22 JMI MBA (Full Time) M-55

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JMI MBA (Full Time) ENTRANCE

EXAM 2022
Question Paper
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SET–D
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Since 2002
Paper Code No. M–55 Question Booklet No. 060304

ENTRANCE EXAMINATION – (2022–23)
SET – D
ROLL NO.
Signature of Invigilator
Time : THREE HORS Total Marks : 170
Instructions to Candidates
1. Do not write your name or put any other mark of identification anywhere in the OMR Response Sheet.
IF ANY MARK OF IDENTIFICATIONS IS DISCOVERED ANYWHERE IN OMR RESPONSE
SHEET, the OMR sheet will be cancelled, and will not be evaluated.
2. This Question Booklet contains the cover page and a total of 100 Multiple Choice Questions of 1 mark
each.
3. Space for rough work has been provided at the beginning and end. Available space on each page may
also be used for rough work.
4. There is negative marking for Multiple Choice Questions. For each wrong answer, 0.25 marks will
be deducted.
5. USE / POSSESSION OF ELECTRONIC GADGETS LIKE MOBILE PHONE, iPhone, iPad , page
ETC. is strictly PROHIBITED.
6. Candidate should check the serial order of questions at the beginning of the test. If any question is found
missing in the serial order, it should be immediately brought to the notice of the Invigilator. No pages
should be torn out from this question booklet.
7. Answer must be marked in the OMR response sheet which is provided separately. OMR answer sheet
must be handed over to the Invigilator before you leave the seat.
8. The OMR response sheet should not be folded or wrinkled. The folded or wrinkled OMR / Response
Sheet will not be evaluated.
9. Write your Roll Number in the appropriate space (above) and on the OMR Response Sheet. Any other
details, if asked for, should be written only in the space provided.
10. There are four options to each question marked A, B, C and D. Select one of the most appropriate
options and fill up the corresponding oval/Circle in the OMR Response Sheet provided to you. The
correct procedure for filling up the OMR Response Sheet is mentioned below.
CORRECT METHOD
A C D
WRONG METHOD

A B C D A B C D 
A B C D A B C D A B C D
A B C D

SET – D Since 2002
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the question given below: (Q 1 – 2)
A fortune teller has a unique way of predicting his customer‘s fate. He has kept three parrots in
three different cages. Each cage also has three cards with a single digit non-zero number inscribed
on every card. No two cards have the same number and no cages contain two cards with digits
summing to ten. Further the total of the numbers on the three cards in the first cage is greater
than the second by two and the third cage by four. When a customer asks for his prognosis, the
fortune teller lets out the three parrots which randomly pick one card out of their respective
cages. Before the prognosis is made, the fortune teller totals the digits on the three cards picked
out and charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the cards. One day a
customer paid seven rupees for his prognosis.
1. What is the maximum sum of money that someone may pay
(A) 22 (B) 23 (C) 24 (D) 21
2. What is the lowest payment possible
(A) Rs. 6 (B) Rs. 7 (C) Rs. 5 (D) Rs. 8
Data Analysis and Sufficiency
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the question given below: (Q3 – 9)
Ampee, Bumpee, Chumpee, Dumpee and Pumpee are five ducks. Initially they had 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
eggs, not necessarily in that order. They laid 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 eggs (not necessarily in that order) and
finally had 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 eggs (not necessarily in that order) in the end. Further information
regarding them is given:
1. Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end.
2. Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs.
3. Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
4. Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with.
3. The duck that ended with maximum number of eggs started with how many number of egg
(A) Ampee (B) Bumpee (C) Chumpee (D) Either Ampee or Bumpee
4. What is the name of the duck that laid 1 egg
(A) Ampee (B) Bumpee (C) Chumpee (D) Either Ampee or Bumpee
5. How many eggs the duck that ended with 6 egg s lay
(A) Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end
(B) Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs
(C) Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
(D) Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with
6. How many eggs the duck that started with 3 egg s lay
(A) Initially Dumpee had 2 eggs and ended up with 7 eggs at the end
(B) Bumpee laid 3 eggs and did not end in 8 eggs
(C) Pumpee did not lay 1 egg or 2 eggs.
(D) Ampee ended with the number of eggs Chumpee started with
7. A sum of money is sufficient to pay Sachin‘s salary of 45 days and kale‘s salary for 60 days.
For how many days can the sum pay the salary of both?
(A) 180/7 days (B) 280/11 days (C) 25 days (D) 270/11 days
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8. A and B are two alloys of iron and silver prepared by mixing metals in the ratio 4 : 5 andSince 7 : 2002
5
respectively. If equal quantities of alloys are melted to form a third alloy C, the ratio of iron to
silver in C is
(A) 29 : 35 (B) 19 : 18 (C) 31 : 25 (D) 37 : 35
9. In what proportion must tea at Rs. 7.50 per kg be mixed with tea at Rs. 10.50 per kg to produce a
mixture worth Rs. 8.50 per kg?
(A) 2 : 2 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3
10. Two full tanks, one shaped like a cylinder and the other like a cone, contain jet fuel. The
cylindrical tank holds 500 litres more than the conical tank. After 200 litres of fuel has been
pumped out from each tank the cylindrical tank contains twice the amount of fuel in the conical
tank. How many litres of fuel did the cylindrical tank have when it was full?
(A) 700 (B) 1200 (C) 1000 (D) 1100
11. The ratio of the age of a man and his wife is 4 : 3. After 4 years, this ratio will be 9 :7. If at the time
of the marriage, the ratio was 5 : 3 , then how many years ago they were married?
(A) 8 years (B) 12 years (C) 10 years (D) 15 years
12. Total salary of A, B and C is Rs. 350. If they spend 75%, 80% and 56% of their salaries
respectively their savings are as 10 : 12 : 33. Find the salary of C?
(A) 150 (B) 80 (C) 180 (D) None of these
13. The cost of diamond varies directly as the square of its weight. Once, this diamond broke into four
pieces with weights in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4. When the pieces were sold, the merchant got Rs. 70,
000 less. Find the original price of the diamond.
(A) Rs. 1 lakh (B) Rs. 2 lakhs (C) 1.4 lakhs (D) Rs. 2.5 lakhs
14. A student gets an aggregate of 60% marks in five subject in the ratio 10 : 9 : 8 : 7 : 6. If the
passing marks are 50% of the maximum marks and each subjects has the same maximum
marks, in how many subjects did he pass the exam?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
15. Two persons A and B can do a work alone in 29 days. A takes the rest of one day after every 4
days and B takes the rest of one day after every 5 days. If A and B starts working together, then
the work will be completed on
(A) 15th day (B) 17th day (C) 16th day (D) 18th day
16. A and B do a work in exactly 16 days, B and C do the same work in exactly 12 days while C and A
do the same work in about 10 days. If A, B and C can together do the work in integral number of
days, then C does the work alone in
(A) 16 days (B) 15 days (C) 18 days (D) None of these
17. Three labours worked together for 30 days, in the course of work, all of them remained absent for
few days. One of them was absent for 10 days more than the second labourer and the third
labourer did one-third of the total work. How many days more than the third labourer was the
first one absent?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) cannot be determined
18. A work was completed by three persons of equal ability, first one doing m hours for m days,
second one doing n hours for n days (m and n being integers) and third one doing 16 hours for 16
days. The work could have been completed in 29 days by third person alone with his respective
working hours. If all of them do the work together with their respective working hours, then they
can complete it in about
(A) 12 days (B) 13 days (C) 15 days (D) 14 days
19. I sell a table for Rs. 24 and thus make a percentage of profit equal to the cost price.
Since 2002
What did the table cost me?
(A) Rs. 20 (B) Rs. 10 (C) Rs. 40 (D) Rs. 30
20. A man sells two horses for Rs. 1955 each. On one he gains 15% and on the other
he loses 15%. His total gain or loss is
(A) Rs. 40.00 (B) Rs. 90.00 (C) Rs. 97.75 (D) Rs. 19.55
21. A bike costs Rs. 48000. Its value depreciates by 30% in the first year and in each subsequent year
the depreciation is 20% of the value at the beginning of that year. The value of the bike after 3
years will be
(A) Rs. 26880 (B) Rs. 21504 (C) Rs. 38400 (D) Rs. 39480
22. A jeep travels a distance of 100 km at a uniform speed. If the speed of the jeep is 5 kmph more,
then it takes 1 hour less to cover the same distance. The original speed of the jeep is
(A) 25 kmph (B) 20 kmph (C) 30 kmph (D) 50 kmph
23. Two trains 121 m and 99 m in length respectively are running in opposite directions, one at the
rate of 40 kmph and the other at the rate of 32 kmph. How long will they take to be completely
clear of each other from the moment they meet?
(A) 110 sec (B) 99 sec (C) 88 sec (D) 11 sec
24. A man reaches his office 30 min late, if he walks from his home at 3 km per hour and reaches 40
min early if he walks at 4 km per hour. How far is his office from his house?
(A) 7km (B) 14 km (C) 5 km (D) 3 km
25. There are 3 concentric circular strips on a dart. The Probability of hitting the inner most circular
lamina is 1/9, that of the central strip is 1/3 and of the outer most strip is 5/9. One gets 10 points
for hitting the inner most lemma, 6 for the central strip and 2 for the outermost strip. What is the
probability of getting at least 20 points in 3 attempts? Given that a target (i.e. the one of the 3
strips) is never missed?
(A) 1/81 (B) 5/81 (C) 52 /729 (D) 1/9
26. 5 army men are standing in a row left to right. Chetan and Chetak are charioteers. Shailendra
and Surendra are the soldiers while Dinesh is a doctor. Dinesh always stands in the middle. The
two soldiers and two charioteers do not stand next to each other respectively. If Shailendra is not
standing immediately next to the doctor, then out of all the arrangements possible, what is the
probability that a charioteer stands next to the doctor?
(A) 1 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/2 (D) 1/3
27. There are 7 boys and 8 girls in a class. A teacher has 3 items viz a pen, a pencil and an eraser, each
5 in number. He distributes the items, one to each student. What is the probability that a boy
selected at random has either a pencil or an eraser?
(A) 2/3 (B) 2/21 (C) None of these (D) 14/45
28. Glass spheres (which submerge fully in water) of radius 7 mm are dropped into a cylindrical
vessel containing some water. The diameter of the vessel is 14 cm. Find how many spheres have
been dropped in it if the water level rises by 3.5 cm?
(A) 300 (B) 37 (C) 375 (D) Data insufficient
29. Three identical cones with base radius r are placed on their base so that each is touching the other
two. The radius of the circle drawn through their vertices is
(A) smaller than r (B) larger than r
(C) equal to r (D) depends on the height of the cones
30. Two walls and the ceiling of a room meet at right angles at point P. A fly is in the
air, 1 meter from one wall, 8 meters from the other wall and 9 meters from the point P. Since 2002
How many meters is the fly from the ceiling?
(A) 4 (B) 14 (C)15 (D) None of these
31. The HCF of two numbers is 12 and their sum is 288. How many pairs of such numbers are
possible?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 2
32. Three company of soldiers containing 120, 192, and 144 soldiers are to be broken down into
smaller groups such that each group contains soldiers from one company only and all the groups
have equal number of soldiers. What is the least number of total groups formed?
(A) 29 (B)39 (C) 49 (D) 19
33. If a book has 252 pages, how many digits have been used to number the pages?
34. For an odd number n, find the highest number that always divides n × (n2 – 1)?
(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 48 (D) 96
35. The cost of 3 hamburgers, 5 milk shakes, and 1 order of fries at a certain fast food restaurant is
Rs, 23.50. At the same restaurant , the cost of 5 hamburger , 9 milk shakes and 1 order of fries
is Rs. 39.50. What is the cost of 2 hamburgers, 2 milk shakes, and 2 orders of fries at this
restaurant?
(A) 10 (B).5 (C)7.5 (D) .15
36. If x and y are positive integers and x – y = 101, find the value of x2 + y2.
2 2
37. On writing first 252 positive integers in a straight line. How many times digit 4 appears?
(A) 55 (B) 50 (C) 52 (D) 54
38. India and Australia player one – day international cricket series until anyone team win 4 matches.
No match ended in a draw. In how many ways can the series be won?
(A) 35 (B) 70 (C) 105 (D) 140
39. The sum of all the possible numbers of 4 digits formed by digits 3, 5, 5 and 6 using each digit once
is
(A) 64427 (B) 63327 (C) 65297 (D) 43521
40. In CAT 2007 there were 75 questions. Each correct answer was rewarded by 4 marks and each
wrong answer was penalized by 1 mark. In how many different combination of correct and wrong
answer is a score of 50 possible?
(A) 14 (B) None of these (C) 16 (D) 15
41. The domain of the function f x   2  2x  x f(x)  2  2x  x  is
2 2
(A)  3  x  3  3  x  3 (B)  1  3  x  1  3  1  3  x  1  3
(C)  2  x  2  2  x  2 (D)  2  3  x  2  3
42. f ( x)  x  1x  3x  2 f ( x)  x  1x  3x  2 is a real value function in the domin
(A)  1,2  3  1,2U 3  (B)  ,1U 3,   ,1  3,  
(C)  ,1U 2,3 ,1  2,3 (D) None of these

CRITICAL REASONING
Direction : Read the paragraph and answer the question given below : (Q43 - 45) Since 2002
43. The five sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced form coherent
paragraph. Decide on the proper order for the sentence and key in this sequence of five numbers as your
answer.
1. Scientists have for the first time managed to edit genes in a human embryo to repair a genetic mutation,
fuelling hopes that such procedures may one day be available outside laboratory conditions.
2. The cardiac disease causes sudden death in otherwise healthy young athletes and affects about one in
500 people overall.
3. Correcting the mutation in the gene would not only ensure that the child is healthy but also prevents
transmission of the mutation to future generations.
4. It is caused by a mutation in a particular gene and a child will suffer from the condition even if it
inherits only one copy of the mutated gene.
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 2 4 3 (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 4 12 3
44. The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best
captures the essence of passage. As Soviet power declined, the world became to some extent
multipolar, and Europe strove to define an independent identity. What a journey Europe has
undertaken to reach this point. It had in every century changed its internal structure and invented
new ways of thinking about the nature of international order. Now at the culmination of an era,
Europe, in order to participate in it, felt obliged to set aside the political mechanisms through which
it had conducted its affairs for three and a half centuries. Impelled also by the desire to cushion the
emergent unification of Germany, the new European Union established a common currency in 2002
and a formal political structure in 2004. It proclaimed a Europe united, whole, and free, adjusting its
differences by peaceful mechanisms.
1. Europe has consistently changed its internal structure to successfully adapt to the changing world
order.
2. Europe has consistently changed in keeping with the changing world order and that has
culminated in a united Europe.
3. The establishment of a formal political structure in Europe was hastened by the unification of
Germany and the emergence of a multipolar world.
4. Europe has chosen to lower political and economic heterogeneity, in order to adapt itself to an
emerging multi-polar world.
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
45. Five jumbled up sentences, related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together of
them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd one out and key in the
number of the sentence as your answer:
1. Talk was the most common way for enslaved men and women to subvert the rules of their
bondage, to gain more agency than they were supposed to have.
2. Even in conditions of extreme violence and unfreedom, their words remained ubiquitous,
ephemeral, irrepressible, and potentially transgressive.
3. Slaves came from societies in which oaths, orations, and invocations carried great potency, both
between people and as a connection to the all-powerful spirit world.
4. Freedom of speech and the power to silence may have been preeminent markers of white liberty in
Colonies, but at the same time, slavery depended on dialogue: slaves could never be completely
muted.
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
46. Identify the most appropriate summary for the paragraph.
Since 2002
North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars (Amorpha juglandis) look like easy
meals for birds, but they have a trick up their sleeves—they produce whistles that sound like bird
alarm calls, scaring potential predators away. At first, scientists suspected birds were simply startled
by the loud noise. But a new study suggests a more sophisticated mechanism: the caterpillar‘s whistle
appears to mimic a bird alarm call, sending avian predators scrambling for cover. When pecked by a
bird, the caterpillars whistle by compressing their bodies like an accordion and forcing air out
through specialized holes in their sides. The whistles are impressively loud – they have been
measured at over 80 dB from 5 cm away from the caterpillar – considering they are made by a two-
inch long insect.
1. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars will whistle periodically to ward off predator birds
– they have a specialized vocal tract that helps them whistle.
2. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars can whistle very1 loudly; the loudness of their
whistles is shocking as they are very small insects.
3. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of acoustic deception, produce whistles
that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.
4. North American walnut sphinx moth caterpillars, in a case of deception and camouflage, produce
whistles that mimic bird alarm calls to defend themselves.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
47. Train service suffers when a railroad combines commuter and freight service. By dividing its
attention between its freight and commuter customers, a railroad serves neither particularly well.
Therefore, if a railroad is going to be a successful business, then it must concentrate exclusively on
one of these two markets.
For the argument to be logically correct, it must make which one of the following assumptions?
(A) Unless a railroad serves its customers well, it will not be a successful business.
(B) Commuter and freight service have little in common with each other.
(C) The first priority of a railroad is to be a successful business.
(D) If a railroad concentrates on commuter service, it will be a successful business.
48. The term ―pit bull‖ does not designate a breed of dog, as do the terms ―German shepherd‖ and
―poodle.‖ It is like the terms ―Seeing-Eye dog‖ and ―police dog,‖ which designate dogs according
to what they do. If you take two German shepherds and place them side by side, you cannot tell by
appearance alone which is the police dog and which is the Seeing-Eye dog.
Which one of the following is the main point of the passage?
(A) A dog is a pit bull because of what it does, not because of its breed.
(B) Pit bulls can be distinguished from other kinds of dogs by appearance alone.
(C) German shepherds can function both as police dogs and as Seeing-Eye dogs.
(D) Some breeds of dogs cannot be distinguished from other breeds of dogs by appearance alone.
Fill up the blanks to make the sentence appropriate. (Q. 49 – 50):
49. How much a man earns is as important as __________
(A) why does he earn of all (B) when does he do so
(C) how does he do it (D) where does he earn
50. The notice at the petrol pump should be ______
(A) all engines must have to be switched off. (B) all engines must be switched off.
(C) all engines have to be switched off. (D) all engines must need to be switched off.
Choose the correct synonym of the given word (Q 51 – 53):
Since 2002
51. Fastidious
(A) Finicky (B) Overaspiring (C) Overconfidence (D) Overfed
52. Alacrity
(A) Eagerness (B) with suspicion (C) Unwillingly (D) Hesitatingly
53. Estrange
(A) Alienate (B) Miscalculate (C) To become puzzling (D) Endanger
Subject – verb Agreement

54. Only in the interest of establishing clear lines of communication among their government and ours
has the President acceded to their demands in regarded to the tariff dispute.
(A) Only in the interest of establishing clear lines of communication among their government and
ours has the President acceded to their demands in regard to the tariff dispute.
(B) Only due to the interest of establishing clear lines of communication between their government
and ours has the President acceded to their demands in regard to the tariff dispute.
(C) Only in the interest of establishing clear lines of communication between their government
and ours has the President acceded to his demands in regard to the tariff dispute.
(D) Only to the interest of establishing clear lines of communication between their government
and ours has the President acceded to their demands in regard with the tariff dispute.
55. The result of all these lengthy legal actions, counterclaims, and appeals, stretching over several
months, were simply huge bills from the lawyers and nothing else.
(A) The result of lengthy legal actions, counterclaims, and appeals, stretching over several months,
were simply huge bills from the lawyers and nothing else.
(B) The result of all lengthy legal actions, counterclaims, and appeals, stretching over several
months, were simply huge bills from the lawyers and nothing else.
(C) The result of all lengthy legal actions, counterclaims, and appeals, stretching over several
months, were huge bills from the lawyers and nothing else.
(D) The result of all these lengthy legal actions, counterclaims, and appeals, stretching over several
months, were simply huge bills from lawyers and nothing else.
Sentence Correction
Direction : The given sentence below is not totally correct. Choose the correct sentence from the
options given below : (Q.56 – Q 57)
56. Mother dolphin whistle to their calves frequently after birth so that the calves will learn
recognizing their distinctive whistle.
(A) learn recognising their distinctive whistle.
(B)learn to recognise their distinctive whistle.
(C) will learn to recognise their distinctive whistle.
(D) learn to recognise their mother's distinctive whistle.
57. Most people cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather then deal with their feelings.
(A) cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather than deal with their feelings.
(B) cope up with anxiety by reaching for food rather than dealing with their feelings.
(C) cope with anxiety by reaching for food rather than deal with their feelings.
(D) cope with anxiety by reaching for food rather than dealing with their feelings.
SECTION – I – ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Since 2002
VERBAL ABILITY
DIRECTION – Answer the questions given below after reading the given passages.
Passage – I (Q. 58 – 65)
Bernard Bailyn has recently reinterpreted the early history of the United States by applying new
social research findings on the experiences of European migrants. In his reinterpretation, migration
becomes the organizing principle for rewriting the history of preindustrial North America. His
approach rests on four separate propositions.
The first of these asserts that residents of early modern England moved regularly about their
countryside; migrating to the New World was simply a ―natural spillover.‖ Although at first the
colonies held little positive attraction for the English—they would rather have stayed home—by the
eighteenth century people increasingly migrated to America because they regarded it as the land of
opportunity. Secondly, Bailyn holds that, contrary to the notion that used to flourish in America
history textbooks, there was never a typical New World community. For example, the economic and
demographic character of early New England towns varied considerably.
Bailyn‘s third proposition suggests two general patterns prevailing among the many thousands of
migrants: one group came as indentured servants, another came to acquire land. Surprisingly,
Bailyn suggests that those who recruited indentured servants were the driving forces of
transatlantic migration. These colonial entrepreneurs helped determine the social character of
people who came to preindustrial North America. At first, thousands of unskilled laborers were
recruited; by the 1730‘s, however, American employers demanded skilled artisans.
Finally, Bailyn argues that the colonies were a half-civilized hinterland of the European culture
system. He is undoubtedly correct to insist that the colonies were part of an Anglo-American
empire. But to divide the empire into English core and colonial periphery, as Bailyn does, devalues
the achievements of colonial culture. It is true, as Bailyn claims, that high culture in the colonies
never matched that in England. But what of seventeenth-century New England, where the settlers
created effective laws, built a distinguished university, and published books? Bailyn might respond
that New England was exceptional. However, the ideas and institutions developed by New England
Puritans had powerful effects on North American culture.
Although Bailyn goes on to apply his approach to some thousands of indentured servants who
migrated just prior to the revolution, he fails to link their experience with the political development
of the United States. Evidence presented in his work suggests how we might make such a
connection. These indentured servants were treated as slaves for the period during which they had
sold their time to American employers. It is not surprising that as soon as they served their time
they passed up good wages in the cities and headed west to ensure their personal independence by
acquiring land. Thus, it is in the west that a peculiarly American political culture began, among
colonists who were suspicious of authority and intensely anti-aristocratic.
58. The author of the passage would be most likely to agree with which of the following statements
about Bailyn‘s work?
(A) Bailyn‘s description of the colonies as part of an Anglo-American empire is misleading and
incorrect.
(B) Bailyn failed to test his propositions on a specific group of migrants to colonial North America.
(C) Bailyn overemphasizes the experiences of migrants to the New England colonies, and neglects
the southern and the western parts of the New World.
(D) Bailyn underestimates the effects of Puritan thought on North American culture.
Since 2002
59. It can be inferred from the passage that American history textbooks used to assert that
(A) more migrants came to America out of religious or political conviction that came in the hope
of acquiring land
(B) New England communities were much alike in terms of their economics and demographics
(C) many migrants to colonial North America failed to maintain ties with their European relations
(D) the level of literacy in New England communities was very high
60. The author of the passage is primarily concerned with
(A) suggesting that new social research on migration should lead to revisions in current
interpretations of early American history
(B) providing the theoretical framework that is used by most historians in understanding early
American history
(C) discussing a reinterpretation of early American history that is based on new social research
on migration
(D) refuting an argument about early American history that has been proposed by social
historians
61. According to the passage, which of the following is true of English migrants to the colonies during
the eighteenth century?
(A) Most of them came because they were unable to find work in England.
(B) They expected that the colonies would offer them increased opportunity.
(C) They differed from other English people in that they were willing to travel.
(D) They were generally not as educated as the people who remained in England.
62. According to the passage, Bailyn and the author agree on which of the following statements about
the culture of colonial New England?
(A) High culture in New England never equaled the high culture of England.
(B)The cultural achievements of colonial New England have generally been unrecognized by
historians.
(C) The colonists imitated the high culture of England, and did not develop a culture that was
uniquely their own.
(D) The southern colonies were greatly influenced by the high culture of New England.
63. Which of the following best summarizes the author‘s evaluation of Bailyn‘s fourth proposition?
(A) It is partially correct. (B) It is highly admirable.
(C) It is controversial though persuasive. (D) It is intriguing though unsubstantiated.
64. The author of the passage states that Bailyn failed to
(A) describe carefully how migrants of different ethnic backgrounds preserved their culture in the
united States
(B) take advantage of social research on the experiences of colonists who migrated to colonial
North America specifically to acquire land
(C) investigate the lives of Europeans before they came to colonial North America to determine
more adequately their motivations for migrating
(D) relate the experience of the migrants to the political values that eventually shaped the
character of the United States

65. Which of the following statements about migrants to colonial North America is supported Since
by2002
information in the passage?
(A) Migrants who came to the colonies as indentured servants were more successful at making a
livelihood than were farmers and artisans.
(B) Migrants to colonial North America were more successful at acquiring their own land during
the eighteenth century than during the seven-tenth century.
(C) A significant percentage of migrants who came to the colonies to acquire land were forced to
work as field hands for prosperous American farmers.
(D) By the 1730‘s, migrants already skilled in a trade were in more demand by American
employers than were unskilled laborers.
Passage – II (Q. 66 – 72)
According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed more than two
billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep
beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems
were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration
of wet sedimentary rocks.
The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth's surface and were found
because they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting
methods. Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not
yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression.
The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and
pinpoint the position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial
images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the
magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive
chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization.
However, none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are
applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must
therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most likely to be
mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take
into account theoretical studies of relevant factors.
These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits
and from theories of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to identify those
geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and
then tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.
66. According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that are widely used today are based on
which of the following facts?
(A) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression
(B) Most of the Earth's remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface.
(C) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are
found in regions difficult to reach.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are
unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of gold.
67. The theory mentioned in lines I of the passage, relates to the conceptual models
Since 2002
discussed in the passage in which of the following ways?
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual
models that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact
mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein
systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a
basis for correcting current conceptual models.
68. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids
(B) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos
69. Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information
in the passage?
(A) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed
to locate buried mineralization.
(B) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original
gold rushes and the present.
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits
discovered during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utility of simple prospecting methods as a
source of new discoveries of gold deposits.
70. The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers
who wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold?
(A) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration
(B) Surveying several sites known to have been formed more than two billion years ago
(C) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area
71. According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that
such systems
(A) originated in molten granite-like bodies
(B) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally, have surface expression
72. The author is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely used methods
(D) describing events leading to a discovery

Passage – III (Q. 73– 76) Since 2002
In an attempt to improve the overall performance of clerical workers, many companies have
introduced computerized performance monitoring and control systems (CPMCS) that record
and report a worker's computer-driven activities. However, at least one study has shown that
such monitoring may not be having the desired effect. In the study, researchers asked
monitored clerical workers and their supervisors how assessments of productivity affected
supervisors' ratings of workers' performance. In contrast to unmonitored workers doing the
same work, who without exception identified the most important element in their jobs as
customer service, the monitored workers and their supervisors all responded that productivity
was the critical factor in assigning ratings. This finding suggested that there should have been a
strong correlation between a monitored worker's productivity and the overall rating the
worker received. However, measures of the relationship between overall rating and individual
elements of performance clearly supported the conclusion that supervisors gave considerable
weight to criteria such as attendance, accuracy, and indications of customer satisfaction.
It is possible that productivity may be a "hygiene factor"; that is, if it is too low, it will hurt the
overall rating. But the evidence suggests that beyond the point at which productivity becomes
"good enough," higher productivity per se is unlikely to improve a rating.
73. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(A) explain the need for the introduction of an innovative strategy
(B) discuss a study of the use of a particular method
(C) recommend a course of action
(D) resolve a difference of opinion
74. According to the passage, a "hygiene factor" (line 27) is an aspect of a worker's performance that
(A) is not likely to affect a worker's rating unless it is judged to be inadequate
(B) is so basic to performance that it is assumed to be adequate for all workers
(C) is given less importance than it deserves in rating a worker's performance
(D) is important primarily because of the effect it has on a worker's rating
75. It can be inferred that the author of the passage discusses ―unmonitored workers‖ primarily in
order to
(A) provide an example of a case in which monitoring might be effective
(B) provide evidence of an inappropriate use of CPMCS
(C) illustrate the effect that CPMCS may have on workers' ratings
(D) emphasize the effect that CPMCS may have on workers' perceptions of their jobs
76. According to the passage, before the final results of the study were known, which of the following
seemed likely?
(A) That workers who initially achieved high productivity ratings would continue to do so
consistently
(B) That the most productive workers would be those whose supervisors claimed to value
productivity
(C) That supervisors who claimed to value productivity would place equal value on customer
satisfaction
(D) That the highest performance ratings would be achieved by workers with the highest
productivity
DIRECTION – Answer the questions given below after reading the given passages. Since 2002
Passage – IV (Q. 77– 84)
During the Victorian period, women writers measured against a social rather than a literary
ideal. Hence, it was widely thought that novels by women should be modest, religious, sensitive,
guileless, and chaste, like their authors. Many Victorian women writers took exception to this
belief, however, resisting the imposition of non-literary restrictions on their work. Publishers
soon discovered that the gentlest and most idyllic female novelists were tough-minded and
relentless when their professional integrity was at stake. Keenly aware of their artistic
responsibilities, these women writers would not make concessions to secure commercial
success.
The Brontes, George Eliot, Elizabeth Barrett Browning, and their lesser-known
contemporaries repudiated, in their professional lives, the courtesy that Victorian ladies might
exact from Victorian gentlemen. Desiring rigorous and impartial criticism, most women
writers did not wish reviewers to be kind to them if kindness meant overlooking their literary
weaknesses or flattering them on their accomplishments simply because of their sex. They had
expected derisive reviews; instead, they found themselves confronted with generous criticism,
which they considered condescending. Elizabeth Barrett Browning labelled it ―the comparative
respect which means... absolute scorn.‖
For their part, Victorian critics were virtually obsessed with finding the place of the woman
writer so as to judge her appropriately. Many bluntly admitted that they thought Jane Eyre a
masterpiece if written by a man, shocking or disgusting if written by a woman. Moreover,
reactionary reviewers were quick to associate an independent heroine with carefully concealed
revolutionary doctrine; several considered Jane Eyre a radical feminist document, as indeed it
was. To Charlotte Bronte, who had demanded dignity and independence without any
revolutionary intent and who considered herself politically conservative, their criticism was an
affront. Such criticism bunched all women writers together rather than treating them as
individual artists.
Charlotte Bronte‘s experience served as a warning to other women writers about the
prejudices that immediately associated them with feminists and others thought to be political
radicals. Irritated, and anxious to detach themselves from a group stereotype, many expressed
relatively conservative views on the emancipation of women (except on the subject of women‘s
education) and stressed their own domestic accomplishments. However, in identifying
themselves with women who had chosen the traditional career path of marriage and
motherhood, these writers encountered still another threat to their creativity. Victorian
prudery rendered virtually all experience that was uniquely feminine unprintable. No
nineteenth-century woman dared to describe childbirth, much less her sexual passion. Men
could not write about their sexual experiences either, but they could write about sport,
business, crime, and war—all activities from which women were barred. Small wonder no
woman produced a novel like War and Peace. What is amazing is the sheer volume of first-rate
prose and poetry that Victorian women did write.

Since 2002
77. The passage suggests that the literary creativity of Victorian women writers could
have been enhanced if
(A) Women had been allowed to write about a broader range of subjects
(B) Novels of the period had been characterized by greater stylistic and structural ingenuity
(C) A reserved and decorous style had been a more highly valued literary ideal
(D) Publishers had sponsored more new women novelists
78. It can be inferred from the passage that a Victorian woman writer who did not consider herself a
feminist would most probably have approved of women‘s
(A) Entering the publishing business (B) Joining the stock exchange
(C) Joining the stock exchange (D) Entering a university
79. The passage suggests that the attitude of Victorian women writers toward being grouped together
by critics was most probably one of
(A) Indifference (B) Annoyance (C) Amusement (D) Ambivalence
80. It can be inferred from the passage that Charlotte Bronte considered the criticisms levelled at
Jane Eyre by reactionary reviewers ―an affront‖ primarily because such criticism
(A) assumed that her portrayal of an independent woman represented revolutionary ideas
(B) assessed the literary merit of the novel on the basis of its author‘s sex
(C) labeled the novel shocking and disgusting without just cause
(D) denied that the novel was a literary masterpiece
81. The author of the passage quotes Elizabeth Barrett Browning in order to demonstrate that
Victorian women writers
(A) felt that their works were misunderstood
(B) refused to make artistic concessions
(C) feared derisive criticism
(D) resented condescending criticism
82. The passage suggests that Victorian criticism of works by women writers was
(A) Perfunctory (B) indulgent (C) resourceful (D) timely
83. According to the passage, Victorian women writers ―would not make concessions‖ to publishers
primarily because they felt that such concessions would
(A) Require them to limit descriptions of uniquely feminine experiences
(B) Make them vulnerable to stereotyping by critics
(C) Compromise their artistic integrity
(D) Provide no guarantee that their works would enjoy commercial success
84. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) Trace the historical relationship between radical feminist politics and the Victorian novels
written by women
(B) Describe the discrepancy between Victorian society‘s expectations of women writers and the
expectations of the women writers themselves
(C) Show how three Victorian women writers responded to criticism of their novels
(D) Resolve the apparent contradiction between Victorian women writers‘ literary innovativeness
and their rather conservative social views

Current Affairs and Economic and Business Environment
Since 2002
85. Devaluation of a currency means:
(A) Permitting the currency to seek its worth in the international market
(B) Reduction in the value of currency vis – a vis major internationally traded currencies.
(C) Fixing the value of the currency in conjunction with movement in the value of a basket of
predetermined currencies.
(D) Fixing the value of a currency after a multilateral consultation with the IMF, IBRD, and
major trading partners
86. Which among the following is the largest export market for India, for its marine products?
(A) USA (B) China (C) EU (D) Japan
87. Which Company launched M15 Petrol, with 15 percent blend of methanol with petrol?
(A) Indian Oil Corporation (B) Bharat Petroleum
(C) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (D) GAIL Ltd
88. The Madras High Court has invoked the ―parens patriae Jurisdiction‖ to declare which entity as a
‗living being‘?
(A) Mother Nature (B) Tamil Language
(C) Food Grains (D) Agricultural Lands
89. Which institution releases the ‗Report on Currency and Finance (RCF)‘?
(A) Ministry of Finance (B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) National Payment Corporation of India (D) NITI Aayog
90. Which Union Ministry is associated with the pilot phase of the Open Network for Digital
Commerce (ONDC)?
(A) Ministry of MSME (B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Ministry of Commerce and Industry (D) Ministry of Electronics and IT
91. ‗Jivhala‘ is a special loan scheme launched by which state government?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Maharashtra (C) Odisha (D) West Bengal
92. India ‗s first green – field grain – based ethanol plant has been inaugurated in which state /UT
(A) Gujarat (B) Odisha (C) Bihar (D) Telangana
93. India signed a pact on ‗Green Hydrogen Task Force‘ and agreed to work on Al – startups with
which country?
(A) Germany (B) UK (C) USA (D) France
th
94. Which start – up recently became the 100 unicorn of India?
(A) Fractal (B) Open (C) Games 24  7 (D) Livspace
95. After the May 2022 Meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee, what is the revised Repo Rate?
(A) 3.75 % (B) 4.25% (C) 4.40% (D) 4.50%
96. Cynthia Rosenzweig, who was seen in the news, is the recipient of which prestigious award?
(A) World Food Prize (B) Booker Prize
(C) Pulitzer Prize (D) Abel Award
97. Which Indian state /UT recently passed a ‗Startup Policy‘, to support 15, 000 start – ups by 2030?
(A) New Delhi (B) Assam (C) Rajasthan (D) Punjab
98. Who is the head of the Delimitation Commission, which redrew the electoral map of Jammu and
Kashmir?
(A) Justice Sadasivam (B) Justice Ranjana Prakash Desai
(C) Justice Ranjan Gogoi (D) Sushil Chandra
99. What is the new Total Fertility Rate (TFR) in India as per the National Family
Health Survey (NFHS – 5)? Since 2002
(A) 2.0 (B) 2. 2 (C) 2.4 (D) 1. 9

100. Which state has announced incentives for farmers opting for Direct Seeding of Rice (DSR)?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Punjab (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Telangana
101. Which Union Ministry implements the ‗PM MITRA‘ scheme?
(A) Minister of Home Affairs (B) Ministry of Textiles
(C) Ministry of Defence (D) Ministry of External Affairs
102. What is the mascot of the Fourth Kehelo India Youth Games 2022?
(A) Dhakad (B) Appu (C) Veer (D) Ghambhir
103. Which country established a ‗Digital Markets Unit (DMU) ‘ to curb authority of big tech
companies over news publishers?
(A) USA (B) France (C) UK (D) Australia
104. Which company has designed India‘s first Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS)
(A) DRDO (B) HAL (C) Siemens (D) Alstom
105. Which institution releases the Periodic Labour force survey (PLFS) results in India?
(A) Ministry of Labour and Employment (B) NITI Aayog
(C) National Statistics Office (D) World Bank – India
106. Carlos Alcaraz, Who won the Madrid Open title recently, is from which country?
(A) France (B) Switzerland (C) Russia (D) Spain
107. Which budgets among the following is known as the black budget in Indian budget history?
(A) Budget of 1990 – 91 (B) Budget of 1965 – 66
(C) Budget of 1962 – 63 (D) Budget of 1973 – 74
108. ‗John Lee‘, who was in the news recently, is the newly elected leader of which country?
(A) Taiwan (B) Hong Kong (C) South Korea (D) Malaysia
109. Which country has reported are rare viral infection ‗Monkeypox‘?
(A) Japan (B) Australia (C) United Kingdom (D) India
110. By selling a 3.5 percent stake in LIC, what is the total amount to be raised by the Government?
(A) Rs. 64000 Crore (B) Rs. 45000 Crore
(C) Rs. 36000 Crore (D) Rs. 21000 Crore
111. Which country has proposed a ―European Political Community‖ for countries hopeful of joining
the European Union?
(A) UK (B) Italy (C) France (D) Germany
112. Which is the first Indian company to cross USD 100 billion annual revenue?
(A) Adani Industries (B) Tata Industries
(C) Future Enterprise (D) Reliance Industries
113. In which one of the following budgets the services tax was introduced?
(A) Budget 1994 - 1995 (B) Budget 1987 - 1988
(C) Budget 2007 - 2008 (D) Budget 1997 - 1998
114. Which country launched ―Affordable Connectivity Program‖ to Provide subsidies on internet
service to lower – income households?
(A) China (B) Australia (C) UK (D) USA
115. ‗National Behavior Change Communication Framework for Garbage Free Cities‘ has been
launched under which scheme?
(A) Swachh Bharat Mission – Gramin 2.0 (B) AMRUT 2.0
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission – Urban 2.0 (D) HRIDAY 2.0
116. Which is the venue of the ‗Semicn India Conference - 2022 ‘?
Since 2002
(A) Mumbai (B) Bengaluru (C) New Delhi (D) Chennai
117. Which institution launched the ‗Mandate document‘ for National Curriculum Framework
(NCF)?
(A) Union Education Ministry (B) University Grants Commission
(C) AICTE (D) National Testing Agency
118. Which Indian Bank launched the ‗Open – for – all‘ Digital ecosystem for MSMEs?
(A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Bank
(C) HDFC Bank (D) Canara Bank
119. Which Indian state is the first to set up a Gene Bank Project?
(A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra (C) Telangana (D) West Bengal
Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. (Q. 120 – 125)
A small software firm has four offices , numbered 1, 2, 3, and 4. Each of its offices has exactly one
printer. Each of these eight machines was bought in either 1987, 1988, or 1989. The eight machines
were b ought in a manner consistent with the following conditions:
I. The computer in each office was bought either in an earlier year than or in the same year as the
printer in that office.
II. The computer in office 2 and the printer in office 1 were bought in the same year.
III. The computer in office 3 and the printer in office 4 were bought in the same year.
IV. The computer in office 2 and the computer in office 3 were bought in different years.
V. The computer in office 1 and the printer in office 3 were bought in 1988.
120. Suppose that the computer in office 2 and the computer in office 3 had been bought in the same
year as each other. If all of the other conditions remained the same, then which one of the
following machines could have been bought in 1989?
(A) the printer in office 1 (B) the computer in office 2
(C) the computer in office 4 (D) the printer in office 2
121. If the computer in office 3 was bought in 1988, then which one of the following statements could be
true?
(A) The computer in office 4 was bought in 1987.
(B) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1988.
(C) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987.
(D) The printer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
122. If the computer in office 4 was bought in 1988, then which one of the following statements must be
true?
(A) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1988.
(B) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
(C) The printer in office 1 was bought in 19889
(D) The computer in office 3 was bought in 1987.
123. If as few of the eight machines as possible were bight in 1987, then what is the exact number of
machines that were bought in 1987?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (C) 3
124. Which one of the following statements could be true?
Since 2002
(A) The printer in office 1 was bought in 1987.
(B) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987
125. If the computer in office 3 was bought in an earlier year than the printer in office 3 was, then
which one of the following statements could be true?
(A) The computer in office 2 was bought in 1987.
(B)The computer in office 2 was bought in 1988.
Exactly six trade representatives negotiate a treaty: K, L, M, N, O, P. There are exactly six chairs
evenly spaced around a circular table. The chairs are numbered 1 through 6, with successively
numbered chairs next to each other and chair number 1 next to chair number 6. Each chair is
occupied by exactly one of the representatives. The following conditions apply:
I. P sits immediately next to N.
II. L sits immediately next to M, N, or both.
III. K does not sit immediately next to M.
IV. If O sits immediately next to P, O does not sit immediately next to M.
126. If K sits immediately next to O, then L CANNOT sit directly between

(A) K and N (B) M and N (C) N and O (D) M and P
127. If L sits immediately next to N, which one of the following statements must be false?
(A) K sits immediately next to O. (B) L sits immediately next to M.
(C) O sits immediately next to P. (D) N sits directly between L and P.
128. If L sits immediately next to M, then which one of the following is a complete and accurate list of
representatives any one of whom could also sit immediately next to L
(A) K, N (B) K, N, O, P (C) N, P (D) K, O, P
129. If N sits immediately next to M, then K can sit directly between
(A) L and P (B) N and O (C) P and O (D) N and P
130. If K sits directly between L and P, then M must sit directly between
(A) L and O (B) L and N (C) N and O (D) N and P
131. If L sits immediately next to P, which one of the following is a pair of representatives who must sit
immediately next to each other?
(A) L and N (B) L and O (C) K and O (D) M and N
132. Which one of the following seating arrangements of the six representatives in chairs 1 through 6
would NOT violate the stated conditions?
(A) K, P, N, M, O, L (B) K, L, M, O, P, N
(C) K, O, P, N, L, M (D) K, L, M, P, N, O

Four couples – Ram & Sita, Laila & Majnu , Krishna & Radha and Heer & Ranjha - are Since 2002
sitting
around a circular table on 8 chairs equidistant from each other, all of them facing the centre of the
table. Each of the four men and each of the four women wear a T-shirt of one of the four colors i.e
Red, Blue, Green and Yellow, such that no two men wear the same colored T-shirt and no two
women wear the same colored T-shirt. The following information is also known.
1. No two men sit adjacent to each other.
2. Ram is sitting opposite Ranjha.
3. No husband is sitting adjacent to his wife.
4. Ram, Majnu, Krishna and Ranjha are males.The rest are females.
5. In a couple, the husband and wife don‘t wear the same colored T-shirt.
6. Ram does not wear a green colored T-shirt.
7. No person is wearing the same colored T-shirt as the person sitting either adjacent or opposite
to him/her.
8. Sita is not sitting adjacent to Krishna.
9. Heer and Ranjha wear Blue and Red colored T-shirts respectively.
133. How many individuals are sitting between Krishna and Majnu?
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
134. Who are wearing the Yellow colored T-shirts?
(A) Heer & Majnu (B) Ranjha & Radha
(C) Ram & Laila (D)Sita & Krishna
135. If the person sitting to the immediate right of Krishna is wearing a blue colored T-shirt, then that
person is:
(A) Laila (B) Heer
(C) Either Heer or Laila (D) Either Laila or Radha
136. Which 2 people are sitting adjacent to the male wearing the Blue T-shirt?
(A) Heer & Laila (B) Laila & Sita
(C) Sita & Radha (D) Radha & Heer
Ten students Alex, Bryan, Charlie, Deepak, Elwin, Frank, George, Harish, Ian and Joseph are the
only participants in an inter-college competition. They are all from three different colleges viz.
Harvard, Stanford and Oxford. The number of participants from no two colleges is the same.
The following additional information is known:
I. Exactly two of Bryan, Elwin and George are from Harvard.
II. Frank and Alex are from different colleges and neither of them is from a college from where
the maximum participants are.
III. Charlie and Ian are from the same college.
IV. Derek, Harish and Joseph are from three different colleges.
V. Harish is from Stanford and Derek is from the same college as Alex.
137. If Joseph and Bryan are from different colleges, which of the below statements is definitely true?
(A) Elwin and Ian are from the same college.
(B) Bryan and Alex are from Oxford.
(C) Bryan is from the same college as Harish.
(D) None of the above
138. Which of these students cannot be from the college from where the least number of participants
are? Since 2002
(A) Frank (B) Joseph (C) Derek (D) Alex
139. Which two of these are definitely from two different colleges?
(A) Elwin and Frank (B) Ian and Derek
(C) Bryan and Alex (D) George and Harish
Four friends – A, B, C and D – play a game which involves money. They all start with different
amounts, and at the end of 4 rounds, they end up with Rs. 1024 each. The results of each round
are as given below:
Amount with each person

ROUND A B C D
4 1024 1024 1024 1024
3 2304 1024 512 256
2 2304 512 128 1152
1 1152 128 1664 1152
Initially 288 1568 1664 576
In each round, the amount with the person who is ranked I becomes 4 times its value, the amount
with the person who is ranked II becomes twice its value, the amount with the person who is
ranked III remains the same, and the person who is ranked IV loses the amount that were gained
by ranks I and II (such that the sum total of the amounts with the four of them remains constant
in each round).
140. Who had the least amount at the end of round 3?
(A) D (B) A (C) B (D) C
141. What is the maximum amount that anyone had in any of the four rounds?
(A) Rs. 1152 (B) Rs. 1728 (C) Rs. 2304 (D) Rs. 2048
142. At the end of which round did C have the least amount among all four?
(A) Round 1 (B) Round 2 (C) Round 3 (D) Round 4
143. Who had the least amount before the game started?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
Sixty – four players seeded from seed 1 to seed 64 participated in a knock – out tennis
tournament. Seed 1 is the highest seed and seed 64 is the lowest seed. The tournament would be
played in six rounds i.e., first round, second round, third round, quarterfinals, semi finals and
final. In the first round, the player with the highest seed (i.e., 1) would play with the player with
the lowest seed (i.e., 64) which is designated Match No.1.
Similarly, the player with the second highest seed (i.e., 2) would play with the player with the
second lowest seed (i.e., 63), which is designated Match No.2 and so on. In the second round, the
winner of the Match No.1 of the first round would play with the winner of the Match No.32 of the
first round and this match is designated Match No.1 of the second round.
Similarly, the winner of the Match No.2 of the first round would play with the winner of the
Match No.31 of the first round and this match is designated Match No.2 of the second round and
so on. In the similar pattern the subsequent rounds will be played.
144. If there are only five upsets (a lower seeded player beating a higher seeded player) in the
tournament, then who could be the lowest seeded player winning the tournament?
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 17 (D) 63
145. If one of the matches was between the players seeded 23 and 46, then one of the matches in the
tournament can be between players seeded
(A) 6 and 18 (B) 5 and 51 (C) 9 and 13 (D) 17 and 15
146. Who could be the lowest seeded player facing the player seeded 12 in the finals? Since 2002
(A) 63 (B) 57 (C) 59 (D) 62
147. If the player seeded 43 won the tournament, then which of the following players cannot be the
runner-up?
(A) Player seeded 44 (B) Player seeded 45
(C) Player seeded 36 (D) Player seeded 46
Reasoning and General Intelligence.

1600 satellites were sent up by a country for several purposes.The purposes are classified as
broadcasting (B), communication (C), surveillance (S), and others (O). A satellite can serve
multiple purposes; however a satellite serving either B, or C, or S does not serve O.
The following facts are known about the satellites:
1. The numbers of satellites serving B, C, and S (though may be not exclusively) are in the ratio
2:1:1.
2. The number of satellites serving all three of B, C, and S is 100.
3. The number of satellites exclusively serving C is the same as the number of satellites exclusively
serving S. This number is 30% of the number of satellites exclusively serving B.
4. The number of satellites serving O is the same as the number of satellites serving both C and S
but not B.
148. If the number of satellites serving at least two among B, C, and S is 1200, which of the following
MUST be FALSE?
(A) The number of satellites serving B is more than 1000
(B) The number of satellites serving C cannot be uniquely determined
(C) All 1600 satellites serve B or C or S
(D) The number of satellites serving B exclusively is exactly 250
149. If at least 100 of the 1600 satellites were serving O, what can be said about the number of satellites
serving S?
(A) At most 475
(B) Exactly 475
(C) At least 475
(D) No conclusion is possible based on the given information
150. What is the minimum possible number of satellites serving B exclusively?
(A) 100 (B) 200 (C) 500 (D) 250
151. What best can be said about the number of satellites serving C?
(A) Cannot be more than 800 (B) Must be between 450 and 725
(C) Must be between 400 and 800 (D) Must be at least 100

Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below:
Since 2002
(Q 152 - 155)
Alpi is a 2 – year kid who likes to play with her 5 different toys A, B, C, D and E. She has exactly
one toy of each kind. She played for seven consecutive days starting from Monday, and each day
she played with at least one toy. The duration (in minutes) for which she played with each of the
toys is given below:
Toy A B C D E
Duration 1 2 3 4 5
The bar graph shows the total duration (in minutes) for which she played with the toys for seven
days. All the seven days are disguised as D1, D2, D3, D4, D5, D6, and D7 (i.e. not necessarily in the
order from Monday to Sunday).
12
10
8
Duration (in min)
0
D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7
The following facts are also known:
 She plays with exactly one toy at a time and does not play with the same toy in any two consecutive
days. Further, she does not play with the same toy more than once in any day.
 She played for the same duration for exactly two consecutive days
 The duration for which she played on Saturday was half of the duration for which she played on
Sunday.
 On Monday she played for 3 minutes more than she did on Wednesday, and the day on which she
played for the least duration was not Tuesday.
 The day she played for 6 minutes comes before the day she played for 10 minutes in the week
152. What could be the maximum number of days she played with exactly one toy
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
153. For how many minutes did she play on Monday
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 7 (D) 5
154. With which toy did she play for the maximum number of times in the week
(A) B (B) C (C) None of these (D) Either B or C
155. On how many days she played with more than 2 toys
Since 2002
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
(Q 156 - 158)
The table below gives some information about the points scored by Arjun in ANC (All Hestia
Chapion – ship), in each of five different mind games – Dice, Dance, Dupe, Digit and Dynasty.
Game Total Problems Problems Attempted Successful Attempts Failures Net Score
Dice 35 29
Dance 30
Dupe 35 17 6
Digit 40 11
Dynasty 45 30
It is also known that
1. For every successful attempt Arjun gets one point, for un-attempted he loses 1/6th point and for
every failure he loses 1/3rd of a point.
2. Arjun scored a total of 67 points and attempted 125 problems.
3. The number of failures of Arjun in digit is 1/6th of his total number of failures and twice his
number of failures in dance.
4. Arjun‘s net score in dance is double in Dupe.
156. What is the number of problems attempted by him in Dance.
(A) 19 (B) 18 (C) 20 (D) 21
157. The maximum number of failures of Arjun in any game was
(A) 14 (B) 13 (C) 15 (D) 12
158. What is the total number of failures of Arjun in the completion.
(A)36 (B) 35 (C) 34 (D) 33
Direction: Read the information furnished below and answer the questions given below: (Q 159 -
162)
In a class of 145 students, 70 like Physics , 80 like Chemistry and 90 like Mathematics Also, 20 like
Chemistry only, 30 like both Chemistry and Mathematics but not Physics and 15 like physics and
Mathematics but not Chemistry . It is also known that each of the 145 students likes at least one of
the three subjects.
In another class, all the students like Biology only, This class is merged with the previous class to
make a new class and as a result now the combined strength of the new class becomes 180. It is
also found that in the new class, some of the students from the previous class who like Chemistry
or Mathematics but not Physics started liking Biology to number of students who now like
Mathematics and Biology to number of students who like Chemistry and Biology becomes 1 : 3 : 4.
159. In the new class, if the number of students who like exactly three subjects is 24, then , how many
students like exactly only subject.
(A) 84 (B) 82 (C) 83 (D) 85
160. In the new class, if the number of students who like Physics and Chemistry only is equal to the
number of students who like Mathematics and Biology only then , how many students like exactly
three subjects?
(A) 24 (B) 26 (C) 23 (D) 25
161. In the new class, what could be the maximum number of students who like exactly
Since 2002
two subjects?
(A) 78 (B) 79 (C) 77 (D) 76
162. In the new class, what could be the maximum number of students who like Biology?
(A) 72 (B) 71 (C) 70 (D) 73
(Q 163 - 167)
Recently, the answers of a test held nationwide were leaked to a group of unscrupulous people.
The investigative agency has arrested the mastermind and nine other people A, B, C, D, E, F, G,
HA, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and II in this matter. Interrogating them, the following facts have been
obtained regarding their operation. Initially the mastermind obtains the correct answer-key. All
the others create their answer-key from one or two people who already possess the same. These
people are called his/her ―sources‖. If the person has two sources, then he/she compares the
answer- keys obtained from both sources. If the key to a question from both sources is identical, it
is copied, otherwise it is left blank. If the person has only one source, he/she copies the source‘s
answers into his/her copy. Finally, each person compulsorily replaces one of the answers (not a
blank one) with a wrong answer in his/her answer key.The paper contained 200200 questions; so
the investigative agency has ruled out the possibility of two or more of them introducing wrong
answers to the same question. The investigative agency has a copy of the correct answer key and
has tabulated the following data. These data represent question numbers.
Name Wrong Answer(s) Blank Answer(s)

A 46 –
B 96 46, 90, 25
C 27, 56 17, 46, 90
D 17 –
E 46, 90 –
F 14, 46 92, 90
G 25 –
H 46, 92 –
I 27 17, 46, 90
163. Which of the following two groups of people had identical sources?
I. A, D and G II. E and H
(A) Only I (B) Both I and II (C) Neither I nor II (D) Only II
164. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) F introduced the wrong answer to question 14.
(B) E introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
(C) C introduced the wrong answer to question 27.
(D) H introduced the wrong answer to question 46.
165. Both G and H were sources to
(A) F (B) B (C) I (D) None of the nine
166. How many people (excluding the mastermind) needed to make answer keys before CC could make
his answer key?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
Since 2002
167. Which one among the following must have two sources?
(A) B (B) A (C) C (D) D
(Q 168 - 170)
A fourtune teller has a unique way of predicting his customer‘s fate. He has kept three
parrorts in three different cages. Each cage also has three cards with a single digit non-zero
number inscribed on every card. No two cards have the same number and no cages contain two
cards with digits summing to ten. Further the total of the numbers on the three cards in the
first cage is greater than the second by two and the third cage by four. When a customer asks
for his prognosis, the fortune teller lets out the three parrots which randomly pick one card out
of their respective cages. Before the prognosis is made, the fortune teller totals the digits on the
three cards picked out and charges the customer the same number of rupees as the total of the
cards. One day a customer paid seven rupees for his prognosis.
168. Card on which digit is written is in which cage?
(A) 1 (B) Either 1 or 2 (C) 3 (D) 2
169. Which of the following combinations of three cards chosen for prognosis is impossible
(A) 5, 7, 6 (B) 5, 8, 9 (C) 7, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3
170. The four sentence (labeled 1, 2, 3, 4) given in this question, when properly sequenced , from a
coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a number. Decide one the proper sequence of
order of the sentences and key in this sequence of four numbers as your answer.
1. They would rather do virtuous side projects assiduously as long as these would not compel them
into doing their day jobs more honourably or reduce the profit margins.
2. They would fund a million of the buzzwordy programs rather than fundamentally question the
rules of their game or alter their own behavior to reduce the harm of the existing distorted,
inefficient and unfair rules.
3. Like the dieter who would rather do anything to lose weight than actually eat less, the business
elite would save the world through social-impact-investing and philanthro-capitalism.
4. Doing the right thing — and moving away from their win-win mentality — would involve real
sacrifice; instead, it‘s easier to focus on their pet projects and initiatives.
(A) 3421 (B) 3124 (C) 2134 (D) 3241

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Subject code: 002BMA22___________

Date of Exam: 13.07.2022 (Wednesday) 02 : 30 pm - 05:30 pm

Paper Code No. M–55 Question Booklet No. 060304

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(A) 5050 (B) 5101 (C) 5150 (D) None of these

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Subject – verb Agreement

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73. The primary purpose of the passage is to

Passage – IV (Q. 77– 84)

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(A) 2.0 (B) 2. 2 (C) 2.4 (D) 1. 9

126. If K sits immediately next to O, then L CANNOT sit directly between

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Amount with each person

Reasoning and General Intelligence.

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The following facts are also known:

Name Wrong Answer(s) Blank Answer(s)

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IX to XII All Subjects

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