COLLEGE OF NURSING GTHS, LAHORE.

MIDS EXAM BSN 2ND PROF

ADULT HEALTH NURSING-I (MCQs)

STUDENT NAME --------------------- TOTAL MARKS: 50

TIME ALLOWED: 50 MINTS DATE ---------------

CHOOSE THE RIGHT ANSWER.

1.Nurse XYZ is assigned to a 41-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory
result, anticipating a laboratory report that indicates a serum amylase level of:

a. 200units/l b. 50 units /l c. 300 units /l d. 100 units /l

2.A male client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The client is
looking forward to the diet change because he has been “bored” with the clear liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid
item to the client?

a. popsicle b. water c. coffee d. custard

3. Nurse Oliver checks for residual before administering a bolus tube feeding to a client with a nasogastric tube and obtains a
residual amount of 150 ml. What is the appropriate action for the nurse to take?

a. Hold the feeding

b. Rein still the amount and continue with administering feeding

c. Elevate the client’s head at least 45 degrees and administer the feeding

d. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding

4. A nurse is inserting a nasogastric tube in an adult male client. During the procedure, the client begins to cough and has
difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?

a. Quickly insert the tube b. Notify the physician immediately

c. Pull back on the tube and wait until the respiratory distress subsides

d. Remove the tube and reinsert when the respiratory distress subsides

5. The nurse is reviewing the physician’s orders written for a male client admitted to the hospital with acute pancreatitis. Which
physician order should the nurse question if noted on the client’s chart?

a. NPO status b. Morphine sulfate for pain

c. Nasogastric tube inserted d. An anticholinergic medication

6. The nurse is assessing a male client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse noted that the T-tube has drained 750
mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

a. Clamp the T-tube b. Irrigate the T-tube

c. Notify the physician d. Document the findings

7. The nurse is monitoring a female client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment findings would most likely indicate
perforation of the ulcer?

a. Bradycardia b. Numbness in the legs

c. Nausea and vomiting d. A rigid, board-like abdomen

8. The nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for the male client who had umbilical hernia repair. What should the nurse
include in the plan?

a. Irrigating the drain b. Avoiding coughing

c. Maintaining bed rest d. Restricting pain medication

9. The nurse is instructing the male client who has an inguinal hernia repair how to reduce postoperative swelling following the
procedure. What should the nurse tell the client?

a. Limit oral fluid b. Elevate the scrotum

c. Apply heat to the abdomen d. Remain in a low-fiber diet

10. During preparation for bowel surgery, a male client receives an antibiotic to reduce intestinal bacteria. Antibiotic therapy may
interfere with the synthesis of which vitamin and may lead to hypoprothrombinemia.

A. Vitamin A

B. Vitamin D

C. Vitamin E

D. Vitamin K

11. The nurse is reviewing the record of a female client with Crohn’s disease. Which stool characteristics should the nurse expect
to note documented in the client’s record?

a. Diarrhea b. Chronic constipation c. Constipation alternating with diarrhea d. Tarry

12. For a client in hepatic coma, which outcome would be the most appropriate?

a. The client is oriented to time, place, and person. b. The client exhibits no ecchymotic areas.

c. The client increases oral intake to 2,000 calories/day. d. The client exhibits increased serum albumin level.

13. Marie, a 51-year-old woman, is diagnosed with cholecystitis. Which diet, when selected by the client, indicates that the
nurse’s teaching has been successful?

a. 4-6 small meals of low-carbohydrate foods daily b. High-fat, high-carbohydrate meals

c. Low-fat, high-carbohydrate meals d. High-fat, low protein meals

14. Spironolactone (Aldactone) is prescribed for a client with chronic cirrhosis and ascites. The nurse should monitor the client
for which of the following medication-related side effects?

a. Jaundice b. Hyperkalemia c. Tachycardia d. Constipation

15. Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include which of the following?

a. Chills and flank pain b. Oliguria and generalized edema

c. Hematuria and proteinuria d. Dysuria and hypotension

16. You expect a patient in the Oliguric phase of renal failure to have a 24 hours urine output less than:

a. 200ml b. 400ml c. 800ml d. 1000ml

17. A patient is experiencing which type of incontinence if she experiences leaking urine when she coughs, sneezes, or lifts heavy
objects?

a. Overflow b. Reflex c. Stress d. Urge

18. A nurse is assessing a client who is diagnosed with cystitis. Which assessment finding would not be present with the typical
clinical manifestations noted in this disorder?
a) hematuria b) low back pain c) urinary retention d) burning on urination

19. A client has been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Sodium polysterene sulfonate (exchange resin kayexalate) is
prescribed. The action of the medication is that it releases

a)bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions

b) sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions
c)sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions
d) potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions
20. The nurse explains that the autoimmune disease of acute glomerulonephritis is most usually caused by:
a. Frequent cystitis. b. An upper respiratory infection.
c. Childhood disease of mumps. d. A recent wound infection.
21. The nurse would assess the progress of ascites on a daily basis by.

a. Daily weights and measuring abdominal girth. b. Intake-output and electrolyte levels.

c. Blood pressure and pulse. d. Daily temperatures and oxygen levels.

22. What is an elevated level of urea and other nitrogenous waste product in the blood called

a. uremia b. hydration c. calculai d. hypotension

23. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family
members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate
understanding of this information?

a. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.
b. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.
c. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.
d. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.

24. A 36 years old female, who is 29 weeks pregnant, reports she is experiencing burning when voiding. The physician orders a
urinalysis. Which statement by the patient demonstrates she understands how to collect the specimen?

a. "I’ll hold the cup firmly against the urethra while collecting the sample."
b. "I will cleanse back to front with the antiseptic wipe before peeing in the cup."
c. "First, I will pee a small amount of urine in the toilet and then collect the rest in the cup."
d. "I will be sure to drink a lot of fluids to keep the urine diluted before peeing into the cup."

25. You’re providing discharge teaching to a female patient on how to prevent urinary tract infections. Which statement is
INCORRECT?
a. "Void immediately after sexual intercourse."
b. "Avoid wearing tight fitting underwear."
c. "Try to void every 2-3 hours."
d. "Use scented sanitary napkins or tampons during menstruation."

26. Nurse Pete is reviewing the report of a client’s routine urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider abnormal?

a. Specific gravity of 1.03

b. Urine PH of 3.0
c. Absence of protein
d. Absence of glucose

27. What is the most common cause of acute glomerulonephritis?

a. Staph infection on the skin

b. Strep Infection in the throat
c. Fungal Infections
d. None of the above

28. How much renal tissue is effected during any case of glomerulonephritis?

a. Just the Glomeruli

b. Half of the renal tissue
c. Glomeruli and outside lining
d. All of the renal tissue

29. Your patient becomes restless and tells you she has a headache and feels nauseous during hemodialysis. Which complication
do you suspect?

a. Infection
b. Disequilibrium syndrome
c. Air embolism
d. Acute hemolysis

30. Your patient with chronic renal failure reports pruritus. Which instruction should you include in this patient’s teaching plan?

a. Rub the skin vigorously with a towel.

b. Take frequent baths.
c. Apply alcohol-based emollients to the skin.
d. Keep fingernails short and clean.

31. An 18 y.o. student is admitted with dark urine, fever, and flank pain and is diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. Which
would most likely be in this student’s health history?

a. Renal calculi
b. Renal trauma
c. Recent sore throat
d. Family history of acute glomerulonephritis

32. Which drug is indicated for pain related to acute renal calculi?

a. Narcotic analgesics
b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
c. Muscle relaxants
d. Salicylates

33. The net diffusion of water from one solution of water from one solution through a semipermeable membrane to another
solution containing a lower concentration of water is termed:
a. Filtration
b. Diffusion
c. Osmosis
d. Brownian motion

34. When assessing a patient’s total body water percentage, the nurse is aware that all of the following factors influence this
except:

a. Age
b. Fat tissue
c. Muscle mass
d. Gender

35. Khan is suffering from fluid volume deficit (FVD), which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to assess in the
patient?

a. Rales
b. Bounding pulse
c. Tachycardia
d. Bulging neck veins

36. Mr. Wenceslao is scheduled to receive an isotonic solution; which one of the following is an example of such a solution?

a. D10% W
b. 0.45% saline
c. 0.9% saline
d. 3% normal saline W

37. The client underwent transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse
Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions are appropriate?

a. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots.
b. Restrict fluids to prevent the client’s bladder from becoming distended.
c. Prepare to remove the catheter.
d. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.

38. What is pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

a. Abdominal distention
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Infection of a woman's reproductive organs
d. Infertility

39. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in a male client during rectal
examination?

a. A low-riding prostate
b. The presence of a boggy mass
c. Absent sphincter tone
d. A positive Hemoccult

40. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family
members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate
understanding of this information?

a. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down.
b. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.
c. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family.
d. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag.
41. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client?

a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.
b. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days.
c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse.
d. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted during oral sex.

42. The ability of a cell to divide into to equal daughter cells is called

a. Fragmentation
b. Multiple fission
c. Binary fission
d. Budding

43. Which hormone is responsible for puberty in females

a. Prolactin
b. Oxytocin
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. All of the above

44. Humans normally have _____ no of pairs of autosomes

a. 10
b. 21
c. 20
d. 22

45. Sperms are temporarily kept in

a. Epididymis
b. Vas deferense
c. Bladder
d. Vas aference

46. The function that is not influenced by estrogen

a. Release of eggs from the ovaries

b. Formation of sperms
c. Development of the breasts
d. Menstrual cycle

47. Match the acid-base status of the following blood samples to the disorders in the given choices. (PaCO2 values are in mm Hg and bicarbonate
values in mmol/l). PH 7.17, PaCO2 48, HCO3- 3

a. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated

b. Metabolic Acidosis, Partially Compensated
c. Respiratory Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
d. Respiratory Acidosis, Partially Compensated
48. Match the acid-base status of the following blood samples to the disorders in the given choices. (PaCO2 values are in mm Hg and
bicarbonate values in mmol/l). pH 7.64, PaCO2 25, HCO3- 19
a. Respiratory Acidosis, Uncompensated
b. Respiratory Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
c. Respiratory Alkalosis, Uncompensated
d. Metabolic Alkalosis, Partially Compensated
49. The type of fluid used to manipulate fluid shifts among compartments states is:
a. Whole blood
b. TPN
c. Albumin
d. Ensure
50. Daniel who is a marathon runner is at high risk for fluid volume deficit. Which one of the following is a related factor?

a. Decreased diuresis b. Disease-related process

c. Decreased breathing and perspiration d. Increased breathing and perspiration
 COLLEGE OF NURSING GTHS, LAHORE.

MIDS EXAM BSN 2ND PROF

ADULT HEALTH NURSING-I (SEQs)

STUDENT NAME --------------------- TOTAL MARKS: 50

TIME ALLOWED: 120 MINTS DATE ---------------

ATTEMPT ALL QUESTIONS. ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MARKS. (5*10=50)

Q1- Define metabolic alkalosis. Enlist the clinical manifestation of metabolic acidosis.

Q2- A 60 years old patient is suffering from fluid volume deficit. If you are the nurse assigned to
this patient what will you observe and document as manifestation of fluid volume deficit.

Q3- Explain phases of acute renal failure.

Q4- Write down the nursing management of a patient with urinary bladder carcinoma.

Q5- Write down the pre and post-operative nursing care for APPENDICECTOMY.

Q6- A patient visited emergency department complaining of fever, generalized pain in the upper
abdomen. Within hour pain becomes localized to the to the right lower quadrant at (McBurneys
sign). Physical examination shows slight abdominal muscular rigidity (guarding).

A) Diagnose the disease? 02

B) Write down nursing interventions in detail? 03

Q7- Define following

a. Renal calculi

b. Hiatal hernia

c. Hemorrhoids

d. Ulcerative colitis

e. Cholecystitis

Q8- Explain Types of ABORTION.

Q9- Give a brief Summary of RTIS.

Q10- What BPH. Give its Risk Factors, s/s and medical management.