CP 2

IPS 2 Clinicical Pharmacy IPS 2 Clinicical Pharmacy
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1. B. Jonathan 1. The first hospital pharmacist. 7. D. Case Control 7. Study design wherein samples are chosen based on
Roberts A. Christopher Marshall the presence or absence of the disease.
B. Jonathan Roberts A. Cross sectional
C. Carl Wilhelm Scheele B. Case series
D. Friedrich Adam Serturner C. Cohort
D. Case Control
2. C. Carl Wilhelm 2. A Swedish pharmacist who discovered oxygen, chlo-
Scheele rine, prussic acid, tartaric acid, tungsten, molybdenum, 8. B. Phase 2 8. Stage of clinical trials where proof of concept is indicat-
glycerin, nitroglycerin, and countless organic compunds. ed.
A. Christopher Marshall A. Phase 1
B. Jonathan Roberts B. Phase 2
C. Carl Wilhelm Scheele C. Phase 3
D. Friedrich Adam Serturner D. Phase 4
3. D. Friedrich 3. A German pharmacist who discovered opium's chief 9. B. Category D 9. Using ASHP classification of medication errors, an
Adam Serturner narcotic principle: morphine. error that reached the patient and required monitoring is
A. Christopher Marshall classified as:
B. Jonathan Roberts A. Category C
C. Carl Wilhelm Scheele B. Category D
D. Friedrich Adam Serturner C. Category E
D. Category F
4. C. Theophrastus 4. The "Father of Botany". E. Category G
A. Dioscorides
C. Theophrastus 10. B. Type B ADR 10. Anaphylaxis
B. Mithridates A. Type A ADR
D. Gelen B. Type B ADR
C. Type C ADR
5. B. Mithridates 5. The "Royal Toxicologist". D. Type D ADR
A. Dioscorides E. Type E ADR
C. Theophrastus
B. Mithridates 11. D. Patient com- 11. Type F ADR can occur as a result of the following,
D. Gelen pliance except:
A. Antimicrobial drug resistance
6. D. Gelen 6. He invented pharmaceuticals that are prepared and B. Counterfeit drugs
compounded by mechanical means like the cold cream. C. Drug instability
A. Dioscorides D. Patient compliance
C. Theophrastus
B. Mithridates 12. B. Formulary 12. A therapeutic agent whose place in therapy is well
D. Gelen drug established.
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A. Non-formulary drug 18. Starting dose of TPN per day is:
B. Formulary drug A. 2.5L/day
C. Investigational drug B. 3L/day
D. Restricted drug C. 3.5L/day
D. 4L/day
13. C. Respiratory 13. Which of the following is not a subjective parameter? E. 4.5L/day
rate A. Anxiety
B. Indigestion 19. B. Osmotic diar- 19. Diarrhea caused by ingestion of magnesium hydrox-
C. Respiratory rate rhea ide.
D. Pain A. Secretory diarrhea
B. Osmotic diarrhea
14. C. Commode 14. Health care supply described as portable toilet. C. Exudative diarrhea
A. Bedpan D. Altered motility
B. Rectal tube
C. Commode 20. C. Meperidine 20. DOC for pancreatitis related abdominal tenderness.
D. Truss A. Hydromorphone
B. Morphine
15. B. Riboflavin 15. It is the most rapidly reduced vitamin. C. Meperidine
A. Niacin D. Oxycodone
B. Riboflavin
C. Ascorbic acid 21. D. Hypokalemia 21. When caring for a patient taking Hydrochlorohiazide,
D. Thiamine you should monitor for:
E. Cyanocobalamin A. Hypertension
B. Hypernatremia
16. B. Reduced ac- 16. A smoker was prescribed with diazepam. What would C. Hypoglycemia
tivity of di- happen if he continuously smokes while on drug therapy? D. Hypokalemia
azepam A. Enhanced activity of diazepam
B. Reduced activity of diazepam 22. B. Prazosin 22. First dose syncope normally reported with:
C. No effect A. Captopril
D. Delayed elimination B. Prazosin
C. Hydralazine
17. D. Oxygen 17. The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due D. Minoxidil
to:
A. Ozone 23. E. Both A and B 23. Levodopa + Carbidopa
B. Peroxidase A. Sinemet
C. Alcohol B. Tidomet
D. Oxygen C. Dilantin
E. Acetanilide D. Cortal
E. Both A and B
18. A. 2.5L/day
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24. A. Parkinson's 24. Your answer in the previous number is used for? C. Tetracyclines
Disease Levodopa + Carbidopa D. Chloramphenicol
A. Parkinson's Disease 30. D. Hypokalemia 30. Cardiac glycosides have a low margin of safety. Toxi-
B. Cushing's Syndrome city is more likely in the presence of?
C. Nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus A. Hypernatremia
D. Central Diabetes Insipidus B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
25. A. Take before 25. Patient taking #23 should be reminded to: D. Hypokalemia
meal Levodopa + Carbidopa
31. C. Mannitol 31. Used for intracranial hypertension:
A. Take before meal A. Spironilactone
B. Take after meal B. Acetazolamide
C. Take during mealtime C. Mannitol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
26. C. Avoid high 26. What diet modification should be implemented for
protein diet patients taking #23? 32. D. All of the 32. Smoking contributes to the exacerbation of:
Levodopa + Carbidopa above A. Asthma
B. Chronic bronchitis
A. Avoid high sodium diet C. Emphysema
B. Avoid high potassium diet D. All of the above
C. Avoid high protein diet
D. Avoid taking high fat meals 33. A. MCHC 33. May be decrease in iron deficiency anemia
A. MCHC
27. A. Phenytoin 27. Most commonly used to treat digitalis-induced ventric- B. lymphocytes
ular and supraventricular tachycardia: C. HbA1c
A. Phenytoin D. INR
B. Quinidine E. thrombocytes
C. Flecainide
D. Propafenone 34. B. lymphocytes 34. May have an increased value in vial infections
A. MCHC
28. C. Hypertension 28. Most common cardiovascular disorder is: B. lymphocytes
A. Angina pectoris C. HbA1c
B. Arrhythmia D. INR
C. Hypertension E. thrombocytes
D. Myocardial infarction
35. E. thrombocytes 35. May have a decreased value in idiopathic thrombocy-
29. C. Tetracyclines 29. Fanconi syndrome is associated with: topenic purpura
A. Penicillin A. MCHC
B. Cephalosporins B. lymphocytes
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C. HbA1c
D. INR A. I, II, III are correct
E. thrombocytes B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct
36. D. Myopathy 36. Muscle weakness and muscle wasting D. I only is correct
A. Tachypnea E. III only is correct
B. Hypoxia
C. Afterload 41. E. III only is cor- 41. Colonoscopy:
D. Myopathy rect I. is an artificial opening between the colon and skin
E. Dysphasia II. does not require sedation
III. requires the patient to perform bowel cleansing
37. A. Tachypnea 37. Rapid rate of breathing A. I, II, III are correct
A. Tachypnea B. I and II are correct
B. Hypoxia C. II and III are correct
C. Afterload D. I only is correct
D. Myopathy E. III only is correct
E. Dysphasia
42. B. I and II are cor- 42. Commercially available concentrated electrolytes in-
38. E. Dysphasia 38. An impairment of the language aspect of speech rect clude:
A. Tachypnea
B. Hypoxia I. Potassium chloride
C. Afterload II. Sodium Chrloride
D. Myopathy III. Magnesium oxide
E. Dysphasia A. I, II, III are correct
B. I and II are correct
39. A. I, II, III are cor- 39. Parenteral nutrition may be administered via: C. II and III are correct
rect I. Peripheral route D. I only is correct
II. Central route E. III only is correct
III. PICC
A. I, II, III are correct 43. D. I only is cor- 43. Type of incompatibility that may be classified as both
B. I and II are correct rect physical and chemical.
C. II and III are correct I. Precipitation
D. I only is correct II. Hydrolysis
E. III only is correct III Polymorphism
A. I, II, III are correct
40. B. I and II are cor- 40. The following are complications associated with par- B. I and II are correct
rect enteral nutrition: C. II and III are correct
I. Line sepsis D. I only is correct
II. Line occlusion E. III only is correct
III. Maillard reaction
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44. E. III only is cor- 44. D5NSS D. I only is correct
rect I. Used in DM E. III only is correct
II. Used in neuro patients
III. Isotonic 48. B. I and II are cor- 48. Which of the following is/are true regarding blood urea
rect nitrogen (BUN)?
A. I, II, III are correct I. End product of protein metabolism
B. I and II are correct II. Filtered completely by glomerulus
C. II and III are correct III. Produced by liver and kidney
D. I only is correct A. I, II, III are correct
E. III only is correct B. I and II are correct
45. A. I, II, III are cor- 45. May be used during palpation D. I only is correct
rect I. Fingers E. III only is correct
II. Palms
III. Back of hands 49. D. I only is cor- 49. Drugs that may cause plasma sodium electrolyte dis-
A. I, II, III are correct rect turbances include:
B. I and II are correct I. Prednisolone
C. II and III are correct II. Salbutamol
D. I only is correct III. Propranolol
E. III only is correct A. I, II, III are correct
46. A. I, II, III are cor- 46. Bulk forming agents C. II and III are correct
rect I. Psyllium D. I only is correct
II. Polycarbophil E. III only is correct
III. Methylcellulose
A. I, II, III are correct 50. A. I, II, III are cor- 50. Conditions that may give rise to muscular or joint pain
B. I and II are correct rect include:
C. II and III are correct I. Paget's disease
D. I only is correct II. Neuropathy
E. III only is correct III. Hemophilia
47. D. I only is cor- 47. Drugs used for infection related diarrhea B. I and II are correct
rect I. Antibiotics C. II and III are correct
II. Loperamide D. I only is correct
III. Codeine E. III only is correct
B. I and II are correct 51. B. I and II are cor- 51. Creatinine clearance:
C. II and III are correct rect I. is an index used to measure glomerular filtration rate
II. measurement involves a 24 hour urine collection
III. monitoring requires 24 hour monitoring of plasma cre-
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atinine II. is indicated in metabolic acidosis
A. I, II, III are correct III. may be used in hypomagnesemia
B. I and II are correct A. I, II, III are correct
C. II and III are correct B. I and II are correct
D. I only is correct C. II and III are correct
E. III only is correct D. I only is correct
E. III only is correct
52. B. I and II are cor- 52. Epinephrine:
rect I. is used in cardiac arrest 56. A. I, II, III are cor- 56. Phytomenadione
II. administration requires monitoring of blood pressure rect I. is a lipid soluble analogue of Vitamin K
III. results in a fall in blood pressure II. promotes hepatic synthesis of active prothrombin
A. I, II, III are correct III. is indicated in babies at birth to prevent Vitamin K
B. I and II are correct deficiency bleeding
C. II and III are correct A. I, II, III are correct
D. I only is correct B. I and II are correct
E. III only is correct C. II and III are correct
D. I only is correct
53. C. II and III are 53. Methadone: E. III only is correct
correct I. requires multiple dosing in a day
II. is addictive 57. A. I, II, III are cor- 57. Enoxaparin
III. is an opioid agonist rect I. Cannot be used at the same dose as heparin
A. I, II, III are correct II. Thrombocytopenia may occur with its use
B. I and II are correct III. Agents that affect homeostasis should be used with
C. II and III are correct care
54. A. I, II, III are cor- 54. Patients receiving tamoxifen should be advised: D. I only is correct
rect I. that hot flushes may occur E. III only is correct
II. That menstrual irregularities may occur
III. To report sudden breathlessness and any pain in the 58. A. I, II, III are cor- 58. Patients receiving oral isotretinoin should be advised:
calf rect I. to avoid pregnancy
A. I, II, III are correct II. to avoid wax epilation during treatment
B. I and II are correct III. to use lip balm regularly
55. B. I and II are cor- 55. Parenteral sodium bicarbonate: E. III only is correct
rect I. raises blood pH
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59. B. I and II are cor- 59. Anti-infectives that are used in the triple therapy regi- Timolol 0.5% both eyes 2 drops BID Lactulose 3.3g/5ml
rect mens to eradicate Helicobacter pylori include: 20ml PO OD
I. metronidazole Lactulose:
II. clarithromycin I. Dose needs to be reviewed as the maximum adult daily
III. ciprofloxacin dose is 5ml
A. I, II, III are correct II. Should not be used for more than 5 days
B. I and II are correct III. Used to maintain bowel evacuation
60. B. I and II are cor- 60. Diabetic ketoacidosis: E. III only is correct
rect I. is associated with insulin deficiency
II. may be precipitated by a severe infection 63. D. I only is cor- 63. GD is a 72 year old female whose current medications
III. causes retinopathy rect are: Aspirin 80mg PO OD
A. I, II, III are correct Dipyridamole 100mg PO TID
B. I and II are correct Timolol 0.5% both eyes 2 drops BID Lactulose 3.3g/5ml
C. II and III are correct 20ml PO OD
D. I only is correct GD is receiving medications for:
E. III only is correct I. Glaucoma
II. Diarrhea
61. C. II and III are 61. GD is a 72 year old female whose current medications III. Osteoporosis
correct are: Aspirin 80mg PO OD A. I, II, III are correct
Dipyridamole 100mg PO TID B. I and II are correct
Timolol 0.5% both eyes 2 drops BID Lactulose 3.3g/5ml C. II and III are correct
20ml PO OD D. I only is correct
Dipyridamole: E. III only is correct
I. Cannot be used in combination with low dose aspirin
II. Is used for prophylaxis of thromboembolism 64. B. I and II are cor- 64. SP is a 64 year old patient who is admitted to hospital
III. May cause increased bleeding during or after surgery rect with tiredness, shortness of breath and ankle edema. She
A. I, II, III are correct has a medical history of congestive heart failure. SP was
B. I and II are correct intolerant to enalapril owing to the development of cough.
C. II and III are correct Her medications upon admission are:
D. I only is correct Spironolactone 12.5mg PO OD
E. III only is correct Losartan 25mg PO OD
62. E. III only is cor- 62. GD is a 72 year old female whose current medications The therapeutic aims for SP are:
rect are: Aspirin 80mg PO OD I. to control symptoms of heart failure
Dipyridamole 100mg PO TID II. to control edema
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III. to control diabetes III. Dose may be increased to 50mg daily
A. I, II, III are correct A. I, II, III are correct
B. I and II are correct B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct C. II and III are correct
D. I only is correct D. I only is correct
E. III only is correct E. III only is correct
65. B. I and II are cor- 65. Spironolactone: 68. C. II and III are 68. Digoxin is used in patients with heart failure:
rect correct
I. Reduces symptoms and mortality I. because it decreases myocardial intracellular ionic cal-
II. Dose may be increased to 25mg daily cium
III. Is an aldosterone agonist II. when there is atrial fibrillation
A. I, II, III are correct III. because it exerts a positive inotropic effect
66. B. I and II are cor- 66. SP is a 64 year old patient who is admitted to hospital
rect with tiredness, shortness of breath and ankle edema. She 69. B. I and II are cor- 69. SP is a 64 year old patient who is admitted to hospital
has a medical history of congestive heart failure. SP was rect with tiredness, shortness of breath and ankle edema. She
intolerant to enalapril owing to the development of cough. has a medical history of congestive heart failure. SP was
Her medications upon admission are: intolerant to enalapril owing to the development of cough.
Spironolactone 12.5mg PO OD Her medications upon admission are:
Losartan 25mg PO OD Spironolactone 12.5mg PO OD
Spironolactone treatment requires monitoring of: Losartan 25mg PO OD
I. Serum creatinine Parameters to be monitored when digoxin therapy is start-
II. Serum potassium ed:
III. Thyroid function I. plasma digoxin concentration
A. I, II, III are correct II. plasma potassium measurement
B. I and II are correct III. plasma sodium measurement
67. A. I, II, III are cor- 67. Losartan: E. III only is correct
rect I. Is an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist
II. Exhibits a lower incidence of cough as a side effect 70. A. I, II, III are cor- 70. BD is a 34 year-old patient admitted with an overdose
compared to enalapril rect of promethazine and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Pa-
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tient has a history of alcohol abuse. III. to stop taking atenolol
Symptoms that could occur due to promethazine over- A. I, II, III are correct
dose include: B. I and II are correct
I. drowsiness C. II and III are correct
II. Headache D. I only is correct
III. Blurred vision E. III only is correct
B. I and II are correct 74. A. I, II, III are cor- 74. MB is a 58 year-old woman who presents with a
C. II and III are correct rect prescription for simvastatin 10mg daily. Her current med-
D. I only is correct ication is atenolol 50mg daily. MB suffered a heart attack
E. III only is correct last year.
Side effect to be expected with simvastatin include:
71. C. Anihistamine 71. BD is a 34 year-old patient admitted with an overdose I. headache
of promethazine and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Pa- II. Nausea
tient has a history of alcohol abuse. III. Abdominal pain
Promethazine is an: A. I, II, III are correct
A. Antidepressant B. I and II are correct
B. Antipsychotic C. II and III are correct
C. Anihistamine D. I only is correct
D. Analgesic E. III only is correct
E. Anxiolytic
75. B. I and II are cor- 75. MB is a 58 year-old woman who presents with a
72. D. Diazepam 72. BD is a 34 year-old patient admitted with an overdose rect prescription for simvastatin 10mg daily. Her current med-
of promethazine and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Pa- ication is atenolol 50mg daily. MB suffered a heart attack
tient has a history of alcohol abuse. last year.
A drug that can be used in alcohol withdrawal is: Recommendations made to MB include:
A. Beclomethasone I. follow moderate exercise
B. Chlorphenamine II. Adopt a low-fat diet
C. Lithium III. Take atenolol 2 hours before simvastatin
D. Diazepam A. I, II, III are correct
E. Risperidone B. I and II are correct
73. B. I and II are cor- 73. MB is a 58 year-old woman who presents with a D. I only is correct
rect prescription for simvastatin 10mg daily. Her current med- E. III only is correct
ication is atenolol 50mg daily. MB suffered a heart attack
last year. 76. B. Herpes zoster 76. LB is a 55 year-old male patient who developed
MB is advised: vesicles unilaterally around his waist. LB complained of
I. to report any muscle pain or weakness a stabbing irritation in the area. LB is prescribed acyclovir
II. to take simvastatin at night 800mg 5 times a day for 5 days.
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The likely diagnosis for LB is: Adjuvant therapy that may be used for LB include/s:
A. Prickly heat I. Calamine Lotion
B. Herpes zoster II. Amitryptiline
C. Herpes labialis III. Ergotamine
D. Cytomegalovirus infection A. I, II, III are correct
E. Hepatitis B B. I and II are correct
77. B. I and II are cor- 77. LB is a 55 year-old male patient who developed D. I only is correct
rect vesicles unilaterally around his waist. LB complained of E. III only is correct
a stabbing irritation in the area. LB is prescribed acyclovir
800mg 5 times a day for 5 days. 80. B. Benzylpeni- 80. AD is a 39 year-old female wit bacterial endocarditis.
Patient should be advised: cillin She is started on gentamicin 80mg IV q12 and penicillin
I. to take doses at regular intervals G 1.8g IV q6.
II. to avoid exposure to sunlight Penicillin G is:
III. to wash hands thoroughly after drug administration A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
A. I, II, III are correct B. Benzylpenicillin
B. I and II are correct C. Penicillin V
C. II and III are correct D. Piperacillin
D. I only is correct E. Pivmecilinam
81. D. 3 81. AD is a 39 year-old female wit bacterial endocarditis.
78. A. I, II, III are cor- 78. LB is a 55 year-old male patient who developed She is started on gentamicin 80mg IV q12 and penicillin
rect vesicles unilaterally around his waist. LB complained of G 1.8g IV q6.
a stabbing irritation in the area. LB is prescribed acyclovir Penicillin G is available at 600mg vials. How many vials
800mg 5 times a day for 5 days. are required for each dose?
Side effects that me be expected include: A. 0.5
I. Headache B. 1
II. Nausea C. 2
III. Diarrhea D. 3
A. I, II, III are correct E. 4
C. II and III are correct 82. C. II and III are 82. AD is a 39 year-old female wit bacterial endocarditis.
D. I only is correct correct She is started on gentamicin 80mg IV q12 and penicillin
E. III only is correct G 1.8g IV q6.
Penicillin G:
79. B. I and II are cor- 79. LB is a 55 year-old male patient who developed I. is bacteriostatic
rect vesicles unilaterally around his waist. LB complained of II. Is bactericidal
a stabbing irritation in the area. LB is prescribed acyclovir III. Can be given IM
800mg 5 times a day for 5 days. A. I, II, III are correct
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B. I and II are correct C. II and III are correct
C. II and III are correct D. I only is correct
D. I only is correct E. III only is correct
86. A. may be due 86. Gout:
83. D. I only is cor- 83.. AD is a 39 year-old female wit bacterial endocarditis. to excessive pro- A. may be due to excessive production of uric acid
rect She is started on gentamicin 80mg IV q12 and penicillin duction of uric B. may be due to increased renal elimination of uric acid
G 1.8g IV q6. acid C. results in the deposition of crystals of xanthine in the
Gentamicin joints D. is characterized by excessive calcium deposited
I. has a broad spectrum of activity in the joints E. is the result of hyourecemia
II. is contraindicated in hepatic impairment
III. therapy may be changed to oral administration when 87. A. I, II, III are cor- 87. Gout may be precipitate in JZ by:
patient is stabilized rect I. Heart failure
A. I, II, III are correct II. Hydrochlorothiaze
B. I and II are correct III. Excessive consumption of meat
84. A. I, II, III are cor- 84. Patient developed a rash and started complaining of E. III only is correct
rect generalized itch after the administration of the drugs.
A possible reason for these symptoms is: 88. D. I only is cor- 88. Gout:
I. Allergy to gentamicin rect I. Presents as a painful condition in the big toe
II. Allergy to penicillin II. Onset is insidious
III. Development of heat rash III. Recurrence is rare
85. A. I, II, III are cor- 85. Patient developed a rash and started complaining of 89. D. I only is cor- 89. Diagnosis of gout:
rect generalized itch after the administration of the drugs. rect I. is based on clinical signs
Manifestation of bacterial endocarditis include: II. requires confirmation of urate crystals in the synovial
I. Prolonged fever fluid of affected joint
II. Embolic phenomena III. requires a positive ESR level
III. Renal failure A. I, II, III are correct
A. I, II, III are correct B. I and II are correct
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90. B. I and II are cor- 90. Non-pharmacological measures for JZ include: D. I only is correct
rect I. resting the affected joint E. III only is correct
II. maintaining high fluid intake
III. maintaining a high calcium intake 94. B. I and II are cor- 94. To prevent further attacks, JZ should be advised to:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. lose weight
B. I and II are correct II. follow a diet low in purines
C. II and III are correct III. keep taking colchicine on a long-term basis
91. B. I and II are cor- 91. Colchicine: D. I only is correct
rect I. reduces the inflammatory reaction to urate crystals E. III only is correct
II. provides dramatic relief from acute attacks of gout
III. is also used in rheumatoid arthritis 95. A. I, II, III are cor- 95. Allopurinol:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. should be started 2-3 weeks after acute attack has
B. I and II are correct subsided
C. II and III are correct II. reduce urate production
D. I only is correct III. is given once daily
92. A. I, II, III are cor- 92. Colchicine: C. II and III are correct
rect I. should be used when there is a contraindication to D. I only is correct
NSAIDs E. III only is correct
II. is more toxic than NSDAIDs
III. occurrence of diarrhea and vomiting are used as an 96. A. I, II, III are cor- 96. Uricosuric agents:
index to review therapy rect I. can be used instead of allopurinol
A. I, II, III are correct II. are ineffective in patients with impaired renal function
B. I and II are correct III. increase urate excretion
93. B. I and II are cor- 93. Alternatives to colchicine in the management of gout E. III only is correct
rect include:
I. indomethacin 97. C. II and III are 97. INR:
II. Diclofenac correct I. is monitored in patients with arthritis
III. aspirin II. is monitored in patients receiving warfarin
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III. stands for international normalized ratio B. I and II are cor- 101. Chronically elevated arterial pressure may cause:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. renovascular disease
B. I and II are correct II. hemorrhagic stroke
C. II and III are correct III. Nasal congestion
98. C. II and III are 98. Lung function tests: D. I only is correct
correct I. always involve administration of bronchodilators before E. III only is correct
the procedure
II. are used to determine severity of respiratory disease 102. B. I and II are cor- 102. Atherosclerosis:
III. are used to monitor outcomes of therapy rect I. Can occur in different organs
A. I, II, III are correct II. May result in myocardial infarction
B. I and II are correct III. Causes chest pain
99. B. I and II are cor- 99. In heart failure: E. III only is correct
rect I. chest radiographs may show cardiac enlargement
II. the pulse rate may indicate arrhythmias 103. B. I and II are cor- 103. Patients with angina pectoris may be advised that
III. body extremities are very hot rect factors which precipitate an attack include:
A. I, II, III are correct I. Exercise
B. I and II are correct II. Anxiety
C. II and III are correct III. Light meals
100. E. III only is cor- 100. EEG: D. I only is correct
rect I. is carried out to confirm the occurrence of cardiovascu- E. III only is correct
lar disease
II. procedures require patients to be totally sedated 104. C. II and III are 104. After myocardial infarction, a patient should be ad-
III. stands for electroencephalography correct vised:
A. I, II, III are correct I. that normal activity can never be achieved
B. I and II are correct II. to attain normal body weight
C. II and III are correct III. to undertake moderate exercise
101.
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105. B. I and II are cor- 105. Common complications of gallstones include: D. I only is correct
rect I. biliary colic E. III only is correct
II. jaundice
III. appendicitis 109. B. I and II are cor- 109. Hypokalemia may be due to:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. vomiting
B. I and II are correct II. drugs
C. II and III are correct III. Renal failure
106. B. I and II are cor- 106. Patients with osteoarthritis should be informed that: D. I only is correct
rect I. disease progression is very gradual E. III only is correct
II. weight loss is recommended
III. prolonged bed-rest is advisable 110. A. I, II, III are cor- 110. Clinical features of hypoglycemia include:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. sweating
B. I and II are correct II. hunger
C. II and III are correct III. Blurred vision
107. A. I, II, III are cor- 107. Patients receiving cytotoxic chemotherapy should be D. I only is correct
rect advised that: E. III only is correct
I. nausea and vomiting may occur before treatment
II. hair loss may occur 111. B. I and II are cor- 111. Anaphylactic shock could present with:
III. any signs of infection should be reported to a health rect I. rash
professional II. bronchoconstriction
A. I, II, III are correct III. hypertension
108. D. I only is cor- 108. When patient presents with a fall and a blackout:
rect I. the incident has to be investigated 112. A. I, II, III are cor- 112. Diabetic patients should be advised to monitor their
II. the patient has epilepsy rect condition because they are prone to develop:
III. the incident should only cause alarm only if it occurs I. Retinopathy
in pediatric patients II. chronic renal failure
27 / 69 28 / 69
III. Ischaemic heart disease B. I and II are cor- 116. XY is a 49-year-old patient who is allergic to peni-
A. I, II, III are correct rect cillin. She was prescribed erythromycin for cellulitis. She
B. I and II are correct developed a rash and erythromycin was withdrawn.
C. II and III are correct When XY is started on the new treatment:
D. I only is correct I. development of rash should be monitored
E. III only is correct II. signs of anaphylaxis should be detected
III. an allergic reaction could develop after a month after
113. A. I, II, III are cor- 113. Normal saline: last drug administration
rect I. is 0.9% NaCl A. I, II, III are correct
II. used for electrolyte imbalance B. I and II are correct
III. may be applied as nasal drops C. II and III are correct
A. I, II, III are correct D. I only is correct
B. I and II are correct E. III only is correct
D. I only is correct 117. D. I only is cor- 117. GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from ten-
E. III only is correct rect sion headache. She would like to have medication that is
stronger than paracetamol.
114. A. I, II, III are cor- 114. Disadvantages of administration of corticosteroids in Tension headache:
rect the eyes include: I. tends to have a chronic pattern
I. corneal thinning II. is due to arterial vasoconstriction
II. glaucoma III. occurs only in young adults
III. cataracts A. I, II, III are correct
A. I, II, III are correct B. I and II are correct
C. II and III are correct D. I only is correct
D. I only is correct E. III only is correct
118. A. I, II, III are cor- 118. GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from ten-
115. B. Cefuroxime 115. XY is a 49-year-old patient who is allergic to peni- rect sion headache. She would like to have medication that is
cillin. She was prescribed erythromycin for cellulitis. She stronger than paracetamol.
developed a rash and erythromycin was withdrawn. Characteristics of patients with tension headache are:
Which of the following antibacterial agents is the most I. feeling of bilateral "hatband"
appropriate for XY? II. pain is non-throbbing
A. Flucloxacillin III. sound intolerance
B. Cefuroxime A. I, II, III are correct
C. Nalidixic acid B. I and II are correct
D. Fluconazole C. II and III are correct
E. Isoniazid D. I only is correct
E. III only is correc
116.
29 / 69 30 / 69
119. D. I only is cor- 119. GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from ten- 122. A. PMH 122. is a description of conditions that the patient has
rect sion headache. She would like to have medication that is experienced previously
stronger than paracetamol. A. PMH
GM could be advised to: B. PE
I. adapt a less stressful life C. SH
II. avoid consumption of cheese D. CC
III. change employment E. FH
B. I and II are correct 123. D. CC 123. is the patients main reason for seeking medical
C. II and III are correct consult
D. I only is correct A. PMH
E. III only is correc B. PE
C. SH
120. B. I and II are cor- 120. GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from ten- D. CC
rect sion headache. She would like to have medication that is E. FH
stronger than paracetamol.
Analgesics that could be recommended to GM include: 124. B. PE 124. is the findings of the examination of the patient
I. Dolcet A. PMH
II. Ibuprofen B. PE
III. Amitriptyline C. SH
A. I, II, III are correct D. CC
B. I and II are correct E. FH
125. B. BUN 125. is carried out as a part of kidney function monitoring
A. HbA1c
E. III only is correc
B. BUN
121. C. II and III are 121. GM is a 28-year-old female who suffers from ten- C. TSH
correct sion headache. She would like to have medication that is D. LFT
stronger than paracetamol. E. MCV
The use of aspirin would not be recommended if GM:
126. C. TSH 126. is carried out in thyroid function monitoring
I. has hypertension
A. HbA1c
II. has a history of gastric ulceration
B. BUN
III. is breast-feeding
C. TSH
D. LFT
E. MCV
D. I only is correct 127. A. HbA1c 127. is used to monitor diabetic patients
E. III only is correc A. HbA1c
B. BUN
31 / 69 32 / 69
C. TSH 133. predisposes to digoxin toxicity
D. LFT A. hypernatremia
E. MCV B. hyponatremia
C. hypercalcemia
128. D. Wilson's dis- 128. abnormal copper metabolism D. hypocalcemia
ease A. pheochromocytoma E. hypokalemia
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. cirrhosis 134. A. I, II, III are cor- 134. Transdermal fentanyl
D. Wilson's disease rect I. is used for pain relief
E. dysentery II. contains a pure agonist for u-opioid receptors
III. provides long-lasting analgesic effect
129. B. Cushing's 129. accumulation of fat in the face, chest and upper back A. I, II, III are correct
syndrome A. pheochromocytoma B. I and II are correct
B. Cushing's syndrome C. II and III are correct
C. cirrhosis D. I only is correct
D. Wilson's disease E. III only is correct
E. dysentery
135. A. I, II, III are cor- 135. Unexpected fluctuations in dose response in patients
130. A. pheochromo- 130. hyper secretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline rect receiving warfarin may be attributed to:
cytoma A. pheochromocytoma I. changes in vitamin K intake
B. Cushing's syndrome II. major changes in intake of salads and vegetables
C. cirrhosis III. major changes in alcohol consumption
D. Wilson's disease A. I, II, III are correct
E. dysentery B. I and II are correct
131. C. hypercalcemia 131. may occur as a result of hyperparathyroidism D. I only is correct
A. hypernatremia E. III only is correct
B. hyponatremia
C. hypercalcemia 136. A. I, II, III are cor- 136. Clozapine has an affinity for:
D. hypocalcemia rect I. dopamine receptors
E. hypokalemia II. serotonin receptors
III. muscarinic receptors
132. E. hypokalemia 132. may present with arrhythmias A. I, II, III are correct
A. hypernatremia B. I and II are correct
B. hyponatremia C. II and III are correct
C. hypercalcemia D. I only is correct
D. hypocalcemia E. III only is correct
E. hypokalemia
137. B. I and II are cor- 137. Cliclosporin
133. E. hypokalemia rect I. has an inhibitory effect on T-lymphocytes
33 / 69 34 / 69
II. may casue a dose dependent increase in serum crea- D. I only is correct
tinine during first few weeks of treatment E. III only is correct
III. cause hyperliidemia
A. I, II, III are correct 141. E. III only is cor- 141. Dose reduction and delays in administration of
B. I and II are correct rect planned cytotoxic chemotherapy are caused by:
C. II and III are correct I. Alopecia
D. I only is correct II. extravasation
E. III only is correct III. leucopenia
138. D. I only is cor- 138. When candesartan is started in the older person, B. I and II are correct
rect recommended monitoring includes: C. II and III are correct
I. Plasma potassium D. I only is correct
II. bilirubin E. III only is correct
III. blood glucose
A. I, II, III are correct 142. B. I and II are cor- 142. Spirometry measures:
B. I and II are correct rect I. Forced expiratory volume
C. II and III are correct II. Forced vital capacity
D. I only is correct III. total lung capacity
139. C. II and III are 139. Prostate cancer: C. II and III are correct
correct I. testosterone replacement therapy is mainstay of treat- D. I only is correct
ment E. III only is correct
II. growth is androgen dependent
III. may be diagnosed by prostate-specific antigen screen- 143. A. I, II, III are cor- 143. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus:
ing rect I. is a cause of nosocomial infections
A. I, II, III are correct II. spreading the infection may be reduced by alcohol hand
B. I and II are correct rubs
C. II and III are correct III. presents an economic issue to institutions
140. D. I only is cor- 140. Ondansetron: D. I only is correct
rect I. may be administered with dexamethasone E. III only is correct
II. is the drug of first choice in managing delayed CINV
III. is used prophylactically for motion sickness 144. D. I only is cor- 144. Alanine aminotransferase:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. is found predominantly in the liver
B. I and II are correct II. levels are significantly decreased in viral hepatitis
C. II and III are correct III. is never released into the bloodstream
35 / 69 36 / 69
145. E. III only is cor- 145. Aldosterone:
rect I. production is regulated primarily by the liver 149. B. I and II are cor- 149. Patients with gallstone disease:
II. levels are decreased by low-sodium diets rect I. present with visceral pain in the abdomen
III. is produced by the adrenal cortex II. report precipitation of the condition with fatty meals
A. I, II, III are correct III. are referred for a gastroscopy
146. A. I, II, III are cor- 146. Proteinuria:
rect I. is an indicator of renal disease 150. C. II and III are 150. Sleep apnea:
II. may be an indicator of pre-eclampsia correct I. is associated with cessation of breathing for at least 5
III. 24-hour urine specimen collection could be recom- minutes during sleep
mended if proteinuria is significant II. occurs more commonly in obese patients
A. I, II, III are correct III. presents with snoring
147. B. I and II are cor- 147. Patients with type I diabetes should be advised:
rect I. to self-monitor blood glucose 151. B. I and II are cor- 151. Potential beneficial effects of cannabis include:
II. to have access to a source of fast sugars rect I. anti-emetic
III. to avoid participating in sports II. analgesia
A. I, II, III are correct III. appetite suppressant
148. D. I only is cor- 148. When aspirin is compared with warfarin:
rect I. decreases platelet aggregation 152. D. I only is cor- 152. Drugs that may cause hypertension include:
II. has higher rates of major hemorrhage rect I. Corticosteroids
III. requires the same degree of monitoring II. phenothiazines
37 / 69 38 / 69
III. alpha-adrenoreceptor blockers 156. A. I, II, III are cor- 156. Drugs that may provoke asthmatic attack include:
A. I, II, III are correct rect I. diclofenac
B. I and II are correct II. atenolol
C. II and III are correct III. timolol
153. B. I and II are cor- 153. Patients receiving oral iron tablets should be ad- D. I only is correct
rect vised: E. III only is correct
I. to take the preparation with food
II. that stools may be black-colored 157. A. I, II, III are cor- 157. Signs and symptoms of an acute severe asthma
III. to rinse their mouth after drug administration rect attack include:
A. I, II, III are correct I. tachycardia
B. I and II are correct II. tachypnea
C. II and III are correct III.exhaustion
154. A. I, II, III are cor- 154. In an asthma attack, the following condition/s oc- D. I only is correct
rect cur/s: E. III only is correct
I. bronchospasm
II. increased airway resistance 158. E. it may cause 158. Salbutamol nebulizer is used in combination with
III. inflammation arterial hypox- oxygen because:
A. I, II, III are correct emia A. it may mask symptom severity
B. I and II are correct B. aggressive treatment is required
C. II and III are correct C. the dose is lower than administered by inhaler
D. I only is correct D. it may cause hypovolemia
E. III only is correct E. it may cause arterial hypoxemia
155. A. I, II, III are cor- 155. Inflammatory mediators that are released in an asth- 159. C. II and III are 159. Parameters that require monitoring in an asthma
rect matic attack include: correct patient include:
I. histamine I. urinary flow
II. leukotrienes II. blood gases
III. prostaglandins III. plasma potassium concentration
39 / 69 40 / 69
160. B. I and II are cor- 160. Cefuroxime is: B. I and II are correct
rect I. is also available for oral administration C. II and III are correct
II. active against haemophilus influenza D. I only is correct
III. highly effective against Gram-negative bacteria E. III only is correct
B. I and II are correct 164. B. I and II are cor- 164. Nebulisers:
C. II and III are correct rect I. are devices producing an aerosol from an aqueous
D. I only is correct solution
E. III only is correct II. should be washed out to avoid microbial growth
III. salbutamol injection solution is used to administer
161. D. I only is cor- 161. Clarithromycin is: salbutamol by nebulization
rect I. is a macrolide A. I, II, III are correct
II. achieves lower tissue concentrations than ery- B. I and II are correct
thromycin C. II and III are correct
III. has poor activity against Haemophilus influenzae D. I only is correct
A. I, II, III are correct E. III only is correct
C. II and III are correct 165. E. III only is cor- 165. Beclometasone inhaler:
D. I only is correct rect I. is more effective than budesonide
E. III only is correct II. may be used to control an attack
III. may cause oral candidiasis
162. E. III only is cor- 162. Intravenous hydrocortisone is indicated in asthma A. I, II, III are correct
rect attacks: B. I and II are correct
I. to avoid anaphylactic shock D. I only is correct
II. for its mineralocorticoid effects E. III only is correct
III. to inhibit the production and release of pro-inflamma-
tory agents 166. B. I and II are cor- 166. Long-term inhalation of high doses of beclometa-
A. I, II, III are correct rect sone may predispose patients to:
B. I and II are correct I. Osteoporosis
C. II and III are correct II. hoarseness
D. I only is correct III. hypertension
163. C. II and III are 163. When administering prednisolone: C. II and III are correct
correct I. it should be taken after food D. I only is correct
II. enteric coated formulation is preferred E. III only is correct
III. dose should be divided into twice daily administration
A. I, II, III are correct 167. B. I and II are cor- 167. Salmeterol:
rect I. is longer-acting than salbutamol
41 / 69 42 / 69
II. may be used in combination with beclometasone 171. A. I, II, III are cor- 171. Upon admission of an angina patient, therapeutic
III. could replace salbutamol use rect management should aim to:
A. I, II, III are correct I. reduce cardiac oxygen demand
B. I and II are correct II. provide antithrombotic activity
C. II and III are correct III. provide antiplatelet therapy
168. A. I, II, III are cor- 168. Which of the following signs and symptoms suggest D. I only is correct
rect an angina attack? E. III only is correct
I. tachycardia
II. sweating 172. C. II and III are 172. Isosorbide dinitrate:
III. breathlessness correct I. is a coronary vasoconstrictor
A. I, II, III are correct II. flushing may occur
B. I and II are correct III. patient may complain of throbbing headache
169. B. I and II are cor- 169. During an angina attack, investigations that are indi- E. III only is correct
rect cated include:
I. ECG 173. A. I, II, III are cor- 173. Heparin:
II. blood pressure rect I. has a rapid onset of action
III. coronary angiogram II. has a short duration of action
A. I, II, III are correct III. patient should be monitored for signs of hemorrhage
170. A. I, II, III are cor- 170. The goals of treatment for angina include:
rect I. to reduce symtoms 174. A. I, II, III are cor- 174. Enalapril:
II. to improve exercise capacity rect I. is an ACE inhibitor
III. to reduce risk of heart attack II. is indicated for hypertension in diabetic patients
A. I, II, III are correct III. is used for long-term management of MI
43 / 69 44 / 69
175. A. I, II, III are cor- 175. Metformin:
rect I. does not cause insulin release 179. A. I, II, III are cor- 179. Patients using nitroglycerin patch should be advised:
II. may provoke lactic acidosis rect I. to apply patch on chest wall, upper arm or shoulder
III. requires monitoring of renal function II. to change daily
A. I, II, III are correct III. to remove at night
176. A. I, II, III are cor- 176. Metformin:
rect I. does not precipitate hypoglycemia 180. B. I and II are cor- 180. Dipyridamole should:
II. should be taken with meals rect I. be administered before food
III. is indicated to obese patients II. to be used with caution in hypotension
A. I, II, III are correct III. not to be given with aspirin
177. B. I and II are cor- 177. Drugs that are known to cause hyperkalemia is/are:
rect I. Enalapril 181. A. I, II, III are cor- 181. Side-effects associated with dipyridamole include:
II. heparin rect I. headache
III. furosemide II. abdominal distress
A. I, II, III are correct III. hot flushes
178. D. I only is cor- 178. Patients taking simvastatin should be advised:
rect I. to return for monitoring of liver function tests 182. E. III only is cor- 182. Nifedipine:
II. that this medication is only for short-term until LDL rect I. commonly precipitates heart failure
levels normalize II. is a highly negative inotropic agent
III. to avoid use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs III. relaxes coronary and peripheral arteries
45 / 69 46 / 69
183. B. I and II are cor- 183. Modified-release formulations of nifedipine are pre-
rect ferred to prevent: 187. A. I, II, III are cor- 187. In monitoring effectiveness of treatment for RA pa-
I. large variations in blood pressure rect tients, functional factors to be considered include:
II. reflex tachycardia I. duration of morning stiffness
III. decreased effect in patients with short bowel syndrome II. ability to dress
A. I, II, III are correct III. grip strength
184. D. I only is cor- 184. Isosorbide mononitrate:
rect I. has a longer half life than the dinitrate salt 188. A. Ophthalmo- 188. used to investigate retinopathy
II. has poor bioavailability after oral administration scope A. Ophthalmoscope
III. is used in hypertension B. Otoscope
A. I, II, III are correct C. Stethoscope
B. I and II are correct D. Sphymomanometer
C. II and III are correct E. Reflex hammer
E. III only is correct 189. C. Stethoscope 189. used to assess breath sounds
A. Ophthalmoscope
185. E. III only is cor- 185. Rheumatoid arthritis: B. Otoscope
rect I. is a localized condition C. Stethoscope
II. occurs as a consequence of trauma D. Sphymomanometer
III. affects synovial joints E. Reflex hammer
B. I and II are correct 190. E. Reflex ham- 190. used to test deep tendon reflexes
C. II and III are correct mer A. Ophthalmoscope
D. I only is correct B. Otoscope
E. III only is correct C. Stethoscope
D. Sphymomanometer
186. A. I, II, III are cor- 186. Onset of rheumatoid arthritis: E. Reflex hammer
rect I. is insidious
II. occurs symmetrically 191. E. human 191. is produced by the placenta
III. is polyarticular chorionic go- A. GNRH
A. I, II, III are correct nadotropin B. C peptide
47 / 69 48 / 69
D. prolactin 196. B. I and II are cor- 196. A complete blood count consists of:
C. troponin I rect I. hemoglobin quantification
E. human chorionic gonadotropin II. WBC count
III. blood crossmatching
192. B. C peptide 192. is released from the beta cells of the pancreas A. I, II, III are correct
A. GNRH B. I and II are correct
B. C peptide C. II and III are correct
D. prolactin D. I only is correct
C. troponin I E. III only is correct
E. human chorionic gonadotropin
197. B. I and II are cor- 197. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate:
193. D. prolactin 193. is released from the anterior pituitary gland rect I. is a non-specific indicator of inflammation
A. GNRH II. measures the rate at which red blood cells settle out of
B. C peptide mixed venous blood
D. prolactin III. determination is based on protein electrophoresis
C. troponin I A. I, II, III are correct
E. human chorionic gonadotropin B. I and II are correct
194. A. I, II, III are cor- 194. Creatinine kinase: D. I only is correct
rect I. is found in skeletal muscle E. III only is correct
II. isoenzyme fractions are used to identify the type of
tissue damaged 198. A. I, II, III are cor- 198. Gastro-esophageal reflux disease may be associat-
III. CK-MB are detected in blood within 3-5 hours of a rect ed with:
myocardial infarction
A. I, II, III are correct I. acid regurgitation
B. I and II are correct II. dysphagia
C. II and III are correct III. stricture formation
195. D. I only is cor- 195. Auscultation of bowel sounds: D. I only is correct
rect I. is usually carried out postoperatively E. III only is correct
II. always requires a stethoscope
III. when positive, indicates absence of peristalsis 199. E. III only is cor- 199. Patients should be advised to avoid direct sunlight
A. I, II, III are correct rect when taking:
B. I and II are correct I. gliclazide
C. II and III are correct II. clarithromycin
D. I only is correct III. amiodarone
49 / 69 50 / 69
B. I and II are correct D. I only is correct
C. II and III are correct E. III only is correct
E. III only is correct 203. A. I, II, III are cor- 203. Immunosuppressive agents that may be used after
rect kidney transplantation include:
200. A. I, II, III are cor- 200. Human immunoglobulins: I. azathioprine
rect I. are prepared from polled human plasma or serum II. ciclosporin
II. are tested for hepatitis B surface antigen III. prednisolone
III. are less likely to be associated with hypersensitivity A. I, II, III are correct
reactions compared with antisera B. I and II are correct
A. I, II, III are correct C. II and III are correct
B. I and II are correct D. I only is correct
C. II and III are correct E. III only is correct
E. III only is correct 204. D. prescription 204. A book ready for inspection by the FDA anytime
book during business hours and should be kept for two years:
201. B. I and II are cor- 201. The use of calcium supplements to reduce risk of A. poison book
rect fractures: B. sales book
C. additional opium book
I. is associated with poor compliance because of the need D. prescription book
for sustained treatment E. purchase book
II. may be combined with vitamin D supplementation
III. consists of calcium lactate as it is the only salt that can 205. C. individual pre- 205. A type of distribution system wherein all drugs are
be used for oral administration scription system retained in the main pharmacy until receipt of the physi-
A. I, II, III are correct cian's initial order:
B. I and II are correct A. floor stock system
C. II and III are correct B. unit dose drug distribution system
D. I only is correct C. individual prescription system
E. III only is correct D. both A and C
202. B. I and II are cor- 202. People with irritable bowel syndrome may complain 206. B. patient med- 206. It enables the pharmacist to monitor drug utilization
rect of: ication profile of each patient confined in the hospital:
I. a negative effect on their social life A. admission history
II. abdominal pain B. patient medication profile
III. GERD C. patient chart
A. I, II, III are correct D. adverse drug reaction report
B. I and II are correct E. progress notes
207. C. prepared 207. Laminar flow hood is used when intravenous solu-
tions are: A. Labeled
51 / 69 52 / 69
B. Stored 213. C. non-institu- 213. A modern usage of the term ambulatory patient:
C. prepared tionalized patient A. in-patient
D. administered B. ward patient
E. both A and C C. non-institutionalized patient
D. institutionalized patient
208. E. contagious 208. San Lazaro Hospital specializes in: E. hospitalized patient
diseases A. mental health
B. childbirth 214. B. Unauthorized 214. Medication administered to the wrong patient may
C. pulmonary disease drug error be classified as:
D. bone disorder A. Wrong dose error
E. contagious diseases B. Unauthorized drug error
C. Wrong time error
209. D. vitamins 209. Total parenteral nutrition should be protected from D. Omission error
light because it contains:
A. Fats 215. C. Foley catheter 215. A rubber or plastic tube inserted into the bladder
B. Carbohydrates in order to withdraw urine from patients unable to void
C. electrolytes naturally.
D. vitamins A. NGT
E. proteins B. PEG
C. Foley catheter
210. D. 1962 210. PSHP was established in what year? D. CTT
A. 1930 E. Pigtail catheter
B. 1942
C. 1950 216. C. Patient chart 216. Legal document which contains all the treatment
D. 1962 done to the patient:
E. 1970 A. Patient medication profile
B. Therapeutic sheet
211. A. Preventive 211. Which is not a primary function of the hospital? C. Patient chart
medicine A. Preventive medicine D. Doctor's order sheet
B. Giving health information E. All of the above
C. Providing health care
D. Conduct scientific research 217. E. both b and c 217. In charge of inspecting the contents of the emer-
gency box daily:
212. A. Location 212. Hospital may be classified in different ways, except: A. Charge nurse
A. Location B. Pharmacist
B. Ownership C. Staff nurse
C. bed capacity D. Both a and b
D. type of service E. both b and c
E. length of service
218. B. Vecuronium
53 / 69 54 / 69
218. A drug that may be used to paralyze a patient during 224. A. Nurses 224. The following can legally receive drug samples ex-
surgery: cept:
A. Thiopental A. Nurses
B. Vecuronium B. Pharmacists
C. nalbuphine C. veterinarians
D. phenobarbital D. dentists
219. D. presence of 219. During eye examination, the following are noted 225. A. patient admis- 225. Which one of the following does not have to be in
tears except: sion the form of a written policy and procedure in the hospital
A. visual acuity pharmacy?
B. papillary reflex A. patient admission
C. EOM B. handling flammable materials
D. presence of tears C. orientation of new pharmacy employee
D. handling of narcotics
220. A. Fruity 220. The breath of an alcoholic patient may smell:
A. Fruity 226. D. sweating - de- 226. The following information can be deduced from the
B. Ammoniacal hydration assessment of the skin except?
C. musty A. scabs and scars - old and recent wounds
D. sweet B. reddish skin - recent exposure under the sun
C. yellowish stain on the index and middle finger - chronic
221. B. ophthalmic 221. Which of the following solutions should be sterile smoker
solutions when dispensed? D. sweating - dehydration
A. Tinctures
B. ophthalmic solutions 227. B. package con- 227. A unit dose package may be defined as:
C. spirits taining the exact A. vial of 1gm Keflin to be reconstituted by the nurse in the
D. sprays dose of drugs to nursing unit
E. none of the above be administered B. package containing the exact dose of drugs to be
to a patient at a administered to a patient at a specific time
222. D. subcutaneous 222. Insulin preparations are usually administered by: specific time C. bottle containing enough medication for 24 hours
injection A. intradermal injection D. package containing enough medication for the next 3
B. intramuscular injection doses
C. intravenous bolus
D. subcutaneous injection 228. D. all of the above 228. The risk of medication misuse or errors are often due
to:
223. B. abdominal 223. Most common side effect of erythromycin: A. increase in frequency of change in medication use
cramping A. hysterical laughing B. increase in number of medication for patient
B. abdominal cramping C. increased potency of modern medication
C. weight gain D. all of the above
D. drowsiness
229.
55 / 69 56 / 69
C. quality of drug 229. The major reason for drug use review: C. depression
therapy A. drug cost D. lying on the left
B. patient drug history
C. quality of drug therapy 235. D. megaloblastic 235. Vitamin B9 deficiency is also known as:
D. drug administration anemia A. peripheral neuropathy
E. all of the above B. beri-beri
C. pellagra
230. D. ascorbic acid 230. Which of the following may increase the absorption D. megaloblastic anemia
of iron? E. scurvy
A. Antacid
B. folic acid 236. E. gout 236. Salicylates are useful in the following conditions
C. high protein meal except:
D. ascorbic acid A. acute rheumatic fever
E. milk B. fever, headache
C. venous thrombosis
231. C. iron dextran 231. Which of the following iron preparations is not avail- D. rheumatoid arthritis
able in an oral dosage form? E. gout
A. ferrous fumarate
B. ferrous sulfate 237. C. IgG 237. The only class of immunoglobulin that crosses the
C. iron dextran placenta:
D. ferrous gluconate A. IgM
B. IgA
232. B. Fuoxetine 232. FDA approved pharmacologic treatment for bulimia C. IgG
nervosa: D. IgE
A. Bupropion E. IgD
B. Fuoxetine
C. Lithium carbonate 238. A. adrenal hyper- 238. Cushing's syndrome is associated with:
D. Valproic acid plasia A. adrenal hyperplasia
B. adrenal insufficiency
233. A. tigdas - chick- 233. Which is incorrectly paired? C. Hyperthyroidism
en pox A. tigdas - chicken pox D. Hypothyroidism
B. Galis aso - scabies
C. pigsa- boils 239. B. Embolus 239. A dislodged or detached thrombus:
D. trangkaso - flu A. Thrombocyte
E. hika - asthma B. Embolus
C. Hemolysis
234. A. Hyperthy- 234. The following may reduce gastric emptying rate ex- D. Hemoglobin
roidism cept: E. Thrombocytopenia
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. high fat meal 240. B. Fats
57 / 69 58 / 69
240. Which of the following provides the greatest number D. Cells, increase
of calories per gram? E. Deficiency
A. Dextrose
B. Fats 246. A. Softening 246. -malacia
C. proteins A. Softening
D. ethanol B. Producing, promotes
C. Inflammation
241. C. Health mainte- 241. A private or public organization that provides com- D. Cells, increase
nance organiza- prehensive healthcare services to individuals enrolled in E. Deficiency
tion the organization.
A. Hospital 247. A. Softening 247. -agogue
B. Health management organization A. Softening
C. Health maintenance organization B. Producing, promotes
D. Health movement organization C. Inflammation
D. Cells, increase
242. B. CCB 242. Drug of choice for Prinzmetal angina. E. Deficiency
A. Nitrates
B. CCB 248. C. Inflammation 248. -it is
C. Beta blockers A. Softening
D. cardiac glycosides B. Producing, promotes
C. Inflammation
243. D. Liver 243. Milk thistle supplement is primarily used for _____ D. Cells, increase
disorders? E. Deficiency
A. Heart
B. Kidneys 249. B. Normal, well 249. eu
C. Lungs A. Pus
D. Liver B. Normal, well
E. Cornea C. Breast
D. Yellow
244. E. Deficiency 244. -penia E. Few
A. Softening
B. Producing, promotes 250. C. Breast 250. mammo
C. Inflammation A. Pus
D. Cells, increase B. Normal, well
E. Deficiency C. Breast
D. Yellow
245. D. Cells, increase 245. -cytosis E. Few
A. Softening
B. Producing, promotes 251. A. Pus 251. pyo
C. Inflammation A. Pus
59 / 69 60 / 69
B. Normal, well 257. C. Ethambutol 257. Causes ocular complications
C. Breast A. Isoniazid
D. Yellow B. Rifampicin
E. Few C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
252. E. Few 252. oligo E. Streptomycin
A. Pus
B. Normal, well 258. E. Streptomycin 258. May be ototoxic and nephrotoxic
C. Breast A. Isoniazid
D. Yellow B. Rifampicin
E. Few C. Ethambutol
D. Pyrazinamide
253. D. Yellow 253. xantho E. Streptomycin
A. Pus
B. Normal, well 259. D. Griseofulvin 259. Should be taken with fatty meals
C. Breast A. Pioglitazone
D. Yellow B. Acarbose
E. Few C. Gliclazide
D. Griseofulvin
254. B. Rifampicin 254. May discolor tears, saliva, urine, or feces orange E. Alendronate
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin 260. C. Gliclazide 260. Should be taken 30-60 minutes before breakfast
C. Ethambutol A. Pioglitazone
D. Pyrazinamide B. Acarbose
E. Streptomycin C. Gliclazide
D. Griseofulvin
255. D. Pyrazinamide 255. Hepatotoxic and may cause liver necrosis E. Alendronate
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin 261. A. Pioglitazone 261. May be taken without regard to meals
C. Ethambutol A. Pioglitazone
D. Pyrazinamide B. Acarbose
E. Streptomycin C. Gliclazide
D. Griseofulvin
256. A. Isoniazid 256. Requires pyridoxine supplementation E. Alendronate
A. Isoniazid
B. Rifampicin 262. E. Alendronate 262. Should be taken 30 minutes before the first food,
C. Ethambutol beverage, or medication of the day, taken with a full glass
D. Pyrazinamide of water
E. Streptomycin A. Pioglitazone
B. Acarbose
61 / 69 62 / 69
C. Gliclazide D. Barrett's esophagus
D. Griseofulvin E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
E. Alendronate
268. C. GERD 268. Chronic symptom of mucosal damage caused by
263. B. Acarbose 263. Should be taken with the first bite of meals. stomach acid coming up from the stomach into the esoph-
A. Pioglitazone agus
B. Acarbose A. Achalasia
C. Gliclazide B. Esophagitis
D. Griseofulvin C. GERD
E. Alendronate D. Barrett's esophagus
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
264. E. Mallory-Weiss 264. Bleeding from tears in the mucosa at the junction
syndrome of the stomach and esophagus, usually caused by sever 269. E. Chloram- 269. Typhus
alcoholism, retching, coughing, or vomiting phenicol A. Erythromycin
A. Achalasia B. Tobramycin
B. Esophagitis C. Vancomycin
C. GERD D. Amphotericin B
D. Barrett's esophagus E. Chloramphenicol
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
270. B. Tobramycin 270. Sty
265. A. Achalasia 265. Characterized by incomplete LES relaxation, in- A. Erythromycin
creases LES tone, lack of peristalsis of the esophagus B. Tobramycin
A. Achalasia C. Vancomycin
B. Esophagitis D. Amphotericin B
C. GERD E. Chloramphenicol
D. Barrett's esophagus
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome 271. C. Vancomycin 271. MRSA
A. Erythromycin
266. D. Barrett's 266. Normal squamous epithelium lining of the esopha- B. Tobramycin
esophagus gus is replaced by goblet cells C. Vancomycin
A. Achalasia D. Amphotericin B
B. Esophagitis E. Chloramphenicol
C. GERD
D. Barrett's esophagus 272. A. Erythromycin 272. Ophthalmia neonatorum
E. Mallory-Weiss syndrome A. Erythromycin
B. Tobramycin
267. B. Esophagitis 267. Inflammation of the esophagus C. Vancomycin
A. Achalasia D. Amphotericin B
B. Esophagitis E. Chloramphenicol
C. GERD
63 / 69 64 / 69
273. D. Amphotericin 273. Cryptococcal meningitis D. Vancomycin
B A. Erythromycin E. Amphotericin B
B. Tobramycin
C. Vancomycin 279. C. Lithium 279. Ebstein anomaly
D. Amphotericin B A. Methimazole
E. Chloramphenicol B. Valproic acid
C. Lithium
274. B. Amikacin 274. Ototoxic D. ACE inhibitors
A. Chloramphenicol E. Phenytoin
B. Amikacin
C. Co-trimoxazole 280. B. Valproic acid 280. Neural tube defects
D. Vancomycin A. Methimazole
E. Amphotericin B B. Valproic acid
C. Lithium
275. E. Amphotericin 275. Nephrotoxic D. ACE inhibitors
B A. Chloramphenicol E. Phenytoin
B. Amikacin
C. Co-trimoxazole 281. D. ACE inhibitors 281. Renal dysgenesis
C. Lithium
276. A. Chloram- 276. Grey baby syndrome D. ACE inhibitors
phenicol A. Chloramphenicol E. Phenytoin
B. Amikacin
C. Co-trimoxazole 282. E. Phenytoin 282. Fetal hydantoin syndrome
C. Lithium
277. C. Co-trimoxa- 277. Hematopoetic disturbances D. ACE inhibitors
zole A. Chloramphenicol E. Phenytoin
B. Amikacin
C. Co-trimoxazole 283. A. Methimazole 283. Aplasia cutis
C. Lithium
278. D. Vancomycin 278. Red-man syndrome D. ACE inhibitors
A. Chloramphenicol E. Phenytoin
B. Amikacin
C. Co-trimoxazole 284. B. Phenylke- 284. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
tonuria A. Maple syrup urine disease
65 / 69 66 / 69
B. Phenylketonuria C. Montelukast
C. Galactosemia D. Penicillin
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
E. G6PD 290. B. Aspirin 290. Reye Syndrome
A. Acetazolamide
285. A. Maple syrup 285. A genetic metabolic disorder cause by deficiency B. Aspirin
urine disease of the branched chain alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase C. Montelukast
complex, leading to build up of their toxic metabolites. D. Penicillin
A. Maple syrup urine disease
B. Phenylketonuria 291. C. Montelukast 291. Churg-Strauss syndrome
C. Galactosemia A. Acetazolamide
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia B. Aspirin
E. G6PD C. Montelukast
D. Penicillin
286. C. Galactosemia 286. A genetic metabolic disorder that affects an infant's
ability to metabolize galactose. 292. D. Penicillin 292. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction
A. Maple syrup urine disease A. Acetazolamide
B. Phenylketonuria B. Aspirin
C. Galactosemia C. Montelukast
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia D. Penicillin
E. G6PD
293. D. Lymphocytes 293. Increased in viral infection
287. E. G6PD 287. "Favism" A. Eosinophils
A. Maple syrup urine disease B. Basophils
B. Phenylketonuria C. Neutrophils
C. Galactosemia D. Lymphocytes
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
E. G6PD 294. C. Neutrophils 294. Increased in bacterial and fungal infection
A. Eosinophils
288. D. Congenital 288. Deficiency of enzyme to synthesize cortisol and B. Basophils
adrenal hyper- aldosterone. C. Neutrophils
plasia A. Maple syrup urine disease D. Lymphocytes
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Galactosemia 295. A. Eosinophils 295. Increased during parasitic infections
D. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia A. Eosinophils
E. G6PD B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
289. A. Acetazo- 289. Steven-Johnson Syndrome D. Lymphocytes
lamide A. Acetazolamide
B. Aspirin 296. B. Basophils
67 / 69 68 / 69
IPS 2 Clinicical Pharmacy
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_f2mmde
296. Increased in inflammation
A. Eosinophils
B. Basophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Lymphocytes
297. B. 2 297. A 35-year-old, 70kg patient went into cardiac arrest.

The physician ordered to start the patient on norepineph-
rine 8mg in 250ml PNSS at 0.5mcg/kg/min.
How many vials of Levophed should we use?
formula: dose(mcf/kg/min) x 60(min/hr)x wt(kg) /
conc(mg/mL)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
298. D. 65ml/hr 298. A 35-year-old, 70kg patient went into cardiac arrest.
The physician ordered to start the patient on norepineph-
rine 8mg in 250ml PNSS at 0.5mcg/kg/min.
What is the flow rate in ml/hr?
A. 2ml/hr
B. 7ml/hr
C. 9ml/hr
D. 65ml/hr
299. C. Physician 299. The medical staff is composed of:

A. Nurse
B. Pharmacist
C. Physician
D. All of the above
300. D. Patient 300. Who is the center of pharmaceutical care?

A. Pharmacist
B. Nurse
C. Doctor
D. Patient
69 / 69

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IPS 2 Clinicical Pharmacy IPS 2 Clinicical Pharmacy

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_f2mmde Study online at https://quizlet.com/_f2mmde

297. B. 2 297. A 35-year-old, 70kg patient went into cardiac arrest.

299. C. Physician 299. The medical staff is composed of:

300. D. Patient 300. Who is the center of pharmaceutical care?

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