IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 1

Date : 19.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 2 Max. Marks : 720

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

answer sheet.

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS

CORRECT.

Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in

Section-B;

Marking Scheme :

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
1. A resistor of 4k with tolerance 10% is connected in parallel with a resistor of
6 k with tolerance 10%. The tolerance of the series combination is nearly
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 30% 4) 40%
2. When a current carrying coil is situated in a uniform magnetic field with its
magnetic moment antiparallel to the field.
(i) Torque on it is maximum (ii) Torque on it is minimum
(iii) PE of loop is maximum (iv) PE of loop is minimum
1) only i and ii are true 2) only ii and iii are true
3) only iii and iv are true 4) only i, ii and iii are true

3. A projectile is launched with an initial velocity v0   2m / s  iˆ   3m / s  ˆj . At the top of
trajectory, the velocity of the particle will be
1) 22  32 m/s 2) 2m/s 3) 3m/s 4) 5m/s
4. ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
The angle between the vectors 2i  3 j  k and 6i  9 j  3k is ˆ
1) 18 0o 2) 90o 3) 30o 4) 60 o
5. Acceleration A planar coil having 15 turns carries 20A current. The coil is
oriented with respect to the uniform magnetic field B  0.5iˆ T such that its
directed area is A  0.04iˆ m2 . The potential energy of the coil in the given
orientation is
1) 0 2) +0.72J 3) 6J 4) -1.44J
6. The X and Y components of a force F acting at 300 to x-axis are respectively:
F F F 3 3 1
1) F , 2) ,F 3) , F 4) F, F
2 2 2 2 2 2
7. The unit of magnetic flux is
1) Weber / m 2 2) Weber 3) Henry 4) Ampere/m
8. Kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 4 times. What will be the relation
between initial and final momentum?
p
1) p2  2 p1 2) p2  1 3) p2  p1 4) p2  4 p1
2
9. A child swinging on swing in sitting position stands up. The time period of the
swing will
1) increase 2) decrease
3) remain same 4) increase if the child is tall and decrease if the child is short
10. An instantaneous displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is
x  A cos t   / 4  . Its speed will be maximum at time
1) /4 2) /2 3) / 4) 2/
11. A centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometers are dipped in boiling water. The
water temperature is lowered until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers 140o.
What is the fall in temperature as registered by the centigrade thermometer?
1) 30o 2) 40o 3) 60o 4) 80o
12. Match the column I with column II.
.
Column – I Column - II
(A) AC generator (I) Presence of both L and C
.

(B) Transformer (II) Eelectromagnetic induction

(C) Resonance phenomenon to occur (III) Quality factor
(D) Sharpness of resonance (IV) Mutual inductance
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV II I III 2) II I III IV
3) II IV I III 4) IV III I II
13. When the momentum of a proton is changed by an amount P0, the corresponding
change in the de-Broglie wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then, the original
momentum of the proton was
1)p0 2) 100 p0 3) 400 p0 4) 4 p0
14. If Q, E and W denote respectively the heat added change in internal energy and
the work done in a closed cycle process, then
1) W = 0 2) Q = W = 0 3) E = 0 4) Q = 0

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
15. At constant volume, temperature is increased. Then
1) Collision on walls will be less
2) Number of collisions per unit time will increase
3) Collisions will be in straight lines
4) Collisions will not change
16. Consider a mixture of oxygen and hydrogen kept at room temperature. As
compared to a hydrogen molecule an oxygen molecule hits the wall.
1) with greater average speed 2) with smaller average speed
3) with greater average kinetic energy 4) with smaller average kinetic energy
17. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first
wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A.
If the length of the first wire is increased by l on applying a force F, how much
force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount?
1) 9F 2) 6F 3) 4F 4) F
18. The Young’s modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same length
and of same area of cross section, one of steel and another of brass are
suspended from the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the
same level, then the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the
ratio of
1) 4 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
19. Assertion (A): Kerosene Oil spreads out over water surface.
Reason (R): Surface tension is a surface phenomenon.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect and R is correct
20. Assertion (A): Detergents should have small angles of contact.
Reason (R): If angle of contact is small therefore detergents rises the clothes dust
in less time.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect and R is correct
21. Energy levels A,B,C of a certain atom correspond to increasing value of energy
i.e., E A  EB  EC . If 1 , 2 , 3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to
the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A respectively. Which of the following
statements is correct?

12
1) 3  1  2 2) 3  3) 1  2  3  0 4) 32  12  22
1  2
22. A body of weight 72N moves from the surface of earth at a height half of the
radius of earth, then gravitational force exerted on it will be
1) 36N 2) 32N 3) 144N 4) 50N
23. The displacement y of a wave travelling in the x-direction is given by
 
y  104 sin  600t  2 x   metre, where, x is expressed in metres and t in seconds.
 3
The speed of the wave-motion, in ms 1 is
1) 300 2) 600 3) 1200 4) 200
24. The probability of electrons to be found in the conduction band of an intrinsic
semiconductor at a finite temperature.
1) increases with increasing band gap
2) decreases with increasing band gap
3) decreases with increasing temperature
4) is independent of the temperature and band gap

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
25. Two particles which are initially at rest, move towards each other under the action
of their internal attraction. If their speeds are v and 2v at any instant, then the
speed of centre of mass of the system will be :-
1) v 2) 2v 3) Zero 4) 1.5v
26. If the earth were to suddenly contract to half its present size, without any change
in its mass, the duration of the new day will be
1) 18 hours 2) 30 hours 3) 6 hours 4) 12 hours
27. If a number of images of a candle flame are seen in a thick mirror, then
1) The first image is the brightest 2) The second image is the brightest
3) The last image is the brightest 4) The image are equally bright
28. A bird flying high up in air does not cast shadow in the ground because
1) The distance of bird large from earth
2) the size of the bird is smaller than earth
3) light rays fall almost normally on the bird
4) none of the above
29. In Young’s double slit experiment a slit is covered with thin film so that the
optical path difference introduced between coherent waves is 5. Then the new
position of central maxima will be at
1) The initial position of 5th maxima 2) The initial positon of 3rd minima
3) The initial position of 2nd minima 4) The initial position of 3rd maxima
30. The largest and the shortest distance of the earth from the sun are r1 and r2. Its
distance from the sun when it is at perpendicular to the major axis of the orbit
drawn from the sun is
r r r r 2r r r r
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
4 r1  r2 r1  r2 3
31. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges
in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third
spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in
contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from
both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is
1) F/4 2) 3F/4 3) F/8 4) 3F/8
32. Assertion (A) : If the bob of a simple pendulum is kept in a horizontal electric
field, its period of oscillation will remain same.
Reason (R) : The bob is charged and kept in horizontal electric field, then the
time period must be decreased.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) Both A and R are incorrect.
33. An uncharged capacitor is connected to a battery. On charging the capacitor.
1) All the energy supplied is stored in the capacitor
2) Half the energy supplied is stored in the capacitor
3) The energy stored depnds upon the capacity of the capacitor only
4) The energy stored depends upon the time for which the capacitor is charged
34. In case of parallel plate capacitor, the field will not be uniform at the outer edges
of the plates. This is called,
1) Frogging 2) Fringing 3) Jumping 4) Polarizations
35. 10,000 electrons are passing per minute through a tube of radius 1cm. The
resulting current is :
1) 10000A 2) 0.25 1016 A 3) 109 A 4) 0.5 1019 A

SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
36. There are 8.4 1022 free electrons per cm3 in copper. The current in the wire is
0.21A  e  1.6  10 19
C . Then the drifts velocity of electrons in a copper wire of
1 mm 2 cross section, will be :
1) 2.12 105 m/s 2) 0.78 105 m/s 3) 1.56 105 m/s 4) None of these

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
37. The specific resistance  of a circular wire of radius r. Resistance R and length l
 r2R
is given by   . Given  r  0.24  0.02  cm, R =  30  1  and l   4.80  0.1 cm .
l
The percentage error in  is nearly
1) 7% 2) 9% 3) 13% 4) 20%
1
38. The magnetic field at a distance x on the axis of a circular coil of radius R is th
8
of that at the centre. The value of x is
R 2R
1) 2) 3) R 3 4) R 2
3 3
39. The mathematical equation for magnetic field lines of force is
1) .B = 0 2) .B0.l 3) .B > 0 4) .B < 0
40. Five objects of different masses are simultaneously released vertically downwards
from height ‘h’ (in air). Which physical quantity associated with the objects will
change at the instant they strike the ground?(neglect the air resistance.)
1) Time 2) Momentum 3) Velocity 4) Acceleration
41. A coil of area 100 cm has 500 turns. Magnetic field of 0 . 1 weber / metre 2 is
2

perpendicular to the coil. The field is reduced to zero in 0.1 second. The induced
e.m.f. in the coil is
1) 1 V 2) 5 V 3) 50 V 4) Zero
42. A body moves from point A to B under the action of a force varying in magnitude
as shown in figure, then the work done is (force is expressed in newton and
displacement in metre)

1) 30J 2) 22.5J 3) 25J 4) 27J

43. A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure reading of 50 cm and 90 cm
of mercury at 0oC and 100oC, respectively. When the pressure reading is 60 cm
of mercury, the temperature is
1) 25oC 2) 40oC 3) 15oC 4) 12.5oC
44. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source of 220V, 50 Hz. The circuit
contain a resistance R  100 and an inductor of inductive reactance
X L  79.6  . The capacitance of the capacitor needed to maximize the average
rate at which energy is supplied will be _______  F
1) 30 2) 20 3) 40 4) 50
45. During an isothermal expansion, a confied ideal gas does -150J of work against
its surroundings. This implies that
1) 300J of heat has been added to the gas
2) no heat is transferred because the process is isothermal
3) 150J of heat has been added to the gas
4) 150J of heat has been removed from the gas
46. A proton and an -particle are accelerated through a potential difference of 100
V. The ratio of the wavelength associated with the proton to that associated with
an -particle is
1) 2 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 2 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1
2 2
47. In Young’s double slit experiment using a light of wavelength ‘’, 60 finges are
seen on a screen. If the wavelength of light is decreased by 50% then the number
of fringes on the same screen will be
1) 30 2) 60 3) 120 4) 90

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
48. According to Bohr’s postulates which of the following quantities takes discrete
values:
1) Kinetic energy 2) Potential energy 3) Angular momentum 4) Momentum
49. If the energy of a photon of sodium light ( = 589 nm) equals the band gap of
semiconductor, the minimum energy required to create electron hole pair
1) 1.1 eV 2) 2.1 eV 3) 3.2 eV 4) 1.5 eV
50. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded simultaneously, 4 beats
per second are heard. Now, some tape is attached on the prong of the fork 2.
When the tuning forks are sounded again, 6 beats per second are heard. If the
frequency of fork 1 is 200 Hz, then what was the original frequency of fork 2?
1) 200 Hz 2) 202 Hz 3) 196 Hz 4) 204 Hz

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. Considering 80% dissociation of electrolyte, the boiling point of 1.4 molal
aqueous AlCl3 solution is ______K. [Given Kb for H2O  0.52 K.mol1 kg and B.P. of
pure H 2O  100o C ]
1) 102.48 2) 375.48 3) 374.912 4) 102.912
52. Assertion (A): In water oxygen is more soluble at 298K than at 308K.
Reason (R) : As temperature increases Henry’s law constant (KH) decreases.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
53. HCHO and C6H5CHO can be distinguished from each other by the use of
1) Fehling’s solution 2) ammonical silver nitrate solution
3) Sodium Carbonate 4) alkaline KMnO4 solution
In the following electronic configuration ns 2  n  1 d  n  2  f 114 . If the value of
0 1
54.
(n-1)=6. Then the given general electronic configuration belongs to
1) Landhanides 2) d-block 3) Actinides 4) s-block
55. Among the following pairs of elements, the pair that is different from others is
1) Li and Mg 2) N and P 3) Be and Al 4) B and Si
56. The correct IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C is
1) tetra ethyl methane 2) 2 – ethyl pentane
3) 3,3 – Diethyl pentane 4) 2,2 – Dimethylpentane
57. If the solubility product of MOH is 11010 mol 2 .dm2 , then the pH of saturated
aqueous MOH solution will be
1) 12 2) 9 3) 6 4) 3
58. For an electron to have the same de Broglie wave length as that of Deuteron, its
velocity should be ______ times that of Deuteron.
1) 1836 2) 1/1836 3) 3672 4) 1/3672
59. At room temperture the eclipsed and the staggered forms of ethane cannot be
isolated because :
1) both the conformers are equally stable
2) they interconvert rapidly at room temperature.
3) there is a large energy barrier of rotation about the -bond
4) the energy difference between the conformers is larger
60. Azodye test is used for the identification of
1) Aliphatic - 1o -amine 2) Aromatic - 1o -amine
o
3) Aromatic - 2 -amine 4) Aliphatic - 2 o -amine
61. Red coloured compound formed by ethyl alcohol with cerric ammonium nitrate is
1) (C2H5)2Ce(NO3)6 2) (C2H5)2Ce(NO3)4 3)(C2H5OH)2Ce(NO3)4 4)(C2H5OH)2Ce(NO3)6
62. Which reagent is used to precipitate SO42 and Cl  ?
1) NaOH 2) Pb(NO3)2 3) BaSO4 4) KOH

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
63. Give the correct order of initial T or F for following statements.
(i) The order of repulsion between different pair of electrons is lp–lp>lp–bp>bp–bp.
(ii) In general as the number of lone pair of electrons on central atom increases,
value of bond angle from normal bond angle also increases.
(iii) The number of lone pair on O in H2O is 2 while on N in NH3 is 1.
(iv) The structures of xenon fluorides and xenon oxyfluorides could not be
explained on the basis of VSEPR theory.
1) T T T T 2) T F T F 3) T F T T 4) T F F F
64. The correct order of bond strength of N2(I), N 2  II  , N 2  III  is
 2

1) I > II > III 2) I > III > II 3) I < II < III 4) III < I < II
65. Which of the following is given in wrong order?
1) MgO > CaO > BaO → Lattice energy
2) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 → Ionic character
3) NaCl > NaBr > NaI → Dipole moment
4) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 → Bond angle
66. Statement –1 : Order of nucleophilicity of halides in polar protic solvent follows :
𝐼 ⊝ > 𝐵𝑟 ⊝ > 𝐶𝑙 ⊝ > 𝐹 ⊝
Statement –2 : In polar protic solvent anions are not solvated while in polar
aprotic solvent they are solvated.
1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

67. Statement –1 : is having higher heat of hydrogenation than

Statement –2 : 1st compound contains two -bonds while 2nd compound has
only one -bond.
1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is a correct explanation
for Statement-1
2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true, Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-1
3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
68. Assertion : In 2nd period elements, the p-block elements boron, carbon and
nitrogen show maximum covalency of 4 using 3s and 3p-orbitals.
Reason : In 2nd period elements d-orbitals are not present.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct
69. The IVA group element with highest & lowest first ionisation potential values.
1) C, Pb 2) C, Sn 3) C, Si 4) Si, Pb
70. The alkene R–CH = CH2 reacts readily with B2H6 and on oxidation with alkaline
hydrogen peroxide produces

71. In the reaction : CH 2  CH 2 

Hypochlorous
acid
 A , what is A?
1) CH 3CH 2OH 2) CH3  CH3 3) CH3CH2Cl 4) CH 2 Cl  CH 2OH
72.

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
73. A mixture of 1.0 mole of Al and 3.0 mole of Cl2 are allowed to react as :
2Al (s) + 3Cl2 (g)  2AlCl3 (s)
(a) Which is limiting reagent ?
(b) How many moles of AlCl3 are formed
(c) Moles of excess reagent left unreacted is
(1) (a) Al, (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (2) (a) Cl2, (b) 2.0 (c) 2.0
(3) (a) Al, (b) 0.5 (c) 1.5 (4) (a) Cl2, (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5
74. Volume of CO2 obtained at STP by the complete decompoisition of 9.85 g. BaCO3
is – (At. wt. of Ba = 137)
(1) 2.24 lit (2) 1.12 lit (3) 0.84 lit (4) 0.56 lit
75. Assertion (A) : Reaction of NaOH with chlorine is a disporoportionation reaction.
Reason (R) : All redox reactions are disproportionation recations.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
76. Which of the following is suitable to synthesize chlorobenzene?
1) Benzene, Cl2, anhydrous AlCl3 2) Phenol, NaNO2, HCl, CuCl

3) 4)
77. The hydrolysis reaction that takes place at the slowest rate, among the following
is

78. The minimum bond angle is found in which of the following hydrides ?
1) H 2O 2) H 2 Se 3) H 2 S 4) H 2Te
79. Noble gases have very low melting and boiling points because
1) They have high ionization enthalpy
2) They have more positive electron gain enthalpy
3) The type of interatomic forces operating are weak metallic bonds
4) The type of interatomic forces operating are weak dispersion forces
80. For a reaction, A  product, the graph drawn between concentration of product
formed on y-axis and time on x-axis gives a straight line with +ve slope and
passing through the origin. The slope of the straight line is 0.04 mol.lit 1.min 1 . If
the initial concentration of the reactant is 2M, then half life of the reaction is
________ min.
1) 50 2) 25 3) 30 4) 45
81. For a reaction, at 25 the rate constant of the reaction is 1.6 104 mol1.lit.S1 and at
o

35o C , the rate constant of same reaction is 4.8 104 mol1.lit.S1 . Then the order of
the reaction is _______
1) 3 2) 1 3) 0 4) 2

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
82. In the following reaction, A and B are respectively.

1) 2)

3) 4)

83. Phenyl magnesium bromide reacts with methanol to give

1) a mixture of anisole and Mg(OH)Br
2) a mixture of benzene and Mg(OMe)Br
3) a mixture of toluene and Mg(OH)Br 4) a mixture of phenol and Mg(Me)Br
84. The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a bomb calorimeter is
670.48 kcal mol1 at 298K. What is E at 298K for the reaction?
1) 760 kcal mol1 2) 670.48 kcal mol1 3) 760 kcal mol1 4) 670.48 kcal mol1
85. Energy required to dissociate 4g of gaseous hydrogen into free gaseous atoms is
208 kcal at 25o C . The bond energy of H – H bond will be :
1) 1.04 cal 2) 10.4 kcal 3) 104 kcal 4) 1040 kcal
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
86. Which of the following statemetns are correct?
A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is greater than that of manganese
B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block elements get stabilized by
oxides.
C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen from dilute acid.
D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is 4.9BM
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B, C only 2) C, D only 3) A, B, D only 4) A, B only
87. The paif of lanthanides in which both elements have higher IP3 than expected
trend is
1) Eu, Gd 2) Eu, Yb 3) Lu, Yb 4) Dy, Gd
88. Select the structure of chromium complex formed when the toluene reacts with
chromyl chloride, which gives benzaldehyde on hydrolysis.

CH(OCrCl2)2 CH2(OCrOHCl2)
1) 2)

CH(OCrOHCl2)2 CH(OCrOH2Cl2)2
3) 4)

89. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their boiling points.
CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CHO, CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH , H 5C2OC2 H 5 , CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 3
I II III IV
1) IV<I<II<III 2) IV<III<II<I 3) IV<III<I<II 4) IV<II<III<I
90. One mole of an octahedral complex, PtCl4.4NH3 reacts with excess of aqueous
AgNO3 to produce ____ moles of precipitate.(Assume all NH3 molecules act as
ligands).
1) 3 2) 4 3) Zero 4) 2

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91. Match list – I with list – II
List – I (complex ion) List – II (Magnetic moment)
(A) Cr  CN 6  
3  (I) 4.9BM

(B) Cr  H 2 O 6 
2
(II) 5.92BM

(C)  Mn  H 2 O 6 
2
(III) 3.9BM

(D) Co  CN 6 
3
(IV) 0 BM
.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) I III II IV 2) I II III IV
3) II I III IV 4) III I II IV
92. Following complexes are given
3 3 3
 Fe  H 2 O 6   Fe  NH 3 6   Fe  CN 6 
(i) (ii) (iii)
Order of stability of these complexes will be
1) (ii)  (iii)  (i ) 2) (ii) < (i) < (iii) 3) (i) < (ii) < (iii) 4) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
93. A 0.02M a weak base, MOH is 0.1% ionized. Then the pH of the solution is
1) 9.3 2) 8.3 3) 10.3 4) 11.3
94. Identify the correct set from the following for fundamental particles
List – A List - B
(A) Decreasing order of masses (I) 
e  pn
(B) Decreasing order of e/m values (II) p  e  n
(C) Decreasing order of de-Broglie’s (III) n  p  e 
wavelength with same velocities
(D) Decreasing order of uncertainty (IV) n  e  p
.
in velocity when ∆x is same
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) III I IV I 2) III I I I
3) III IV II I 4) III II IV I
95. The pH of an aqueous solution of CH3COONa of concentration C(molarity) is given
by
1 1 1 1 1
1) 7  pK a  log C 2) pK w  pKb  log C
2 2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1 1 1
3) pK w  pKb  log C 4) pK w  pK a  log C
2 2 2 2 2 2
96. Grignard reagent & acetyl chloride doesnot react with
1) RNH2 2) R2NH 3) R3N 4) NH3
97. Hinsberg’s method to separate amines is based on the use of
1) Benzene sulphonyl chloride 2) Benzene sulphonic acid
3) Ethyl oxalate 4) Acetyl chloride
98. Assertion (A) : In electrolytic cell oxidation takes place at anode while in galvanic
cell oxidation takes place at cathodic half cell.
Reason (R) : In electrolytic cell anode is positive while in galvanic cell cathode is
positive.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
99. During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid with Platinum electrode the
reaction takes place at cathode is
1) Oxidation 2) Reduction
3) Either oxidation or reduction 4) Neither oxidation nor reduction
100. Which of the following reaction of glucose cannot be explained by its open chain
structure?
1) Glucose reacts with HCN forms cyanohydrin
2) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.
3) Glucose is oxidized by Br2 water to form gluconic acid.
4) On prolonged heating with HI, glucose form n-hexane.

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BOTANY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
101. The earliest scientific classification of organisms by Aristotle based on
1) Evolutionary relationship 2) Reproductive features
3) Simple morphological characters 4) Presence / absence of cell wall.
102. The two kingdoms consistently seen in all different classification systems
1) Monera and Protista 2) Plantae and Animalia
3) Protista and Fungi 4) Fungi and Animalia
103. Identify the mismatch w.r.t. nutrition
1) Monerans - Autotrophs and heterotrophs
2) Protists - Autotrophs and heterotrophs
3) Plantae - Photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs
4) Fungi - Heterotrophs
104. Toddy a x of some parts of south India is made by fermenting from Y .
X Y
1) Non-alcohol drink - Xylem sap of palms
2) Traditional drink - Phloem sap of palms
3) Traditional drink - Cell sap of dicots
4) Non-alcohol drink - Xylem and phloem sap of palms
105. Which of the following are used to make food material by fermentation?
I) Milk II) Fish III) Potato IV) Bamboo-Shoot
V) Soya beans
1) I, II, III, V 2) II, III, IV, V 3) I, II, III, IV 4) I, II, IV, V
106. Match different organisms in column I with their uses in column – II and select
the correct option from the given below codes.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Lactobacillus acidophilus (I) Formation of dough
(B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (II) Roquefort cheese
(C) Propionibacterium shermani (III) Conversion of milk into curd
.
(D) Ripened by specific fungi (IV) Formation of swiss cheese
.

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) III I II IV 2) III I IV II
3) I III IV II 4) I III II IV
107. Classification on the basis of chemical constituents of plants is known as
1) molecular taxonomy 2) numerical taxonomy
3) chemotaxonomy 4) cytotaxonomy
108. Consider the following statements
I. Sexual reproduction takes place through fusion of two isogametes called as
Isogamy (e.g., Ulothrix and Spirogyra)
II. Ulothrix have motile and Spirogyra have nonmotile isogametes.
III. Sexual reproduction takes place through fusion of two dissimilar gametes
called as Anisogamy (Eudorina).
IV. Fusion between one large, nonmotile (static) female gamete and a smaller,
motile male gamete is termed oogamous, e.g., Volvox, Fucus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I, II, and IV are correct 2) I, II, III and IV are correct
3) I, II and V are correct 4) II, and IV are correct
109. Pick the mismatched pair regarding Pteridophytes.
1) Psilopsida Liverworts
2) Lycopsida Selaginella, Lycopodium
3) Sphenopsida Equisetum
4) Pteropsida Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum
110. Which is not a basic step in genetically modifying an organism?
1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
2) Introduction of the identified protein into the host
3) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and transfer of the DNA to its
progeny
4) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host

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111. How many types of enzymes are responsible for restricting the growth of
bacteriophage in E.Coli?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
112. The first restriction endonuclease A, whose functioning depend on a specific DNA
nucleotide was isolated and characterized B years later
1) A: Hind I, B-5 2) A-Hind-II, B-4 3) A: Hind-II, B-5 4) A-Hind-III, B-5
113. Statement-I: Key tools in r-DNA technology are: restriction endonuclease,
polymerase, ligase, vectors
Statement-II: r-DNA will be created without ligase
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
3) Both Statements I and II are true
4) Both Statements I and II are false
114. Match Column-I with Column-II and find the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
P) Restriction enzymes a) 230
Q) Strains of bacteria b) Restriction enzyme
R) Hind-II c) Hind-II
S) 6 base pairs d) 900
1) P-d, Q-a, R-b, S-c 2) P-c, Q-a, R-d, S-b
3) P-b, Q-a, R-c, S-d 4) P-d, Q-C, R-a, S-b
115. Adventitious roots are present in all, except
1) Monstera 2) Banyan tree 3) Mustard 4) Grasses
116. How many of the following features are associated with family Fabaceae?
(i) Marginal placentation
(ii) Non endospermous seeds
(iii) Leaf tendrils
(iv) Monoadelphous stamens
(v) Vexillary aestivation
(vi) Actinomorphic bisexual flowers
1) Six 2) Four 3) Five 4) Three
117. Statement –I :In members of Poaceae, the spikelet bears sessile flowers on a
short axis called rachilla.
Statement –II :Each sessile flower is surrounded by two scales called lemma,
which represents the bract.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are true
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are false
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
118. Match the following :
Column-I Column-II
a) Perigynous flower (i) Sunflower
b) Epipetalous condition (ii) Plum
c) Apocarpous ovary (iii) Brinjal
d) Basal placentation (iv) Lotus
1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iii) 2) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) 4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
119. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. transformation experiment conducted by
Frederick Griffith in 1928.
1) Heat killed S-strain bacteria when injected into mice, mice survived
2) R-strain bacteria when injected into mice, mice died
3) S-strain bacteria when injected into mice, mice died
4) S-strain bacteria (heat killed) + R-strain bacteria (live) when injected into mice,
mice died
120. During experiment with bacteriophage, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952)
used
1) P32 labelled protein coat and S 35 labeled DNA
2) P32 labelled DNA and S 35 protein coat
3) P32 labelled bacteria and S 35 labelled bacteriophage
4) P32 labelled bacteriophage and S 35 labelled bacteria

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121. Three sequential steps of Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase experiments were
1) Centrifugation  Blending  Infection
2) Blending  Centrifugation  Infection
3) Infection  Blending  Centrifugation
4) Infection  Centrifugation  Blending
122. In ‘post-transcriptional’ processing, primary transcript is modified in 3 steps.
Which is not true about it?
1) Modification of 5 end by adding methyl guanosine triphosphate
2) Splicing by spliceosome
3) Polyadenylation at 3 end
4) Modification of 3 end by capping
123. RNA splicing and RNA capping
1) Are common features of both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
2) Are pre-transcriptional processes found only in eukaryotes
3) Are post-transcriptional processes found in prokaryotes
4) Are post-transcriptional processes found in eukaryotes
124. ‘Beads-on-string’ is the structure which is composed of
1) Nucleosome + RNA 2) Histones + RNA
3) DNA + nonhistone octamer 4) Histones + DNA
125. The trichomes in the shoot system are usually.
1) multicellular only 2) unicellular
3) preventing water loss due to transpiration 4) 1 & 3
126. Assertion : In roots the vascular bundle arrangement is called radial.
Reason : In roots xylem and phloem within a vascular bundle are arranged in
alternate manner along the different radii.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
127. Which of the statements given below is not true about the formation of Annual
Rings in trees?
1) Annual rings are not prominent in trees of temperate regions
2) Annual rings are a combination of spring wood and autumn wood produced in
a year
3) Differential activity of cambium causes light and dark bands of tissue-early
and late wood respectively
4) Activity of cambium depends upon variation in climate
128. Transmission of genetic characters from parents to offspring is
1) Variation 2) Heridity 3) Blending 4) All the above
129. Mark the odd one (w.r.t. dominant trait in garden pea)
1) Yellow pod 2) Inflated pod 3) Axial flower 4) Yellow seed
130. All traits can express themselves in heterozygous condition, except.
1) Tall 2) Violet 3) Round seed 4) Wrinkled seed
131. In pisum sativum experimental error is minimum because
1) They are self pollinated
2) The hybrids produced are fertile
3) Large number of off springs are obtained 4) They are pure lines
132. Assertion (A): Dominant character is expressed in both homozygous and
heterozygous form.
Reason (R): For several generations, true breeding lines have stable traits of
inheritance.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect. 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
133. Which of the given cell organelles contain(s) ribosomes?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Chloroplast
(C) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
(D) Lysosome
1) Only (A) and (B) 2) All except (D)
3) Both (A) and (D) 4) Only (C)

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134. Column I Column II
(a) Stroma of chloroplast i. Nucleoprotein
(b) Cytoskeleton ii. Flat, disc-shaped cisternae
(c) Ribosome iii. Contains enzymes required for synthesis of proteins
(d) Golgi apparatus iv. Help in motility and mechanical support
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i.
135. In lac-operon, permease is coded by
1) lac-y 2) lac-z 3) lac-a 4) lac-i

SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
136. An example of insect pollinated flower, in which flower provides safe place to lay
eggs for insect is :-
1) Vallisneria 2) Salvia 3) Amorphophallus 4) Maize
137. Endosperm development precedes embryo development, because
1) Embryo provides nutrition to developing endosperm
2) Endosperm provides nutrition to developing embryo
3) Endosperm development starts after embryo development
4) All of the above
138. During embryo sac formation how many nuclei out of eight nucleus go through
cytokinesis or wall formation?
1) All eight 2) Two 3) Six 4) Four
139. Why same restriction endonuclease is employed to cut the cloning vector and
source DNA?
(a) Resultant DNA fragments have same kind of ‘sticky-ends’.
(b) Resultant DNA fragments have complementary sequences.
(c) Allows bond formation between the resultant DNA fragments.
Choose the correct option.
1) a only 2) a and b only 3) a and c only 4) a, b and c
140. Statement –I : If the tissue is fully burnt all the carbon compounds oxidised to
gaseous form and remaining is called ash.
Statement –II : This ash contains inorganic elements like calcium, sulphate,
phosphate and magnesium.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are wrong
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong, Statement-II is correct
141. Arithmetic growth can be expressed are
1) L1 = L0+rt 2) L1 = L0.rt 3) W0=W1ert 4) W1=W0ert
142. First discovered Gibberellins
1) GA1 2) GA2 3) GA3 4) GA4
143. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. abscisic acid?
1) It helps in closing of stomata
2) In most situations it acts as an antagonistic hormone to gibberelins
3) It promotes bud dormancy
4) It helps in sprouting in potato tubers
144. Consider the given statement w.r.t. to meiosis.
Statement I : Conservation of specific chromosome number.
Statement II : Decreases genetic variability
Statement III : It is reduction division.
Select the correct option.
1) Statement-I, Statement-II & Statement III – all arecorrect
2) Statement-I and Statement-III are correct but Statement II is incorrect
3) Statement-I & Statement-II are correct but Statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement-I, Statement-II & Statement III, all are incorrect
145. Statement I :Prophase of meiosis is longer & complex.
Statement II :Prophase of mitosis follows S, G2 phase of interphase.
1) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

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146. Fill in the blanks:
1) Light saturation occurs at ___a____ per cent of full sunlight.
2) There is a ____b____ relationship between incident light and CO2 fixation rates
at low light intensities.
3) C3 plants show saturation at about ___c___ lL1 while C4 corresponds to
saturation about ____d_____ lL1 .
1) a – 2 – 5%, b – sigmoid, c – 350, d – 460
2) a – 50 %, b – linear, c – 460, d – 350
3) a – 10%, b – sigmoid, c – 360, d – 450
4) a – 10%, b – linear, c – 450, d - 360
147. The Floral diagram represents which one of the following families?

1) Fabaceae 2) Brassicaceae 3) Solanaceae 4) Liliaceae

148. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the
following statements is not correct.
1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto 0.05% can enhance CO2
fixation.
2) C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while
C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum.
3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be growh in CO2–enriched
atmospphere for higher yield.
4) CO2 is major limiting factor for photosynthesis
149. Fate of pyruvic acid during aerobic respiration is
1) Lactic acid fermentation 2) Alcoholic acid fermentation
3) Oxidative decarboxylation 4) Oxidation only
150. In which of the following reactions of glycolysis, oxidation takes place?
1) Glucose 6-PO4 to fructose 6-PO4
2) Glyceraldehydes 3-phosphate to 1, 3-diphosphoglycerate
3) 1,3-diphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate
4) 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate

ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
151. Herbaceous lycopods evolved during which era
1) Cenozoic 2) Paleozoic 3) Mesozoic 4) Proterozoic
152. Which is not correct with respect to human kidney?
1) The peripheral region is called cortex and central medulla.
2) Malpighian corpuscle is present in the cortex region
3) Blood enters glomerulus through efferent arterioles
4) The concave part of kidney is called hilum
153. The maximum volume of air you can forcefully exhale after taking the deepest
possible breath is called
1) Tidal volume 2) Total respiratiory volume
3) Residual volume 4) Vital capacity
154. Amazon rainforests in South America is home to more than ______species of
plants and _____ species of fishes.
1) 3000; 40,000 2) 1500; 2500 3) 40,000; 3000 4) 427; 378

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155. Which of the statements given below are correct?
I. In earlier days, insulin extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs
was more efficient than genetically engineered insulin.
II. PCR technique is being used for the detection of HIV and genetic mutations, in
suspected cancer patients.
III. ADA deficiency is treated by gene therapy.
1) I and II 2) I and III 3) II and III 4) I, II and III
156. Dorsal part of frog is _____________ and ventral part is
1) Olive green; uniformly pale yellow 2) Olive green; uniformly dark yellow
3) Olive green; nonuniformly pale yellow 4) Olive green; nonuniformly dark yellow
157. In cockroach, the body inspite of being covered by an exoskeleton of strong
chitinous cuticle, it remains flexible due to
1) Tergites 2) Sternites 3) Pleurites 4) Arthrodial membrane
158. Assertion : Nerve impulse can never be transmitted from dendrite or cell body of
of one neuron to the axon of the next neuron, across a synapse.
Reason : Neurotransmitters released into synaptic cleft.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is false, but reason is true
4) Both assertion and reason are false
159. The correct differnces between exponential and logistic growth rates is
1) Exponential growth depends on birth and death rates and logistic does not
2) In logistic growth, emigration and immigration are unimportant
3) That both are affected by density, but logistic growth is slower
4) That only logistic growth reflects density dependent effects on births a deaths
160. Find out correct match (w.r.t. urine formation)
1) Glucose – Active reabsorption 2) Amino acids – passive transport
3) Urea – Active reabsorption 4) Water – Active reabsorption
161. What happens when blood groups are not compatible during blood transfusion?
1) Formation of eosinophils 2) Only neutrophils are destroyed
3) Destruction of RBCs 4) Formation of basophils
162. Assertion : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environment for the
development and maturation of T-lymphocytes.
Reason : 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body is MALT
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
4) Both the assertion and reason are false
163. After the entry of female reproductive tract, energy source of sperm is
1) Secreted by female accessory glands
2) Secreted by male accessory glands
3) Secreted by male primary sex organ
4) Glucose, a secreted by female accessory tract
164. Find out the correct match with respect to HGP.
1) Dystrophin gene  2.4 billion bases 2) Chromosome-12698 genes
3) Chromosome-Y 231 genes 4) SNPs  1.4 billion locations
165. In which one of the following, the animals, its two characters and its
class/phylum are correctly matched?
Animal Two characters Phylum
1 Ascaris i) Muscular pharynx Aschelminthes
ii) Metamarism
2 Comb jelly i) Comb plates help in locomotion Ctenophora
3 Snail i) File – like radula Arthropoda
ii) Skin forms mantle over visceral hump
4 Jelly fish i) Cnidoblasts for defence Porifera
ii) Coelenteron with a single opening

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166. Which among the following hormones stimulates RBC production?
1) Erythopoietin 2) Glucagon 3) Cortisol 4) Both 1 & 3
167. In a general ecological context the Pyramid of biomass represent, one of the
following feature:
1) A sharp increase in biomass at higher trophic levels
2) A sharp decrease in biomass at higher trophic levels
3) An equal rate of biomass at all trophic levels
4) a random distribution of biomass at lower trophic levels
168. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of
common characteristics:
1) Will decrease 2) Will increase
3) Remain same 4) May increase or decrease
169. Select the organism that occupies at more than one trophic level.
1) Phytoplankton 2) Tiger 3) Rabbit 4) Human
170. Pick up the correct match.
Column-I. Column-II
(a) IVF. (1) 8-celled embryo into fallopian tube
(b) GIFT. (2) Test tube baby program
(c) AI. (3) Ovum into oviduct
(d) ZIFT. (4) Performed after in vitro fertilization
(e) ET (5) Introducing semen into vagina
1) a-5, b-2, c-1, d-3, e-4 2) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-5, e-1
3) a-2, b-3, c-5, d-1, e-4 4) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-5, e-3
171. Match Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
A. Gross primary productivity I. Self-sustainable ecosystem
B. Net primary productivity II. Artificial ecosystem
C. Pond III. Oxygen requiring process
D. Crop field IV. Photosynthetic production
E. Decomposition V. Available to consumers
Options:
1) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I, E-III 2) A-IV, B-V, C-III, D-II, E-I
3) A-IV, B-V, C-I, D-II, E-III 4) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-II, E-III
172. An individual inspire or expire 6000 to 8000 mL of air per minute. What is the
rate of breathing per minute in that individual? Given that the Tidal volume is
500 mL.
1) 10 – 16 times/min 2) 6 – 8 times/min
3) 12 – 16 times/min 4) 11 – 15 times/min
173. Statement – I : The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull
than that of adult chimpanzee skull.
Statement – II : Due to continental drift South America joined North America
1)Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
174. The breathing centre initiates ventilation in response to –
1) A decrease in air pressure 2) A decrease in O2
3) An increase in CO2 4) The rate of gas exchange in the alveoli
175. Renal tubule begins with __________
1) A tubular PCT 2) Highly coiled LH
3) A doule walled cup-like structure 4) Cortex
176. Select the total number of true statements from the following :
(1) Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerized protein.
(2) Many monomeric proteins called meromyosins constitute one thick filament.
(3) The HMM component, i.e, the head and short arm projects outwards at
regular distance and angle from each other from the surface of a polymerized
myosin filment and is known as cross arm.
(4) The globular head is an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP
and active sites for actin.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3

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177. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign company, through such varieties
have been present in Inida for a long time. This is related to
1) Co-667 2) Sharbati Sonora 3) Lerma Rojo 4) Basmati
178. The below given figure is

1) Brachiosaurus 2) Stegosaurus 3) Pteranodon 4) Triceratops

179. Assertion: A genotype with three dominant and three recessive alleles will have
intermediate skin colour
Reason: In polygenic inheritance the effect of each allele is additive.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false 4) Assertion is false and reason is true
180. The following given are the symptoms of a Mendelian disorders.
a. Skin pigmentation
b. Change in shape of RBC
c. Anemia
d. Mental retardation
e. Problem in blood clotting
From the above, the number of symptoms that matches PKU are,
1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4
181. Find the incorrect statement from the following.
1) constant environment promote niche specialization
2) key species are those which drive major ecosystem functions
3) increase in diversity generally increases productivity
4) increase steepness in species area relationship curve decreases species
richness in a given area
182. Excitement, pleasure, rage reactions regulated by
1) Thalamus and hypothalamus 2) Thalamus and limbic lobes
3) Limbic system with hypothalamus 4) Hypothalamus with cerebral aqueduct
183. The major threat to many marine fish population is
1) Habitat loss 2) Over – exploitation
3) Co-extinction 4) Fragmentation of habitat
184. Thin tubes that carry oxygen from the air to all the parts in cockroach constitute
1) Tracheal system 2) Haemolymph 3) Lungs 4) Gills
185. The maximum number of individuals of a population that can be sustained
indefinitely in a given habitat, represents its
1) Carrying capacity (C) 2) Carrying capacity (N)
3) Carrying capacity (K) 4) Carrying capacity (D)
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
186. Which of the following is correct?
1) Lymph = Plasma + WBC’s + RBC’s
2) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
3) Neuron = Cyton + Dendron + Axon + Synapse
4) Blood = Plasma + RBC’s + WBC’s + Platelets
187. What is shown in the figure?

1) Sunflower plant 2) Poppy plant 3) Datura plant 4) Tobacco plant

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
188. Choose the incorrect w.r.t. corpus luteum.
1) It is formed from, the remaining parts of the graafian follicles (after the
ovulation)
2) It secretes a hormone, which is essential for maintenance of the endometrium
3) Menstruation occur due to degeneration of corpus luteum
4) It secretes progesterone hormone only
189. Among non-infectious diseases ______________ is the major cause of death
1) Diabetes 2) Blood pressure 3) Heart Failure 4) Cancer
190. The T wave of the ECG represents ________
1) ventricular depolarization 2) atrial depolarization
3) ventricular repolarization 4) atrial systole
191. Which of the following statements are correct or incorrect regading class
Amphibia?
i. Has body divisible into head and trunk. Tail is present in some amphibians.
ii. Show respiration only by gills.
iii. Has scales in all its members.
iv. Can lead dual life (aquatic and terrestrial)
v. The heart is two chambered
1) All are correct 2) Only i and iv are correct
3) Only III is correct 4) Only ii is incorrect
192. The __________ hormone stimulates secretion of bile juice from gall bladder
1) Gastrin 2) Secretin
3) Cholecystokinin 4) Gastric Inhibitory peptide(GIP)
193. The test-tube Baby Programme employs which one of the following techniques?
1) Intra uterine insemination (IUI).
2) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT).
3) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT).
4) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).
194. Choose the pattern of inheritance of the below given pedigree.

1) X linked dominant 2) X linked recessive

3) Autosomal dominant 4) Autosomal recessive
195. Which of the following statements about the striated muscles is correct?
(1) Thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are held together in the middle by a thin
fibrous membrane called ‘M’ line.
(2) In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it.
(3) The thin filaments are firmly attached to the ‘Z’ line.
(4) This central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called
the ‘H’ zone.
1) 2 and 4 2) Only 2 3) 1 and 4 only 4) All of these
196. Assertion (A): The most unique mammalian characteristic is the presence of
mammary glands except ornithorhynchus.
Reason (R): They have well developed lungs for air breathing except aquatic
animals.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) Both A and R incorrect 4) A is incorrect and R is correct

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GT - 1 (SET-2) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-19.04.2024
197. Choose from the following the features that matches to human being.
a. The number of chromosomes in male and female are equal
b. Y- chromosome is smaller than X-chromosome
c. Female heterogamety is seen.
d. Sex chromosomes present in males are X and Y
e. Sex chromosomes present in females are X and X
1) a,b,e 2) a,b,c,d 3) a,b,c 4) a,b,d,e
198. Satellite DNA is classified based on:
1) base composition 2) length of the segment
2) Number of repeating units 4) All of the above
199. The Helper T-cells decrease in HIV patient during this period the person suffer
from
Bouts of fever b) Diarrhoea c) Weight loss d) Allergy
1) a,b 2) a,b,c 3) a,b,d 4) b,d
200. Which of the following lived near east and central Asia
1) Homo erectus 2) Homo habilis 3) Neanderthal man 4) Dryopithecus

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