CSAT de

PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122405 - Solutions |
Q.1)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect - This statement contradicts the essence of the passage, as it suggests achieving the
highest level of need before addressing basic ones, which goes against Maslow's theory.
Option b is incorrect - This statement oversimplifies the hierarchy and doesn't accurately reflect
Maslow's theory, which emphasizes satisfying basic physiological needs before progressing to higher-
level needs.
Option c is correct - This statement accurately captures the essence of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs,
highlighting the prioritization of certain needs over others.
Option d is incorrect - While safety needs are essential, Maslow's theory doesn't suggest that they are the
sole foundation for all other needs. It emphasizes a hierarchical progression through various levels of
needs.
Q.2)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Option A is incorrect - This statement oversimplifies the relationship between economic prosperity and
human happiness, ignoring the influence of non-material factors.
Option B is incorrect - While technological advancements may have unintended consequences, such as
increased stress or social isolation for some individuals, they have also brought about significant benefits.
This statement overly generalizes the impact of technology on overall human well-being.
Option C is correct - This statement accurately captures the essence of the passage, emphasizing that
despite material progress, human happiness is influenced by various non-material factors.
Option D is incorrect - The passage suggests the opposite, emphasizing the importance of social
connections in determining human happiness, even in the face of modern progress.
Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Option A is incorrect - While geographical advantages can influence a nation's economic development to
some extent, "Why Nations Fail" argues that inclusive institutions are the primary determinant of long-
term prosperity.
Option B is incorrect - While political stability is important, the book emphasizes that it is the inclusivity
of political and economic institutions that drives prosperity, rather than stability alone.
Option C is correct - This aligns with the central thesis of "Why Nations Fail," which argues that nations
with inclusive institutions tend to prosper over the long term.
Option D is incorrect - While technological advancements can contribute to economic growth, the book
emphasizes the importance of institutions in shaping a nation's prosperity.
Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
If we see difference in numbers in series,
Difference between 11 & 8 is 3
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[1]
The prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7 ,11, 13, 17 , 19 , 23 ,29, 31 ...
Differences are alternate prime numbers from the series, So, the next difference should be 29.
So, next term in series is 50 + 29 = 79.
Hence option c is the correct answer.
Q.5)
Ans) c
As it’s given,
when A is divided by B gives 13 as remainder
this can be written as
A = m * B + 13 -> (1) where m is the non-zero quotient on division
When 3A is divided by B gives 7 this can be written as
3A = n * B + 7 -> (2) where n is the non-zero quotient on division
On adding both equations, we get
A + 3A = m* B + n* B + 13 + 7
4A = (m + n) * B + 20
From the Dividend = Quotient * Divisor + Remainder relation we can see when 4A is divided by B it can
give 20 as a remainder.
Q.6)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Suppose there are n children
Total members of family = n +2 = children + father + mother
Average of family = 20
=> total age of family = 20 x (n + 2) .....1
If father is removed, avg age = 16
=> total age after removing father = 16 x (n + 1 ) .....2
Equating total age from both equations
16 x (n + 1) + 48 = 20 x (n + 2)
Solving from the above equation
4n = 24
N=6
So, no. Of children in family is 6
Hence option d is the correct answer.
Q.7)
Ans) d
Number of extra days = 1 for non leap year, = 2 for leap year.
A year is counted as leap year only if, 29 feb is inside the counting period.
Year Rahul birthday 21 jan Anjali 21 april
2024 Sunday Sunday
2025 + 2 (leap year) Tuesday + 1 Monday ( 29 feb is not
included
[2]
2026 + 1 Wednesday + 1 tuesday
2027 + 1 Thrusday + 1 wednesday
2028 + 1 Friday + 2 Friday ( leap year)
So, they will have their birthday on same days in 2028 on friday.
Option d is the correct answer
Q.8)
Ans) d
Probability of a student failing in Paper 1 is 2/ 3
which means passing probability is (1 – 2/3) = 1/ 3
Similarly, for Paper 2 Passing probability will be (1 – ¾) = 1/ 4
Now, to qualify in prelims, a student needs to pass both papers, i.e. events have to happen simultaneously.
From the rule of multiplication,
Probability will be 1/ 3 * 1/ 4 = 1 / 12 as both events need to happen.
So, the answer is 1/12
Q.9)
Ans) c
To do a comparison, we need to either make all bases equal or the exponents they’re raised to equal.
In this case, let’s try to make the powers the same.
Let’s find the Greatest Common Divisor for all the powers we have i.e. 50, 75 & 125
GCD (50,75,125) turns out to be 25.
Now, we can represent them as

a = 16(2 * 25)
b = 7(3 * 25)
c = 3 (5 * 25)
Now rewrite the numbers by taking the powers inside

a = 25625 b = 34325 c = 24325
Now it’s easy to compare based on their bases as powers are the same.
243 < 256 < 343 i.e. c < a < b
So, the option (c) is correct answer
Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
For Task 1 3 choices – no females are allowed
For Task 2 3 choices – no males are allowed
[3]
For Task 3 4 choices – both male & females are allowed but 2 are already used in Task 1 & 2
For Task 4 3 choices – we have 3 choices as 3 in total already assigned
For Task 5 2 choices – we have 2 choices left;
For Task 6 1 choice – as we have just one male/female left
As all 6 tasks need to happen. By the rule of multiplicity,
number of ways in total will be
3 * 3 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 216
Q.11)
Ans) c
Option A is incorrect - While increased transparency may mitigate some aspects of the Spoils System, it
doesn't complicate its impact in modern governance.
Option B is incorrect - Civil service laws ensuring merit-based hiring are a response to the Spoils System
rather than a complicating factor.
Option C is correct - The role of political appointments in aligning with administration policies
complicates the impact of the Spoils System, as it adds a layer of justification beyond mere patronage.
Option D is incorrect - Public perception of the Spoils System does not directly complicate its impact in
modern governance, though it may influence political discourse and reform efforts.
Q.12)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer
Reason 1: Reduction in Arctic sea ice leading to the albedo effect - Correct. The passage highlights the
albedo effect as a primary reason for Arctic amplification, as melting sea ice exposes darker ocean
surfaces that absorb more sunlight, further warming the region.
Reason 2: Release of greenhouse gases from thawing permafrost - Correct. The passage also mentions the
release of greenhouse gases from thawing permafrost as a contributing factor to Arctic amplification,
creating additional feedback loops that intensify warming.
Reason 3: Human activities such as fossil fuel burning - Incorrect. While human activities contribute to
global warming, the passage does not emphasize their direct impact on Arctic amplification. Instead, it
focuses on feedback mechanisms driven by climate change as the primary drivers of Arctic warming.
Reason 4: Changes in ocean currents affecting Arctic temperatures - Incorrect. While changes in ocean
currents may impact Arctic temperatures, the passage does not mention this as a primary reason for
Arctic amplification. Instead, it focuses on feedback mechanisms related to sea ice loss and greenhouse
gas release.
Q.13)
Ans) a
Option A is correct - Thomas Edison's life story emphasizes the importance of persistence and hard work
in achieving success. Despite facing numerous failures and setbacks, he continued to persevere until he
achieved his goals.
Option B is incorrect - While Edison was undoubtedly a genius, his success was also attributed to his
relentless work ethic and dedication to experimentation.
Option C is incorrect - Edison's life is a testament to the idea that failure is a natural part of the
innovation process and should not deter one from pursuing their goals.
[4]
Option D is incorrect - While luck may play a role in success, Edison's achievements were primarily the
result of his tireless efforts and ingenuity.
Q.14)
Ans) a
Option A is the most comprehensive conclusion from the passage, as it encapsulates the central theme of
self-identification and personal expression in defining gender identity.
Option B is incorrect. While gender fluidity does promote individualism to some extent by allowing
individuals to express their unique gender identities, it does not solely focus on individualism as its core
principle.
Option C is correct, as it accurately reflects how gender fluidity challenges traditional gender norms and
promotes inclusivity. However, it does not fully capture the essence of the passage compared to Option
A.
Option D is incorrect. While globalization may have contributed to the increased awareness and
acceptance of gender fluidity in some contexts, the passage does not explicitly discuss globalization as a
driving factor. Therefore, it does not fully align with the core message of the passage.
Q.15)
Ans) c
865 = 8 64 x 8
= ( 82)32 x 8
= 64 32 x 8
Now, as Remainder when 64 is divided by 13 ie equal to 12 or –1.
Using remainder rule, ie replacing numbers with remainders.
Remainder with 64 32 x 8 is equal to remainder with (- 1) 32 x 8 = 8
Q.16)
Ans) c
So, "Elephant" becomes "FKGNKXRP".
For "Elephant":
- E -> F (1 forward)
- l -> K (1 backward)
- e -> G (2 forward)
- p -> N (2 backward)
- h -> K (3 forward)
- a -> X (3 backward)
- n -> R (4 forward)
- t -> P (4 backward)
Now, let's do the same for "Geography":
- G -> H (1 forward)
- e -> D (1 backward)
- o -> Q (2 forward)
[5]
- g -> E (2 backward)
- r -> U (3 forward)
- a -> X (3 backward)
- p -> T (4 forward)
- h -> D (4 backward)
- y -> D (5 forward)
So, "Geography" would be written as "HDQEUXTDD".

Q.17)
Ans) d
As A cannot be defeated by B and D, possible cases are A can be 1st, 2nd and 3rd.
When A is first ->
A 4 3 2 1
Number of ways = 4! = 24
When A is second
2 A 3 2 1
-> 2 * 3! = 12
When A is third
2 1 A 2 1
-> 2 * 2! = 4
Total = 40 ways
Q.18)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Let’s take V volume from each vessel then,
Vessel 1 has 2V / 3 milk and V / 3 water
Vessel 2 has 3V / 4 milk and V/4 water
Vessel 3 has 4V/5 milk and V/5 water
Total milk = 2V/ 3 + 3V/ 4 + 4V/ 5 = (40V + 45V + 48V) / 60 = 133V/ 60
Total water = V/ 3 + V/ 4 + V/ 5 = (20V + 15V + 12V) / 60 = 47V/ 60
Ratio: Milk/ Water = 133 / 47
Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
[6]
Q.19)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer
Change in average weight = ( 61 – Injured player weight) / 11
If the injured player weight is 55
Change = 6/ 11 which is less than 1 kg.
So statement 1 is incorrect.
If the weight of Injured player is less than 39
Change = ( 61- 39) / 11 > 2
So statement 2 is correct.
Hence option b is the correct answer.
Q.20)
Ans) a
Suppose the money spent on rice is x and on wheat is y.
So, x + y = 1000. Eq 1
Que: what is the value of x?
From statement 1
We get for rice
As the quantity is same and price increases by 10 percent
Total amount spent on rice will also increase by 10 percent.
Similarly for wheat money will increase by 20 percent
This implies 1.1 x + 1.2 y = 1160 Eq 2
From eq 1 and 2 we can find the values of x and y.
So statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question.
From Statement 2 we get
Weight of rice/ weight of wheat = 2/3
But as the price is not given, ratio of money spent cannot be calculated using 2nd statement.
Hence option a is the correct answer
Q.21)
Ans) b
Option A is incorrect - While stability and routine may work for some individuals, digital nomadism
emphasizes the value of flexibility and adaptability in navigating different environments and cultures.
Option B is correct - The concept of digital nomadism encourages individuals to embrace flexibility and
adaptability as they navigate remote work and travel, leading to personal growth and development.
Option C is incorrect - Digital nomadism challenges the notion that traditional office settings are
superior by offering an alternative lifestyle that prioritizes freedom and exploration.
Option D is incorrect - While digital nomadism may not be suitable for everyone, it is a viable lifestyle
choice for individuals who value remote work and travel experiences.
Q.22)
Ans) b
Option A is incorrect - Precision medicine aims to provide personalized treatments tailored to individual
characteristics, rather than standardized approaches for all patients.
[7]
Option B is correct - The passage highlights the potential benefits of precision medicine in providing
tailored treatments based on individual genetic makeup, leading to improved patient outcomes.
Option C is incorrect - While precision medicine contributes to a comprehensive understanding of
disease mechanisms, the primary focus is on personalized treatments rather than solely on
understanding disease mechanisms.
Option D is incorrect - Precision medicine aims to optimize healthcare delivery and improve patient
outcomes, rather than limiting access to healthcare services.
Q.23)
Ans) a
Option A is the crux of the passage. The passage emphasizes how biohacking involves making changes to
lifestyle, diet, or environment to optimize physical and mental performance.
Option B is incorrect. While the passage acknowledges concerns about safety and lack of oversight in
biohacking, it does not characterize biohacking solely as a risky practice.
Option C is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that biohacking is a mainstream medical practice
endorsed by healthcare professionals.
Option D is incorrect. The passage highlights the potential impact of biohacking on health and well-being,
indicating that it does have an impact.
Q.24)
Ans) a
As there is one letter in between A and C, 3 choices for the letter in between.
Now total three blocks A_C , other two letters
3 ! For arrangement of this 3 block word.
Also 2! For arrangement of A and C, as ABC can also be CBA
So total number of ways = 3 × 3! × 2! = 36
Q.25)
Ans) d
From statement 1
A is son of C.
B is daughter of D.
From statement 2
There is one married couple
Options for married couple are
A and B
C and B
A and D
C and D
A and B are siblings only if C and D are the married couple
So it is not certain if A and B are siblings.
[8]
Q.26)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the right answer.
Count of numbers which are divisible by either 3 or 5 = [ (numbers divisible by 3) + (numbers divisible by
5) - (numbers divisible by both 3 & 5)]
From 100 to 400,
numbers divisible by 3 are 400 / 3 – 100 / 3 = 100
numbers divisible by 5 is 400/5 – 100/5 = 60
numbers divisible by (3 & 5) is 400/15 – 100/15 = 20
Now, compute using the above formula
Count of numbers which are divisible by either 3 or 5 is 100 + 60 = 160 – 20 = 140
So, option(a) is the correct answer.
Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct option
To find the number of factors of 3600 that are divisible by 15, we first need to find the prime factorization
of 3600.
3600 = 24 x 32 x 52
Now, for a factor of 3600 to be divisible by 15, it must contain at least one factor of 3 and one factor of 5
In a divisor,
For powers of 2 we have 5 choices (0, 1, 2, 3, 4)
For power of 3 we have 2 choices 1 & 2
For power of 5 we have 2 choices 1 & 2
Total no of factors will be 5 * 2 * 2 = 20
So, option(b) is the correct answer.
Q.28)
Ans) c
To solve this, let's first analyze the given conditions:
1. c divides (3a + b) completely.
2. c divides (5a + 3b) completely.
If (c) divides both (3a + b) and (5a + 3b) completely, then it must also divide any linear combination of
these two expressions. In other words, (c) must divide any expression of the form k (3a + b) + m (5a + 3b),
where k and m are integers.
Now, to eliminate a and b one by one
For 3 x (3a + b) - (5a + 3b) = 4a
For 5 x (3a + 2b) - 3 (5a + 3b) = b
So, from the above combinations both 4a and 4b are divisible by c.
Hence c is definitely a factor of 4a and b. Hence option c is the correct answer.
[9]
Q.29)
Ans) b
x as the number of students who study math only,
y as the number of students who study English only,
z as the number of students who study Hindi only,
a as the number of students who study both math and English only,
b as the number of students who study both English and Hindi only,
c as the number of students who study both math and Hindi only, and
d as the number of students who study all three subjects.
Given:
Total number of students N = 100
Number of students who don't study any of the three subjects = 8
We can set up equations using the given information:
1. x + a + c + d = 52 (students who study math)
2. y + a + b + d = 65 (students who study English)
3. z + b + c + d = 47 (students who study Hindi)
From total number of students who study = 92(total students minus those who don't study any subject)
x + y + z + (a + b + c) + d = 100 – 8 = 92
Now, let's solve these equations: ..... 4
From adding equations 1, 2, and 3, we get
x + y + z + 2 (a + b + c) + 3 x d = 114. .......5
Subtracting eq 4 from eq 5
We get 2d + ( a + b + c ) = 24
For maximizing d, we can take a = b = c = 0,
2d = 24
D= 12.
Hence option b is the correct option.
Q.30)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct option.
From first condition
_________2x________ A , B _______x____.
From 2nd condition

______x____ B ____x_____.
B ____9___A
For minimum number of people the arrangement that can be used
______x____B ______9_____ A
From this x = 9 + 1 = 10
Total number of people = 20 + 1 = 21
Hence option C is the correct answer.
[10]
Q.31)
Ans) c
Assumption 1: This assumption is implied from the passage, as political leaders are depicted as exploiting
societal divisions for their own gain. Therefore, it is a correct inference from the passage.
Assumption 2: While the passage discusses the impact of communalization on social cohesion and
democratic principles, it does not explicitly state that communalization can result in their breakdown.
Hence, this assumption is not directly supported by the passage.
Assumption 3: This assumption is explicitly mentioned in the passage. The passage discusses how
communalization can lead to violence, discrimination, and the marginalization of minority groups,
supporting this assumption.
Assumption 4: The passage primarily portrays communalization as a divisive strategy used by political
leaders to exploit societal divisions, rather than as an important tool to win elections in India. Therefore,
this assumption is not relevant to the passage and is not supported by its content.
Q.32)
Ans) a
Assumption 1: This assumption is supported by the passage, which highlights the reliance of communities
on subsistence farming and livestock rearing for sustenance. However, assumption 2 is not accurate, as
the passage indicates disparities in access to essential services and economic opportunities between
rural and urban areas.
Q.33)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer
Assumption 1: While the passage mentions disparities between rural and urban areas, it does not
specifically address youth migration trends. Therefore, assumption 1 cannot be directly inferred from the
passage.
Assumption 2: The passage mentions traditional gender roles, indicating that gender equality is not
prioritized in Tanzanian society, thus making assumption 2 incorrect.
Q.34)
Ans) b
Option A: Incorrect. While true, it merely touches upon his background and does not capture the central
theme of his leadership and impact.
Option B: Correct. This statement encapsulates the essence of the passage by highlighting his pivotal role
in leading a transformative movement that challenged the established norms and structures of power.
Option C: Incorrect. While his strategic prowess is mentioned, it does not fully encompass the broader
scope of his transformative leadership.
Option D: Incorrect. While accurate, it is a general statement about his legacy and does not capture the
proactive nature of his actions.
Q.35)
Ans) d
[11]
Unit digit depends only on unit digit.
Unit digit of
13 = 1, 23 = 8, 33 = 7
43 = 4, 53 = 5, 63 = 6
3 3
8 = 2, 9 = 9, 103 = 0
So unit digit of ( 1 + 2 + 3 ...... + 103) = ( 1 + 8 + 7 + 4 + 5 + 6 + 2 + 9 +0 ) = 42 = 2
3 3 3
So, unit digit 13 = unit digit of 113 = unit digit of 213 = 313 = 413 = 1
Similarly for 2
unit digit 23 = unit digit of 123 = unit digit of 223 = 323 = 423 = 8
So unit digit of ( 13 + 23 + 33 ...... + 503) = 5 x unit digit of ( 13 + 23 + 33 ...... + 103)
= 5 x 2 = 10
=0
Hence unit digit of the given expression is 0.
Q.36)
Ans) c
The relative gain of faster cock over the slower one is 6 min in one hour actual time.
Now for a hand clock to show the same time, it takes 12 hours
For these two clocks to show the same time again the faster clock has to gain 12 hours over the slower
clock.
Time taken to gain 12 hours = 12 x 60 / 6 = 120 hours
Time taken in days = 120/24 = 5 days
Q.37)
Ans) b
From the 1st statement
If LCM = product of the numbers
This implies the numbers are co primes.
Like 8,9 or 7,11 but the product can be both odd or even so can’t be determined using only first statement.
From 2nd statement we get
Sum of two numbers is odd
This implies one number is odd and other is even neccesarily.
So then product will be even.
So, we can answer the question using only 2nd statement.
Q.38)
Ans) c
Make the Venn diagram of conclusions to falsify them but satisfy the statements.
Below Venn diagram shows that conclusion 2 do not follow.
[12]
But as some tractors are cycles then, there are only 2 possibilities w.r.t cycle, tractor and planes as shown
below. Thus, either conclusion 1 follows or conclusion 3, not both.
Q.39)
Ans) c
Total runs in 35 innings = 50 × 35 = 1750
From statement-1: Total runs in 36 innings will be 51.25 × 36 = 1845
[13]
Score in 36th inning = 95
From statement 2: Total runs in 36 innings will be 1750 + 149 = 1899
Average in 36 innings will be 1899/36 = 52.75.
Q.40)
Ans) d
From statement 1 we get
A runs 200 m and B runs 170.
But this is not enough information to calculate the ration of speed, as time taken by both is not given.
From statement 2 we get
Time taken by B is 2 secs more than time taken by A.
This statement alone cannot give the ration of speed.
Now using both statements
For A speed = 200/ (t + 2)
For B speed = 170 / t
Ratio of the speed = 20/17 x t/ (t+2)
So, the ratio of speed is dependent on the time taken by A to finish the race. Thus the question cannot be
answered even by using both the statements.
Hence option d is the correct answer
Q.41)
Ans) a
Assumption 1: This assumption is supported by the passage, which highlights the fiscal challenges faced
by Southern European countries as a central aspect of the Eurozone crisis. However, assumption 2 is not
accurate, as the passage mentions social unrest and political discontent resulting from austerity
measures, indicating that they were not universally accepted.
Q.42)
Ans) a
Assumption 1: The passage suggests that the crisis underscored the need for greater fiscal integration
within the Eurozone, supporting this assumption. However, assumption 2 is not accurate, as the passage
implies that the structural weaknesses exposed by the crisis remain unresolved, indicating ongoing
challenges for the European Union.
Q.43)
Ans) a
Assumption 1: This assumption is supported by the passage, which identifies rising sea temperatures as a
key environmental stressor contributing to coral bleaching.
However, assumption 2 is not directly addressed in the passage, as the effectiveness of marine protected
areas in preventing coral bleaching is not explicitly mentioned.
[14]
Q.44)
Ans) a
Assumption 1: The passage highlights the threat posed by coral bleaching to marine biodiversity,
supporting this assumption.
However, assumption 2 is not accurate, as the passage suggests that pollution is one of the environmental
stressors contributing to coral bleaching, albeit alongside rising sea temperatures and other factors.
Q.45)
Ans) b
So cubes with both colours are located on the edges shared by both colours.
On each edge there are 4 such cubes

There are 6 such edges.
But cubes on corners are counted in two edges, so needs to be subtracted. There are 6 such corners
So number of cubes = 4 × 6 – 6 = 18
Q.46)
Ans) d
Total marks = 60
Marks obtained in hardware = 60 % of 10 = 6/10
Marks obtained in software = 30 % of 30 = 9/30
Marks obtained in hardware = 60 % of 20 = 12/20
Total marks obtained = 27 /60
Passing marks = 50 % of 60 = 30/ 60
Number of more questions required = 30 – 27 = 3
Q.47)
Ans) a
For maximum working days we select a month with 31 days.
Now 31 = 4 x 7 + 3
Month will have 4 of each days of a week and 3 extra days.
[15]
For maximum possible working days, we make extra days working by taking extra days 29th, 30th and 31st
as Thursday, Friday and Saturday.
Thus as 29th day is Thursday 1st day of month is also Thursday.
So number of holidays = 2 x 4 = 8
Number of working days = 31 – 8 = 23.
Hence only first statement is correct.
Q.48)
Ans) a
Case 1 : R is highest
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
R V T
But V > P > Q cannot be satisfied in this case.
Case 2 : S is highest
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
S V P Q
But V > P > Q can be satisfied in this case
So, S scores highest is correct.
Hence option a is correct.
Q.49)
Ans) d
If we analyze the statements given in the question
1) Hasini is younger than Madhavi
Madhavi > Hasini
2) Pooja is younger than Pranati
Pranati > Pooja
3) Madhavi and Pranati are of same age
Madhavi = Pranati > Pooja
4) Neelam is elder to Madhavi
Neelam > Madhavi = Pranati > Pooja
We are not able to determine using given data who is elder among Hasini and Pooja. So, 4th position has
two possibility Hasini and Pooja.
Hence data is inadequte to determine.
So, option D is the correct answer.
Q.50)
Ans) a
From the given information in the question. Sociology is on the top so we will assign number ‘1’ to it.
Education is immediately below sociology, so it is on 2nd number. Accountancy is immediately below
education, so it is on 3rd number.
Economics is immediately above psychology but not in middle so it 5th number and simultaneously
psychology is 6th number.
Hindi is immediately below psychology. So it is 7th number.
[16]
English is left so it is middle hence 4th number.
Arranging the seven books in order from 1st to 7th Sociology, Education, Accountancy, English,
Economics, Psychology, Hindi.
Three books between Accountancy and Hindi are English, Economics and Psychology. So, option (a) is
correct.
Q.51)
Ans) b
Option A is an inference from the passage, but it does not fully capture the core message. While
environmental sustainability is one aspect of ethical consumerism, the passage discusses multiple values
and ethical standards.
Option B is the crux of the passage. The passage emphasizes how ethical consumerism involves
prioritizing purchases from companies that align with consumers' values and ethical standards.
Option C is incorrect. The passage suggests that ethical consumerism plays a role in holding corporations
accountable by supporting ethical businesses and promoting positive social and environmental change.
Option D is incorrect. The passage highlights the challenge of greenwashing and the importance of
transparency and consumer education, suggesting that blind trust in companies' claims is not
encouraged.
Q.52)
Ans) b
Option A is a correct inference from the passage, but it does not fully capture the core message. While
mental wellness apps do offer various features, the primary focus of the passage is on the empowerment
aspect.
Option B is the crux of the passage. The passage emphasizes how mental wellness apps empower
individuals to take control of their mental health by providing convenient support and resources.
Option C is incorrect. The passage explicitly states that mental wellness apps are not substitutes for
professional therapy or medical treatment, but can complement traditional interventions.
Option D is incorrect. The passage does not suggest that mental wellness apps are ineffective, but rather
highlights their potential benefits in promoting emotional well-being and managing mental health
conditions.
Q.53)
Ans) d
Option A: While renewable energy technologies are highlighted in the passage, they are just one aspect of
how technology enables sustainable development. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
Option B: Digital platforms are mentioned as part of how technology promotes sustainability, but they do
not encompass the full scope of the passage. Thus, this option is incorrect.
Option C: Smart infrastructure solutions are discussed, but they do not capture the overarching message
that technology serves as a powerful tool for sustainable development. Hence, this option is incorrect.
Option D: This option correctly captures the essence of the passage, emphasizing the broad role of
technology in promoting sustainability through innovation, efficiency, and resource optimization.
Therefore, it is the correct answer.
[17]
Q.54)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct explanation.
For Any for two digit number biggest remainder is when 99/50. Remainder = 49.
For our case where numbers are reverse of each other.
The smaller of the two numbers will be divisors.
Now, for remainder to maximum we need to maximize the smaller number and reverse also.
If we take divisor to be 49, the reverse number will be 94.
Now the remainder will be 45 .
Q.55)
Ans) a
19a2+19a =19a(a+1)
Now as a and a + 1 are consecutive numbers, one of them has to be even and will contain 2 as a factor.
So 19 and 19 x 2 = 38 will always divide the given number.
Hence option a is the correct answer.
Q.56)
Ans) b
We are given the range from [100, 999]
Case 1 -> 8 comes on hundredth place, for tens place we have 10 choices & unit place 9 choices (except 8)
= 10 x 9 = 90 ways
Case 2 -> 8 comes on tens place, for hundredth place we have 8 choices (excluding 0 & 8) & unit place
again 9 choices = 8 x 9 = 72
But there are common numbers in these cases where 8 appears at hundredth place and tenth place and
not at unit place -> 9 choices for unit place = 9 ways
Number of such numbers = case 1 + case 2 – common numbers
90 + 72 – 9 = 153
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q.57)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is correct answer
Amount of work done by 1 man in 1 day = 1 / 120
Amount of work done by 1 man in 1 hr. = 1/ 480
As mentioned, men efficiency is 2 times as women
Therefore,
Amount of work done by 1 woman in 1 hr. = 1 / 960
Amount of work done by 1 woman in 1day = 6 / 960 = 1/ 160
Let’s say 20 women takes d days to finish the task.
So, their 1-day work contribution is 1 / 20 * d = 1 / 160
Solving for the variable d, gives d = 8 days.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
[18]
Q.58)
Ans) c
We first need to expand 72 into prime factors,
72 = 32 x 23
am x bn = (32 x 23)100 = 3200 x 2300 = (3200 )1 x 2300
From last equation we can put a = 3200, m = 1 , b = 2 & n = 300
Which gives the maximum possible value for n – m = 300 – 1 = 299
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q.59)
Ans) a
For maximum number of attempts, we have to take the worst case.
No colour is being completed, till the end
At last one ball of each colour is remaining Which is 3 ball are remaining. Then next attempt is bound
complete all balls of atleast one colour.
So maximum number of attempts = total number of ball – 2
So statement 1 is enough to answer the question.
But statement 2 gives the ratio which can’t be used to find total number of attempts.
Hence option a is the correct option.
Q.60)
Ans) d
Distance= 300 meters
Daily average time or Sam time= 60 secs
Sam or regular speed = 300 / 60 = 5 m/secs
Ram time = 60 / ( 1.20 ) = 50
Extra time by Sam = 60 – 50 = 10.
Distance sam already travelled = 5 x 10 = 50 mmeter.
Hence option d is correct answer.
Q.61)
Ans) d
Option A is a valid inference from the passage, highlighting one of the benefits of unplugging. However, it
does not fully capture the core message of the passage, which emphasizes the broader purpose of
unplugging for mental and emotional well-being.
Option B is a valid inference from the passage, but it does not fully capture the core message. While
excessive screen time can lead to negative effects, the passage focuses on the benefits of unplugging
rather than solely on the consequences of excessive screen time.
Option C is incorrect. While digital devices are valuable tools, the passage highlights the importance of
unplugging and disconnecting from constant technology stimulation, suggesting that they are not
essential at all times.
Option D is the crux of the passage. It summarizes the purpose and benefits of unplugging, emphasizing
its role in allowing individuals to disconnect from constant technology stimulation and recharge mentally
and emotionally.
[19]
Q.62)
Ans) b
Option A is incorrect. The passage states that urban foraging has seen a resurgence in recent years,
indicating that it has not declined.
Option B is the crux of the passage. It highlights the positive aspects of urban foraging, emphasizing its
role in promoting environmental awareness and community engagement.
Option C is incorrect. The passage specifically refers to gathering edible plants and food resources from
urban environments, not rural environments.
Option D is incorrect. While the passage mentions the importance of caution and respect for urban
ecosystems, it does not suggest that urban foraging poses significant risks to public health and safety.
Q.63)
Ans) c
Option A is a valid inference from the passage, but it does not fully capture the core message. While
plant-based diets do prioritize consumption of certain foods, the passage emphasizes the broader shift
towards plant-based dietary patterns and alternative protein sources.
Option B is incorrect. The passage highlights the lower environmental footprint of plant-based diets
compared to traditional animal-based diets, not the other way around.
Option C is the crux of the passage. It summarizes the shift towards plant-based dietary patterns and
alternative protein sources and their role in offering sustainable and ethical alternatives to conventional
animal protein sources.
Option D is incorrect. The passage states that plant-based dietary patterns are associated with numerous
health benefits, contradicting the statement that they are associated with higher risks of heart disease,
diabetes, and certain cancers.
Q.64)
Ans) b
Let the total marks for the paper be M and cutoff marks be C, then
0.3 x M = C – 12 -> (1)
0.4 x M = C + 6 -> (2)
Subtracting 2 from 1, gives
0.1 x M = 18, which means M = 180 total marks
On putting the value in eq 1. we get C = 0. 3 x 180 + 12 = 54 + 12 = 66
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q.65)
Ans) b
Let’s say we have x students in total
If we had x + 1 students, then all students are arranged in rows perfectly which means
(x + 1) is divisible by 8, 9 & 10 which means Lowest common multiple for these values will give us the
minimum no. Of students.
x + 1 = LCM (8,9,10) = 360
Therefore, x = 359 students
Hence, option(b) is the correct answer.
[20]
Q.66)
Ans) c
Prime factorization of 1800 = 23 x 35 x 52
Total number of factors will be (3 + 1) x (5 + 1) x (2 + 1) = 4 x 6 x 3 = 72
But the case where 1 x factor = 1800 or factor x 1 = 1800 needs to exclude as a and b both should be
greater than 1.
Therefore, possible values for a = 70.
Hence, option(c) is the correct answer.
Q.67)
Ans) a
Total weight of 6 persons = 6 x 40 =240 kg
When F is removed
Total weight of 5 person = 5 x 38 = 190
This implies weight of F = 240 – 190 = 50
Now, by removing E average remains same, weight of E is same as current average = 38 kg
Weight of 4 people (A- D) = 4 x38 = 152
When D is removed
Total weight of 3 person = 3 x 40 = 120
This implies weight of D = 152 – 120 = 32
Hence weight of F – D = 50 – 32 = 18
So, statement 1 is correct.
But the weight of E is 38.
So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Hence option a is the correct option.
Q.68)
Ans) c
The speed of minute hand relative to hour hand is 5.5o per minute.
At 5 pm minute hand is 150 behind hour hand.
To coincide minute hand need to travel 150 more than hour hand.
It will take 150/5,5 = 27.27 minutes.
So it would coincide between 5: 27 and 5: 28
Q.69)
Ans) d
The given series is: aba_bbaba_bba_a_bba_a_bb
As the series has 24 character we divide it in 6- 6 letters and try to find pattern
The pattern being followed in the above series is: abaabb, abaabb
Full series is -> abaabbabaabbabaabbabaaabb
We feel the missing positions from this complete series.
Hence correct answer would be aababa.
[21]
Q.70)
Ans) b
For the number to be greater than 30000, it must start with the digit 3.
Also, as only 5 digits are given to us, all must be used. 3 _ _ _ _
The 4 blanks have to be filled by two 1’s and two 2’s
Number of ways to do so = 4!/ [(2!x2!] = 6
Hence option b will be the correct answer.
Q.71)
Ans) b
Statement 1: The passage does not suggest that glocalization prioritizes standardization over
customization but rather emphasizes the importance of striking a delicate balance between global and
local elements. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 2: Contrary to this statement, glocalization involves adapting global products or services to
align with the preferences and cultural intricacies of local markets, rather than taking local cultures to
the globe. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: The passage explicitly states that glocalization requires businesses to strike a delicate
balance between global and local elements to resonate with diverse consumer segments, supporting this
statement.
Q.72)
Ans) a
Statement 1: The passage explicitly states that plasma is composed of positively charged ions and free
electrons, supporting this statement.
Statement 2: The passage mentions plasma's abundance in the universe, including its presence in stars,
lightning, and auroras, contradicting this statement. Therefore, it is incorrect.
Statement 3: The passage discusses various technological applications of plasma, such as plasma TVs,
fusion reactors, and semiconductor manufacturing processes, but it also acknowledges that these
applications are not universal and may be limited to certain niche industries. Therefore, this statement is
more nuanced and subtle compared to the extreme statement in the previous version.
Q.73)
Ans) c
Statement 1: The passage does not attribute beriberi primarily to genetic factors but rather to dietary
deficiencies and absorption issues. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement 2: The passage mentions symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, and tingling extremities as
manifestations of beriberi, supporting this statement.
Statement 3: The passage discusses treatment involving thiamine supplementation, indicating that it is a
necessary component of beriberi treatment. Therefore, this statement is correct.
Q.74)
Ans) c
[22]
As, 21 = 3 x 7
For N to be divisible by 21, it has to be divisible by 3 and 7 both.
As this is obvious and that N will be divisible by 7 lesser no. of times than 3.
So, now of times 21 will divide = no. Of times 7 will divide
For Number of times 7 will divide,
Numbers divisible by 7 are 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49
Number of times = 6 x1 + 2 (49 is divisible twice)
=8
So, N is divisible by 21, eight times.
Q.75)
Ans) c
From given conditions
Taking life time of diophantus as x.
X/6 + x/ 12 +x / 7 + 5 + x/2 + 4 = x
X = 84
Q.76)
Ans) c
The pattern in the sequence is
3x3-1=8
8 x 3 - 1 = 23
23 x 3 - 1 = 68
68 x 3 –1 = 203
So, the value of of X is
203 x 3 - 1 = 208
Q.77)
Ans) c
First clocks rings in 90 secs
2nd clock rings in 150 secs
For ringing together we take LCM
LCM of 90 and 150 is equal to 450 Secs.
So clocks will ring together once in 450 secs if they start together.
In 1 hour number of such rings = 3600 / 450 = 8
Q.78)
Ans) c
LCM includes all the prime factors with maximum powers as possible in any of numbers of whic LCM is
calculated.
LCM till 1 to 35 is A.
[23]
For 36, 18 x 2 is already included in A.
As 37 is new prime new LCM needs 37.
Similarly 38, 39 and 40 is already included.
Thus LCM is equal to 37 A.
Q.79)
Ans) a
Let the number be ABC
Statement 1
Difference between number and sum of digits
100 A + 10 B + C - (A + B + C) = 99 A + 9 B = 9 ( 11 A + B)
Which is always divisible by 9.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Statement 2
Minimum value of the ratio = 199/19 > 10
Thus statement 2 is wrong.
So, option a is the correct answer.
Q.80)
Ans) b
Let the number be N
As with 3,4 5 and 6, one is left,
(N –1) is divisible by 3,4,5 and 6.
So N – 1 is multiple of lcm of 3, 4, 5 and 6
lcm of 3, 4, 5 and 6 = 60
Multiple of 60 are 60, 120, 180, 240, 300
Possible values of N = 61, 121, 181, 241 and 301
As N is divisible by 7 so N= 301
[24]

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122405 - Solutions |

GCD (50,75,125) turns out to be 25.

Now, we can represent them as

Now rewrite the numbers by taking the powers inside

243 < 256 < 343 i.e. c < a < b

So, the option (c) is correct answer

Now, let's do the same for "Geography":

So, "Geography" would be written as "HDQEUXTDD".

Let’s take V volume from each vessel then,

Vessel 1 has 2V / 3 milk and V / 3 water

Vessel 2 has 3V / 4 milk and V/4 water

Vessel 3 has 4V/5 milk and V/5 water

Total milk = 2V/ 3 + 3V/ 4 + 4V/ 5 = (40V + 45V + 48V) / 60 = 133V/ 60

Total water = V/ 3 + V/ 4 + V/ 5 = (20V + 15V + 12V) / 60 = 47V/ 60

Ratio: Milk/ Water = 133 / 47

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

For powers of 2 we have 5 choices (0, 1, 2, 3, 4)

For power of 3 we have 2 choices 1 & 2

For power of 5 we have 2 choices 1 & 2

Total no of factors will be 5 * 2 * 2 = 20

So, option(b) is the correct answer.

From 2nd condition

For minimum number of people the arrangement that can be used

On each edge there are 4 such cubes

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