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1. 89. What would be the Blood Pressure D w/ CKD) Mnemonic:

Goal of a 37 years old patient if the Chrush Di na Glowing pag may
patient has a co-morbidity of chronic A. Chronic diffusion glomerulonephri- PyeCol
kidney disease. tis B. Diabetes C. Hypothyroidism D. Chronic diffusion glomeru-
AOTA E. NOTA lonephritis
A. <120/80 mmHg Pyelonephritis
B. <150/90 mmHg Polycyskideny
C. 120/80 mmHg
D. <140/90 mmHg Mnemonic:
Pheo pag may Crush; hype (3x)
2. 90. What would be the blood pressure D Pheochromocytoma
category of an adult patient with a BP Cushing syndrome
of 180/100. ‘ aldosterone; thyroidism; parathy-
roidism
A. Normal B. Prehypertension C. Stage
1 Hypertension D. Stage 2 Hypertension 6. 94; What type of hypertensive crisis D
has a systolic blood pressure of >180
3. 91. Mang Jose Is a 50 y/o truck driver C mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of
who; although asymptomatic Is noted >120 mmHg and with no target organ
to have elevated blood pressure during damage.
his yearly check-up. From a previous
BP of 134/90 last year his current BP Is a. Hypertensive Urgency
146/90. What Is the classification of his b. White Coat Hypertension
BP? c. Hypertensive
d. Emergency AOTA NOTA
A. Normal B. Prehypertension C. Stage
1 Hypertension D. Stage 2 Hypertension 7. 95 What type of hypertensive crisis A
has a systolic blood pressure of >180
4. 92. This type of hypertension has no A mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of White Coat Hypertension - when
Identifiable cause of high blood pres- >120 mmHg and with no target organ facing DR.
sure. A. Primary Hypertension - identi- damage Hypertensive EmergencY - w/tar-
fiable cause and develops gradu- get organ damage w/c require im-
A. Primary Hypertension B. Secondary ally A. Hypertensive Urgency mediate attention and must be
Hypertension C. Pre Hypertension D. B. Secondary Hypertension - B. White Coat Hypertension admitted in ICU.
AOTA E. NOTA have an underlying cause due to C. Hypertensive Emergency
other disease D. AOTA E. NOTA Mnemonic: Nica Fenold mo ba
yung CarNi NitroP?
5. 93. Which of the following is an etiology A Ist line: Nitroprusside;
of secondary hypertension (associated Fenoldopam; Nicardipine;

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Mnemonic: IV. Shortness of Breath rhythmia; dizziness; swelling and
CC for Urgent fainting
Clonidine and Captopril --> 1st A. 1&Il B.1I & Ill C. I & IV D. AOTA E. NOTA
line: Labetalol; Clonidine and
Captopril 12. 100. Which of the following Is a B
long-acting diuretic? A. Loop Diuretic
8. 96. Which of the following are risk fac- C B. Thiazide Diuretic C. Potassium Spar-
tors for hypertension that can be con- ing Diuretic
trolled?
I. Salt Intake 13. 101. What Is the ideal route of admin- C
II. Avoid food rich in potassium istration for Thiazide diuretics? A. In-
III. Acute diseases travenous B. Intramuscular Cc. Oral D.
IV. Pregnancy Subcutaneous

A. 1&Il B.1 & Ill C.1& IV D. AOTA E. NOTA 14. 102. Thiazide diuretics cause decreas- ?
es electrolytes except? A. Magnesium
9. 97. Which of the following are causes of ? B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium
hypertension?
I. Stress 15. 112. Which CCB is usually in a sus- A
II. Salt Intake tained-release onset of action?
III. Age
IV. Obesity A. Nicardipine B. Nifedipine C. Amlodip-
ine D. Felodipine
A. 1&Il B.1 & Ill C.1& IV D. AOTA E. NOTA
16. 113. TRUE OR FALSE (Mechanism of T
10. 98. Which Is a sign of Hypertensive ? Action)
Retinopathy?
Calcium channel blockers bind to cal-
I. Reduced Vision cium channels found in the blood ves-
II. Edema sels. As a result of the calcium chan-
III. Bradycardia nel blockade; CCBs causes vasodila-
IV. Bursting of a blood vessel tion (widening) of the blood vessels.

A. 1&Il B.1 & Ill C.1& IV D. AOTA E. NOTA 17. 118. Which of the following is a side D
effect of Calcium Channel Blocker?
11. 99. Which Is a sign of Cardiomegaly? D
I. Headache
I. Heart Palpitations Other signs: Il. Dizziness
II. Dizziness SOB; chest pain; palpitation; ar- Ill. Flushing
III. Swelling IV. Swelling of arms and Legs
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23. 148. What type of Beta Blockers is ad- B - such as aTENOLOL; bISO-
A. 1&Il B.1I & Ill C. I1& IV D. AOTA E. visable in the treatment of Hyperten- PROLOL; Ismolol; metoprolol
NOTA sion?

18. 129. The following ace inhibitors are F A. Non-selective Beta Blockers (1%
used for hypertension except? gen)
B. Cardioselective (2nd Gen)
A. Lisinopril B. Enalapril C. Quinapril D. C. With Vasodilating Effect (3rd Gen)
Trandolapril E. AOTA F. NOTA D. ±-²
Blockers

19. 130. What is the teratogenic effect ace D 24. 149. What 3rd generation beta blocker B
inhibitors? has an anti-hypertensive effect?
A. Gray baby syndrome - CHLO-
A. Gray baby syndrome B. Neural Tube RAMPHENICOL A. Carteolol B. Nebivolol C. Celiprolol D.
Defect C. Retardation D. Fetal Anuria E. B. Neural Tube Defect - Propranolol
AOTA F. NOTA TRETENOIN
25. 159. This works centrally in the brain C
20. 131. What is the hormone in the body B - FROM ARBS to block neurotransmitters (Chemicals
that causes constriction (narrowing) of that communicate to the body) from in-
the blood vessels? A. Angiotensin I B. creasing the heart rate and blood pres-
Angiotensin II C. Aldosterone D. AOTA sure.
E. NOTA
A. Direct renin inhibitor
21. 132. What is the hormone stimulated by C B. Alpha-1 blockers
Angiotensin II which holds both sodium C. Central alpha-2 blockers
and water in the body? D. ACEi
A. Angiotensin I B. Bradykinin C. Aldos- 26. 160. Which of the following is not a side F
terone D. AOTA E. NOTA effect of Alpha 2-agonist

22. 138. In emergency cases of hyperten- B a. Dizziness

sion captopril's onset of action is: b. Drowsiness
c. Fatigue d. Headache
1. 5-10 minutes onset orally e. AOTA f. NOTA
2. 5 minutes onset sublingually
3. 15 minutes onset orally 27. 161. This causes small blood vessels to B
4. 5-10 minutes sublingually remain open; which lowers blood pres-
sure.
A. 1&ll B. III & IV C. 1&lV D. II & lll
A. Direct renin inhibitor
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B. Alpha-1 blockers "-zosin"
C. Central alpha-2 blockers 35. 108-111. TRUE OR FALSE (INITIAL F - 12.5 mg
D. ACEI DOSE FOR THIAZIDES)

28. T/F F - correct: distal convoluted 110. Chlortalidone should be initiated at

tubule 25 mg
103. Thiazides lowers NA+ levels in the
ascending Loop of Henle 36. 108-111. TRUE OR FALSE (INITIAL F - 12.525 mg
DOSE FOR THIAZIDES)
29. T/F T
111. The target dose of Chlortalidone is
104. Thiazides lose efficacy if GFR 25 mg
<30-40 mL/minT
37. 119-123. TRUE OR FALSE (CCB) F - DHP are more preferred com-
30. T/F T pared to Non- Dihydropyridines
119. Non- Dihydropyridines are effec- such as diltiazem and Verapamil
105. Hydrochlorothiazide is the only tive for BP lowering;
real thiazide
38. 119-123. TRUE OR FALSE (CCB) F
31. T/F F - correct: 10-15 mmhg
120. Nifedipine is a long acting CCB.
106. Thiazide is effective in lowering the
BP by 15-20mmHg 39. 119-123. TRUE OR FALSE (CCB) T

32. T/F T 121. Nimodipine has has high lipid sol-

ubility.
107. Chlorthalidone is longer acting
compared to other Thiazides 40. 119-123. TRUE OR FALSE (CCB) T

33. 108-111. TRUE OR FALSE (INITIAL
DOSE FOR THIAZIDES)
108. The initial suggested dose for
HCTZ is 12.5 mg to 25 mg per day
34. 108-111. TRUE OR FALSE (INITIAL
DOSE FOR THIAZIDES)
109. The target dose of HCTZ per day is
100 mg
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T 122. DHP affect peripheral resistance
41. 119-123. TRUE OR FALSE (CCB) T
123. Non- DHP affect peripheral resis-
tance; heart rate and contractility
F - 25-50 mg
42. 124-128 Categorize the following ACE B
Inhibitors. Choose A If Sulfhydryl con-
taining; B If Dicarboxylic containing
and Cif Phosphorus Containing:
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124. Enalapril:
43. 124-128 Categorize the following ACE B
Inhibitors. Choose A If Sulfhydryl con-
taining; B If Dicarboxylic containing
and Cif Phosphorus Containing:
Quinapril
44. 124-128 Categorize the following ACE A
Inhibitors. Choose A If Sulfhydryl con-
taining; B If Dicarboxylic containing
and Cif Phosphorus Containing:
CAPTOPRIL
45. 124-128 Categorize the following ACE C
Inhibitors. Choose A If Sulfhydryl con-
taining; B If Dicarboxylic containing
and Cif Phosphorus Containing:
Fosinopril
46. 124-128 Categorize the following ACE B
Inhibitors. Choose A If Sulfhydryl con-
taining; B If Dicarboxylic containing
and Cif Phosphorus Containing:
112. Lisinopril
47. 133-137. TRUE OR FALSE (ACEI)
133. Inhibition of the formation of An-
giotensin II would increase BP.
48. 133-137. TRUE OR FALSE (ACEI)
134. Ace inhibitor shows to reduce pro-
teinuria
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49. 133-137. TRUE OR FALSE (ACEI) T
135. Ace inhibitor could cause reduc-
tion GFR.
50. 133-137. TRUE OR FALSE (ACEI) T
136. Ace inhibitor could cause an-
gioedema
51. 133-137. TRUE OR FALSE (ACEI) F
CapSul ’ Captopril ; Sulfhydryl
137. If a patient has a prior history of
angioedema with one ACEi just shift to
another ACEi
52. 139-143. TRUE OR FALSE T
123. ARBs have been shown to be
equally effective as ACE inhibitors; but
with less side effects
53. 139-143. TRUE OR FALSE F - AE: if taken both Ò se-
vere hypotension and HYPER-
124. ARBS and ACEi have similar mech- CALCEMIA
anism; these two medications should
be given together for greater efficacy
54. 139-143. TRUE OR FALSE T
F 125. Low blood pressure is a common
side effect with ARBS
55. 139-143. TRUE OR FALSE T
T 126. ARBS could cause cough and an-
gioedema
56. F
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139-143. TRUE OR FALSE beta-blockers should be used as prima-
ry therapy if a patient has a compelling
127. ARBS has no risk for fetus indication (recent stroke or heart at-
tack).
57. 144-147. (INITIAL DOSE FOR ARBs) 8-32 mg
64. 150-153 TRUE OF FALSE F - 10-14 days
128. The initial suggested dose for Can-
desartan is Taper dose over 7 days when discontin-
uing to prevent rebound hypertension
58. 144-147. (INITIAL DOSE FOR ARBs) 150-300 mg
65. 150-153 TRUE OF FALSE T
129. The initial suggested dose for Irbe-
sartan is Beta Blockers with vasodilation affect
HR; Contractility; BV and Peripheral
59. 144-147. (INITIAL DOSE FOR ARBs) 25-100 mg resistance

130. The initial suggested dose for 66. 154-158 CHOOSE A If this a side ef- A
Losartan is fect/ADR of Beta Blocker and CHOOSE
B If not.
60. 144-147. (INITIAL DOSE FOR ARBs) 20-40 mg
Bronchospasm
131. The initial suggested dose for
Olmesartan is 67. 154-158 CHOOSE A If this a side ef- A
fect/ADR of Beta Blocker and CHOOSE
61. 144-147. (INITIAL DOSE FOR ARBs) 20-80 mg B If not.

132. The initial suggested dose for Decrease libido

Telmisartan is
62. 150-153 TRUE OF FALSE
Beta-blockers are second-line thera-
py is based on studies showing that
beta-blockers
had a higher incidence of heart attack
or stroke when used for HTN in patients
without a specific indication for use
68. 154-158 CHOOSE A If this a side ef- B
T fect/ADR of Beta Blocker and CHOOSE
B If not.
Gough
69. 154-158 CHOOSE A If this a side ef- B - HYPOglycemia
fect/ADR of Beta Blocker and CHOOSE
B If not.

63. 150-153 TRUE OF FALSE T Hyperglycemia

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70. 154-158 CHOOSE A If this a side ef- A - nonselective B. Vitamin deficiency anemia
fect/ADR of Beta Blocker and CHOOSE C. Aplastic anemia
B If not. D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Sickle Cell Anemia
Tiredness and Fatigue
243. Deficiency in Vitamin B12 and fo-
71. 114-117. TRUE OR FALSE (INI- ? late
TIAL DOSE FOR CALCIUM CHANNEL
BLOCKER) 77. 243-247 Identify which type of Anemia: C
A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
98. Amlodipine prescribed dose B. Vitamin deficiency anemia
(mg/day) C. Aplastic anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
72. 114-117. TRUE OR FALSE (INI- ? E. Sickle Cell Anemia
TIAL DOSE FOR CALCIUM CHANNEL
BLOCKER) 244. Rarest and arguably the most dan-
gerous type of anemia
99. Felodipine prescribed dose
(mg/day) 78. 243-247 Identify which type of Anemia: D
A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
73. 114-117. TRUE OR FALSE (INI- ? B. Vitamin deficiency anemia
TIAL DOSE FOR CALCIUM CHANNEL C. Aplastic anemia
BLOCKER) D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Sickle Cell Anemia
100. Nicardipine sustained-release pre-
scribed dose (mg/day) 245. Red blood cells are destroyed
faster than the body can create
74. 114-117. TRUE OR FALSE (INI- ?
TIAL DOSE FOR CALCIUM CHANNEL 79. 243-247 Identify which type of Anemia:
BLOCKER) A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
B. Vitamin deficiency anemia
101. Nisoldipine prescribed dose C. Aplastic anemia
(mg/day) D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Sickle Cell Anemia
75. 114-117. TRUE OR FALSE (INITIAL ?
DOSE FOR CALCIUM CHANNEL 246. caused by shortage of iron in the
BLOCKER) body
76. 243-247 Identify which type of Anemia: B 80. 243-247 Identify which type of Anemia: E
A. Iron Deficiency Anemia A. Iron Deficiency Anemia
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B. Vitamin deficiency anemia A. Hematocrit
C. Aplastic anemia B. Plasma
D. Hemolytic anemia C. Thrombocytes
E. Sickle Cell Anemia D. Hemoglobin

247. Caused by a defective form of he- 87. 254. inherited disorder in w/c rbc are B
moglobin that forces destroyed.
A. Hemophilia
81. 248-252. Choose A if the sign/symptom A B. Thalassemia
stated below describes a patient with C. Anemia
anemia and B if otherwis E D. Leukemia

248. Fatigue 88. 254. neoplasm in which the bone mar- A

row makes too many red blood cells.
82. 248-252. Choose A if the sign/symptom B A. Polycytemia vera
stated below describes a patient with B. Thalassemia
anemia and B if otherwis E C. Anemia
D. Leukemia
249. Flank Pain
89. 255. What is the Most abundant WBC? A
83. 248-252. Choose A if the sign/symptom A A. Neutrophils
stated below describes a patient with B. Basophils
anemia and B if otherwis E C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
250. Pale or Yellowish Skin
90. 256. What is the second most abundant A
84. 248-252. Choose A if the sign/symptom B WBC?
stated below describes a patient with A. Neutrophils
anemia and B if otherwis E B. Basophils
C. Eosinophils
251. Vomiting D. Lymphocytes

85. 248-252. Choose A if the sign/symptom A 91. 257. This WBC increases if there is bac- B
stated below describes a patient with terial infection.
anemia and B if otherwis E A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
252. Shortness of Breath C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
86. 253. A protein in RBC that carries oxy- D
gen 92. C
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258. This WBC is present if there are
malignant disorders such as leukemia 232. Esophageal Clearing
and myelofibrosis.
A. Neutrophils 97. 232-236 Choose A if it is an aggressive B
B. Monocytes factor (Promote GERD) or Choose B De-
C. Basophils fensive Factors (Prevent GERD)
D. Lymphocytes
233. Saliva
93. 259. This WBC is present if there are C
malignant disorders such as leukemia 98. 232-236 Choose A if it is an aggressive A
and myelofibrosis. factor (Promote GERD) or Choose B De-
A. Neutrophils fensive Factors (Prevent GERD)
B. Monocytes
C. Basophils 234. Bile acids and pancreatic enzymes
D. Lymphocytes
99. 232-236 Choose A if it is an aggressive B
94. 230. Which of the following is best de- D factor (Promote GERD) or Choose B De-
scribes GERD fensive Factors (Prevent GERD)
A. A retrograde (backward; against nor-
mal flow) of stomach contents into the 235. Gastric emptying
esophagus
B. Also known as "heartburn" 100. 232-236 Choose A if it is an aggressive A
C. The underlying cause is usually a factor (Promote GERD) or Choose B De-
problem with the integrity of the lower fensive Factors (Prevent GERD)
esophageal sphincter (LES);
D. AOTA 236. Pepsin
E. NOTA
101. 237. Considered the diagnostic gold A
95. 231. primary aggressive factor; injures A standard in patient with GERD.
esophageal tissues through denatura- A. Ambulatory 24- hour pH monitoring
tion of protein. B. Acid Perfusion (Bernstein) Test
A. Acid C. Urea Breath Test
B. Pepsin D. AOTA
C. Bile Acid and Pancreatic Enzyme E. NOTA
D. AOTA
E. NOTA 102. 238-242 Choose A if it is Esophageal or B
Choose B if Extraesophageal
96. 232-236 Choose A if it is an aggressive B
factor (Promote GERD) or Choose B De- 38. Hoarseness
fensive Factors (Prevent GERD)
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103. 238-242 Choose A if it is Esophageal or A
Choose B if Extraesophageal 111. 216-221 CASE QUESTION H. pylori

239. Regurgitation 220. What microorganism is commonly

present in PUD?
104. 238-242 Choose A if it is Esophageal or B
Choose B if Extraesophageal 112. 216-221 CASE QUESTION Clarithromycin / metronidazole /
Tetracycline
240. Epigastric Pain 21. What is the antibiotic of choice?

105. 238-242 Choose A if it is Esophageal or A

Choose B if Extraesophageal
113. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer
241. Belching choose A for duodenal and B for gastric
106. 238-242 Choose A if it is Esophageal or B 114. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer A
Choose B if Extraesophageal choose A for duodenal and B for gastric

242. Choking 222. Melena occurs

107. 216-221 CASE QUESTION gastric 115. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer A
choose A for duodenal and B for gastric
216. What type of Peptic ulcer disease
is the patient experiencing? 223. Pain is relieved by meal

108. 216-221 CASE QUESTION Urea broth test 116. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer B
choose A for duodenal and B for gastric
217. What is the diagnostic test of
choice? 224. Vomiting occurs

109. 216-221 CASE QUESTION ? 117. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer B
choose A for duodenal and B for gastric
218. What medication is the first line
treatment if the patient's ulcer heli- 225. More common in female
cobacter infected?
118. 222-226 Determine what type of ulcer B
110. 216-221 CASE QUESTION YES choose A for duodenal and B for gastric

219. Does spicy food affect PUD? 26. Occur at the inside of the stomach

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119. 227. Which of the following is a risk
factor for PUD?
A. Age
B. Infection by Helicobacter Pylori
C. Drinking Alcohol
D. Smoking
E. AOTA
F. NOTA
120. 228. Which of the following is checked D
during physical exam for PUD?
A. Check Bloating of the abdomen
B. listens to sounds within your ab-
domen using a stethoscope
C. Taps on abdomen to check for ten-
derness or pain
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
121. 229. What is the most accurate non-in- B
vasive test for helicobacter pylori
A. Fecal Antigen Test
B. Urea Breath Test
C. Serologic Test
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
122. 162.The physician's initial diagnosis for D
Mang Juan's disease is tuberculosis.
What is the causative agent for tubercu-
losis?
A. Mycobacterium leprae
b. Mycobacterium chelonae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculae
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
123. 163. Mang Juan's showed the symp-
toms of 2 weeks cough; feeling tired;
body pain; fever and chills. What type of
TB is Mang Juan experiencing?
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E A. Latent TB
B. Active TB
124. 164-168. Choose A if the signs/symp- A
toms describes latent TB and Choose B
if active TB and C if both
164. The patient doesn't feel sick and
has no symptoms
125. 164-168. Choose A if the signs/symp- B
toms describes latent TB and Choose B
if active TB and C if both
165. The patient may spread TB bacteria
to others
126. 164-168. Choose A if the signs/symp- C
toms describes latent TB and Choose B
if active TB and C if both
166. The patient skin and blood test re-
sult indicating TB infection
127. 164-168. Choose A if the signs/symp- D
toms describes latent TB and Choose B
if active TB and C if both
167. The patient Has a normal chest
X-ray and a negative sputum smear
128. 164-168. Choose A if the signs/symp- B
toms describes latent TB and Choose B
if active TB and C if both
168. The patient shows symptoms such
B as cough; fever and chills.
129. 176. Patient Ada's daughter informed D
the physician that her mother experi-
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ences symptoms during the day and
wake up every night due to asthma.
What is this type of asthma based on
severity?
A. Intermittent asthma
B. Mild persistent asthma
C. Moderate persistent asthma
D. Severe persistent asthma
130. 178-182. Choose A if the statement/
word stated below is a risk factor for
asthma and B if NOT
178. Atopy
131. 178-182. Choose A if the statement/
word stated below is a risk factor for
asthma and B if NOT
179. Patients who has hypertension has
high risk for asthma
132. 178-182. Choose A if the statement/
word stated below is a risk factor for
asthma and B if NOT
180. Obesity
133. 178-182. Choose A if the statement/
word stated below is a risk factor for
asthma and B if NOT
181. Ethnicity
134. 178-182. Choose A if the statement/
word stated below is a risk factor for
asthma and B if NOT
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182. Patient with tuberculosis are most
likely to have asthma
135. 183-187. Patient Ada; complained of dif- A
ferent signs symptoms which of the fol-
lowing complaint correlates to asthma?
Choose A if this is a sign and symptom
of asthma and B if not.
Patient Ada's chief complaint is difficul-
A ty of breathing
136. 183-187. Patient Ada; complained of dif- a
ferent signs symptoms which of the fol-
lowing complaint correlates to asthma?
Choose A if this is a sign and symptom
B of asthma and B if not.
184. Upon lung auscultation; wheezing
is present as well.
137. 183-187. Patient Ada; complained of dif- B
ferent signs symptoms which of the fol-
A lowing complaint correlates to asthma?
Choose A if this is a sign and symptom
of asthma and B if not.
185. Her blood pressure decreases
A 138. 183-187. Patient Ada; complained of dif- A
ferent signs symptoms which of the fol-
lowing complaint correlates to asthma?
Choose A if this is a sign and symptom
of asthma and B if not.
A 186. Chest Pain
139. 183-187. Patient Ada; complained of dif- A
ferent signs symptoms which of the fol-
lowing complaint correlates to asthma?
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Choose A if this is a sign and symptom
of asthma and B if not.
187. Coughing
140. 169. A form of tuberculosis that shows D
symptoms of non- productive cough
and pleuritic chest pain. Other symp-
toms include fever; night sweats;
weight loss; malaise; and dyspnea.
A. Miliary Tubeculosis
B. Urogenital Tuberculosis
C. Scrofula
D. Tuberculosis Pleurisy
141. 170. If the patient is experiencing Uro- A
genital type of TB which signs and
symptoms is a prominent manifestation
of this form?
A. Blood in the urine
B. Swollen and painful joints
C. Shortness of breath
D. Night sweats
142. 171. Which of the following might be a D
contributing factor to Mang Juan's 8?
A. He's diabetic and underweight
B. He's a chain smoker
C.He's 61 years old
D.AOTA
E.NOTA
143. 172. Mang Juan asked if TB is conta-
gious and his concern is that they live in
a small house with her wife; 2 kids and
4 grand children. Will it be a high risk if
this is the situation at home?
A. TRU
B. FALSE
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144. 173. The physician asked if Mang Juan B
is experiencing hemoptysis. What is he-
moptysis?
A. Blood in the nose
B. Blood that originated from
lungs/bronchial tubes
C. Blood that is present in the urine
D. Scar in the lungs
145. 174. Mang Juan underwent a diagnos- A
tic test procedure to test for his im-
munity for tuberculosis using tuber-
culin syringe administered intradermal-
ly. What's the diagnostic test procedure
used?
A. IGRA
B. Mantoux Test
C. Sputum Test
D. Sputum Smear
146. 175. Mang Juan was diagnosed with B
compromised renal function what
would be the recommendation in his
drug regimen?
A. Lessen the dose for Rifampicin;
Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide B. Reduce
dose of Ethambutol
C. Streptomycin should be added in the
regimen
D. Stop the drug regimen
147. 176. Patient Ada's daughter informed D
A the physician that her mother experi-
ences symptoms during the day and
wake up every night due to asthma.
What is this type of asthma based on
severity?
A. Intermittent asthma
B. Mild persistent asthma
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C. Moderate persistent asthma 191. Which of the following is a short
D. Severe persistent asthma acting beta agonist?
I Salbutamol
148. 177. What type of asthma worsens the B Il Terbutaline
symptoms at night? III Ipratropium
A. Exercise induced asthma IV. Fomoterol
B. Nocturnal Asthma
C. Steroid Resistant Asthma A I & II
D. Allergic Asthma B I & III
C I & IV
149. 188. Which of the following are used C D NOTA
as controller in a patient experiencing E AOTA
asthma:
A. Inhaled corticosteroids 153. 192. What would be the best therapeutic A
B. Cromolyn Sodium recommendation for patient ada in her
C. Inhaled Anticholinergic Agents treatment:
D. Leukotriene Receptor Antagonists
I Discontinue her metoprolol and rec-
150. 189; What is the initial drug of choice for C ommend ARBs to lessen the possibili-
inhaled corticosteroid: ties of cough that could trigger asthma
A. Dexamethasone attack.
B. Prednisone II. Retain the Fluticasone + Salmeterol
C. Budesonide of the patient
D. Methylprednisolone III. Discontinue Fluticasone + Salme-
terol of the patient
151. 190. Which of the following is used in C IV. Start the initial physician recommen-
the management of Acute Asthma At- dation of ACE
tack:
I Oxygen A I & II
II. Prednisone B I & III
Iil. Montelukast C I & IV
IV. Magnesium Sulfate D NOTA
E AOTA
AI & II
B I & III 154. 193. Which of the following microorgan- I & IV --> both can be Gram (-) or
C I & IV ism could cause UTI? (+)
D NOTA 1. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E AOTA II. Vibrio Cholerae
Iil. Staphylococcus Aureus
152. A
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IV. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
198. Shaking and chills
I & II
I & III 160. 198-202 TRUE or FALSE
I & IV
NOTA 198. Alkaline substances such as cit-
AOTA rates is used because by making the
urine more alkaline; they make the
155. 194-198 Classify what type of UTI based D environment more hostile to bacterial
on the following signs and symptoms: growth and improve the results of an-
A; Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Pyelonephri- tibiotic therapy.
tis D. Vaginitis
161. 198-202 TRUE or FALSE T
194. Vaginal itching or irritation
199. Cephalosporins; nitrofurantoin
156. 194-198 Classify what type of UTI based C and norfloxacin are the first choices in
on the following signs and symptoms: patients with signs of upper UTI or kid-
A; Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Pyelonephri- ney infection
tis D. Vaginitis
162. 198-202 TRUE or FALSE F - 3 days
195. Upper back and side (flank) pain
200. 7-day regimens are as effective
157. 194-198 Classify what type of UTI based B as longer regimens in the cases of
on the following signs and symptoms: trimethoprim and quinolones.
A; Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Pyelonephri-
tis D. Vaginitis 163. 198-202 TRUE or FALSE F - women

196 Hematuria 201. Short-course regimens such as

3-day or even single-dose therapy is
158. 194-198 Classify what type of UTI based B suitable for men.
on the following signs and symptoms:
A; Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Pyelonephri- 164. 198-202 TRUE or FALSE T
tis D. Vaginitis
202. Short courses of b lactams are gen-
197. Pelvic pressure erally less effective than trimethoprim
and quinolones
159. 194-198 Classify what type of UTI based C
on the following signs and symptoms: 165. 211-216 CASE QUESTION 211. Cystitis
A; Urethritis B. Cystitis C. Pyelonephri-
tis D. Vaginitis
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211. With the signs and symptoms stat-
ed what type of UTI is present?
166. 211-216 CASE QUESTION
212 What is the diagnostic test of
choice?
167. 211-216 CASE QUESTION
213 What is the indication of urinary
tract infection based from the patient's
urinalysis result?
168. 211-216 CASE QUESTION
214. What is the suggested initial med-
ication for the patient?
169. 211-216 CASE QUESTION
215. The patient was experiencing re-
current UTI (TRUE / FALSE)
170. 211-216 CASE QUESTION
216. Quinolones could also be recom-
mended to the patient (TRUE/FALSE)
171. 1. What is the area of pharmacy con-
cerned with the science and practice of
rational medication use?
A. Pharmacology
B. Clinical Pharmacy
C. Pharmaceutical Chemistry
D. Pharmacotherapeutics
172. 2. Which of the following statements
best describes rational medication
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use?
I. The patient receives medications ap-
212. Urinalysis propriate for their clinical needs
II. Utilization of many medicines for the
patient's condition
III.The doses administered to the pa-
tient meet the patient's needs.
213. RBC present and ‘ WBC IV. Antimicrobial medications should be
administered to patients with viral in-
fection as prophylaxis
A. I & ll B. III & IV C. I & Ill D II & IV E.
NOTA F.AOTA
214. Nitrofurantoin and
TMP/SMX 173. 3. The following statements best de- D
scribe rational medication use except?
I. The patient receive medications ap-
T propriate for their clinical need
II. Utilization of many medicines for the
patient conditio
III. The doses administered to the pa-
tient meets the patient's need.
216. False IV. Antimicrobial medications should be
administere to patients with viral infec-
tion as a prophylaxis
A. I & ll B. III & IV C. I & Ill D II & IV E.
a
NOTA F.AOTA
174. 4. A patient-centered practice in which C
the practitioner assumes responsibility
for a patient's drug-related needs and is
held accountable for this commitment
A. Clinical Pharmacy
B. Pharmacotherapy
C
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C. Pharmaceutical Care
D. Rational Medication Use A. I B. II & III C. I & Ill D. II & IV E. NOTA
F.AOTA
175. 5. The following are functions of Phar- A
maceutical Care: 179. 9. In the provision of drugs as a drug F
use indicator the following should be
I.. Identifying potential and actual considered?
drug-related problems
II.. Resolve actual drug-related prob- I. Facilitate the dispensing and supply
lems process
III. Prevent potential drug-related prob- II. Ensure that the medicines are accu-
lems rately prepared
III. Dispense in ready-to-administer
176. 6. The following key elements of Care E form
Process except:
I. Assessment A. I B. II & III C. I & Ill D. II & IV E. NOTA
II. Care Plan F.AOTA
III. Evaluation
180. 10. It contains a record of information A
A. I & ll B. III & IV C. I & Ill D. II & IV E. relative to the drug therapy of the pa-
NOTA F.AOTA tient and serves as a database to facil-
itate communication and consultation
177. 7. Which of the following is a drug use B between pharmacist and other health
process indicator? professionals on drug allergies ADRs
and Disp.
I. Drug Utilization Review
II. Drug Provision A. Patient Medication Profile
III. Drug Administration B. Medication Administration Record
IV. Antimicrobial Resistance Monitoring C. Patient Medication Administration
Record
178. 8. In establishing the needed drug as a A D. Physician's Order sheet
drug use indicator the following should E. NOTA
be considered?
181. 11. It contains all significant clinical in- C
I. Ensure appropriate medication for all formation; which enables the physician
medical problems to give effective continuing care to the
II. Consider deprescribing medicines patient and gives a basis for drug ther-
that are no longer appropriate apy plan for the patient.
III. Prescribe additional medication for
faster drug action
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C. Patient's medical chart
D. Patient's data sheet
A. Medication Profile
B. Progress Notes
E. NOTA
182. 12. Used by all other medical profes- D X Tablets
sionals except for physicians for docu-
mentation; which serves as the prima-
ry means of communication between
members of the healthcare team.
A. Fluid Balance Sheet
B. Medication Administration Record
C. Graphic Chart
D. Progress Notes
183. 13. Providing the most safe; correct
medicine and cost beneficial to patients
is: A. Patient Care B. Rational drug ther-
apy C. Medication Counseling D. Drug
utilization evaluation
184. 14. It is the process of resolving dis- B
crepancies with what a patient has been
taking in the past with what the patient
should be taking at the present. A. Drug
use evaluation B. Medication reconcili-
ation C. Rational drug therapy D. ADR
reporting
185. 15. An authorized; structured; ongoing C
review of prescribing; dispensing and
use of medication? A. Pharmacothera-
py B. Clinical Pharmacy C. Drug Utiliza-
tion Review D. Pharmaceutical Care
186. 16. What type of DUR involves the evalu- A
ation of a patient's drug therapy before
medication is dispensed: A. Prospec-
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tive B. Concurrent C. Retrospective D.
Evaluation
187. 17. Which of the following Is a High Alert c
Medication (HAM) that requires thera-
peutic drug monitoring? II ll. Potassium Chloride
I. Insulin Glargine CORRECT IF INJECTABLES
II. Potassium Chloride Tablets
III. Morphine
IV. Metformin
A. I & ll B. III & IV C. I & Ill D. II & IV E.
NOTA F.AOTA
188. 18. All of the following causes the risk C
of bleeding except? I. Insulin Glargine II.
B Rivaroxaban III. Morphine IV. Dabigatran
189. 19. All of the following side effects of E
chemotherapeutic agents except: I. Hair
loss II. Constipation III. Anemia IV. Nau-
sea and Vomiting
190. 20. Which of the following is an adverse F
effect of Aminoglycosides? I. Nephro-
toxicity II. Vestibulotoxicity III. Allergic
Reactions IV. Neurotoxicity
191. 21. What type of Anemia is caused B
by contraindication of G6PD deficiency
and an antibiotic or anti-malarial agent?
A. Aplastic Anemia B. Hemolytic Ane-
mia C. Iron Deficiency Anemia D. Sickle
Cell Anemia
192. 22. What immunoglobulin is affected B
by Anaphylactic/ Immediate Hypersen-
sitivity Reaction? A. IgA - attachment of virus &
bacteria to epithelial cells
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B. IgE - Ellergy
A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgM C. IgG - mother to baby 197. 40. Which of the following is an example ?
of ADR Type F:
193. 26. The following are adverse effect C
type B Immune Complex Hypersensitiv- I. Mantoux Reaction: Mycobacterium
ity: I. Arthralgia II. Myalgia III. Dysuria IV. |. Arthralgia - Arthritis (joints) Tuberculosis
Glomerulonephritis Il. Myalgia - muscle pain Il. Rebound Hypotension with the uti-
Ill. Dysuria - burning sensation in lization of
A. I & ll B. II & III C. I & IV D. II & IV E. urination Clonidine
NOTA F.AOTA IV. Glomerulonephritis - inflam- lll. Skin irritation after exposure to Poi-
mation of kidney son Ivy
IV. Antimicrobial Resistance
194. 27. The following could cause ADR Type B A. I & ll B. III & IV C. I & Ill D. II & IV E.
B- Cell-Mediated Type except: NOTA F.AOTA
I. Mantoux Reaction: Mycobacterium
Tuberculosis 198. 23-25 TRUE OR FALSE F
II. Lead The following Drugs causes this Ad-
III. Nickel verse Effect: 23. CHROMPHENICOL: Aplastic
IV. Poison Ivy Anemia
23. ASA/ Ibuprofen: Aplastic Anemia
A. I & ll B. II & III C. I & IV D. II & IV E.
NOTA F.AOTA 199. 23-25 TRUE OR FALSE f
The following Drugs causes this Ad-
195. 33. Which of the following could cause A verse Effect: 24 METHYLDOPA: Hemolytic
vaginal adenocarcinoma? Anemia
24. Chloramphenicol: Hemolytic Ane-
A. Diethylstilbestrol mia
B. Progesterone
C. Testosterone 200. 23-25 TRUE OR FALSE 25. ? : Thrombocytopenia Purpu-
D. AOTA The following Drugs causes this Ad- ra
E. NOTA verse Effect:

196. 39. Which of the following is a drug A 25. Methyldopa: Thrombocytopenia

reaction for the withdrawal syndrome Purpura
associated with benzodiazepines ? A. Perceptual Disturbances -
A. Perceptual Disturbances causes insomnia; anxiety; tachy- 201. 28-32. Classify the type of ADR Type C: a
B. Rebound Hypertension phylacis (progressive response Choose A for Addiction
C. Osteonecrosis that lowers the drug effect Choose B for Dependence
D. AOTA Choose C for Tolerance
E. NOTA
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207. 34-38 Matching Type: Match the Terato- C. Neural tube effect
28. Utilization of Ampethamine genic Effect with the medications:

202. 28-32. Classify the type of ADR Type C: b 35. Carbamazepine

Choose A for Addiction
Choose B for Dependence 208. 34-38 Matching Type: Match the Terato- B. Fetal Hyandontoin Syndrome
Choose C for Tolerance genic Effect with the medications:

29. Utilization of Benzodiazepines to in- 36. Phenytoin

duce sleep
209. 34-38 Matching Type: Match the Terato- E. Craniofacial
203. 28-32. Classify the type of ADR Type C: c genic Effect with the medications:
Choose A for Addiction
Choose B for Dependence 37. Isotretinoin
Choose C for Tolerance
210. 34-38 Matching Type: Match the Terato- A. Aplasia Cutis
30. The px is not responsive to smoking genic Effect with the medications:
cessation
38. Methimazole
204. 28-32. Classify the type of ADR Type C: A
Choose A for Addiction 211. 60. Which of the following is a possible 1; 3; 4 are the correct statement
Choose B for Dependence cause of Heart Failure?
Choose C for Tolerance ANS: NOTA
I. Cardiomyopathy
31. Drinking excessive alcohol II. Rebound Hypotension
III. Myocardial Infarction
205. 28-32. Classify the type of ADR Type C: B IV. Congenital Heart Defects
Choose A for Addiction
Choose B for Dependence A. I & ll B. I & III C. I & IV D. II & IV E. NOTA
Choose C for Tolerance
212. 61. The following is a possible cause of E
32. Continuous use of Sertraline to pre- Heart Failure except:
vent panic IV. Age 65 and Above - RISK
attacks I. Cardiomyopathy FACTOR
II. Severe Lung Disease
206. 34-38 Matching Type: Match the Terato- D. CLEFT LIP III. Myocardial Infarction
genic Effect with the medications: IV. Age 65 and Above

34. BENZODIAZEPINES A. I & ll B. I & III C. I & Ill D. I & IV E. NOTA

F.AOTA
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213. 62. Which among the following is not A
a cardinal sign/symptom of Heart Fail-
ure?
A. Orthopnea B. Dyspnea C. Edema D.
Fatigue
214. 63. Which among the following is a
sign/symptom of Right Sided Heart Fail-
ure EXCEPT:
A. Ascites B. Hepatomegaly C. Weight
Gain D. Dyspnea
215. 64. Which among the following is a
sign/symptom of Left Sided Heart Fail-
ure EXCEPT:
A. Orthopnea
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Hemoptysis
D. Dyspnea
216. 65. A test that uses sound waves to
produce live images of your heart?
A. Lung/Heart Auscultation
B. Echocardiography
C. Electrocardiography
D. Pet Scan
217. 66. Which of the following diagnostic A
tests for heart failure is done by listen-
ing to cardiac sounds?
A. Lung/Heart Auscultation B. BNP
Blood Test C. Pet Scan D. ECG/EKG
218.
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67. A test used to determine heart rate;
heart rhythm and other information re-
garding the heart's condition.
A. Lung/Heart Auscultation B. Echocar-
diography C. Electrocardiography D.
Pet Scan
D 219. 69. What is the normal value for BNP C
blood test?
A. More than 100 pg/mL
B. 100 pg/mL
C. Less than 100 pg/mL
D. Between 100 pg/mL — 400 pg/mL
B
220. 70. What Beta Blocker is used for the D
treatment of Heart Failure? A. Propra-
nolol B. Nebivolol C. Esmolol D. Biso- Beta Blocker can “HR = “O2 my-
prolol ocardial demand
Beta Blocker mnemonic:
Bisoprolol
Carvedilol
Metoprolol (salt form)
B Succinate ’ for HF
Tartrate ’ for HTN
221. 71. True/False: Metoprolol Tartrate B
should be given to patients with heart
failure. Metoprolol (salt form)
Succinate ’ for HF
A. TRUE B. FALSE Tartrate ’ for HTN
222. 72-73. Increase or Decrease Decrease; Decrease
Beta-Blockers: ____ the heart rate ’
_______ the myocardial oxygen de-
mand ’ alleviating myocardial ischemia
223. 74-76. Frequency of Administration Carvedilol — 25-30 mg ?? BID
C
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Carvedilol —
Metoprolol —
Bisoprolol —
224. 77. The following are ACE inhibitors uti- D
lized for the treatment of Heart Failure
except: A;B;C are for HF and have SE of
dry cough
A. Enalapril B. Captopril C. Ramipril D.
Lisinopril
225. 78. What is the frequency of Captopril A
to be utilized for the treatment of Heart
Failure except:
A. 50 mg TID B. 50 mg BID C. 100 mg OD
D. 50 mg OF
226. 79. What is the most common adverse B
effect of ACE Inhibitors?
A. Bradycardia B. Dry Cough C. Tachy-
cardia D. Dry mouth
227. 80. TRUE or FALSE:
The mechanism of action of ARBs is:
ARBs: block the action of angiotensin II
by preventing angiotensin II from bind-
ing to angiotensin II receptors on the
muscles surrounding blood vessels.
228. 81. The following ARBs are utilized for D
the treatment of Heart Failure except:
Mnemonic: Tel Val I Lost her Can-
A. Telmisartan B. Valsartan C. Losartan dy
D. NOTA E. AOTA Telmisartan
Valsartan
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Metoprolol — 2/3?00 mg QD
Bisoprolol — 10 mg QD
•additional: Captopril - 50 mg TID
T 232. 85. What type of diuretic should be
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Ibersartan
Losartan
Candesartan
229. 82; TRUE or FALSE: T
ARBs are an alternative for patients in-
tolerant to ACE inhibitors because of
incessant cough.
230. 83. Nitrates + Hydralazine combination B
is used as an alternative for ACEi and
ARBs for patients who experienced Nitrates (venous dilator) + Hy-
what adverse effect? dralazine (arterial dilators) com-
bination
A. Hyponatremia B. Hyperkalemia C.
Hypokalemia D. Hypomagnesemia
231. 84. What is the mechanism of action of A
hydralazine in the treatment for heart
failure?
A. Arterial Dilator B. Venous Dilator C.
Arterial Constrictor D. Venous Constric-
tor
C
closely monitored during the course of
treatment due to the potential of caus-
ing hypotension?
A. Thiazide Diuretics B. Potassium
Sparing Diuretics C. Loop Diuretics D.
AOTA
233. 86. Which of the following diuretics A
prevents elevated aldosterone levels in
heart failure that promotes sodium and
water retention that could lead to vol-
ume overload?
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241. TRUE OR FALSE t
A. Spironolactone B. Furosemide C.
Bumetanide D. Chlorothiazide 55. Utilization of Chemotherapy drugs
is a risk factor for heart failure.
234. 87. Which of the following is an adverse D
effect of ivabradine? 242. TRUE OR FALSE f
Ivabradine additional SE :
A. Headache B. Dizziness C. Blurred Vi- Headache 56. Women has the higher risk for heart
sion D. AOTA E. NOTA Blurry vision failure.
It can slow down the heart and
can be alternative to Beta block- 243. TRUE OR FALSE F
ers
57. Asians has the highest risk for heart
235. 88. The following are devices used for D failure.
Heart Failure?
244. TRUE OR FALSE F
A. Pacemakers
B. Cardiac Resynchronization Therapy 58. Rosiglitazone could cause heart fail-
C. Implantable cardioverter defibrilla- ure.
tors
D. AOTA 245. TRUE OR FALSE T
E. NOTA
59. Obesity itself is a risk factor for
236. 50. What is the most common type of left sided HF heart failure
Heart Failure?
246. 74-76. Frequency of Administration Carvedilol — 25-30 mg ?? BID
237. 51. This type of heart failure is more Systolic
common in MEN. Carvedilol —

238. 52. This condition occurs when there right sided HF 247. 74-76. Frequency of Administration Metoprolol — 2/3?00 mg QD
is accumulation of blood in the lungs
due to compromised left ventricle of the Metoprolol —
heart.
248. 74-76. Frequency of Administration Bisoprolol — 10 mg QD
239. 53. This occurs when the heart loses it's Systolic
ability to contract. Bisoprolol —

240. 54. This occurs when heart muscle be- Diastolic 249. 74-76. Frequency of Administration Captopril - 50 mg TID
comes stiffer than normal.
Captopril
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