still in favor of the seller or supplier.
employed B. A consumer product or service has the sponsorship,
II. Jadey, who is 65 years old and contributed 100 approval, performance, characteristics, ingredients,
monthly contributions and still accessories, uses, or benefits it does not have.
employed C. A consumer product or service is of a particular
III. Jomz, who is 60 years old and contributed 100 standard, quality, grade, style, or model when in fact
monthly contributions and is it is not.
no longer employed D. A consumer product is new, original or unused,
A. All 3 when in fact, it is in a deteriorated, altered,
B. Only 2 reconditioned, reclaimed or second-hand state.
C. Only 1
D. None Which of the following is an example of an
unconscionable sales acts or practices?
90. The maternity leave may be availed by the female A. The transaction that the seller or supplier induced
member: the consumer to enter into was excessively one-sided
A. Upto 4 births in favor of the seller or supplier.
B. Upto 4 births, including miscarriages B. A consumer product or service has the sponsorship,
C. Upto 4 births plus miscarriages approval, performance,
characteristics, ingredients, accessories, uses, or D. Shopping
benefits it does not have.
C. A consumer product or service is of a particular 2. This attribute of the corporation describes the
standard, quality, grade, style, or model when in fact Corporate Entity Theory
it is not. A. Artificial Being
D. A consumer product is new, original or unused, B. Created by Operation of Law
when in fact, it is in a deteriorated, altered, C. Having the Right of Succession
reconditioned, reclaimed or second-hand state. D. None of the choices

97. Which of the following may give rise to criminal
liability under the Philippine
Competition Act?
A. Anti-Competitive Agreements
B. Abuse of Dominant Position
C. Anti-Competitive Mergers
D. All of the choices
98. Which of the following is not considered abuse of
dominant position?
A. Imposing restrictions on the lease or contract for
sale or trade of goods or services concerning where,
to whom, or in what forms goods or services may be
sold or traded, such as fixing prices, giving preferential
discounts or rebate upon such price, or imposing
conditions not to deal with competing entities, where
the object or effect of the restrictions is to prevent,
restrict or lessen competition substantially.
B. Fixing price at an auction or in any form of bidding
including cover bidding, bid suppression, bid rotation
and market allocation and other analogous practices
of bid manipulation.
C. Making a transaction subject to acceptance by the
other parties of other obligations which, by their
nature or according to commercial usage, have no
connection with the transaction.
D. Selling goods or services below cost with the object
of driving competition out of the relevant market.
99. Termination for Default on Infrastructure Projects
may be justified if due to the
contractor’s fault and while the project is on-going, it
has incurred negative
slippage of
A. 10% or more
B. 15% or more
C. 20% or more
D. 25% or more
100. Procurement of Goods of propriety nature, which
can be obtained only from the propriety source, i.e.
when patents, trade secrets and copyrights prohibit
others from manufacturing the same items, would
justify which alternative mode of procurement?
A. Selective Bidding
B. Direct Contracting
C. Repeat Order
63. This includes insurance against lightning,
windstorm, tornado and earthquake
A. Life Insurance
B. Fire Insurance
C. Casualty Insurance
D. Microinsurance
64. In this kind of insurance, insurable interest is
required to exist both at the time the insurance was
taken out and when the loss occurs:
A. Property insurance
B. Life insurance
C. Both Property and Life Insurance
D. Neither Property nor Life Insurance
65. H and W are married, with X and Y as their
legitimate children, and Z an illegitimate child of prior
to marrying W. In this case, H has no insurable
interest over the life of:
A. W
B. X and Y
C. Z
D. H has insurable interest over the lives of all
66. The requirement that the parties to an insurance
contract must transact with each other with honesty
and candor relates to which characteristic of a
contract of insurance?
A. Contract of Adhesion
B. Aleatory Contract
C. Contract of Utmost Good Faith
D. Personal Contract
67. The maximum sum guaranteed in a Microinsrance
is not more than _____ times the current daily
minimum wage rate for nonagricultural workers in
Metro Manila.
A. 100
B. 500
C. 1,000
D. 5,000
68. The following have insurable interest in life and
health, except:
A. The father as to the life of his son
B. The wife as to the life of her husband
C. The debtor as to the life of the creditor
D. The nephew as to the life of his aunt to whom he is B. Majority
dependent for support C. 2/3
D. ¾
‘69. D is indebted to C for P100,000 due on December
31. D secured an insurance over his life for the benefit 75. A cooperative has an Authorized Share Capital of
of C. On November 30, D died at the time the balance P1,000,000. The highest shareholding that a member
of the obligation was only P20,000. How much of the may have is:
insurance would inure to the benefit of the estate of A. P10,000
D? B. P100,000
A. P100,000 C. P20,000
B. P80,000 D. P200,000
C. P20,000
D. P0 76. Mr. X maintains the following accounts with ABC
Bank: Savings Account – P300,000; Joint account with
70. The beneficiary is required to have insurable Mr. Y – P500,000; Joint account with Z Corporation –
interest in which of the following instances? P200,000. How much is his insured deposit?
I. In property insurance A. P500,000
II. In life insurance taken by the insured B. P550,000
III. In life insurance taken by a third person on the life C. P650,000
of the insured D. P1,000,000
A. I, II and III
B. I and II only 77. Which of the following is not allowed to examine
C. I and III only bank accounts?
D. II and III only A. The Monetary Board
B. Anti-Money Laundering Council
71. First Statement: A Laboratory Cooperative has a C. Independent Auditor
juridical personality separate and distinct from its D. None of the choices
Guardian Cooperative. Second Statement: Reaching
the age of 18 is a valid ground to terminate 78. Mr. X maintains P900,000 in his bank account in a
membership in a Laboratory Cooperative bank that is to be taken over by the PDIC for
A. Both statements are correct liquidation purposes. Prior to the closure, Mr. X
B. Both statements are incorrect transferred P400,000 to the name of his son, in order
C. Only the first statement is correct to maximize the deposit insurance. How much would
D. Only the second statement is correct Mr. X be entitled to for deposit insurance coverage?
A. P400,000
72. In special meetings of the General Assembly of a B. P500,000
cooperative a notice is required ot be provided C. P900,000
______ prior to the meeting: D. P0
A. 1 day
B. 2 days 79. First Statement: Issuance of a writ of garnishment
C. 1 week will be a violation of the secrecy of bank deposits
D. 2 weeks Second Statement: Foreign deposits are considered
exempt from garnishment
73. Vacancies arising from the removal of a A. Both statements are correct
cooperative director would be filled-up by: B. Both statements are incorrect
A. The Board of Directors, if they still constitute a C. Only the first statement is correct
quorum D. Only the second statement is correct
B. The Board of Directors, even if they don’t constitute
a quorum 80. The period within which to file a claim with the
C. The General Assembly, if the remaining directors do PDIC is ____ from the actual takeover of the closed
not have a quorum bank:
D. The General Assembly, whether or not the A. 1 year
remaining directors constitute a quorum B. 2 years
C. 3 years
74. Granting compensation to the directors would D. 5 years
necessitate _ vote of the General Assembly:
A. 25%
81. Mr. T, the treasurer of the Local Government of in excess of:
Guiguinto, Bulacan, syphoned the municipality’s A. P500,000
money into his own deposit account amounting to B. P5,000,000
P10,000,000. His bank account may be examined as C. P7,500,000
an exception to the secrecy of bank deposits on the D. P10,000,000
which ground?
A. Impeachment cases 88. Suspicious transactions must be reported to the
B. Upon lawful order of the court in cases involving Anti-Money Laundering council within
dereliction of duty A. The next working day
C. Upon examination by the AMLC where there is B. The next calendar day
probable cause that the money came from an C. 5 working days
unlawful activity D. 5 calendar days
D. None of the choices
89. Tax Evasion is now considered an unlawful activity
2. The following constitutes exceptions to the secrecy under the Anti-Money Laundering Council if the basic
of foreign currency deposits, except: tax assessment is in excess of:
A. When there is a written consent from the depositor A. P10M
B. When there is probable cause that the money came B. P15M
from an unlawful activity C. P20M
C. When there is probable cause in cases involving D. P25M
persons suspected of the crime of terrorism
D. None of the choices is an exception 90. The freeze order issued by the Court of Appeals
via an ex-parte application by the AMLC shall have a
83. The following are information required to be period not exceeding:
indicated in the declaration statement under the A. 30 days
Truth in Lending Act: B. 3 months
A. Finance charge C. 6 months
B. Amount to be financed D. 1 year
C. Net proceeds of the loan
D. All of the choices 91. Mr. X started working on his invention in 2010 and
finished the same in 2022, where he filed the
84. If there is a violation of the Truth in Lending Act, application for a patent on January 15. Mr. Z worked
which of the following may be a consequence thereof: on the same invention separately, starting on the
A. The loan is deemed paid already same in 2015 and finishing the same in 2021. He filed
B. The goods purchased are deemed fully paid his application for patent on January 20, 2022. Who
C. The creditor may be civilly liable will have a better right over the patent on the
D. The contract of loan is considered void invention?
A. Mr. X
85. The following are considered as unlawful activities B. Mr. Z
under the Anti-Money Laundering Act, except: C. Both of them equally
A. Theft D. None of X and Z
B. Robbery
C. Qualified Theft 92. This means any visible sign capable of
D. Plunder distinguishing goods of an enterprise:
A. Trademark
86. At this stage of money laundering, the money re- B. Patent
enters mainstream economy in legitimate-looking C. Copyright
form, appearing to have come from legitimate D. Service mark
transaction.
A. Placement 93. Under the Ease of Doing Business Act, the
B. Layering maximum working days allowed to process complex
C. Integration transactions is:
D. None of the choices A. 3
B. 7
87. Covered transactions for real estate brokers C. 20
and/or developers involve a single cash transaction D. 45
the amount of which is
94. A photograph with a data subject’s face may be
considered:
A. Personal Information
B. Sensitive Personal Information
C. Privileged Information
D. All of the above
95. The processing of personal data shall be adequate,
relevant, suitable, necessary, and not excessive in
relation to a declared and specified purpose. This
pertains to what principle of data processing?
A. Principle of Proportionality
B. Principle of Legitimate Purpose
C. Principle of Transparency
D. All of the choices
96. First Statement: As a rule, no employee of the
government shall have access to sensitive personal
information on government property or through
online facilities unless the employee has received a
security clearance from the head of the source
agency. Second Statement: If a request for off-site
access to sensitive personal information in an agency
is approved, the head of the agency shall limit the
access to not more than 1,000 records at a time.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
97. Under the Ease of Doing Business Act, a business
permit issued by the Local Government Unit shall be
valid for a period of:
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 10 years
98. S sold to B his iphone 14 pro max for P10,000,
where the fair market value thereof is P80,000, and
they did so through exchanges of sms. What is the
status of the contract taking into account the E-
Commerce Act?
A. Valid
B. Unenforceable
C. Rescissible
D. Voidable
99. First Statement: If the parties to an electronic
document or electronic data message are both
participants of the designated information system, the
time of receipt shall be upon entry of the ED or EDM
in the designated information
system. Second Statement: If there are multiple
places of business, the place of dispatch shall be that
which has the closest
relationship to the underlying transaction.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
100. C is a secured creditor of D, the latter now under
rehabilitation. D is indebted to C for P1M, but secured
the same through a Real Estate Mortgage of a
property with a value of P1.5M. In this case, which of
the following would be incorrect?
A. C may waive his right under the security and share
in the distribution of the assets of the D
B. C may maintain his security and if the property is
sold for P1.8M in the foreclosure, the excess will
belong to D
C. The rehabilitation receiver may convey the
property to C and if the agreed value is P1.4M, C will
be required to return the excess P400,000
D. The rehabilitation receiver may convey the
property to C and if the agreed value is P900,000, C
will waive the collection of the P100,000 balance.
101. The filing of a petition for rehabilitation of a
corporation will require the majority of the directors
and stockholders representing ________ of the
outstanding capital:
A. 50%
B. Majority
C. 2/3
D. ¾
102. The approval of a pre-negotiated rehabilitation
plan must be ___ of the total liabilities to secured
creditors, among others
A. 67%
B. 75%
C. 85%
D. 100%
103. Which of the following is a correct description of
the proceedings under the FRIA
A. Quasi In rem
B. Summary
C. Adversarial
D. None of the choices
104. Which of the following proceedings may not be
initiated by the creditors?
A. Rehabilitation
B. Liquidation
C. Suspension of payments
D. None of the choices
105. In this proceeding, the creditors will be called to
a meeting to propose and agree on a schedule of
payments and to prevent the debtor from making any
payment outside the necessary or legitimate expense
of the business, and the issuance of a suspension
order to prevent pending executions against the
debtor.
A. Rehabilitation
B. Liquidation
C. Suspension of Payments
D. None of the choices
106. First Statement: The preference of creditors will
be retained during, and despite, the rehabilitation
proceedings.
Second Statement: Such secured creditors may
proceed with the enforcement of their preference
despite the stay order.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
107. First Statement: An out-of-court rehabilitation
plan that is approved pursuant to an informal workout
framework shall have the same legal effect as
confirmation of a plan under a court-supervised
rehabilitation.
Second Statement: The Rehabilitation Plan shall take
effect upon the lapse of 15 days from the date of the
last publication of notice thereof.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
108. The Philippine Competition Act would apply to all
of the following, except: A.
A person engaged in trade, industry or commerce in
the Republic of the Philippines
B. International trade having direct, substantial and
reasonable foreseeable effects in trade, industry or
commerce in the Republic of the Philippines
C. Combinations or activities of workers that are
designed to facilitate collective bargaining in respect
of conditions of employment
D. None of the choices is an exception
109. The fixing of the price at an auction, like bid
rotation, is what kind of an unlawful act under the
Philippine Competition Act?
A. Anti-Competitive Agreement
B. Abuse of Dominant Position
C. Anti-Competitive Merger
D. None of the choices
110. Output Limitation and Market Allocation, under
the Philippine Competition Act, are
A. Per se prohibited
B. Prohibited if the object or effect of restricting
competition
C. Allowed even between competitors
D. None of the choices is correct
111. An agreement between competitors which
provides for a maximum cap on the price of their
competing goods may be
referred to as:
A. Price fixing
B. Bid rigging
C. Output limitation
D. Market allocation
112. Requiring buyers/consumers to purchase a tied-
up product that is unrelated to what they actually
intend to purchase may be considered a/an:
A. Anti-Competitive Agreement
B. Abuse of Dominant Position
C. Mislabelling
D. Prohibited Acquisition
113. All of the following may be covered by the
power/authority of the Philippine Competition
Commission to review agreements, except:
A. Mergers
B. Consolidations
C. Acquisitions
D. None of the choices is an exception
114. In general, the period of review of mergers and
acquisitions by the Philippine Competition
Commission shall be a period of:
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 120 days
115. First Statement: In all stages of the preparation
of the Bidding Documents, the Procuring entity shall
ensure equal access to information. Second
Statement: Prior to their official release, no aspect of
the Bidding Documents shall be divulged or released
on any prospective bidder or having direct or indirect
interest in the project to be procured.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
116. The Bid for consulting services with the highest
calculated rating considering the evaluation criteria
stated in the Bidding Documents shall be referred to
as the:
A. Highest Rated Bid
B. Lowest Rated Bid
C. Highest Calculated Bid
D. Lowes Calculated Bid
117. The following are the governing principles
applicable to the procurement of the government,
except:
A. Transparency in the procurement process and in
the implementation of procurement contracts.
B. Competitiveness by extending equal opportunity to
enable private contracting parties who are eligible and
qualified to participate in public bidding
C. Streamlined procurement process that will
uniformly apply to all government procurement. The
procurement process shall simple and made
adaptable to advances in modern technology in order
to ensure an effective and efficient method.
D. None of the choices is an exception
118. As a general rule, prior to the issuance of the
Invitation to Bid, the BAC is mandated to hold a pre-
procurement conference:
A. On at least one of every three procurements
B. On a procurement with an ABC of at least
P1,000,000
C. On each and every procurement
D. As the Procuring Entity may request
119. At least how many pre-bid conference shall be
conducted for each procurement?
A. One
B. Three
C. Five
D. Seven
120. This is given as a guarantee that the winning
bidder shall enter into contract with the Procuring
Entity within the stipulated time.
A. Bid Security
B. Performance Security
C. Contract Security
D. Commitment Undertaking
The data subject shall have the right to dispute the
inaccuracy or error in the
personal information and have the personal
information controller correct it
immediately and accordingly, unless the request is
vexatious or otherwise
unreasonable.
A. Right to Access
B. Right to Correction
C. Right to Object
D. Right to Withhold Consent
A person’s sexual life or the lack thereof is considered:
A. Personal information
B. Sensitive personal information
C. Privileged information
D. Sad information
87. Disclosures made a patient to his doctor about his
medical condition is considered:
A. Personal information
B. Sensitive personal information
C. Privileged information
D. Sad information
88. Off-site access of sensitive personal information
requires a request subject to the approval of the head
of the government agency maintaining the same. The
deadline to have the request approved or disapproved
shall be:
A. 1 calendar day
B. 2 calendar days
C. 1 business day
D. 2 business days
89. Public officers or employees found guilty of
Improper Disposal of Personal
Information and Sensitive Personal Information and
Processing of Personal
Information and Sensitive Personal Information for
Unauthorized Persons, shall, in addition to the
penalties prescribed, suffer:
A. Perpetual absolute disqualification from office
B. Temporary absolute disqualification from office
C. Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
from office
D. Neither perpetual nor temporary absolute
disqualification from office
90. There shall be no delay in the notification if the
breach involves at least 100 data subjects, or the
disclosure of sensitive personal information will harm
or adversely affect the data subject. In both
instances, the Commission shall be notified within
_______ based on available information.
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 72 hours
D. 96 hours
91. A person by whom, or on whose behalf, the
electronic document purports to have been created,
generated and/or sent.
A. Originator
B. Intermediary
C. Addressee
D. Service Provider
92. Aziraphale Corporation (AC) sent an electronic
contract of sale to Crowley Corporation (CC). AC has
its principal office in Makati City, but the branch that
transacted with CC is located in Cebu City. CC, on the
other hand, has its principal place of business in
Quezon City, while the branch that transacted with
AC is in Mandaue City. Where is the place of dispatch
in accordance with the ECommerce Act?
A. Makati City
B. Cebu City
C. Quezon City
D. Mandaue City
93. Lim Joo-kyung called Lee Su-ho and offered to sell
her specific land for P10,000,000. Lee Su-ho did not
give a definite answer during the call but eventually
sent Joo-kyung a text message confirming that he will
buy the land for the offered price. What is the status
of the contract?
A. Valid
B. Voidable
C. Unenforceable
D. Void
Under the Consumer Protection Act, this would mean
any substance which on contact with living tissue will
cause destruction of tissue by chemical action.
A. Hazardous
B. Flammable
C. Corrosive
D. Toxic
52. A consumer product or service which purports
that it has the sponsorship, approval, performance,
characteristics, ingredients, accessories, uses, or
benefits it does not have, is considered:
A. Deceptive Sales Act or Practice
B. Unfair Sales Act or Practice
C. Prohibited Representation
D. Prohibited Act on Labeling and Packaging
53. This kind of sales for consumer products is always
not allowed:
A. Chain distribution plans
B. Home solicitation sales
C. Referral sales
D. All of the choices are always not allowed
54. This kind of sales practice may be allowed
provided a permit is secured from the concerned
department
A. Chain distribution plans
B. Home solicitation sales
C. Referral sales
D. None of the choices is allowed
55. To display or distribute or to cause to be displayed
or distributed in commerce any consumer product
whose package or label does not conform with the
provisions of the Consumer Act or its Implementing
Rules shall be considered:
A. Deceptive Sales Act or Practice
B. Unfair Sales Act or Practice
C. Prohibited Representation
D. Prohibited Act on Labeling and Packaging
56. The minimum labeling requirements for all
consumer products include the following, except:
A. Trade name or brand name
B. Trademark
C. General make or active ingredients
D. Expiration date
57. First Statement: Food is deemed mislabeled if it
contains a habit-forming substance unless its label
bears the details of such substance with the
statement “Warning-may be habit forming”.
Second Statement: A hazardous substance is deemed
mislabeled when the word “danger” does not appear
on substances which are extremely flammable,
corrosive or highly toxic.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. Only the first statement is correct
D. Only the second statement is correct
58. Any hazardous substance condemned under the
Consumer Protection Act may be disposed by:
A. Destruction
B. Sale
C. Either Destruction or Sale
D. Neither Destruction nor Sale
59. Under the Consumer Protection Act on warranties,
in order for the dealer to hold the manufacturer,
producer or importer of a product liable for the
warranty, he is required to provide a report of the
details of the sale made within ___ from the date of
purchase.
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 1 year
D. 5 years
60. The period to invoke Lemon Law rights is
whichever is earlier of:
A. 6 months from the date of original delivery or upto
10,000 kilometers
B. 6 months from the date of original delivery or upto
20,000 kilometers
C. 12 months from the date of original delivery or
upto 10,000 kilometers
D. 12 months from the date of original delivery or
upto 20,000 kilometer