ORAL ANATOMY

121. The reflex in gagging patients is caused by:

A. Trigeminal nerve.
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve.
C. Facial nerve.
D. Recurrent laryngeal.
Answer: B.

1186. The area of the tooth that is most sensitive during cavity preparation is
A. dentin.
B. cementum.
C. cementoenamel junction.
D. dentinoenamel junction.
Answer: D.

1187. The extension of the lingual anterior border of a mandibular denture is limited by the
A. mylohyoid muscle.
B. geniohyoid muscle.
C. genioglossus muscle.
D. fibres of the digastric muscle.
Answer: C.

1084. Extreme resorption of an edentulous mandible can bring the alveolar ridge to the level of the
attachment of the
A. buccinator, styloglossus and geniohyoid muscles.
B. mylohyoid, buccinator and styloglossus muscles.
C. superior constrictor, mylohyoid and buccinator muscles.
D. mylohyoid, buccinator and genioglossus muscles.
Answer: D.

1021. During tooth development, vitamin A deficiency may result in

A. peg-shaped teeth.
B. partial anodontia (hypodontia).
C. Hutchinson's incisors.
D. enamel hypoplasia.
E. dentinogenesis imperfecta.
Answer: D.

753.The junction between primary and secondary dentine is:

A. A reversal line.
B. Sharp curvature.
C. A resting line.
D. A reduction in the number of tubules.
Answer: B.
The primary dentin is secreted at a relatively high rate and constitutes the major part of the dentin in the
tooth. It is regular in structure and contains dentin tubules that form an S-shaped primary curvature as a
result of the directional movement of odontoblasts, which have a cell process that extends from a broad
peripheral border towards a narrow, centrally located cell layer. After tooth eruption, the odontoblasts
continue to lay down dentin but slightly change their direction, which contributes to bending of the
dentinal tubules. It is referred to as secondary dentin and is synthesized at a much lower rate and is less
regular in structure.

700.Following root planning, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which
of the following?
A. Golgi receptor.
B. Free nerve endings.
C. Odontoblastic processes.
D. Cementoblasts.
Answer: C.

701.The dentino-enamel junction is the most sensitive portion of a tooth because:

A. free nerve endings termination odontoblasts at this region.
 B. odontoblastic processes branch considerably at this region.
C. ameloblasts make synaptic connections with odontoblasts at this junction.
D. odontoblastic tubules help convey hydrostatic forces to the pulp cells.
Answer: B.

1156. Which of the following muscles has two separate functions in mandibular movement?
A. Masseter.
B. Geniohyoid.
C. External (lateral) pterygoid.
D. Buccinator.
Answer: C.
Opening and lateral movement

702. Dentin sensitivity is associated with which of the following?

A. Free nerve endings.
B. Golgi receptors.
C. Ruffini and Pacini receptors.
D. Odontoblasts.
Answer: D.

703.Pulp nerve endings

 A. free nerve endings.
B. kroff's fibres.
C. heat and cold fibres.
Answer: A.

704.Autonomic neurons within pulp differ from sensory nerves as:

A. Structurally they are entirely myelinated.
B. Vaso motor in function.
C. Both.
Answer:
Although in Boucher, 357 give option C.

705.Sensory pulpal nerves have:

A. Myelinated fibres that lose their myelin sheath after forming subodontoblastic plexus.
B. Functions only as pain receptors.
C. Both.
Answer: C.
122. Which function is NOT affected if the lingual nerve is anesthized distal to the anastomosis of the
lingual and chorda tympani nerve?
A. Swallowing.
B. Salivary gland.
C. Sensitivity of gingiva and tongue.
D. Taste.
Answer: A.
Taste supplied by facial n. sense of tongue and gingive by lingual. salivary glands by facial.

108.The blood supply to the denture bearing areas of the maxilla:

A. Superior Maxillary artery.
B. Grand/greater palatine artery.
Answer: B.

111. During swallowing,

 I. suprahyoid muscles relax.
II. masseter contract.

III. tongue touches the palate.

IV. teeth have contact.
A. I, II, III.
B. I, III, IV.
C. II, III, IV.
D. none of the above.
E. all of the above.
Answer: C. (Appendix I)

1220. Which two muscles are involved in sucking?

A. Caninus and depressor angularis.
B. Risorius and buccinator.
C. Buccinator and orbicularis oris.
D. Levator labii superioris and zygomaticus major.
Answer: C.

67. In cavity preparation 1mm below DEJ what is seen:

A. More dentinal tubules, some intertubular and peritubular.
B. Some dentinal tubules, more intertubular and less peritubular.
C. More peritubular, some intertubular and dentinal tubular.
D. Equal amount of dentinal tubules, intertubular and peritubular.
Answer: B.
1221. The floor of the mouth is formed by the
A. digastric muscle.
B. genioglossus muscle.
C. mylohyoid muscle.
D. styloglossus muscle.
Answer: C.

1275. Pterygomandibular raphe is attached to buccinator and passes through:

A. Superior to medial pterygoid.
B. Lateral to medial pterygoid.
C. Anterior to medial pterygoid.
Answer: c

245.Which of the following is not a part of the fully formed

enamel organ?
A. Outer enamel epithelium.
B. Inner enamel epithelium.
C. Stellate reticulum.
D. Dental papilla.
Answer: D.
Enamel organ has for parts: outer enamel epithelium, inner enamel
epithelium, stellate reticulum and stratum intermedium.

250.The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is:
A. Mylohyoid.
B. Anterior temporal.
C. Posterior temporal.
D. Anterior belly of digastric.
Answer: D.
394.Muscles required to close the mouth till centric occlusion:
1. lateral pterygoid.
2. medial pterygoid.
3. Masseter.
4. Temporalis.
A. 1 2 3.
B. 2 3 4.
C. 3 & 4.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B.

543. The mesiolingual groove is found on the mandibular:

a. permanent second molar.
b. permanent first molar.
c. second premolar.

d. first premolar.
Answer: D

581. The enamel structures most resistant to the action of acids are:
a. cuticles.
b. lamellae.
c. rods.
d. interprismatic substances.
Answer: .A
583. After a tooth surface has been completely cleaned, the new mucoprotein coating which forms on the
surface is called:
a. pellicle.
b. plaque.
c. materia alba.
d. primary cuticle.
e. Nasmyth's membrane.
Answer: A.
Plaque is a biofilm composed of several different kinds of bacteria and their products that develop over
the enamel on a layer known as pellicle.
Materia alba also contains bacteria along with food debries and salivary proteins but lacks the organic
structure of plaque.

61. What of the following is correct about Nitrous Oxide (438, but options were a bit different)
A. low analgesic and low MAC.
B. low anesthetic and low MAC.
C. has low blood solubility and can produce hypoxia at the end
Answer: C.
Every thing is positive and hight except solubility and anaesthetic whichectgey Armenia low

62. What about lingual split technique is INCORRECT?

A. thin lingual bone.
B. lingually positioned tooth.
C. risk of temporary lingual injury.
D. risk of permanent lingual injury.
E. preserve buccal bone.
Answer: D.

63. Osteointegration means

A. direct contact of bone and implant only radiographically.
B. direct contact of bone and implant radiographically and microscopically .
 C. fibrous connection.
Answer: B.

64. The patient who is a doctor disagreed with your diagnosis and insisted on extraction of 37. He tells
you, that if you don't do it, he will do it himself as he had an experience from the army. What will you do?
A. extract 37 as he insists, and he will do it anyway, make him sign a consent form
B. give him instruments to do extraction
C. refer to the maxillo-facial surgeon for second opinion and extraction if decided.
D. refuse to extract and make sure the patient understood your diagnosis.
E. insist on an opg to explain it to him better.
F. make sure he understood the diagnosis and give him differnt plan.
Answer: D

PUBLIC HEALTH

1240. SPECIFICITY, INCIDENCE etc

The study that watches for outcomes, such as the development of a disease, during
the study period and relates this to other factors such as suspected risk or protection
factors is named:
A. Specificity
B. Incidence
C. Prevalence
D. Sensitivity
E. Risk factor
F. Prospective study
Answer =F
Summary:

Sensitivity - people with disease

Specificity - people without disease
Risk factor - features causing disease
Incidence - number new cases over period of time
Prevalence - proportion at given point of time
Prospective studies - studies (future) which can predict disease
Retrospective studies - studies based on already happened events(past)
Double blind study - both ( patient and person who collects data) don't know the major
reason of study

1034. As a dentist, it is ethical to refuse to treat a patient on the basis of

1. religious beliefs.
2. physical handicap.
3. infectious disease.
4. recognition of lack of skill or knowledge.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.
Answer: D.

1012. Epidemiology of disease is best described as the:

A. data obtained from sickness surveys.
B. usual low level of disease normally found within a population.
 C. control of disease.
D. study of disease patterns in a population.
Answer: D.

861. What is the best reason to promote tooth brushing to the public?
A. Less fissure caries.
B. Less gingivitis.
C. Gingival massage.
Answer: B.

755.Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would

you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred?
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and color change tape on each package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use color change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use color change tape in each load and spore tests weekly.
Answer: E.
http://www.cdc.gov/oralhealth/infectioncontrol/faq/sterilization_monitoring.htm
Chemical indicators such as heat sensitive tape change color rapidly when a given
parameter is reached. How often should I perform biological monitoring (BI) (spore
testing)?
Correct functioning of sterilization cycles should be verified for each sterilizer by the
periodic (at least weekly) use of BIs.

1273. Which one of the following is commonly used interchangeable term with the
official name of the drugs?
A. Brand name
B. Trade name
C. Generic name
D. Molecular name
E. Chemical name
Answer: C (Boucher).
Drugs often have several names. When a drug is first discovered, it is given a chemical
name, which describes the atomic or molecular structure of the drug. The chemical
name is thus usually too complex and cumbersome for general use. Next, a shorthand
version of the chemical name or a code name (such as RU 486) is developed for easy
reference among researchers.
When a drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA—the government
agency responsible for ensuring that drugs marketed in the United States are safe and
effective), it is given a generic (official) name and a brand (proprietary or trademark)
name. The brand name is developed by the company requesting approval for the drug
and identifies it as the exclusive property of that company. For example, phenytoin is
the generic name and Dilantin is a brand name for the same drug.
Molecular name/chemical name is the actual name of a drug when it is developed; for
instance.- panadol is brand/trade name; paracetamol is generic/common name; and
acetaminophen is molecular/chemical name

1428. A patient with a history of hypertension presents for an emergency dental

extraction. His blood pressure is 158/100 mmHg. The dentist intends to use lidocaine
2% with 1:100,000 epinephrine for local anesthesia. The most appropriate
management is to:
A. direct the patient to a hospital emergency room.
B. extract the tooth using a maximum of four cartridges.
C. extract the tooth using a maximum of two cartridges.
D. extract the tooth and advise the patient to take additional antihypertensive
medication.
Answer: c
C the right answer MAXIMUM OF 2 CARTRIDGE 0.04mg of epenphrien mean 2
cartridge and maximum 0.2 mg mean 11 cartrilge
In severe hypertension when the systolic is about 200 and diastolic is 110, elective
dental procedure should be deferred until the blood pressure is normal, while
emergency procedure must be done in a hospital setting with careful monitoring and
blood pressure contro postoperatively. But in this case when the patient with a history
of hypertension, it is quite normal to have such values of pressure sepecially the
systolic because eof aniety and pain (TG). We can do extraction for this patient with a
maximum dose of epinephrine 0.04mg per visit which is equal to 2 cartridges (Tucker).

The maximum dose of epinephrine for normal patient is 0.2mg which is equal to 11
cartridges.

332.In patient suffering with angina, pain will not be felt at:
A. Jaw.
B. Neck.
C. Centre of chest.
D. Over the heart.
Answer: D.

363.Trismus is caused by which of the following during administered of inferior alveolar

nerve
block (IANB)?
A. Injection into medial pterygoid muscle.
B. Injection into facial nerve.
C. Injection into masseter.
Answer: A.

364.If an odontogenic infection involves the pterygomandibular space, the most

obvious clinical
sign will be:
A. trismus.
B. facial swelling.
C. swelling in the submandibular area.
D. rise in body temperature above 39°C (102ºF).
Answer: A.
365. Which nerve damage causes dilated pupilla?
A. Occulomotor nerve.
B. Vagus.
Answer: A.

366.Constricted pupil due to damage which nerve?

A. Abducens.
B. Oculomotor.
C. Cervical sympathetic.
D. Vagus.
Answer: C.
Sympathetic innervation leads to pupillary dilation. So if there is damage to
sympathetic innervation,it cannot dilate leading to constriction. Occulomotor nerve
palsy: mydriasis (dialation). Damage to sympathetic chain: miosis (constriction) as it
cannot counter act the constrictive effect of parasympathetic stimulation.

562. Which of the following is not properly defined?

a. Incidence: the change in experience over a particular period of time, usually
one year.
b. Experience: a single specific episode.
c. Prevalence: the proportion of a population that demonstrates a particular
characteristic.
d. Tooth mortality: the loss of teeth.
e. Tooth morbidity: and injury or pathology of the teeth.
f. All of these definitions are correct as stated.
Answer: B.
Experience is usually defined as the total cumulative history of the dentition; it therefore
includes all episodes from birth (or before) up to the point in time being considered.

563. Bitewing radiography is the main special text used to help in diagnosis of proximal
caries. The performance (accuracy) of a diagnostic test like bitewing radiography can
be expressed in terms of sensitivity and specificity. Which of the following is a
reasonable summary of the diagnostic accuracy of bitewing radiography for proximal
caries diagnosis?
a. Moderate sensitivity and low specificity.
b. Moderate sensitivity and moderate specificity.
c. Moderate sensitivity and high specificity.
d. High sensitivity and moderate specificity.
e. High sensitivity and high specificity.
Answer: C.
Radiographic assessment has consistently a higher specificity but lower sensitivity
than visual inspection and other diagnostic methods. The sensitivity and specificity of
caries detection can be improved by the use of laser-induced fluorescence (LIF)
technology.

599. Patient on barbiturates collapses and not responding to verbal commands in the
dental surgery. What is the immediate treatment?
a. CPR.
b. Adrenaline IM and oxygen.
c. Adrenaline IV.
d. Antihistamines.
Answer: B.
Patient on Barbiturates collapses not because of cardiac arrest so why would we need
CPR. It is a type of anaphylactic reaction which is rare and collapse is due to the
widespread vasodilatation and increased capillary permeability causing potentially
fatal hypotension, the line of treatment would be the same as of anaphylactic reaction.
So the immediate treatment would be injection of Adrenaline IM and oxygen for
managing hypoventillation. But if patient doesn't respond then we give CPR. Some
other suggested to use Naloxone (if the patient is not responding).

600. How many milliliters of alcohol are in 1 standard drink?

a. 10ml.
b. 20ml.
c. 25ml.
d. 50ml.
Answer: A (10 g or 12.5 % or 12.5ml).

724.A valuable research design, commonly used in clinical research, is the“double-

blind” study. What does this expression mean?
A. The research investigator is “blind” to the dependent or independent variables.
B. The person collecting the data does not know the person in the study nor do they
know him.
C. The persons participating as subjects in the study do not know the purpose of the
study nor do they know the people who are conducting the study.
D. Neither the person collecting the data nor people participating as subject know
all the details of the study.
Answer: D.

725.Double-blind studies,
A. Nor the person collecting the data neither subject knows the purpose of the study.
B. Nor the person collecting the data neither subject knows all details of the study.
Answer: B.