It It PDF Atpl Performance

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Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license, 70 domande in 70 minuti!

QuizVds.it
NOME ALLIEVO: DATA & ORA:
01. According to the JAR-OPS requirements, an IFR flight with no alternate aerodrome can be undertaken only if
the minimum weather conditions (VMC) are effective for at least:
a) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

b) 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
c) 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of arrival
d) 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of arrival
02. Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the TAS will:
a) Increase
b) First increase, then decrease
c) Remain constant
d) Decrease
03. The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:
a) Generator at varying loads and speeds.

b) TRU.
c) Batteries at varying loads.
d) Generators At Varying Speeds And The Batteries At Varying Loads.
04. An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting point
five minutes later than planned.Assuming that a zero wind component remains unchanged, when 360 NM from the
reporting point Mach Number should be reduced to:
a) M0.76
b) M0.74
c) M0.80
d) M0.78
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05. The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer marker (OM) is:
a) 3000 Hz, blue

b) 400 Hz, blue
c) 400 Hz, amber
d) DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information is sufficient proof of correct operation
06. The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
a) 200-300 NM
b) 300-400 NM
c) 50-100 NM
d) 100-200 NM
07. Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular
system ?-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)-3:
Illusions when estimating the size and distance of objects-4: Illusions of rotation
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,4
c) 3,4
d) 2
08. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:
a) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.

b) The term DECIMAL must be spoken only if followed by three digits.
c) The term DECIMAL can be omitted if no chance of misunderstanding exists.
d) The term DECIMAL can be omitted with friendly ATS units only.
09. Definitions (ICAO Doc 8168) What is:A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end
of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track.The tracks are not reciprocal.
a) Procedure turn
b) Base turn
c) Race track
d) Reversal procedure
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10. Below the optimum cruise altitude:
a) The IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
b) The TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
c) The Mach number for long range cruise decreases continuously with decreasing altitude
d) The Mach number for long range cruise increases continuously with decreasing altitude
11. A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference
document you use in the first place to decide on the procedure to follow is:
a) The minimum equipment list.

b) The OPS.
c) The operations manual's chapter 'Abnormal and Emergency Procedures'.
d) The flight record.
12. Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart?
a) The value of the critical Mach number at various masses and altitudes
b) The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at various masses and power settings
c) The value of the Mach number at which low speed and shockstall occur at various masses and altitudes
d) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes
13. When mixing or contact does take place between passengers subjected to security control and other persons
not subjected to such control after the security screening points at airports serving international civil aviation have
been passed
a) The passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be re screened before boarding an aircraft
b) The persons not subjected to security control shall be identified
c) Only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened
d) Only the passengers are to be re screened
14. The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately:
a) W (1-tan.gamma)
b) W (1-sin.gamma)
c) W / cos.gamma
d) W cos.gamma
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15. The core of the polar front jet stream is usually located in the
a) Polar air below the tropopause

b) Polar air above the tropopause
c) Tropical air above the tropical tropopause
d) Tropical air below the tropopause
16. The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:
a) Opening The Oxygen-bottle Valves.

b) Switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
c) Switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
d) Switching the passenger oxygen on.
17. Which word shall be used to ask a station whether you have correctly received a message, clearance,
instruction, etc?
a) Correct
b) Acknowledge
c) Confirm
d) Verify
18. A message concerning an aircraft being threatened by grave and imminent danger, requiring immediate
assistance is called:
a) Flight safety message.

b) Distress message.
c) Class B message.
d) Urgency message.
19. The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel
and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
a) 79000 kg
b) 65200 kg.
c) 93000 kg
d) 78000 kg
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20. Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:
a) An electrical fire.
b) A slow depressurization.
c) A plastic fire.
d) A rapid depressurization.
21. How many hours in advance of EOBT should a ATC flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas subject to
air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
a) 1:00 hour.
b) 3:00 hours.
c) 2 hours.
d) 0:30 hours.
22. What does the word 'acknowledge' mean?
a) Pass me the following information

b) Repeat all of this message back to me exactly as received
c) Let me know that you have received and understood this message
d) Repeat all of your last transmission
23. Static lateral stability will be increased by:
a) Reducing wing sweepback.

b) Reducing the size of the vertical tail.
c) Reducing wing anhedral.
d) The use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting.
24. A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual
range of at least:
a) 150 m
b) 75 m
c) 200 m
d) 250 m
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25. Does the pitch angle of a constant speed propeller alter in medium horizontal turbulence?
a) Yes strongly
b) Yes slightly
c) Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine
d) No
26. The validity of a TAF is:
a) Between 6 and 9 hours.

b) 9 hours from the time of issue.
c) Stated in the TAF.
d) 2 hours.
27. An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as
threatening. In both cases:
a) Both pilots will loose their motor-coordination

b) The arousal level of both pilots will be raised
c) The pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to what may happen
d) Both pilots will experience the same amount of stress
28. Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is approximately 98%. This saturation decreases with:1.
decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide poisoning3. increasing altitude4. increasing air pressure
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
29. Electrical requirements for an alumel / chromel indicating system are
a) 3 phase AC for sensor plus 28V DC for gauging

b) Power for gauge lighting only
c) 28V DC for sensor plus power for gauge lighting
d) 3 phase AC for sensor plus 26V AC for gauge lighting
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30. Spoilers installed on a typical large transport aeroplane are:
a) Lower Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Can Be Symmetrical Or Asymmetrical.
b) Upper wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
c) Upper Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Is Always Asymmetrical.
d) Lower Wing Surface Devices And Their Deflection Is Always Asymmetrical.
31. With respect to a single-engine piston powered aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) in the
following conditions:Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs.Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. Cargo Zone A: 350
lbs.Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs.Pilot and front seat passenger: 300 lbs (total)
a) 6675
b) 2496,3
c) 2548,8
d) 2311,8
32. The weight of an aircraft, which is in level non accelerated flight, is said to act
a) Vertically through the centre of pressure.

b) Vertically through the centre of gravity.
c) Always along the vertical axis of the aircraft.
d) Vertically through the datum point.
33. Where the State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
a) At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

b) At least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
c) At least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
d) At least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
34. The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to
travel to the ground transponder and return to the airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second, including time delay.
The slant range from the ground transponder was:
a) 186 NM
b) 296 NM
c) 158 NM
d) The pulse recurrence rates are varied
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35. A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which psychological consequence is most
likely?
a) His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
b) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
c) His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which have to be incorporated.
d) An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences.
36. In meteorology, which constituent is considered the most important in the atmosphere's composition?
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Water vapour
37. The position of a Flight Director command bars:
a) Repeats the ADI and HSI information

b) Enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
c) Indicates the manoeuvres to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.
d) Only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
38. Torque can be determined by measuring the computed:
a) Oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of the main engine gearbox.
b) Phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached to a transmission shaft.
c) Frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a transmission shaft.
d) Quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a transmission shaft.
39. The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:
a) Kva and kvar.

b) Amperes and kilowatts.
c) Volts and kilowatts.
d) Volts And Amperes.
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40. The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency of 4400 MHz is the:
a) Radio altimeter.
b) Primary radar.
c) Weather radar.
d) High altitude radio altimeter.
41. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in IMC has to land, if possible, within:
a) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

b) 30 minutes after ETA or the last EAT, whichever is later
c) 15 minutes after vacating the transition layer
d) 30 minutes after waiting for the EAT
42. On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information:
a) There is a risk of you underestimating your speed

b) Estimation of height and distance is not a problem for a well-trained pilot
c) Judgement of height is extremely difficult
d) There is a risk of you entering a spin
43. Given:Distance from departure to destination: 3750 NM Endurance: 9,5 hTrue Track: 360 W/V: 360/50TAS: 480 kt
What is the distance of the PSR from the departure point?
a) 2070 NM
b) 2255 NM
c) 1495 NM
d) 1128 NM
44. A conventional stabiliser on a stable aeroplane in a normal cruise condition: 1 - always provides negative lift.2 -
contributes to the total lift of the aeroplane.3 - may stall before the wing, in icing conditions, with large flap
settings, unless adequate design and/or operational precautions are taken.4 - is necessary to balance the total
pitch moment of the aeroplane. Which of the following lists all the correct statements ?
a) 2, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
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45. During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field
length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the performance limited TOM be increased? There are no limiting
obstacles.
a) By selecting a higher V2
b) By selecting a lower V2
c) By selecting a higher flap setting
d) By selecting a lower flap setting
46. On a reciprocating engine aeroplane, to maintain a given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at higher
gross mass:
a) The airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased

b) The airspeed and the drag will be increased
c) The airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change
d) The lift / drag ratio must be increased
47. High intensity obstacle lights should be:
a) Fixed orange.
b) Flashing white.
c) Fixed red.
d) Flashing red.
48. By what action could the pressure gradient between the middle and the outer ear be balanced?
a) By breathing out.
b) By breathing in.
c) By coughing.
d) By swallowing.
49. An operator can operate an aeroplane certificated to JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue would
be especially difficult, without additional survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an
emergency landing at a distance corresponding to no more than:
a) 90 minutes at cruising speed.

b) 120 minutes at cruising speed.
c) 30 minutes at cruising speed.
d) 60 minutes at cruising speed.
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50. The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a cruising speed of 150 KT. The aircraft is flown by a single
pilot.The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold, mid
and end of runway.The approach minimums for runway 06 are:DH = 300'Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 mThe
weather conditions are: horizontal visibility (HV) 900 m and ceiling 200' Is take-off possible?
a) No, visibility being below 1200 metres

b) No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's approach procedure
c) Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the approach procedure
d) Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM
51. Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:
a) Directly From The Aircraft Batteries.

b) From the booster coil.
c) From the aircraft batteries via an inverter.
d) From a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
52. The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
a) Used Only At Low Altitudes Where There Is A Risk Of Ice Formation.

b) Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.
c) Only used when hot air demisting is insufficient.
d) Harmful To The Integrity Of The Windows In The Event Of A Bird Strike.
53. The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is provided in order to:
a) Give an indication of cloud tops

b) Detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud
c) Extend the mapping range
d) 666 km
54. Assuming a five dot display on either side of the ILS localiser cockpit display, what is the angular displacement
of the aircraft from the localiser centreline when the CDI is deflected 2 dots to the right?
a) 2.0° to the right.

b) 2.0° to the left.
c) 1.0° to the right.
d) 1.0° to the left.
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55. Clouds in patches, sheets or grey or whitish layers made up of elements resembling large pebbles or rollers,
together or not, and always clear of the ground are:
a) Altostratus.
b) Stratus.
c) Stratocumulus.
d) Nimbostratus.
56. Under anticyclone conditions in the northern hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the gradient wind is
a) The same as the thermal component

b) Less than the geostrophic wind
c) Proportional only to the Coriolis force
d) Greater than the geostrophic wind
57. The total mass of an aircraft is 9000 kg. The centre of gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The
aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front cargo hold (at 0.8
m from the datum) to the aft hold (at 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
a) 30.0 kg
b) 900 kg
c) 196 kg
d) 300 kg
58. The initial great circle track from A to B is 080° and the rhumb line track is 083°. What is the initial great circle
track from B to A and in which hemisphere are the two positions located?
a) 260° and in the Southern Hemisphere.

b) 260° and in the Northern Hemisphere.
c) 266° and in the Northern Hemisphere.
d) 266° and in the Southern Hemisphere.
59. A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats.
The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is:
a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).

b) 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
c) 240 (one additional mask per seat block).
d) 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
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60. The so-called 'Seat-of-the-Pants' sense is
a) Only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC

b) Not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost
c) The only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC
d) Useful for instrument and contact flight
61. When completing an ATC flight plan, an elapsed time (Item 1 6) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as:
a) 0155
b) 0115
c) 115M
d) 1H55
62. How should a pilot inform the ATS unit that their aircraft does not have 8.33 KHz capability?
a) We do not have this frequency

b) Negative eight point three three
c) Negative eight point three three frequency equipment
d) My aircraft is not equipped with eight point three three
63. A three-phase electrical tachometer consists of:
a) A three-phase generator, a synchronous motor and a magnetic tachometer.

b) Three speed probes and a phonic wheel.
c) A speed probe and a phonic wheel.
d) Three associated dynamos.
64. A head wind will:
a) Increase the angle of climb

b) Increase the rate of climb
c) Increase the climb flight path angle
d) Shorten the time of climb
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65. VLE is defined as the:
a) Maximum flap extended speed.

b) Maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted.
c) Maximum authorised speed.
d) Maximum landing gear extended speed.
66. A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even become unconscious. Hyperventilation
is likely to occur, when:
a) There is a low CO-pressure in the blood

b) The pilot is emotionally aroused
c) There is an increased blood flow to the brain
d) He/she is flying a tight turn
67. Which of the following sequences shows the correct elements of a position report in the correct order? 1) call
sign 2) reported position 3) heading (°M) 4) level or altitude 5) next position 6) ETA of the next position7) aircraft
type8) time of reported position
a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 8, 4, 5, 6,
c) 1, 7, 2, 6, 4
d) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
68. Given:True course from A to B = 090°, TAS = 460 KT,W/V = 360/100 KT,Average variation = 10°E, Deviation =
-2°.Calculate the compass heading and GS?
a) Great circles
b) Both Rhumb lines and Great circles
c) Rhumb lines
d) Are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles
69. Given:The take-off mass of an aircraft is 8470 kgTotal fuel on board is 1600 kg including 450 kg reserve fuel and
29 kg of unusable fuel The traffic load is 770 kgWhat is the Zero Fuel Mass?
a) 6899 kg
b) 6420 kg
c) 6129 kg
d) 6870 kg
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70. In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:
a) Maintain A Constant Axial Speed Whatever The Engine Rating.

b) Maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
c) Reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
d) Reduce The Axial Speed In Cruising Flight.
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Schema Risposte
Confronta le risposte fornite con il seguente schema e segna il tuo punteggio!
01: C 02: D 03: A 04: B
05: B 06: B 07: B 08: A
09: B 10: C 11: C 12: D
13: A 14: D 15: D 16: D
17: C 18: B 19: A 20: B
21: B 22: C 23: C 24: B
25: B 26: C 27: B 28: C
29: B 30: B 31: C 32: B
33: A 34: C 35: C 36: D
37: C 38: A 39: A 40: A
41: B 42: C 43: B 44: A
45: C 46: B 47: B 48: D
49: A 50: D 51: D 52: B
53: B 54: C 55: C 56: D
57: D 58: C 59: B 60: B
61: A 62: B 63: A 64: C
65: D 66: B 67: B 68: B
69: A 70: B

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Simulazione di Esame

Performance - ATPL - Airline Transport Pilot license, 70 domande in 70 minuti!

NOME ALLIEVO: DATA & ORA:

a) 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of arrival

a) Generator at varying loads and speeds.

a) 3000 Hz, blue

08. During the transmission of numbers containing a decimal point:

a) The term DECIMAL must always be transmitted.

10. Below the optimum cruise altitude:

a) The minimum equipment list.

a) Polar air below the tropopause

16. The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:

a) Opening The Oxygen-bottle Valves.

a) Flight safety message.

20. Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop characterise:

22. What does the word 'acknowledge' mean?

a) Pass me the following information

23. Static lateral stability will be increased by:

a) Reducing wing sweepback.

26. The validity of a TAF is:

a) Between 6 and 9 hours.

a) Both pilots will loose their motor-coordination

a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

29. Electrical requirements for an alumel / chromel indicating system are

a) 3 phase AC for sensor plus 28V DC for gauging

30. Spoilers installed on a typical large transport aeroplane are:

a) Vertically through the centre of pressure.

a) At least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position

37. The position of a Flight Director command bars:

a) Repeats the ADI and HSI information

38. Torque can be determined by measuring the computed:

a) Kva and kvar.

a) 30 minutes after noticing the radio failure

42. On approach, by day, in snowy conditions, without reference to glideslope information:

a) There is a risk of you underestimating your speed

a) The airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased

47. High intensity obstacle lights should be:

a) 90 minutes at cruising speed.

a) No, visibility being below 1200 metres

51. Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:

a) Directly From The Aircraft Batteries.

52. The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:

a) Used Only At Low Altitudes Where There Is A Risk Of Ice Formation.

a) Give an indication of cloud tops

a) 2.0° to the right.

a) The same as the thermal component

a) 260° and in the Southern Hemisphere.

a) 198 (110% of the seating capacity).

60. The so-called 'Seat-of-the-Pants' sense is

a) Only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC

a) We do not have this frequency

63. A three-phase electrical tachometer consists of:

a) A three-phase generator, a synchronous motor and a magnetic tachometer.

64. A head wind will:

a) Increase the angle of climb

65. VLE is defined as the:

a) Maximum flap extended speed.

a) There is a low CO-pressure in the blood

a) Maintain A Constant Axial Speed Whatever The Engine Rating.

01: C 02: D 03: A 04: B

05: B 06: B 07: B 08: A

09: B 10: C 11: C 12: D

13: A 14: D 15: D 16: D