Test :- 09

All the best

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 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A
1. Pair of physical quantities that don’t have same
dimension is (are)
(1) Latent heat and gravitational potential
(2) Planck’s constant and torque
(3) Reynold number and coefficient of friction
(4) Pressure and energy density
5. Two blocks A and B of masses 10 kg and 20 kg
respectively are kept on rough horizontal surface
( = 0.1 for each block) and a horizontal force of
200 N is applied on B as shown in the figure. If at
some instant 10 kg mass has an acceleration of 10
m/s2, then what is acceleration of B?

2. Velocity (v) time (t) graphs of two vehicles A and

B starting from rest at the same time is given in the
figure. The statement that can be deduced correctly (1) 2.5 m/s2
from graph is
(2) 3.5 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 4.5 m/s2

6. Determine the net force required to accelerate a 540

kg ultralight car from 0 to 27 m/s in
10 seconds uniformly.
(1) Velocity of B is always greater than A
(2) Average acceleration of A is greater than B (1) 1458 N
(3) Acceleration of B is greater than A (2) 1200 N
(4) Acceleration of A is increasing at slower rate (3) 1800 N
than B (4) 1750 N

3. Rain is falling with speed of 4 m/s in the direction 7. A body falls from a height h on a horizontal surface
making an angle of 30° with vertical towards north. and rebounds. If the coefficient of restitution is 1/3,
What should be magnitude and direction of the height attained by the body is
velocity of cyclist to hold his umbrella exactly (1) h/4
vertical, so that rain does not wet him? (2) h/9
(1) 2 m/s towards south (3) 2h
(2) 2 m/s towards north (4) 3h
(3) 4 m/s towards east
(4) 4 m/s towards north 8. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies
3t 2
4. In a situation, contact force by a rough horizontal with time as P = watt. Here t is in seconds. If
surface on a body placed on it has constant 2
magnitude. If the angle between this force and velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, then velocity of
vertical is decreased, the friction force between the particle at t = 2 will be
body and surface will (1) 1 m/s
(1) Increase (2) 2 m/s
(2) Decrease
(3) 4 m/s
(3) Remain the same
(4) May increase or remain same (4) 6 m/s

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9. An elevator platform is going up at speed of 20 m/s 13. A satellite in an equatorial orbit (not geostationary
and during its upwards motion a small ball of mass satellite) of earth has time period of 6 hours. At a
5 g falling in downward direction strikes the
certain instant, it is directly overhead an observer
platform with speed 5 m/s (w.r.t. ground) and
rebounds perfectly elastically. The speed with on equator of earth. It is directly overhead to the
which ball will rebound is observer again observed after a time T. The
(1) 25 m/s possible values of T are
(2) 35 m/s
(1) 4.8 hour
(3) 40 m/s
(4) 45 m/s (2) 8 hour
(3) Both (1) and (2)
10. Two circular discs of same weight and thickness (4) Never
are made from metals of different densities. Which
disc will have the larger moment of inertia about its 14. In a horizontal laid pipe line of uniform area of
central axis? cross-section, the pressure falls by 18 N/m2
(1) Disc with larger density between two points separated by a distance of 200
(2) Disc with smaller density m. What is change in kinetic energy per kg of oil
(3) Both will have same moment of inertia flowing at these points? Density of oil is 600 kg/m3.
(4) More information is required (1) 3 × 10–2 J/kg
(2) 10.8 J/kg
11. The radius of gyration of a hollow sphere mass M
(3) 0.33 × 10–3 J/kg
and radius R about a tangential axis is
(4) 3 × 10–3 J/kg
2
(1) R
3
15. An ice cube is floating in a liquid of relative density
5
(2) R 1.2 contained in a beaker. When ice melts, the level
3
2 of liquid in the beaker
(3) R
3 (1) Falls
5
(4) R (2) Rises
3
(3) Remains unchanged
12. Consider a planet in solar system which has mass (4) My fall or rise
double to mass of earth and density equal to
average density of the earth. An object weighing w
16. If a liquid neither rises nor depresses in a capillary,
on the earth. Then its weight on the planet surface
will be then it means that contact angle is
(1) w (1) 0°
(2) 2w (2) 90°
(3) w/2 (3) < 30°
(4) 21/3w (4) > 10°

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17. n Drops of water, each of radius 2 mm, falls (2) 5.5 V
through air at a terminal velocity of 4 m/s. If they (3) 4.5 V
coalesce to form a single drop, then terminal (4) 3.5 V
velocity of combine droplet is 16 m/s. The value of
n is 21. A galvanometer coil has resistance of 15  and
(1) 2 meter shows full scale deflection for a current of 5
(2) 4 mA. In order to convert the meter into a voltmeter
(3) 6 of range 0 to 10 volt, the resistance in series
(4) 8 required is
(1) 1795 
18. A spherical conductor of radius 2 m is charged to a (2) 2285 
potential of 120 V. It is now placed inside (3) 1455 
conducting shell of radius 6 m. Small sphere is (4) 1985 
made to touch the bigger shell. The potential of
shell is 22. A charged particle is projected in magnetic field
( )
(1) 40 V
B = 4iˆ + 3 ˆj  10−3 T. The acceleration of particle
(2) 60 V
(3) 90 V ( )
is found to be a = xiˆ + 3 ˆj m/s2. The value of x is
(4) 120 V
(1) –9/4 m/s2
(2) –3/2 m/s2
19. Identify the incorrect statement among the
(3) –5/4 m/s2
following
(4) 4/9 m/s2
(1) Electrostatic field at the surface of a charged
conductor is proportional to the surface charge
23. A uniform magnetic field exists in a region is given
density
(2) There is no net charge at any point inside by B = 4kˆ T. A square loop of edge 10 cm and
conductor when a charge is placed outside it carrying current of 5 A is placed with its edges
(3) Inside charged or neutral conductor parallel to x and y axes. The net magnetic force
electrostatic field is zero experienced by loop is
(4) The electrostatic field at surface of charged
conductor must be tangential to surface at any
point when placed in external electric field

20. In the circuit shown in figure. The electric potential

difference across 4 volt battery will be

(1) 0.6 N
(2) 0.4 N
(3) Zero
(4) 0.1 N

(1) 6.2 V
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24. The earth’s magnetic field at a certain place has a (1) An anticlockwise current
horizontal component of 3 × 10–5 T and total (2) A clockwise current
magnetic field of 5 × 10–5 T. The angle of dip of the (3) An anticlockwise current and then clockwise
place is current
1 (4) A clockwise current and then anticlockwise
(1) tan −1  
2 current
3
(2) sin −1   28. Light with an energy flux of 18 W/cm2 falls on a
4
nonreflecting surface at normal incidence. If
3
(3) tan −1   surface has area of 2 m2, what is force exerted on
4 surface?
4 (1) 12 × 10–4 N
(4) tan −1  
3 (2) 12 × 10–5 N
(3) 2.4 × 10–5 N
25. RMS value of current i = 4 2 sin ( t ) is (4) 24 × × 10–4 N

(1) 7 A 29. A plane mirror is placed at origin parallel to y-z

(2) ( )
4+4 2 A plane, facing positive x-axis. An object starts from
(3) 5 2 A ( )
(2 m, 0, 0) with a velocity of 2iˆ + 3 ˆj m/s. The
(4) 4 A relative velocity of image is

26. Self-induction coefficient of a coil can be increased

(
(1) −2iˆ + 3 ˆj m/s )
by
(a) Increasing current through it
(2) ( −2iˆ − 3 ˆj ) m/s
(b) Decreasing current through it (3) ( −4iˆ ) m/s
(c) Inserting an iron rod in the coil
(d) Increasing number of turns (4) ( −6 ˆj ) m/s
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (a), (c) and (d) only
(3) (c) and (d) 30. Refractive index of water is 4/3 w.r.t. air. The
(4) (d) only critical angle for Total Internal Reflection for water
air interface is
27. The switch S in the circuit below is closed and then 1
(1) sin −1  
opened. The closed conducting loop will show 2
3
(2) cos −1  
4
3
(3) sin −1  
4
–1
(4) tan (2)

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31. One end of cylindrical glass ( = 1.5) is given a 35. In YDSE, the screen is at distance D from the plane
shape of concave refracting surface of radius of of the slits and slits are illuminated by
curvature 10 cm as shown in the figure. An air monochromatic light of wavelength . P is a point
bubble is situated in glass rod at a point on its axis on screen at distance y from central maxima. If by
such that it appears to be at 10 cm from surface, some arrangement, the slits be moved symmetrical
inside glass. The actual location of bubble inside apart with relative velocity v, the number of fringes
glass from surface is crossing the point P per unit time will be
yv
(1)
2 D
yD
(1) 12 cm (2)
v
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm D
(3)
(4) 36 cm vy

32. A ray of light passing through prism having yv

(4)
refractive index = 2 suffers minimum D
deviation. It is found that angle of incidence is SECTION - B
double the angle of refraction within prism. Then
angle of prism is 36. The smallest angle resolved by a telescope with an
(1) 60° objective of 5 m diameter is ( = 5500 Å of light
(2) 90° used)
(3) 120° (1) 2.1 × 10–6 rad (2) 3.2 × 10–7 rad
(4) 45° (3) 1.34 × 10–7 rad (4) 1.79 × 10–5 rad

33. Dispersion can take place for 37. The activity of a certain radioactive sample is
(1) Transverse waves only but not for plotted against time in a graph. If the initial slope
longitudinal waves of the curve is m, then slope of the curve at point B
(2) Longitudinal waves only but not for is
transverse waves
(3) Both transverse waves and longitudinal waves
(4) Neither transverse nor longitudinal waves

34. In a YDSE, 241 fringes can be seen on a screen.

The set up is completely immersed in water ( =
4/3). What will be number of fringes now seen on
screen? (1) m2
(1) 321 (2) 2m
(2) 291 (3) m/e
(3) 225 (4) me
(4) 410

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38. In a photocell, bichromatic light of wavelengths
2480 Å and 4200 Å are incident on a cathode
whose work function is 4.8 eV. If a uniform (3)
magnetic field of 3 × 10–5 T exists parallel to plate,
the radius of circular path described by photo
electron is (me = 9 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 12 cm
(4)
(2) 5 cm
(3) 0.15 cm
(4) 0.02 cm
42. A system is taken from initial state to final state
39. In a common emitter configuration, transistor along two paths. For path one, heat supplied is Q1
current amplification factor  = 45, change in = 50 J and W1 = 20 J. What is work done along path
voltage across 5 k resistor connected in collector 2 if heat supplied in path 2 is Q2 = 36 J?
circuit is 5 V. The change in base current is (1) 34 J
(1) 0.01 mA (2) 66 J
(2) 0.022 mA
(3) 106 J
(3) 0.37 mA
(4) 0.045 mA (4) 6 J

40. In an unbiased p-n junction, electrons diffuse from 43. A certain simple harmonic vibrator of mass 100 g
has total energy of 10 J. Its displacement from
n region to p region because
mean position is 1 cm when it has equal potential
(1) Holes in p junction attract them and kinetic energies. The amplitude A and
(2) Holes are majority carries in n-region frequency n of vibration are
(3) Electrons are in minority in n region 1 1000
(1) A = cm, n = Hz
(4) Electron concentration in n-region is more as 2 
compared to that in p-region 1 500
(2) A = cm, n = Hz
2 
41. An ideal gas is at initial temperature T and pressure 500
P. If pressure changes from P to P + dP when (3) A = 2 cm, n = Hz

temperature changes from T to T + dT at constant
1000
volume, the value of pressure coefficient (4) A = 2 cm, n = Hz
1 dP 
=  varies as shown in graph below. The
P dT
44. If a diatomic molecule is rigid, then total internal
correct graph is
energy of a mole of such a gas at absolute
temperature T is
3
(1) (1) RT
2
5
(2) RT
2
9
(3) RT
(2) 2
7
(4) RT
2

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45. The frequency of B is 3% greater than A. The 48. An increase in pressure of 20 kPa cause a certain
frequency of C is 2% less than that of A. If B and C volume of liquid decrease by 2 × 10–3 percentage
of initial volume. The speed of sound wave in
produce 7 beats/second, then the frequency of A is
 kg 
(1) 130 Hz liquid is nearly:  Density of liquid = 2 × 103 3 
 m 
(2) 135 Hz
(1) 500 m/s
(3) 160 Hz (2) 700 m/s
(4) 140 Hz (3) 850 m/s
(4) 920 m/s
46. Two soap bubbles of radius r1 and r2 coalesce to
49. A disc of radius R is pivoted at its rim. The period
form a single bubble under isothermal condition in for small oscillations about pivoted axis
vacuum. Find the radius of resulting bubble. perpendicular to the plane of disc is
(1) r1 + r2 R
(1) 2
r +r g
(2) 1 2
2 2R
(2) 2
(3) r12 + r22 g
2R
r12 + r22 (3) 2
(4) 3g
2
3R
(4) 2
2g
47. As length of a simple pendulum is increased
fourfold, the time period becomes 50. Young’s double-slit experiment establishes that:
(1) 3 times (1) Light consists of waves
(2) 4 times (2) Light consists of particle
(3) Light consists of both wave and particle
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Light consists of neither particle nor waves
(4) 2 times

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)

SECTION - A (1) CH3CH2—Br

51. The reagents used for the following conversion
(A) & (B) are respectively (2)

(3) Br–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–Br

(1) LiAlH4 & soda lime (4)

(2) Zn(Hg)/HCl & Red P + Hl
(3) Red P + Hl & Soda lime
53. Which of the following is the correct set of
(4) Soda lime & Red P + Hl
52. Which of the following might form cyclohexane quantum numbers for last filled electron of 21Sc?
on reaction with dry Na in ether? (1) 3, 2, 0,  1/2 (2) 4, 0, 0,  1/2
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 (3) 3, 0, 0,  1/2 (4) 4, 0, –1,  1/2 quantity of the product formed (x) varies with
temperature (T) as given. Select correct statement:
54. Which of the following is not permissible
arrangement of quantum number for electrons in
an atom?
1
(1) n = 5, = 3, m = 0, s = +
2
1
(2) n = 3, = 2, m = −3, s = − (1) Stages I and III are endothermic but II is
2 exothermic
1
(3) n = 3, = 2, m = −2, s = − (2) Stages I and III are exothermic but II is
2 endothermic
1 (3) Stages II and III are exothermic but I is
(4) n = 4, = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 endothermic
(4) Stage I is exothermic but stages II and III are
55. The compound MX4 is tetrahedral. The number of endothermic
XMX angles in the compound is:
(1) Three 59. The first, second and third ionisation energies
(2) Four (E1, E2 and E3) for an element are 7 eV, 12.5 eV
(3) Five and 42.5 eV respectively. The most stable
(4) Six oxidation state of the element will be:
(1) + 1 (2) + 4
56. Number of S – S bond is H2SnO6 is : (3) + 3 (4) + 2
(1) n
(2) (n – 1) 60. Match the oxide given in column I. with its
(3) (n – 2) property given in Column II
(4) (n + 1) Column I Column II
(i) Na2O A. Neutral
57. The effect of temperature on equilibrium constant (ii) Al2O3 B. Basic
is expressed as (T2 > T1) (iii) N2O C. Acidic
K −ΔH  1 1  (iv) Cl2O7 D Amphoteric
log 2 =  −  Which of the following options has all correct
K1 2.303R  T2 T1 
pairs?
For endothermic reaction false statement is:
(1) (i) – B, (ii) – A, (iii) – D, (iv) - C
1 1
(1)  –  = Positive (2) (i) – C, (ii) – B, (iii) – A, (iv) - D
 T2 T1  (3) (i) – A, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) - C
(2) H = positive (4) (i) – B, (ii) – D, (iii) – A, (iv) - C
(3) log K2 > log K1
(4) K2 > K1 61. Small quantity of industrial toxic waste is
removed by
58. For the following reaction through stages I, II and III (1) Burning in open bins
A ⎯⎯
I
→ B ⎯⎯
II
→ C ⎯⎯
III
→D (2) Controlled incineration
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 (3) Burning in closed bins (2) 5.50 × 10–12
(4) Both (1) & (2) (3) 5.65 × 10–13
(4) 5.65 × 10–12
62. Which of the following compounds can exhibit
66. How many total number of substituents are
tautomerism? present in the following compound?
(1) C6H5CHO
O
||
(2) C6 H5 − C − CMe3
O O
|| ||
(3) C6 H5 − C − CH 2 − C − H
O
|| (1) 3
(4) C6 H5 − C − C6 H5 (2) 4
(3) 5
63. Among the following, the most stable isomer is: (4) 6

OMe 67. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely

(1)
difficult to melt. The reason for this anomalous
OH behaviour is that graphite
OH (1) is an allotropic form of carbon.
(2) is a non-crystalline substance.
(2) OMe (3) has carbon atoms arranged in large plated
rings of strongly bonded carbon atoms with
OH weak inter plate bonds.
(4) has molecules of variable molecular masses
(3) OMe
OH like polymers.

OH OMe 68. Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions

are given below:
(4) F2(g) + 2e– → 2F–(aq) ; E° = +2.85 V
Cl2(g) + 2e– → 2Cl–(aq); E° = +1.36 V
Br2(l) + 2e– → 2Br–(aq) ; E° = +1.06 V
I2(s) + 2e– → 2I–(aq) ; E° = +0.53 V
64. Strength in volume of a solution containing 30.36
The strongest oxidizing and strongest reducing
g/L of H2O2 is
agents respectively are
(1) 10 volume
(1) F2 and I–
(2) 20 volume
(2) Br2 and Cl–
(3) 5 volume
(3) Cl2 and Br–
(4) 30.36 volume
(4) Cl2 and I2
65. The ionization constant of ammonium hydroxide is
1.77×10–5 at 298 K. Hydrolysis constant of 69. Initial setting of cement is mainly due to:
ammonium chloride is (1) Hydration and gel formation
(1) 5.65 × 10–10 (2) Dehydration and gel formation

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 (3) Hydration and hydrolysis 75. Phenol is treated with bromine water and shaken
(4) Dehydration and dehydrolysis well. The white precipitate formed during the
process is
70. Na2SO4 xH2O has approximately 50% H2O by (1) m-bromophenol
mass. Hence, x is (2) 2, 4-dibromophenol
(1) 4 (3) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
(2) 5 (4) A mixture of o- and p-bromophenol
(3) 6
(4) 8

71. How many grams of NaOH should be added to 76.

water to prepare 250 ml solution of 2 M NaOH?
(1) 9.6 × 103
(2) 2.4 × 103
The reaction is an example of:
(3) 20
(1) Nucleophilic addition
(4) 24
(2) Nucleophilic substitution
(3) Electrophilic addition
72. NH3 gas is liquefied more easily than N2. Hence
(4) Electrophilic substitution
(1) vanderwaals constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ of NH3 >
that of N2 PI
C2 H5OH ⎯⎯⎯
3 → A ⎯⎯⎯→ B ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →(C),
KCN
Hydrolysis
77.
(2) vanderwaals constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ of NH3 <
that of N2 (C) is
(1) CH3–COOH
(3) a (NH3) > a (N2) but b (NH3) < b (N2)
(2) CH3—CH2—COOH
(4) a (NH3) < a (N2) but b (NH3) > b (N2)
(3) CH3—(CH2)2—COOH
(4) CH3H—COOH
73. A real gas most closely approaches the behaviour
of an ideal gas at 
78. CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯
P O
→ X.
(1) 15 atm and 200 K 2 5
Identify X.
(2) 1 atm and 273 K
(1) CH3COCH3
(3) 0.5 atm and 500 K (2) CH3CHO
(4) 15 atm and 500 K (3) (CH3CO)2O
(4) CH4

74. Which is always correct at equilibrium? 79. In the given following diazonium salt which is
(1) G° = 0 more stable?
(2) G = 0 + −
(1) C2 H5 N 2 X
(3) Ssystem = 0 + −
(3) E = 0 (2) CH3 N 2 X
+ −
(3) C6 H5 N 2 X

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 + − (2) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(4) C6 H5CH 2 N 2 X
80. Amino acid /proteins with only activated benzene ring (3) CuF2
give only (4) [Cu(CH3CN)4]BF4
(1) Xanthoproteic test
(2) Benedict test
(3) Fehling’s test
(4) All of these

81. Nucleic acids are:

(1) Polymers of nucleotides
(2) Polymers of nucleosides
(3) Polymers of purine bases through phosphate ester
bonds
(4) Phosphate ester bonds

82. 75% of a first order reaction was found to

complete in 32 min. When will 50% of the same
reaction complete ?
(1) 24 min
(2) 16 min
(3) 8 min
(4) 4 min

83. The rate constant for a first order reaction whose

half-life is 480 sec is:
(1) 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1
(2) 1.44 × sec–1
(3) 0.72 × 10–3 sec–1
(4) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1

84. Which is not true for a detergent molecule?

(1) It has a non-polar organic part and a polar
group
(2) It is not easily biodegraded
(3) It is a sodium salt of fatty acid
(4) It is a surface active reagent

85. Among the following, the coloured compound is

(1) CuCl
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 SECTION - B 91. Number of stereocenters present in
86. The -bonded organometallic compound which
is:
has ethene as one of its component is
(1) Zeise's salt (1) 0
(2) Ferrocene (2) 1
(3) Dibenzene Chromium (3) 2
(4) Tetraethyl tin (4) 3

87. Name the three lanthanides which show +2 92. Silica is added to roasted copper ore during
oxidation state also: extraction in order to remove:
(1) Sm,Tb,Gd (1) Cuprous sulphide
(2) Sm, Eu, Yb (2) Ferrous oxide
(3) Ferrous sulphide
(3) La,Gd, Lu
(4) Cuprous oxide
(4) Yb, Pm,Sm
93. Which factor is most responsible for the increase
88. In a solution of CuSO4 how much time will be in boiling points of noble gases from He to Xe?
required to precipitate 2 g copper by 0.5 ampere (1) Decrease in I.E.
current? (2) Monoatomic nature
(1) 12157.48 sec (3) Decrease in polarisability
(2) 102 sec (4) Increase in polarizability
(3) 510 sec
(4) 642 sec 94. XeF2 and XeF6 are separately hydrolysed then:
(1) Both give out O2
89. W g of copper is deposited in a copper (2) XeF6 gives O2 and XeF2 does not
voltameter when an electric current of 2 ampere (3) XeF2 alone gives O2
is passed for 2 hours. If one ampere of electric (4) Neither of them gives HF
current is passed for 4 hours in the same
voltameter, copper deposited will be 95. Which one among the following is a thermosetting
(1) W plastic?
(2) W/2 (1) PVC
(3) W/4 (2) PVA
(4) 2W (3) Bakelite
(4) Perspex
90. How many stereoisomers are possible for the
following?
BrCH2CH(CH3)CH2CH3
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

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96. The sulphide not soluble in hot dilute nitric acid is (2) Schottky defect
(1) CuS (3) Both (A) & (B)
(2) ZnS (4) None of these
(3) CdS
99. Which of the following will have the highest
(4) HgS
coagulating power for As2S3 colloid?
(1) Al3+
97. Atoms of the element 'A' form HCP and atoms of 2−
element 'C' occupy only two-third of octahedral (2) SO4
voids in it, then the general formula of the (3) Na+
compound is 3−
(4) PO4
(1) CA
(2) CA2
100. The gas which is expected to have maximum value
(3) C2A3
of KH will be
(4) C3A2
(1) BH3
(2) CO2
98. Which defect decreases density of the crystal?
(3) H2S
(1) Frenkel defect
(4) He

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION - A 104. Centrioles differ from cilia or flagella
101. Which of the following statements is true? P. In number of microtubules present at
(1) Small and less number of nucleoli are present periphery.
in cells actively carrying out protein synthesis Q. In number of radial spokes.
(2) A single human cell has approximately 2.2 R. In arrangement of microtubules.
meter long thread of DNA distributed among S. In containing proteinaceous central hub.
its 46 chromosomes T. In being surrounded by double membrane.
(3) Inner membrane of nucleus is continuous with Choose the correct statements.
the ER and also bears ribosomes on it (1) Only P and Q
(4) All living cells possess nucleus with nucleolus (2) Q, R and S
and chromatin
(3) Only P and R
(4) P, R and S
102. Which of the following statements are true about
the given figure of osmosis demonstration? 105. In TCA cycle, NADH`111111111111111
formation, take place at all the following steps,
except
(1) α-KGA to succinyl CoA
(2) Malic acid to OAA
(3) Succinic acid to fumaric acid
I II (4) Isocitric acid to α-KGA
P. Water potential of chamber II is more negative
Q. Diffusion of solute will take place from 106. All the following are the significances of equational
chamber II to chamber I division, except
R. Diffusion of solvent will take place form (1) Maintenance of the same number of
chamber I to II chromosomes in daughter cells
S. Osmotic pressure of chamber II is higher than (2) Growth and cell repair/replacement in
chamber I multicellular organisms
(1) Only P and Q (3) Maintenance of the constant number of
(2) Q, R and S chromosomes from generation to generation in
(3) Only P and R all sexually reproducing organisms.
(4) P, R and S (4) Restoration of nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio of cells

103. Which of the following is wrongly matched pair? 107. In which portion of the chloroplast, pH is higher in
(1) Chlamydomonas - Unicellular and flagellated the presence of sunlight?
(2) Laminaria - Unbranched leaf like thallus (1) Stroma
(3) Spirogyra - Filamentous structure (2) At thylakoid membrane
(4) Volvox - Colonial form. (3) Space enclosed by the inner and outer
membrane
(4) Space enclosed by the thylakoid membrane
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108. Select the wrongly matched pair. 112. Find the wrong statements about bacterial cells.
(1) Alternate phyllotaxy – Sunflower P. Pili are elongated tubular structures made of a
(2) Opposite phyllotaxy – Calotropis specific protein
(3) Whorled phyllotaxy – Guava. Q. Bacterial cell wall prevents the bacterium from
(4) Reticulate venation – Petunia bursting or collapsing
R. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is made up
109. How many of the given happens during Z-scheme? of only a single layer of lipid.
P. H2O splitting (1) P and Q
Q. O2 release (2) Q and R
R. NADPH formation (3) Only R
S. ATP consumption (4) Only Q
(1) Four
(2) Three 113. Cell organelle which divides the intracellular space
(3) Two into luminal and extra luminal compartments and
(4) One has rough surface is frequently observed in the cells
actively involved in
110. Which of the following is the right equation for (1) Protein synthesis
exponential growth curve? (2) Lipid synthesis
(1) (3) Carbohydrate synthesis
(4) r-RNA synthesis

(2)
114. Choose the wrong option with respect ATP
Synthase.
(3) (1) Involve in photophosphorylation
(2) Involve in oxidative phosphorylation
(4) (3) Involve in substrate level phosphorylation
(4) Break proton gradient

111. Which of the following statements is/are true for 115. Select the wrong statement from the following
Opuntia?
about bryophytes.
P. Leaves modified into spines
(1) The plant body of liverworts is differentiated
Q. Stem modified into photosynthetic organ
into rhizoids, stem and leaves
R. Presence of green succulent stem
(2) Mosses have upright, slender axis bearing
S. Presence of phyllode
spirally arranged leaves in gametophyte
(1) Only P and Q
(2) P, Q and R (3) Their spores germinate to form gametophyte
(3) Only P and R (4) The zygote undergoes mitosis to produce a
(4) P, R and S sporophyte eventually

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116. The principal function of Golgi apparatus is 121. Peat used as a biofuel is obtained from
(1) Synthesis of lipids and proteins (1) Marchantia
(2) Detoxification of drugs (2) Funaria
(3) Modification of nucleic acids (3) Sphagnum
(4) Packaging of materials to be delivered inside (4) Riccia
the cell or outside the cell
122. Read the statements given below and select the true
117. Female gametophyte in gymnosperm is found in answer
(1) Ovule P. Ligase : Joins short segments of DNA together
(2) Pollen grain Q. DNA polymerase : Cuts DNA at specific DNA
(3) Microsporangia sequence
(4) Pollen cones R. Helicase: Unwinds DNA strands during DNA
replication.
118. Which one of the following phytohormone plays (1) All P, Q and R, are correct
important role in seed development, maturation and (2) Only P is incorrect
dormancy? (3) Only R is incorrect
(1) ABA (4) Only Q is incorrect
(2) IAA
(3) GA 123. Read the following statements
(4) CK P. C3 plants show carboxylase and oxygenase
activity of RuBisCO
119. Which one of the following statements is true? Q. Leaves of Sorghum have kranz anatomy
(1) Cyanobacteria are classified under plantae in R. Carboxylation and reduction are first two steps
five kingdom classification of Calvin cycle
(2) Desmids are included in chrysophytes S. C3 plants show higher optimum temperature as
(3) Eubacteria are only gram positive bacteria compared to C4 plants because of the presence
(4) Phycomycetes are also called imperfect fungi of cold sensitive enzyme PEP synthetase
Which of the given statements are true?
120. How many of the following organisms do not fix the (1) P, R & S
atmospheric nitrogen in free living condition? (2) P, Q & R
Anabaena, Rhodospirillum, Beijerinckia, (3) Q, R & S
Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Nostoc (4) P, Q & S
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Three

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124. How many of the following traits of pea plant 129. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of I which
express themselves in both homozygous and occurs due to II .
heterozygous condition? (1) I - Silent mutation, II - Deletion of gene
Round seed, green seed colour, full pod shape, (2) I - Point mutation, II – Transition
yellow pod colour, terminal flower position, white (3) I - Frame shift mutation, II -Substitution
flower colour. reaction
(1) 2 (4) I - Substitution mutation, II – Transversion
(2) 1
(3) 3
130. In a grasshopper, the mechanism of sex
(4) 4
determination is
125. In the given list how many features are related to (1) XX-XY-type
Down's syndrome? (2) XX-XO-type
Gynaecomastia, Mental retardness, Leukemia,
Congenital heart disease. (3) ZZ-ZW-type
(1) 4 (4) ZO-ZZ-type
(2) 3
(3) 2
131. The given pedigree chart could be related with
(4) 1
inheritance of :

126. Mode of pollination in gymnosperm is

(1) Anemophily
(2) Hydrophily
(3) Entomophily
(4) Ornithophily

127. Embryo sac formation is preceded by meiosis in (1) Colour-blindness

(1) Cedrus (2) Haemophilia
(2) Ginkgo (3) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Pteris (4) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Mangifera
132. Taylor and co-worker have proved
128. In a Mendelian dihybrid cross 64 seeds are obtained semiconservative replication of DNA in P by using
in F2 generation. Calculate the number of seeds Q.
which are heterozygous for both the characters? P Q
(1) 4 (1) Faba beans Heavy isotope of nitrogen
(2) 8 (2) E.coli Tritiated thymidine
(3) 16 (3) Vicia faba Tritiated thymidine
(4) 12 (4) E.coli Heavy isotope of nitrogen

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133. Which of the following codons not code glycine? 138. Number of hotspots in India are
(1) GGU (1) 3
(2) CUG (2) 5
(3) GGG (3) 25
(4) GGA (4) 34

139. Release of thermal waste water

134. The catalyst required for post-transcriptional event
(1) Reduces the number of high temperature
and related to phenomenon which shown dominance
sensitive organisms
of RNA world is
(2) May enhance the growth of plants in
(1) Guanyl transferase
extremely cold areas
(2) SnRNA (3) May decrease the growth of fishes in colder
(3) Severo Ochoa enzyme areas
(4) Peptidyl transferase (4) Both (1) & (2)

135. Match the given columns and select the correct 140. Which one of the following features ensures
option. autogamy?
Column-I Column-II (1) Self incompatibility
a. UTRS (i) High degree of (2) Dioecy
polymorphism (3) Cleistogamy
(4) Dichogamy
b. VNTR (ii) Permease
c. ESTs (iii) Efficient translation 141. Which of the following biological phenomenon
d. lac y (iv) Exonic sequence helps preserving vigour in hybrid plants generation
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) to generation?
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (1) Bioprospecting (2) Apomixis
(3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii) (3) Emasculation (4) Hybridisation
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
142. Maize crop is resistant to stem borers due of
SECTION - B (1) Having solid stem
(2) Having hairy leaves
136. Vast majority of organisms are restricted to P range
(3) Having high aspartic acid, low nitrogen and
of temperatures and are called Q.
sugar content
P Q
(4) Having low aspartic acid, high nitrogen and
(1) Wide Eurythermal
sugar content
(2) Narrow Eurythermal
(3) Narrow Stenothermal
143. Crucial step for the success of any breeding
(4) Wide Stenothermal
programme is
(1) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
137. Which of the following group of organisms belong
cultivars
to second trophic level?
(2) Collection of genetic variability
(1) Grasses, grasshopper, wolf
(3) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
(2) Zooplankton, grasshopper, cow
(4) Selection of superior recombinants
(3) Phytoplanktons, birds, fishes
(4) Trees, wolf, birds
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144. Which microbial product is used as an
immunosuppressive agent and therefore, prevents
rejection reactions in organ transplantation?
(1) Statin
(2) Streptokinese
(3) Cyclosporin A
(4) Lipase
145. Important autotrophic biofertilizers in paddy field
are
(1) Glomus, Nostoc, Azotobacter
(2) Clostridium, Oscillatoria, Azospirillum
(3) Oscillatoria, Nostoc, Anabaena
(4) Glomus, Azotobacter, Klebsiella
146. The scientific name of makoi is correctly written as
(1) Solanum Nigrum
(2) solanum nigrum
(3) Solanum nigrum
(4) SOLANUM NIGRUM
147. If the chromosome number in a gamete of a fern,
Ophioglossum is 630, then what will be the
chromosome number in its meiocyte?
(1) 630
(2) 1260
(3) 840
SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A
151. Read the following statements
A. The cells of germinal epithelium are cuboidal
B. The main function of stratified squamous
epithelium is protection
C. The cilliated epithelium is found in trachea
and fallopian tubes
D. The transitional epithelium is found in renal
cortex
(1) All are correct
(2) Only A & B are correct
(3) Only A, B & C are correct
(4) Only B, C & D are correct
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(4) 1040
148. Select the true statement related to angiospermic
plants.
(1) An embryo sac represents megasporangium
(2) The vegetative cell of pollen grain gives rise to
two male gametes
(3) Xenogamy brings genetically different types of
pollen grains to the stigma
(4) Cleistogamous flowers do not produce seeds.
149. The entire sequence of communities that
successively change in a given area are
called…………….
(1) Climax community
(2) Ecological succession.
(3) Sere(s)
(4) Scondary succession.
150. Biochemical nature of genetic material was not
defined from experiments of:
(1) Transforming Principle
(2) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn
McCarty
(3) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(4) None of these.
152. Stomach located on the upper left portion of
abdominal cavity has three parts, a ___A___
portion into which the oesophagus open, a
___B___ region and a ___C___ portion, which
opens into small intestine.
Identify A, B and C
(1) A-cardiac, B-fundic, C-pyloric
(2) A-fundic, B-cardiac, C-pyloric
(3) A-pyloric, B-cardiac, C-fundic
(4) A-pyloric, B-fundic, C-cardiac
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153. Which of the following options correctly identifies
the structural formula shown in the figure?
156. Mark the incorrect statement
(1) Each Testis has about 250 compartments
called testicular lobules
(2) Each testicular lobule has 1-3 highly coiled
seminiferous tubules
(3) Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside
by male germ cells only
(4) Leydig cells are found in the interstitial spaces
of testicular lobules

A 157. Identify A, B, C, D in the diagrammatic

B
representation of Miller’s experiment
(1) A- Fructose, B- Ribose
(2) A- Glucose, B- Deoxyribose
(3) A- Glucose, B- Ribose
(4) A- Glucose, B- Fructose

154. Amount of water and protein present in blood

plasma is
(1) 40 - 42% & 7 - 8%
(2) 60 - 65% & 9 - 10%
(3) 70 - 80% & 10 - 12%
(4) 90 - 92% & 6 - 8%
A B C D
155. Which of the following diagram illustrates the Water
distribution of Na’ and K’ ions in a section of non- CH4, NH3, Elec Spark containing
myelinated axon which is at resting potential? (1) H2O, trod discha inorganic
H2, O2 es rge compounds
only
(1) Water
CH4, NH3, Elec Spark
containing
(2) H2O, trod discha
organic
H2 es rge
compounds
(2) Water
Elec Spark
CH4, H2O, containing
(3) trod discha
but no H2 organic
es rge
compounds
(3) Water
CH4, NH3, Elec Infra-
containing
(4) H2O, H2, trod red
organic
O3 es rays
compounds
(4)

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158. Match the disease in column I with the appropriate (1) (a)-(iv) (b)-(iii) (c)-(i) (d)-(ii)
items (pathogen/ prevention/ treatment) in column (2) (a)-(ii) (b)-(iv) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
II (3) (a)-(iv) (b)-(ii) (c)-(i) (d)-(iii)
Column I Column II (4) (a)-(iii) (b)-(i) (c)-(iv) (d)-(ii)
(1) Amoebiasis (i) Treponema pallidum
161. Which of the following statements are correct?
Use only sterilized
(2) Diphtheria (ii) I. Frenulum is the fold by which tongue is
food and water
attached to the floor of mouth or oral cavity.
(3) Cholera (iii) DPT Vaccine II. Lower surface of the tongue has little
Use oral rehydration projection which bears taste buds.
(4) Syphilis (iv) III. Pharynx is the common passage for food and
therapy
(1) A – (i), B – (i), C – (iii), D – (iv) air.
(2) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (i) IV. A muscular sphincter (gastro-oesophageal)
(3) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) regulates the opening of oesophagus into the
(4) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (iii) stomach
(1) I, II and IV
159. Statement A: Inbreeding exposes harmful (2) II and IV
recessive genes that are eliminated by selection (3) I, II, III, IV
Statement B: Inbreeding increases homozygosity (4) I, III and IV
(1) Statement A is correct and statement B is
incorrect
(2) Statement B is correct and statement A is 162. Find the incorrect matching
incorrect (1) Essential oils – Lemon grass oil
(3) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Terpenoids – Monoterpenes, diterpenes
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (3) Polymeric substances – Rubber, gums,
cellulose
160. Match the following cell structure with its (4) Drugs – Carotenoids, anthocyanins
characteristic feature
Column-1 Column-II
Cement neighbouring 163. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
Tight correct option out of the options given below:
(a) (i) cells together to form
junctions
sheet Assertion: The sensation of different colours are
Transmit information produced by various combinations of five types of
junctions cones found in our eyes.
(b) Adhering (ii)
through chemical to Reason: Cones are responsible for vision in dim
another cells
light
Establish a barrier to (1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
Gap
(c) (iii) prevent leakage of fluid the reason is a correct explanation of the
junctions
across epithelial cells
assertion.
Cytoplasmic channels to (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
Synaptic facilitate reason is not a correct explanation of the
(d) (iv)
junctions communication between assertion.
adjacent cells (3) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
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164. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that 167. Match column I with column II and select the
P. Cleave the 5' terminal nucleotides from duplex correct option from the given codes
DNA molecules Column I Column II
A. Saltation (i) Darwin
Q. Make sequence-specific cuts in both strands of
Formation of life
duplex DNA molecules
was preceded by
R. Promote circularisation of the duplex DNA B. (ii) Louis Pasteur
chemical
molecule by removal of the 5' terminal evolution
nucleotides Reproductive
C. (iii) Hugo de Vries
fitness
S. Generate 3' hydroxyl and 5' phosphate ends in
Life comes from Oparin and
the cut DNA strands D. (iv)
pre-existing life Haldane
(1) P, Q (A) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(2) P, R (B) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) Q, S (C) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) P, Q, R, S (D) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

165. Identify the true and false statements
(a) According to the 2001 census report, the
population growth rate was still around 1.7%
per year
(b) Saheli is a non-steroidal contraceptive pill
(c) Family planning programme was initiated in
1971
(d) Emergency IUDs should be implanted 72
hours before coitus
(1) (a) and (b) are true; (c) and (d) are false
(2) (a) is true; (b), (c) and (d) are false
(3) (a) and (c) are true; (b) and (d) are false
(4) All statements are false
166. Which gene isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis
has been known to control the insect population of
corn borer?
(1) HLA - gene
(2) Cry I Ab - gene
(3) Cry I Ac - gene
(4) Cry II Ab - gene
168. Consider the following statements regarding
lymphocytes
I. T- lymphocytes form cell mediated immune
system (CMIS)
II. The T-lymphocyte cells do not secrete
antibodies, but help the B-lymphocyte cells to
produce them
(1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
169. An___ A ___in the pulmonary volume ___ B___
the intra pulmonary pressure to less than the
atmospheric pressure which forces the air from ___
C___ to move into the lungs, i.e. ___ D___
Choose the correct options for the blanks A, B, C
and D to complete the above statement
(1) A – increase, B – decrease, C – outside, D –
expiration
(2) A – decrease, B – increase, C – outside, D –
expiration
(3) A – decrease, B – increase, C – inside, D –
inspiration
(4) A – increase, B – decrease, C – outside, D –
inspiration

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170. Fill in the blanks by option for the correct 173. ____A____ of hormones by ____ B _____ alters
combination of A to E ____C____ metabolism causing acute weakness
I. Endocrine glands secrete______ A _______ and fatigue leading to a disease called ____D____
II. The columnar epithelium is composed of (1) Under-production, adrenal cortex,
single layer of ______ B _______ and ______ carbohydrate, Addison’s disease
C ______ cells. (2) Over-production, adrenal medulla,
III. _____ D ______ covers dry surfaces of the carbohydrate, Addison’s disease
skin (3) Under-production, adrenal cortex, protein,
IV. _____ E _______ performs cementing to keep Cushing's syndrome
neighboring cells together (4) Under-production, adrenal medulla,
(1) A-Mucus, B-Cuboidal, C-Flattened, carbohydrates, Addison’s disease
D-Compound epithelium, E-Tight junction
(2) A-Hormones, B-Tall, C-Slender, 174. Study the following statements regarding
D-Compound epithelium, E-Adhering inbreeding and select the incorrect ones
junction (i) The inbreeding strategies allow the desirable
(3) A-Oil and sweat, B-Oval, C-Round qualities of two different breeds to be
D-Squamous epithelium, E-Gap junction combined
(4) A-Saliva, B-Rounded, C-Tall, D-Cuboidal (ii) It increases homozygosity
epithelium, E-Mucus (iii) It also helps in the elimination of less desirable
genes
171. Match the following columns (iv) Continued inbreeding increases fertility and
Column-I Column-II productivity
a. Biomacromolecul i. Alimentary canal (1) (i) & (ii)
es of food and associated (2) (i) & (iv)
gland (3) (ii) & (iii)
b. Human digestive ii. Embedded in jaw (4) (iii) & (iv)
system bones
c. Stomach iii Outer wall of 175. Match the following
. visceral organs Column – I Column – II
d. Thecodont iv Converted into
I. Tidal A. 2500-3000 ml of
. simple substances
Volume air
e. Serosa v. J-shaped bag like
II. Inspiratory B. 1000-1100 ml of
structure
reserve air
(1) a-ii, b-i, c-v, d-iii, e-iv
volume
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-ii, e-iii
(3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-v III. Expiratory C. 500 ml of air
(4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv, e-v reserve
volume
172. Statement A: Monosaccharides and disaccharides IV. Residual D. 3500-4600 ml of
are crystalline and sweet in taste volume air
Statement B: Polysaccharides are tasteless, V. Vital E. 1100-1200 ml of
amorphous and insoluble in water capacity air
(1) Statement A is correct (1) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A, V-E
(2) Statement B is correct (2) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-E, V-D
(3) Both statements are correct (3) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E, V-B
(4) Both statements are incorrect (4) I-E, II-A, III-B, IV-E, V-D

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176. Statement A: Mesoglea is present in between
ectoderm and endoderm in Obelia
Statement B: Taenia is a diploblastic animal
(1) Both A & B are correct
(2) Both A & B are incorrect
(3) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(4) Statement B is correct but A is incorrect
177. Which of the following option is correct?
(i) An increase in body fluid volume → Switch
off the osmoreceptorss → Suppresses the
ADH release
(ii) ADH → Constricting effect on blood vessels
→ High BP → More glomerular blood flow
→ More GFR
(iii) Angiotensinogen → Angiotensin-I →
Angiotensin II → Adrenal cortex →
Aldosterone
(iv) Angiotensin → ADH → More GFR →
Aldosterone → High BP
(1) i, ii & iii
(2) i, ii & iv
(3) i, iii & iv
(4) iii, iv & ii
179. Which of the following statement is not correct
regarding malarial infection?
(1) Plasmodium enters the human body as
sporozoites through the bite of freshly
moulted female Anopheles mosquito
(2) High fever recurring every three to four days
(3) Sporozoites initially multiply within the liver
cells and then attack the RBCs resulting in
their rupture
(4) When a female Anopheles mosquito bites an
infected person, these parasites enter the
mosquito’s body and undergo further
development
180. Examine the figure (a), (b) and (c). In which one of
the four options all the items, (a), (b) and (c) are
correct?

178. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the

correct option out of the options given below:
Assertion: Ciliary movement occurs in most of our
internal tubular organs which are lined by ciliated
epithelium. (a) (b) (c)
(1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
Reason: Passage of ova through the female
(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary (3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
movement. (4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the 181. Consider the following statements
assertion. I. Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the coagulation of blood
II. Albumins are involved in defense
reason is not a correct explanation of the
mechanisms of the body
assertion. (1) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (3) Both statements I & II are correct
(4) Both statements I & II are incorrect
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182. I. Catla 185. In this figure, which kind of selection does A, B
II. Hilsa and C represent respectively?
III. Rohu
IV. Sardines
V. Common carp
VI. Mackerel A
VII. Pomfrets
Select the freshwater fishes from the above list
(1) I, III & VI
(2) IV, V & VI
B
(3) I, III & V
(4) I, II & V

183. Choose the correct option

C
Statement 1: The normal E. coli cells do not carry
(1) A : Stabilizing, B : Disruptive, C : Directional
resistance against any of these antibiotics
(2) A : Stabilizing, B : Directional, C : Disruptive
Statement 2: EcoR I, Pvu II and Hind III are
(3) A : Disruptive, B : Stabilizing, C : Directional
located between the ampR and tetR gene (4) A : Directional, B : Disruptive, C : Stabilizing
(1) Statement 1 is correct
(2) Statement 2 is correct SECTION - B
186. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
(3) Both are correct
correct option out of the options given below:
(4) Both are incorrect Assertion: Diabetes insipidus is marked by
excessive urination and too much thirst for water.
184. Statement-1: GM has been used to create tailor- Reason: Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted
made plants to supply alternative resources to by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
industries, in the form of starches, fuels and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
pharmaceuticals assertion.
Statement-2: Bt cotton is the only variety of Bt (2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
(1) Statement 1 is correct reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) Statement 2 is correct
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(3) Both are correct (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(4) Both are incorrect 187. Poisons like cyanide inhibit Na+ efflux and K+
influx during cellular transport. This inhibitory
effect is reversed by an injection of ATP. This
demonstrates that

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 (1) ATP is the carrier protein in the transport (ii) The spatial arrangement of juxta medullary
system nephrons
(2) Energy for Na+ - K+ exchange pump comes (iii) Diffusion of urea from the collecting duct
from ATP (iv) Diffusion of salt from the ascending limb of
(3) ATP is hydrolysed by ATPase to release the loop of Henle
energy (v) Diffusion of salt from the descending limb of
(4) Na+ - K+ exchange pump operates in the cell the loop of Henle
(1) Only iv
188. Study carefully the given flowchart and fill in the (2) Only v
blanks (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). (3) ii & iii
(4) iv & v

191. Identify the A, B, C, D and E in the given diagram

A B C D E
(1) Cell- Bilateral Radial Pseudo- Coelom A B C D E
ular symmetry symmetry coelomates ates (1) Z-line Sarcomere I-band H-zone A-band
level
(2) Cell- Radial Bilateral Coelomates Pseudo- (2) M-line A-band I-band Z-line Sarcomere
ular symmetry symmetry coeloma
level tes (3) Z-line A-band I-band H-zone Sarcomere
(3) Cell- Bilateral Radial Coelomates Pseudo-
ular symmetry symmetry coeloma (4) Z-line Sarcomere M-line H-zone A-band
level tes
(4) Cell- Radial Bilateral Pseudo- Coelom
ular symmetry symmetry coelomates ates
192. Read the following statements and choose the
level
correct option
A. The presence or absence of hymen is not a
189. Which of the following statement is incorrect? reliable indicator of virginity or sexual
(1) A person of O blood group has anti A and anti experience
B antibodies in his blood plasma B. The hymen is often torn during the first coitus.
(2) A person of B blood group cannot donate However, it can also be broken by a sudden
fall or jolt, insertion of a vaginal tampon etc.
blood to a person of A blood group
(1) Both statements are correct
(3) Blood group is designated on the basis of the (2) Both statements are incorrect
presence of antibodies in the blood plasma (3) A is correct and B is incorrect
(4) A person of AB blood group is universal (4) A is incorrect and B is correct
recipient 193. Consider the following statements
190. The high osmolarity of the renal medulla is I. In microinjection method, recombinant DNA
maintained by all of the following except is directly injected into the nucleus of an
(i) Active transport of salt from the upper region
of the ascending limb animal cell
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 II. Microinjection method is used in oocytes, (1) Shape of Cylindrical Spindle Cylindrical
eggs and embryo. Muscle Shaped
III. Electroporation is the formation of temporary fibre
pores in the plasma membrane of host cell by (2) Striations Present Absent Present
using lysozyme or calcium chloride (3) Branching Present Absent Present
Which of the statements given above are correct? in muscle
(1) I & II (2) I, II & III fibre
(3) II & III (4) I & III (4) Intercalated Absent Absent Present

194. Which of the following statement is false? 197. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
I. Insulin was originally extracted from pancreas correct option from the codes given below
of slaughtered cattle and pigs Column I Column II
II. Animal insulin is identical to human insulin (A) FSH (i) Transported axonally
III. Non-human insulin caused some patients to to neurohypophysis
develop allergy from hypothalamus
IV. Recombinant insulin is actually obtained from (B) MSH (ii) Acts on melanocytes
Bacillus thuringiensis and regulates
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and IV pigmentation of skin
(3) Only III (4) Only IV (C) Vasopressin (iii) Stimulates the growth
(ADH) and development of
195. Identify the true statements and choose the correct ovarian follicles in
option accordingly female
I. Blood vessel leading to the glomerulus is (D) Pars intermedia (iv) In human, it is almost
called efferent arteriole merged with pars
II. Vasa recta, peritubular capillaries and distalis
glomerulus, all have blood (1) A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iv)
III. Cortical nephrons have highly reduced vasa
(2) A-(i) B-(ii) C-(iii) D-(iv)
recta (3) A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
IV. Vasa recta runs parallel to the Henle’s loop in (4) A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
the juxta-medullary nephron
(1) I, II and III (2) I, II and IV
(3) I, III and IV (4) II, III and IV

196. Which of the following is incorrect distinction

between the skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscles?
Feature Skeletal Smooth Cardiac

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198. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the 200. The accompanying diagram shows the uterine
correct option out of the options given below: tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S)
Assertion: The amount of CO2 that can diffuse
through the diffusion membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much higher when compared
to that of O2.
Reason: The solubility of CO2 is 20 to 25 times
higher than that of O2.
(1) If both the assertion and reason are true and
the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both the assertion and reason are true but the
reason is not a correct explanation of the In which of two women, fertilisation is impossible
assertion. at present?
(3) If the assertion is true but reason is false. (1) P and Q
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false. (2) Q and R
(3) R and S
199. Spermatogonia give rise to (4) S and P
(1) 100 primary spermatocytes, 400 secondary
spermatocytes, 600 spermatids, 400
spermatozoa
(2) 100 primary spermatocytes, 400 secondary
spermatocytes, 800 spermatids, 800
spermatozoa
(3) 100 primary spermatocytes, 200 secondary
spermatocytes, 400 spermatids, 400
spermatozoa
(4) 100 primary spermatocytes, 200 secondary
spermatocytes, 400 spermatids, 800
spermatozoa

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Rough Work
Rough Work
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