Revision 2nd term

Biology
 Questions
1. All of the following statements about evolution are true EXCEPT
(A) evolution occurs more rapidly at some times than at others
(B) evolution is directed by changes in the environment
(C) evolution is not always from the simple to the complex but may
act in such a way that complex forms give rise to simpler ones
(D) single organisms, as well as populations, do commonly evolve
(E) evolution is not always a slow, gradual process

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2. According to the Hardy-Weinberg theory, which of the
following represents a homozygous dominant individual?

3. All of the following are part of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem,

which describes a stable, non evolving population, EXCEPT
(A) natural selection exists
(B) mating must be random
(C) no mutations can occur in the population
(D) the population must be isolated from others
(E) the population must be large
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4. Which of the following is a transition fossil?
(A) Reptiles (B) Amphibians
(C) Archaeopteryx (D) Fish (E) Apes

5. All of the following are part of Darwin’s theory of natural

selection EXCEPT
(A) populations tend to overpopulate
(B) in any population, there is unequal ability among individuals
to survive and to reproduce
(C) only the best-fit individuals survive and get to pass on their
genes
(D) overpopulation leads to a struggle for existence
(E) organisms change in response to a need in the environment

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6. All the following are true of homologous structures EXCEPT
(A) they demonstrate common ancestry
(B) an example is the wing of the bat and a person’s arm
(C) an example is the wing of the bat and the wing of a fly
(D) they are not the same thing as analogous structures
(E) an example is the whale’s lateral fin and a person’s arm

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Choose from the list of terms below :
(A) Charles Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) Stephen J. Gould and Niles Eldridge
(D) Oparin and Haldane
(E) Hardy-Weinberg

7. Inheritance of acquired traits

8. Use and disuse
9. Theory of punctuated equilibrium
10. Populations tend to overpopulate
11. Hypothesized that under conditions that existed in early
Earth, organic molecules could form
12. Survival of the fittest

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13. The age of Earth according to scientific evidence is closest to
(A) 4,000 years old
(B) 600 years old
(C) 6,000 years old
(D) 4 million years old
(E) 4 billion years old

14. Pangaea is a
(A) transition fossil
(B) molecule that is commonly analyzed and used to show which
organisms are related
(C) species of bacteria that is resistant to all antibiotics
(D) vestigial structure
(E) single supercontinent that existed 250 million years ago
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15. Which of the following is an example of divergent evolution?
(A) Wildebeests separated from each other by a newly formed
river are now separate species.
(B) Whales and fish have a streamlined appearance because they
evolved in the same environment.
(C) Insects and the flowers they pollinate have evolved together
over millions of years.
(D) Polydactyly, having extra fingers, is common in the Amish of
Pennsylvania.
(E) Change occurs in the gene pool due to chance.

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Choose from the terms below.
(A) Geographic isolation
(B) Polyploidy
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) Adaptive radiation
(E) Directional selection
16. Darwin discovered 14 species of finches on the Galapagos
Islands that all evolved from one original species of finch
17. Having extra sets of chromosomes in every cell
18. The peppered moths are one example
19. Two populations of one species evolved into two separate
species after being separated for millions of years by a canyon
20. A very small dog and a very large dog cannot mate because
of the enormous size difference of the two animals
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 Questions
Refer to the terms below.
(A) Prokaryotes (B) Fungi
(C) Plants (D) Animals (E) Protista
1. Contains the most diverse eukaryotic organisms
2. Heterotrophs whose cell walls consist of chitin
3. Included in the domain Bacteria
4. Heterotrophs that reproduce sexually with a dominant diploid
stage
5. All are autotrophic eukaryotes
6. The Archaea domain includes these
7. The heterotrophic part of any lichen
8. Includes amoebas, paramecia, and euglenas
9. Eukaryotic cells that play a vital role in recycling nutrients in an
ecosystem
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10. All of the following are true of Protista EXCEPT
(A) all are heterotrophs
(B) all are eukaryotes
(C) they include amoeba, paramecia, and euglena
(D) some move by pseudopods, some by cilia, and some by
flagella
(E) they include the widest variety of organisms of any kingdom

11. Which of the following contains organisms capable of

surviving extreme conditions of heat and salt concentration?
(A) Archaea (B) Animalia
(C) Protista (D) Fungi (E) Plants

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Refer to this list of animals below.
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Nematodes
(C) Chordates (D) Echinoderms (E) Cnidarians
12. Roundworms, all are parasites
13. Includes the flatworm planaria
14. Jellyfish and hydra
15. All organisms in the phyla contain stinging cells
16. Include mammals
17. Include monotremes and marsupials

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18. All of the following are characteristics of primates EXCEPT
(A) opposable thumbs
(B) front-facing eyes
(C) nurture their young for a long time
(D) examples are dolphins and whales
(E) usually have single births

19. The ectoderm becomes the

(A) nervous system (B) digestive organs
(C) blood (D) bones (E) muscles

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20. The endoderm becomes the
(A) skin (B) digestive organs
(C) blood (D) bone (E) muscle

21. All of the following contribute to variation in a population

EXCEPT
(A) mutation (B) isolation
(C) sexual reproduction (D) conjugation
(E) genetic drift

22. All of the following are mammals EXCEPT

(A) tiger (B) ape (C) kangaroo
(D) blue jay (E) duck-billed platypus

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23. Which of the following exhibits internal fertilization, external
development of the embryo, few eggs, and much parenting?
(A) Mammals (B) Amphibians (C) Reptiles
(D) Birds (E) Fish

24. In what way would the process be different in a eukaryotic

cell?
(A) Eukaryotic cells do not carry out transcription.
(B) Eukaryotic cells do not carry out replication.
(C) Eukaryotic cells do not carry out both transcription and
replication.
(D) Eukaryotic cells carry out both processes, but they do not
occur at the same time.
(E) Eukaryotic cells carry out both these processes in the Golgi
body

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25 . All of the following are true of organisms classified in the
domain Archaea EXCEPT
(A) one example is E. coli, the organism that lives in the human
gut
(B) they can thrive in environments with very high temperatures
(C) they can thrive in environments with high salt concentrations
(D) they have no internal membranes
(E) their DNA can contain introns

26. The human population today can best be described as

(A) declining (B) growing linearly
(C) growing exponentially (D) at the carrying capacity
(E) fluctuating seasonally

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27. This embryo could NOT develop into a(n)
(A) sea star (B) flatworm (C) lobster
(D) Snake (E) earthworm

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Questions

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1. Sexually reproducing organisms show greater variation than asexually
reproducing ones because
(A) they exhibit fewer mutations
(B) they exhibit a greater mutation rate
(C) asexually reproducing organisms do not have internal membranes
(D) their alleles recombine
(E) they are larger

2. Several species of rhododendron are growing in the same area. All of

the plants are capable of hybridization, but none ever do because some of
the plants produce pollen in early June while others produce pollen in late
June. This best describes an evolutionary process known as
(A) survival of the fittest (B) overpopulation
(C) reproductive isolation (D) artificial selection
(E) stabilizing selection

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3. All of the following contribute to variation in a population
EXCEPT
(A) mutation (B) isolation
(C) sexual reproduction (D) conjugation
(E) genetic drift

4. Oxygen released by plants comes from

(A) air (B) carbon dioxide
(C) glucose (D) chlorophyll (E) water

5. All of the following are mammals EXCEPT

(A) tiger (B) ape (C) kangaroo
(D) blue jay (E) duck-billed platypus

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6. Which of the following is a density-independent factor?
(A) Disease (B) Famine (C) Floods
(D) Predation (E) Increase in toxins in the environment

7. A gene pool in a population of jackrabbits in a field remained

constant for many generations. The most probable reason for this
stable gene pool is that
(A) no migration occurred in a large population with random
mating and no mutations
(B) no migration occurred in a small population with random
mating and no mutations
(C) no migration occurred in a large population with nonrandom
mating and no mutations
(D) there was much migration into and out of the large population,
but mating was random and there were few mutations
(E) the population was small with no mutations, no migrations, and
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8. According to the best scientific evidence about evolution,
species descended from a common ancestor
(A) slowly and gradually by the accumulation of many small
changes
(B) rapidly through divergent evolution alone
(C) rapidly through mutation alone
(D) in spurts of relatively rapid changes
(E) because they needed to adapt to a changing environment or
they would die

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9. Farmers have successfully bred Brussels sprouts, broccoli, kale,
and cauliflower from the mustard plant. This demonstrates (A)
convergent evolution (B) coevolution
(C) adaptive radiation (D) natural selection
(E) artificial selection

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10. Scientists believe that the giraffe originally had a short neck that has
grown longer over time. The most likely explanation of this is which of the
following?
I. Natural selection
II. Adaptive radiation
III. Divergent evolution
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II, and III

11. Which of the following are most closely related?

I. Acer rubrum
II. Acer sucre
III. Pseudotriton rubrum
(A) I and II (B) II and III (C) I and III
(D) All are closely related.
(E) It cannot be determined using only scientific names. 24
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Revision 2nd term

Physics
 Questions
1. What causes a moving object to change direction?
a. acceleration c. inertia
b. Velocity d. force

2. The length of a force vector represents the

a. cause of the force. c. magnitude of the force.
b. direction of the force. d. type of force.

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3. The free-body diagram shown above represents a car being
pulled by a towing cable. In the diagram, which of the following
is the gravitational force acting on the car?
a. 5800 N c. 14 700 N
b. 775 N d. 13 690 N

4. Which of the following is the tendency of an object to

maintain its state of motion?
a. Acceleration c. force
b. inertia d. veloci
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5. If a nonzero net force is acting on an object, then the object is
definitely
a. at rest. c. being accelerated.
b. moving with a constant velocity. d. losing mass.

6. In general, Fnet equals

7. A net force of 6.8 N accelerates a 31 kg scooter across a level

parking lot. What is the magnitude of the scooter’s acceleration?

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8. The statement by Newton that for every action there is an
equal but opposite reaction is which of his laws of motion?
a. First c. third
b. second d. fourth
9. Which are simultaneous equal but opposite forces resulting
from the interaction of two objects?
a. net external forces c. gravitational forces
b. field forces d. action-reaction pairs

10. Newton’s third law of motion involves the interactions of

a. one object and one force..
b. one object and two forces.
c. two object and one force
d. two objects and two forces
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11. A hammer drives a nail into a piece of wood. Identify an action-reaction
pair in this situation.
a. The nail exerts a force on the hammer; the hammer exerts a force on the
wood.
b. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the wood exerts a force on the nail.
c. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the nail exerts a force on the
hammer.
d. The hammer exerts a force on the nail; the hammer exerts a force on the
wood.

12. A change in the gravitational force acting on an object will affect the
object’s
a. mass. c. weight.
b. coefficient of static friction. d. inertia.

13. What are the units of the coefficient of friction?

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14. Units that measure weight are units of
a. acceleration. b. force.
c. mass. d. Velocity
15. Which of the following situations describes inertia?
a. A stationary object tends to resist being moved.
b. A moving object tends to resist a change in speed.
c. A moving object tends to resist a change in direction.
d. all of the above
16. Which of the following is true of inertia?
a. It is described in Newton’s first law of motion.
b. It is a property of motion.
c. It is measured by weight.
d. all of the above

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17. Two forces act on an object. The magnitude of the net force
acting on the object
a. equals the sum of the magnitudes of the two forces.
b. equals the difference in the magnitudes of the two forces.
c. equals the average of the two forces.
d. cannot be determined from the given information.

18. The coefficient of kinetic friction

a. is a type contact force.
b. is measured in newtons.
c. depends on the normal force.
d. depends on the composition and qualities of the surfaces in
contact.

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19.

20.

21. The length of a force vector represents the

a. cause of the force.
b. direction of the force.
c. magnitude of the force.
d. type of force
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22. Which of the following is the tendency of an object to maintain its
state of motion?
a. acceleration
b. inertia
c. force
d. velocity
23. Which are simultaneous equal but opposite forces resulting from
the interaction of two objects?
a. net external forces
b. field forces
c. gravitational forces
d. action-reaction pairs
24. Newton’s third law of motion involves the interactions of
a. one object and one force.
b. one object and two forces.
c. two objects and one force.
d. two objects and two forces.
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25. What are the units of the coefficient of friction?

26. Which of the following forces is an example of a contact force?

a. gravitational force
b. magnetic force
c. electric force
d. frictional force

27. In the free-body diagram shown below, which of the following is the
gravitational force acting on the balloon?
a. 1520 N
b. 950 N
c. 4050 N
d. 5120 N
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28. As an object falls toward Earth,
a. the object does not exert a force on Earth.
b. the object exerts a downward force on Earth.
c. Newton’s third law does not apply.
d. the upward acceleration of Earth is negligible because of its
large mass.

29. As a basketball player starts to jump for a rebound, the

player begins to move upward faster and faster until his shoes
leave the floor. At the moment the player begins to jump, the
force of the floor on the shoes is
a. greater than the player’s weight.
b. equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the player’s
weight.
c. less than the player’s weight.
d. zero.
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Revision 2nd term

Chemistry
 Questions
1. Which of the following elements is a metal?
a. Boron c. Magnesium
b. Nitrogen d. Carbon
2. According to ____ periodic table, the physical and chemical properties
of elements are periodic functions of their atomic weights.
a. Dmitri Mendeleev’s c. Henry Moseley’s
b. John Newlands’ d. Lothar Meyer’s
3. Which of the following is an example of periodicity?
a. eating breakfast c. writing a letter
b. hitting a home run d. sneezing
4. All of the following elements are metals except
a. aluminum c. sodium
b. Chlorine d. copper
5. Which element is least likely to be used in semiconductors?
a. silicon c. sulfur
b. phosphorus d. boron
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6. _____ is credited with discovering the periodic law.
a. Linus Pauling c. Dmitri Mendeleev
b. Artemis Halogen d. J.W. Dobereiner
7. Chlorine, iodine, and _____ make up the halogen triad.
a. bromine c. sodium
b. lithium d. potassium
8. One of the elements whose existence was predicted by Mendeleev
was
a. aluminum c. potassium
b. silicon d. germanium
9. The second row of the periodic table includes _____ elements.
a. 2 c. 18
b. 8 d. 32
10. _____ is an unreactive element.
a. Hydrogen c. Helium
b. Chlorine d. Sodium
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11. Which of the following is a transition element?
a. gallium c. aluminum
b. nickel d. tellurium
12. All Group 1 elements have _____.
a. one valence electron c. unpredictable properties
b. one energy level d. one electron
13. Which of the following events is periodic?
a. a basketball game c. snowfall
b. tides d. a single flower blooming
14. Dobereiner's classification system was based on groups of
elements he called _____.
a. families c. groups
b. periods d. triads

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15. Earliest attempts at classifying elements was based on _____.
a. size of atoms c. similar properties
b. atomic numbers d. changing states
16. The concept of triads suggested that the properties of an element
are related to its _____.
a. atomic number c. periodicity
b. atomic mass d. melting point
17. The blank spaces in Mendeleev's periodic table represented _____.
a. Liquids c. nonexistent elements
b. gases d. undiscovered elements
18. Modern periodic law states that properties of elements repeat in a
regular pattern when the elements are arranged in order of increasing
_____.
a. density c. atomic number
b. atomic mass d. periodicit

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19. Horizontal rows of the periodic table are known as _____.
a. groups c. periods
b. families d. columns
20. Columns of the periodic table are known as _____.
a. groups c. similarities
b. periods d. rows
21. Elements in the same group have similar _____.
a. electron structures c. densities
b. numbers of electrons d. periods
22. At room temperature, most elements are _____.
a. solid c. gas
b. liquid d. plasma

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23. Most elements are _____.
a. metals c. metalloids
b. nonmetals d. synthetic
24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a metal?
a. lustrous c. brittle
b. conducts heat d. flexible
25. Which groups are considered to be transition elements?
a. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2, and 18
b. 3 through 12 d. 13 through 18
26. Almost all of Earth's atmosphere is made up of _____.
a. metals c. metalloids
b. nonmetals d. synthetics

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27. A certain element is a gas and does not conduct electricity or heat.
Which of the following is a possible number of valence electrons for
the atoms of this element?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 6
28. Most semiconductors are _____.
a. metals c. metalloids
b. nonmetals d. synthetics
29. Which of the following elements is not used to dope in an n-type
semiconductor?
a. antimony c. phosphorus
b. arsenic d. silicon
30. An element with three valence electrons is used to dope a
semiconductor. What type of semiconductor is formed?
a. n c. npn
b. p d. pnp

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31. Which of the following is an alkaline earth metal?
a. Sodium b. Potassium
c. Iron d. Beryllium
32. At what sublevel does the final electron enter a transition metal?
a. s sublevel b. p sublevel
c. d sublevel d. f sublevel
33. Each row in the periodic table ends with a _____.
a. metal b. nonmetal
c. metalloid d. noble gas
34. In going from left to right in any given row in the periodic table,
the size of atoms generally _____.
a. increases b. decreases
c. stays the same d. changes randomly

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35. When compared to the main group metals, transition metals
have melting and boiling points that are _____.
a. always lower c. about the same
b. usually higher d. usually lower
36. The most important alloy of zinc contains copper and is called
a. steel c. brass
b. zinc oxide d. slag
37. The two actinides used as nuclear fuels are uranium and
a. plutonium c. americium
b. californium d. thorium
38. The atoms of an element in Group 2 are _____ atoms of a
Group 13 element in the same period.
a. larger than c. the same size as
b. smaller than d. impossible to compare with

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39. Alkaline earth metals lose _____ electrons to achieve the
electron configuration of the noble gas in the preceding period.
a. One c. six
b. two d. seven
40. Alloys of magnesium are commonly used because they are
a. heavy and strong c. lightweight and strong
b. strong and rigid d. reactive
41. The most unreactive group of elements is the _____.
a. halogens c. alkali metals
b. noble gases d. transition elements
42. Because of its ability to bond with oxygen, _____ is an essential
element in the hemoglobin in blood.
a. tin c. copper
b. iron d. manganese

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 Questions
True or false
1. Cathode rays are deflected toward a negatively charged plate
in an electric field
.
2. A proton is a subatomic particle carrying a charge equal to but
opposite that of an electron.

3. The first subatomic particle discovered was the _____.

a. Proton c. electron
b. neutron d. nucleus

4. The only subatomic particle that does not carry an electric

charge is the _____.
a. Proton c. electron
b. Neutron d. nucleus
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5. The atomic number of an element whose atoms have 9
protons and 10 neutrons is _____.
a. 9 c. 10
b. 19 d. 18
6. The mass number of an element whose atoms have 12 protons
and 13 neutrons is _____.
a. 12 c. 25
b. 13 d. 12.5
7. One isotope of carbon has 6 protons and 6 neutrons. The
number of protons and neutrons of a second isotope of carbon
would be _____.
a. 7 and 6 c. 7 and 7
b. 6 and 7 d. 6 and 6

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8. According to the law of conservation of matter, if 4.0 g of
hydrogen react with chlorine to produce 146 g of hydrogen
chloride, how many grams of chlorine reacted?
a. 4.0 g c. 146 g
b. 142 g d. 150 g

9. If 9.0 g of water contain 1.0 g of hydrogen, what mass of

oxygen is contained in 36 g of water?
a. 4.0 g c. 10.0 g
b. 8.0 g d. 32 g

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10. Which of the following statements is not a main point of
Dalton's atomic theory?
a. All matter is made up of atoms.
b. Atoms are made up of smaller particles.
c. Atoms are indestructible.
d. All atoms of one element are exactly alike, but they are different
from atoms of other elements.
11. J.J. Thomson used a cathode ray to discover the _____.
a. atom c. proton
b. electron d. neutron
12. If a scientist studies a beam of particles, and those particles are
attracted to a negatively charged plate, the particles are most likely
_____.
a. atoms c. protons
b. electrons d. neutrons
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13. What is a good comparison of the charge of an electron and
the charge of a proton?
a. They are equal, but opposite.
b. The charge of the electron is larger.
c. They are the same.
d. The charge of the proton is larger.

14. Iodine-131 and iodine-127 are examples of _____.

a. nuclei c. isotopes
b. isomers d. neutrons

15. The discovery of isotopes led to the discovery of _____.

a. atoms c. protons
b. electrons d. neutrons

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16. The experimentation of _____ led to the theory that the
atom is a sphere of mostly empty space, with a positively
charged nucleus with electrons around it.
a. Bohr c. Rutherford
b. Nagaoka d. Thomson

17. Which of the following are definitely in atoms of the same

element?
a. 3 protons, 3 neutrons and 3 protons, 4 neutrons
b. 3 protons, 3 neutrons and 4 protons, 4 neutrons
c. 4 protons, 4 neutrons and 3 protons, 4 neutrons
d. 3 protons, 4 neutrons and 4 protons, 3 neutrons

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True/False
18. In the notation , 107 represents the atomic number
and 47 represents the atomic mass of silver

19. An industrially important element contains 26 electrons and

rusts in the presence of air and moisture. Identify the element.
a. Aluminum c. Potassium
b. Iron d. Sodium

20. The scientific statement that says that compounds always

have exactly the same composition by mass is the _____.
a. atomic theory c. law of conservation of matter
b. matter hypothesis d. law of definite proportions

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21. The correct way to arrange the three forms of electromagnetic
radiation listed below, from highest to lowest frequency, is _____.
a. ultraviolet > visible > infrared c. infrared > visible > ultraviolet
b. visible > ultraviolet > infrared d. infrared > ultraviolet > visible

22. The experimentation of _____ led to the theory that the atom
is a sphere of mostly empty space, with a positively charged
nucleus with electrons around it.
a. Bohr c. Rutherford
b. Nagaoka d. Thomson
23. Which of the following are definitely in atoms of the same
element?
a. 3 protons, 3 neutrons and 3 protons, 4 neutrons
b. 3 protons, 3 neutrons and 4 protons, 4 neutrons
c. 4 protons, 4 neutrons and 3 protons, 4 neutrons
d. 3 protons, 4 neutrons and 4 protons, 3 neutrons
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24. Atomic mass units are based on the mass of an atom of
a. carbon-12 c. oxygen-16
b. carbon-14 d. nitrogen-14

25. The _____ is where the electron is most likely to be found.

a. energy level c. electron cloud
b. electron orbit d. orbit

26. An atom of iron contains 26 electrons. How many energy

levels are needed to contain these electrons?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4

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Best wishes
Ola Gamil

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