LT - & Xii - Neet - GT - 4 (Set - 1) QP - 23.04.2024

IIT/NEET – ACADEMY
NEET GRAND TEST - 4

Date : 23.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 1 Max. Marks : 720
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &
Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.
In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q
Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS
CORRECT.
Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in
Section-B;
Marking Scheme :
Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks
Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks
For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.
******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 4 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-23.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
az
  k
1. In the relation p e , p is the pressure, z the distance, k is Boltzmann

constant and  is the temperture, the dimensional formula of  will be
1)  M o L2T o  2)  ML2T  3)  MLoT 1  4)  ML2T 1 
2. Two identical masses of 5 kg each fall on a wheel from a height of 20 m. The wheel
disturbs a mass of 4 kg water, the rise in temperature of water will be:
1) 2.6oC 2) 0.48oC 3) 0.32oC 4) 0.12oC
6
3. The effective resistance is  , when two wires are joined in parallel. When one of
5
the wire breaks, the effective resistance is 2 ohms. The resistance of the broken
wire was :.
3 6
1)  2) 2 3)  4) 3
5 5
     
4.   
If for two vectors A and B , A  B is perpendicular to the A  B . The ratio of 
A
their magnitude is
B
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) None of these
5. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift. A man hangs his bag on the
spring and the spring reads 49N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves
downward with an acceleration of 5m/s2, the reading of the spring balance will be
1) 49N 2) 24N 3) 74N 4) 15N
6. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40g with a velocity 1200m/s. The man
holding it can exert a maximum force of 144N on the gun. How many bullets can
be fired per second at the most?
1) Only one 2) Three 3) Can fire any number of bullets 4) 144 ×48
7. A long straight rod with a charge of  per unit length passes through an
imaginary cube of edge a. The maximum flux of the electric field through the cube
will be
a a 6 a 2 3 a
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 0 0 0
8. An uniformly charged solid non-conducting sphere of radius R having total
charge q rotates about its diametric axis with constant angular speed . The
magnetic moment of the sphere is
1 2 1 2
1) qR 2 2) qR 2 3) qR 2 4) qR 2
3 3 5 5
9. The current voltage graph for a given metallic conductor at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 are as shown in the figure. Then :
1) T1 > T2 2) T1 = T2
3) nothing can be said about T1 and T2 4) T1 < T2
 t 
10. y  2  cm  sin     what is the maximum acceleration of the particle doing the
2 
S.H.M.
 2 2 
1) cm/s2 2) cm/s 2 3) cm/s 2 4) cm/s2
2 2 4 4
11. Taking into account of the significant figures, what is the value of
3.33 kg – 0.033 kg?
1) 3.267 kg 2) 3.29 kg 3) 3.30 kg 4) 3.3 kg
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

12. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a direction perpendicular to its
length. A constant uniform magnetic field exists in space in a direction
perpendicular to the rod as well as its velocity. Select the correct statement(s)
from the following
1) The entire rod is at the same electric potential
2) There is an electric field in the rod
3) The electric potential is highest at the centre of the rod and decreases towards
its ends
4) The electric potential is lowest at the centre of the rod and increases towards
its ends
13. A monoatomic gas at a pressure p, having a volume V expands isothermally to a
volume 2V and then adiabatically to a volume 16V. The final pressure of the gas
 5
is  take  = 
 3
p
1) 64p 2) 32p 3) 4) 16p
64
14. An electric charge 103 C is placed at the origin (0, 0) of X-Y coordinate system.
Two points A and B are situated at  
2, 2 and (2, 0) respectively. The potential
difference between the points A and B will be
1) 9V 2) Zero 3) 2V 40 4.5V
15. If the degree of freedom of a gas are f, then the ratio of two specific heats Cp/Cv is
given by
2 2 1 1
1) 1 2) 1  3) 1  4) 1 
f f f f
16. When a transparent sheet of thickness t and refractive index  is introduced in
one of the paths in YDSE having slit width d and distance between slit and
screen is D, then the fringe pattern shifts by
d d D dt
1)    1 t 2) 3)    1 t 4)
D D    1 t d    1 D
17. To increase the resonant frequency in series LCR circuit.
1) Source frequency should be increased
2) Another resistance should be added in series with the first resistance.
3) Another capacitor should be added in series with the first capacitor.
4) The source frequency should be decreased
18. A body of mass m = 10kg is attached to one end of a wire of length 0.3m. The
maximum angular speed  in rad s 1  with which it can be rotated about its other
end (Breaking stress of wire  4.8  107 Nm 2 and area of cross-section of the
wire  10 2 cm 2 )
1) 4 2) 1 3) 8 4) 2
19. A boat having a length of 12 metre and breadth 2 metre is floating on a lake. The
boat sinks by 0.3 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
1) 60 kg 2) 62 kg 3) 72 kg 4) 128 kg
20. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength  incident on
the surface of a metal of work function  , is
1/2 1/2 1/2
 2(hc   )  2(hc   )  2(hc   )   2(h    ) 
1)  m  2) 3)  m  4)  
  m    m 
Where h = Planck's constant, m = mass of electron and c = speed of light.
21. Startng from the centre of the earth having radius R, the variation of g
(Acceleration due to gravity ) is shown by

22. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of
g are 5.4 107 Jkg 1 and 6ms-2 respectively. Take the radius of earth as 6400km.
1) 1400km 2) 2000km 3) 2600km 4) 1600km
23. An open pipe is suddenly closed at one end with the result that the frequency of
thid harmonic of the closed pipe is found to be higher by 100 Hz than the
fundamental frequency of the open pipe. The fundamental frequency of the open
pipe is :
1) 200 Hz 2) 300 Hz 3) 240 Hz 4) 480 Hz
24. The total energy of an electron in an atom in orbit is -3.4 eV. Its kinetic and
potential energies are, respectively
1) -3.4 eV, -3.4 eV 2) -3.4 eV, -6.8 eV
3) 3.4 eV, -6.8 eV 4) 3.4 eV, 3.4 Ev
25. Identify the following circuit elements
COLUMN – I COLUMN - II
(I) Resistor P)
(II) Capacitor Q)
(III) Diode R)
(IV) LED S)
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)

1) Q S P R 2) S P R Q
3) P Q R S 4) S R Q P
26. A coil of area 80 square cm and 50 turns is rotating with 2000 revolutions per
minute about an axis perpendicular to a magnetic field of 0.05 Tesla. The
maximum value of the e.m.f. developed in it is
10 4 2
1) 200 volt 2) volt 3) volt 4) volt
3 3 3
27. An object is placed in front of a convex mirror at a distance 25cm. A plane mirror
is introduced covering the lower half of the convex mirror. If the distance between
the object and the plane mirror 20cm, it is found that there is no parallax
between the images formed by the two mirrors. What is the radius of curvature of
convex mirror.
1) 37.5 cm 2) 75 cm 3) 50 cm 4) 100 cm
28. Two short magnets of magnetic moment 1000 Am2 are placed as shown at the
corners of a square of side 10cm. The net magnetic induction at P is
1) 0.1T 2) 0.2T 3) 0.3T 4) 0.4

 
29. Two light waves given below superimpose at a point y1  a sin 2 t , y2  2a sin  2 t  
 3
The resultant amplitude of the wave is
1) a 6 2) a 5 3) a 3 4) a 7
30. A polyatomic gas with n degrees of freedom has a mean translational kinetic
energy per molecule given by
1) nkT/NA 2) nkT/2NA 3) nkT/2 4) 3kT/2
31. A square surface of side L metres is in the plane of the paper. A uniform electric
field E(volt/m), also in the plane of the paper, is limited only to the lower half of
the square surface, (See figure). The electric flux in SI units associated with the
surface is
1) Zero 2) EL2 3) EL2 /  2 0  4) EL2 / 2

32. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute, with a velocity of 600 ms1 . If the
average power of the gun is 5.4 kW, then mass of each bullet is
1) 5 kg 2) 0.5 kg 3) 5 g 4) 0.5 g
33. An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 2 nano coulombs in
magnitude are placed along x-axis at x = 1cm, x = 3cm, x = 9cm, x = 27cm….and
so on. In this setup if the consecutive charges have opposite sign, then the
electric potential at x = 0 is
1) 1250V 2) 1350V 3) 2700V 4) 2500V
34. A thermodynamic system undergoes cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure.
The work done by the system in the cycle is
p0V0
1) p0V0 2) 2p0V0 3) 4) Zero
2
35. The equation of SHM of a particle is a  4 2 x  0 where a is instantaneous linear
acceleration at displacement x. The frequency of motion is
1
1) 1 Hz 2) 4 Hz 3) Hz 4) 4Hz
4
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
36. A body is projected at an angle  with the horizontal. Another body is projected
with the same velocity at an angle  with the vertical. The ratio of the times of
flights is
1) 1 : 1 2) tan2  :1 3) 1 : cot  4) 1: tan 2 
37. A galvanometer has resistance G and current Ig produces full scale deflection. S1
is the value of the shunt which converts it into an ammeter of range 0 – I and S2
is the value of shunt for the range 0 – 2I. The ratio of S1 and S2 is
1  I  Ig  2I  I g
1)   2) 3) 1/2 4) 2
2  2 I  ig  I  ig
38. A massive ball moving with speed v0 collides head-on with a tiny ball at rest
having a mas very less than the mass of the first ball. If the collision is elastic,
then immediately after the impact, the second ball will move with a speed
approximately equal to:
v
1) v0 2) 0 3) 2v0 4) 
2

39. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 8 Am 1 , when a placed in an
external magnetic field of 0.6T at a temperature of 4K. When the same sample is
palced in an extneral magnetic field of 0.2T at a temperature of 16K, the
magnetisation will be
32 2
1) Am 1 2) Am 1 3) 6 Am 1 4) 2.4 Am 1
3 3
40. When a convex lens   1.5 is immersed in water of    1.33 then effective focal

length of the lens
1) Increases 2) Decreases
3) Remains unchanged 4) Becomes doubled
41. A sphere rolls down on an inclined plane of inclination . What is the
acceleration of the sphere while it reaches bottom:
5 3 2 2
1) g sin  2) g sin  3) g sin  4) g sin 
7 5 7 5
42. Star S1 emits maximum radiation of wavelength 540 nm and the Star S2 emits
maximum radiation of wavelength 720 nm, what is the ratio of the temperature of
S1 and S2.
1 1
 4 4  3 2
1) 4 / 3 2)   3) 3/4 4)  
3 4
43. The rms value of conduction current in a parallel plate capacitor is 6.9  A . The
capacity of this capacitor, if it is connected to 230 V ac supply with an angular
frequency of 600 rad/s, will be:
1) 5 pF 2) 50 pF 3) 100 pF 4) 200 pF
44. In an experiment to determine the Young’s modulus, steel wires of five diffent
lengths (1, 2, 3, 4 and 5m) but of same cross section (2 mm2) were taken and
curves between extension/load) of the curves were plotted with the wire length
and the following graph is obtained. If the Young’s modulus of given steel wires
is x  1011 Nm 2 , then the value of x is ________
1) 0.2 2) 2 3) 0 4) 2.2
45. The fraction of a floating object volume V0 and density d0 above the surface of a
liquid of density d will be:
d0 dd0 d  d0 dd0
1) 2) 3) 4)
d d  d0 d d  d0
46. In a photoemissive cell with exciting wavelength  , the fastest electron has speed
v. If the exciting wavelength is changed to 3  / 4 , the speed of the fastest emitted
electron will be
1) v (3 / 4 )1 / 2 2) v (4 / 3)1 / 2 3) Less than v (4 / 3)1 / 2 4) Greater than v (4 / 3)1 / 2
47. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in the Balmer series:
1) It must emit another photon in the Lyman series
2) It may emit another photon in the Balmer series
3) It need not emit any more photon
4) It may emit another photon in the Paschen series

48. Two open organ pipes of different length and different gases at same temperature
as shown in figure. Let fC and fD be their fundamental frequencies, then
fC f 33 f 11 f 57
1)  2 2) C  3) C  4) C 
fD fD 80 fD 28 fD 160
49. A sinusoidal voltage of rms value 220V is applied to a diode and a resistor R in
the circuit shown in figure, so that half wave rectification occurs. It the diode is
ideal, what is the rms voltage across R1?
1) 55 2V 2) 110V 3) 110 2V 4) 220 2V

50. A ring of mass m and a particle of mass 2m are placed as shown in figure. If the
centre of mass of the combination lies at origin, the value of x is:
2R R
1) 2)
 
R 2R
3) 4)
2 3
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of pure benzene is 0.85 bar. 0.5g of
non-volatile non-electrolyte solid is dissolved in 39g of benzene where vapour
pressure of the solution is found as 0.845 bar. Then the molar mass of given
solid is ______g/mol.
1) 169 2) 180 3) 156 4) 176
52. 90g of glucose, C6H12O6, is dissolved in 1kg of water. At what temperature will
water boil at 1.013 bar?
[Kb for water  0.52 K.mol1.kg and BP of H2O = 373.15K]
1) 373.202K 2) 373.26K 3) 373.41K 4) 373.67K
53. IUPAC name of the given compound is K 3  Cr  C2O4  3 
1) Potassium trioxalatochromium(III) 2) Potassium trioxalatochromate(III)
3) Potasium trioxalatochromate(IV) 4) Potassium trioxalatochromium(IV)
54. With an increase in the atomic number of lanthanides, the size of their atoms
decrease gradually except.
1) Yb, Tm 2) Sm, Eu 3) Ce, Nd 4) Eu, Yb
55. Which one of the following is the correct order of the size of iodine species?
1) I  I   I  2) I  I   I  3) I   I   I 4) I   I  I 
CH 3CH 2CHCH 3
56. IUPAC name of the compound | is
SH
1) 2 – thiobutane 2) 3 – thiobutanol
3) 2 – butanethiol 4) 1 – methyl – 1 - thiopropane
57. Number of waves made by the electron revolving in an orbit of hydrogen atom for
which an angular momentum is 2h /  is _____
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 1

58. When more number of electrons from excited hydrogen atoms reach the ground
state, then
1) The number of spectral lines in Lyman series increases
2) Frequency of the spectral lines increases
3) Wave length of the spectral lines increases
4) Energy of the spectral lines decreases
59. Match the following columns:
Column-I Column-II
1) Conformations A) Polarimeter
2) Meso form B) Optically inactive
3) Specific rotation C) Eclipsed and staggered forms
4) Non-superimposable D) Enantiomers
mirror images
Codes :
1 2 3 4 1 2 3 4
1) A D B C 2) D A C B
3) B C D A 4) C B A D
60. An organic compound taken in a test tube and acetyl chloride is added to it.
White fumes appeared when a glass rod dipped in NH3 is placed at the mouth of
test tube. This indicates that organic compound may contain _____ group
1) –Cl 2) -CHO 3) –OH 4) double bond
61. Which statement is correct?
1) Fe3 ions give deep green precipitate with K4Fe(CN)6 soluiton
2) Carbonate salt on treating with dilute HCl gives a colourless gas which gives
yellow precipitate when passed through lime water.
3) Zinc salts give a violet coloured bead in borax bead test
4) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI ammonia solution dissolves only
AgCl
62. Which gives blood red colour with ammonium thio cyanate?
1) Fe3 2) Fe2 3) Cu2 4) Cd 2
63. The experimentally observed dipole moment of A B  is 3.6 Debye. The distance
between two oppositely charged ions is 1A0. Then the percentage of ionic
character of the given ionic compound is
1) 50% 2) 62% 3) 75% 4) 90%
64. Match the column-I (molecule) with column-II (type of hybridisation) and choose
the correct option from the codes given below:
Column-I (Molecule) Column-II (Type of hybridisation)
A) SF6 p) sp d
3
B) PF5 q) sp3
C) BCl3 r) sp3d2
D) C2 H6 s) sp2
1) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q 2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s
3) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s 4) A-p, B-r, C-s, D-q
65. Match the columns :
Column-I (A.O) Column-II (A.B.M.O) Column-III (B.M.O)
A) 1s p) i)
B) 2pz q) ii)
C) 2px r) iii)
1) A-(q, iii), B-(r, i), C-(p, ii) 2) A-(q, iii), B-(p, ii), C-(r, i)
3) A-(p, iii), B-(q, ii), C-(r, i) 4) A-(p, ii), B-(q, iii), C-(r, i)

66. Which one of the following statement is not correct?
1) Phenols are more acidic than water.
2) There are some other organic acids which are more acidic than carboxylic
acids.
3) SIR (steric inhibition of resonance) always increases acidic nature of a
comound.
4) Equilibrium of an acid base reaction generally shifts towards the direction of
weaker acid and weaker base.
67. Select the correct statement.
68. Which of the folloiwng pair of 13th group elements have highest boiling point &
lowest melting point?
1) B – Ga 2) B – Al 3) B – In 4) B – Tl
69. Which of the following can liberate H2 gas from steam?
1) Si 2) Ge 3) Pb 4) Sn
70. Monobromination of 2-methylbutane gives how many distinct isomers(only
structural) ?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
71. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium ethoxide in ethanol. The major
product obtained is
1) trans-pent-2-ene 2) Pent-1-ene
3) 2-ethoxypentane 4) cis-pent-2-ene
72. Statement I: When butyne-2 is reacted with Na/liq NH3 then trans-2-butene is
formed.
Statement II: When butyne-2 is reacted with H2 – Pd / CaCO3, quinolone, cis-2-
butene is formed.
1) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
73. How much water should be added to 200 cc of semimolar solution of NaOH to
make it exactly decimolar:
(1) 200 cc (2) 400 cc (3) 800 cc (4) 600 cc
74. In a compound Carbon = 52.2%, Hydrogen = 13%, Oxygen = 34.8% are present
and vapour density of the compound is 46. Calculate molecular formula of the
compound ?
(1) C3H8O2 (2) C4H8O2 (3) C4H10O (4) C4H12O2
75. In the reaction the stoichiometry coefficients of Cr2 O72  , NO2 and H+ respectively
are
Cr2 O72   NO2  H   Cr 3  NO3  H 2O
1) 1, 3, 8 2) 1, 4, 8 3) 1, 3, 12 4) 1, 5, 12

76. The correct order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is
__________.
CH 3
CH 3CH 2  CH  OH |
(I) CH 3CH 2  CH 2  OH (II) | (III) CH 3CH 2  C  OH
CH 3 |
CH 3
1) (I) > (II) > (III) 2) (III) > (II) > (I) 3) (II) > (I) > (III) 4) (I) > (III) > (II)
77. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points.
CH 3
|
(I) (II) CH 3CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br (III) H 3C  C  CH 3
|
Br
1) (II) < (I) < (III) 2) (I) < (II) < (III) 3) (III) < (I) < (II) 4) (III) < (II) < (I)
78. Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H 2 S is acidic while H 2O is
neutral. This is because
1) Water is a highly volatile compound
2) H – S bond is weaker than H – O bond
3) H 2 S is a gas while H 2O is a liquid
4) The molecular weight of H 2 S is more than that of H 2O
79. Which of the following reactions does not occur?
1) F2  2Cl   2 F   Cl2 2) Cl2  2 F   2Cl   F2
3) Br2  2 I   2 Br   I 2 4) Cl2  2 Br   2Cl   Br2
80. Assertion (A): Rate of reaction increases with increase in concentration of
reactants(Except for zero order).
Reason (R) : As the concentration of reactants increase, the number of effective
collisions increases.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct and R is incorrect 4) Both A and R are incorrect
81. 75% of a first order reaction completed in 36min. Then 93.75% of same reaction
completes in _____ minutes.
1) 108 2) 72 3) 144 4) 54
82. Identify Z in the sequence of reaction,
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 2  HBr
H 2 O2
 Y  
C2 H 5ONa
Z
1) (CH3)2CH2−O−CH2CH3 2) CH3(CH2)4−O−CH3
3) CH3CH2−CH(CH3)−O−CH2CH3 4) CH3−(CH2)3−O−CH2CH3
83. Identify Z in the following reaction sequence.
Br2  CCl4
CH 3CH 2CH 2OH  conc.H2 SO4
160 180o C
 X   Y 
NaNH 2
Z
1) CH3−CH(NH2)−CH2NH2 2) CH3−CH(OH)−CH2OH
3) CH3−C(OH)=CH2 4) CH3−C≡CH
84. The enthalpy of neutralization of oxalic acid by a strong base is 25.4 kcal mol1 .
The enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong abse is 13.7 kcal mol1 .
The enthalpy of dissociation of oxalic acid is :
1) 1 kcal mol1 2) 2 kcal mol1 3) 18.55 kcal mol1 4) 11.7 kcal mol1
85. Which is an extensive property?
1) Viscosity 2) Temperature 3) Volume 4) Refractive index
ION – B
86. Transition metals are less reactive because of their
1) High ionization potential ad low melting point
2) Hihg ionization potential and high melting point
3) Low ionization potential and low melting point
4) Low ionization potential and high melting point

87. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below
with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest
third ionization enthalpy?
1) Vanadium (Z=23) 2) Chromium (Z=24)
3) Iron (Z=26) 4) Manganese (Z=25)
88. Alkali metal salts of carboxylic acids on electrolysis in aqueous medium forms
hydrocarbons having twice the number of C-atoms present in the alkyl gourp of
the acid. The reaction is known as
1) Kolbe electrolysis 2) Decarboxylation
3) HVZ-reaction 4) Friedel-Crafts reaction
89. Select the correct statement(s) for the following :
1) Nitriles are hydrolyzed to amides and then to acids in the presence of H  or
OH  as catalyst
2) Mild reaction conditions are used to stop the reaction at the amide stage
during the hydrolysis of nitriles
3) Grignard reagents react with dry ice to form salts of carboxylic acids which in
turn give corresponding carboxylic acids after acidification.
4) All of the above
90. 11.5 mg of an organic compound containing nitrogen was digested according to
Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 20 mL of 0.1 M
HClsolution. The excess of the acid required 15mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution for
complete neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
1) 50.0 2) 60.8 3) 23.7 4) 47.4
91. The compound CoCl2(NO2).6H2O can show
1) Only linkage isomerism 2) Only hydrate isomerism
3) Only ionisation isomerism 4) Linkage, hydrate and ionization isomerism
92. Select the correct statement ragarding  NiCl4  ion
2
1) Paramagneteic in nature 2) sp3d hybridized

3) Square planar shape 4) Magnetic momet is 18 BM
93.  C g   D g  is 100. If
At 298 K, the equilibrium constant for a reaction A g   B g  
the initial concentration of each species is 1M, the equilibrium concentration of D
in molL1 is
1) 0.818 2) 1.909 3) 1.182 4) 0.182
94. What is the effect of a ten-fold increase in pressure on KP in the reaction at

equilibrium N 2 g   3H 2 g   2 NH 3 g  ?
1) A ten-fold increase 2) A ten-fold decrease
3) Kp does not change 4) Kp becomes equal to KC
95. In the equilibrium NH 4 HS s   NH 3 g   H s S g  . The forward reaction can be favoured
by
1) Adding some more NH4HS 2) Adding some more NH3
3) Removing some ammonia from the reaction mixture
4) Adding some more H2S
96. The correct order of basicity of the following compounds
1) B > A > C 2) A > B > C 3) C > A > B 4) C > B > A

97. The correct order of percentage of ortho, meta and para nitroaniline formed
during the direct nitration of aniline with nitration mixture is
1) o  m  p 2) p  m  o 3) p  o  m 4) m  p  o
98. Among the following statements
A) Salt bridge is used in galvanic cell to prevent the accumulation of charges in
two half cells
B) In the preparation of salt bridge particularly KCl type electrolytes are used
because K+ and Cl- have same ionic mobility
C) Salt bridge increases the cell potential abnormally
1) All A,B and C are correct 2) Only A and B are correct

3) Only A and C are correct 4) Only B and C are correct
99. The heat of combustion of propane is -2220 KJ/mole. Considering 80% efficiency
of propane oxygen fuel cell, the cell potential of the cell is _______volt.
1) 1.84 2) 0.86 3) 0.92 4) 1.26
100. The correct statement about the following sugars A and B is
1) A is reducing sugar and B is non-reducing sugar

2) The glycosidic linkage in A is ' ' and in B is '  '
3) The glycosidic linkage in A and B are ' ' and ' ' respectively
4) Both A and B are non-reducing sugars.
BOTANY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
101. The following is incorrect about Mycoplasma
1) These are the smallest free living cells known
2) They completely lack cell wall
3) They survive only in the absence of oxygen
4) Many of these are pathogenic in plants and animals
102. The kingdom without the well defined boundaries is
1) Monera 2) Protista 3) Fungi 4) Animalia
103. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Algal protists (I) Slime moulds
(B) Fungal protists (II) Protozoans
(C) Intermediate protists (III) Chrysophytes
.
(D) Animal protists (IV) Euglenoids
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
.
1) III II IV I 2) IV III I II
3) III I IV II 4) I III II IV
104. Benefits of mycorrhiza are represented by which of the following statements?
(i) Resistance to root-borne pathogens.
(ii) Tolerance to drought.
(iii) Tolerance to salinity and absorption of phosphorus.
(iv) Overall increase in the plant growth and development.
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (ii) and (iii) only
3) (iii) and (iv) only 4) All of these
105. Treatment of waste water is done by the
1) Autotrophic microbes 2) Heterotrophic microbes
3) Chemoautotrophic microbes 4) All the above
106. Primary treatment of sewage waste involves.
1) Filtration only 2) Sedimentation only
3) Filtration and sedimentation 4) Biological treatment
107. Natural classification systems developed, which were based on the following
except.
1) Natural affinities among the organisms
2) Ultrastructure and anatomy, Embryology and phytochemistry features.
3) This classification systems gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
characteristics
4) Classification for flowering plants was given by George Bentham and Joseph
Dalton Hooker.

108. What is true about male and female gametophyte in plant kingdom?
1) In some liverworts and some pteridophytes they have independent free-living
existence
2) In gymnosperms and angiosperms they have no independent free-living
existence
3) In bryophytes, pterdophytes and angiosperms, they have free-living and
independent. They remain in sporangia which are retained on sporophytes
4) Both (1) and (2)
109. Study the following statements regarding the bryophytes.
I) Bryophytes include the various mosses and liverworts
II) Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom
III) They do not play important role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil.
IV) Bryophytes can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual
reproduction.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I, III and IV are correct 2) II, III and IV are correct
3) I, II and III are correct 4) I, II, and IV are correct
110. EcoRI enzyme recognises the sequence GAATTC. A stretch of linear DNA with six
GAATTC sites, upon digestion with EcoRI, will give rise to
1) 8 fragments 2) 6 fragments
3) 7 fragments 4) 5 fragments
111. Genes A,B & C are linked. Genes A & B are more close than A & C
I. ‘A’ might be before B & C II. ‘B’ might be between A & C
III. ‘C’ might be between A & B
IV. More crosses cannot occur between A & C than A & B
Find the correct option for given information
1) I & II 2) II & III 3) III & IV 4) I, II, IV
112. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column-I Column-II
(Structure) (Function)
(a) Contractile vacuoles i. Acid hydrolases
(b) Lysosomes ii. Transportation of molecules across it
(c) Centrioles iii. Excretion
(d) Plasma membrane iv. Basal body of cilia
1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii 2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 4) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii.
113. Statement-I: Bacterial cells are made competent by treating them with specific
concentration of a trivalent cation
Statement-II: This increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the fungi
through pores in its cell wall
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
3) Both Statements I and II are false
4) Both Statements I and II are true
114. Find the correct matching:
p) PCR : DNA Primer and DNA polymerase
q) PBR322 : Plasmid and linear
r) Cloning vector : Amplification of gene
s) Competent host : Heat shock, at 50 C
1) p, q and s 2) p and r 3) q and s 4) q, r and s
115. Identify correct one w.r.t. stem.
1) Develops from radicle part of embryo
2) Bears nodes, internodes and buds
3) Does not perform the function of vegetative propagation
4) Is involved in the conduction of water only

116. Examine the figure given below and select the incorrect statement.
1) Seed coat is membranous and fused with pericarp

2) Embryo has shield-shaped cotyledon called scutellum
3) Aleurone layer is inner covering of endosperm and is proteinaceous
4) Plumule and radicle are enclosed in a sheath
117. Analyse statements w.r.t. below diagram.
S–I :Develops from multicarpellary ovary.

S–II :Ovules are present in multilocular ovary.
S-III : Ovules are borne on central axis without septa.
1) Both S-I and S-II are true 2) Both S-II and S-III are true
3) S-I false and S-III true 4) All S-I, S-II, S-III are false
118. Match column I and column II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
a) A2+4 (i) Petunia
b) G1 (ii) Tulip
c) 
C A (iii) Mustard
 5 5
d) P(3+3) (iv) Trifolium

1)a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii) 2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
3) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii) 4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii)
119. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from
the experiments of –
1) Hershey and Chase (1952) 2) Frederic Griffith (1928)
3) Watson and Crick 4) Meselson and Stahl (1958)
120. In a transcription unit promoter is located towards:-
1) 3' end of coding strand 2) 5' end of coding strand
3) 5' end of template strand 4) 3' end of sense strand
121. How many nucleotides including stop codons would be needed to
polymerise 99 amino acids from one molecule of m-RNA
1) 300 2) 100 3) 33 4) 297
122. The given figure represent one of the step in the process of
transcription in bacteria. Identify the step and label A, B & C marked
in the figure.
1) Initiation; A – DNA, B – RNA, C – Promoter

2) Termination; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase, C – Rho factor
3) Elongation; A – RNA, B – RNA polymerase, C – Sigma factor
4) Elongation; A – DNA, B – DNA polymerase, C – RNA

123. Number of regulatory and structural genes present in Lac operon
respectively
1) 1 & 2 2) 1 & 3 3) 1 & 1 4) 2 & 1
124. Statement-I: RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate.
Statement-II: RNA can directly code for synthesis of proteins, hence can easily
express the characters.
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
3) Both Statements I and II are false
4) Both Statements I and II are true
125. In which of the following organs metaxylem was located outside & protoxylem
located inside
A. Root of maize B. Stem of sugar cane
C. Root of mustard D. Stem of sunflower
1) A & C 2) A & B 3) B & D 4) C & D
126. Assertion : The parenchymatous cells in roots which lie between the xylem and
phloem are called conjuctive tissue.
Reason : The cells arranged in multiple layers between epidermis and pericycle
are called cortex.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
127. What is the characteristics of a vascular bundle of monocot stem?
1) Open and surrounded by a sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
2) Closed and not surrounded by bundle sheath
3) Closed and surrounded by bundle sheath
4) Open and not surrounded by a bundle sheath
128. Segregation of genes occur during which phase of cell division.
1) Prophase I 2) Anaphase I 3) Telophase I 4) Metaphase II
129. If 75% of the offsprings show dominant character, the parents are
1) Both heterozygous dominant 2) One dominant and one recessive
3) Both recessive 4) Both homozygous dominant
130. Howmany types of gametes can be produced from the AaBbCc type of F1 hybrid.
1) 6 2) 8 3) 16 4) 4
131. A test cross distinguishes between
1) Two homozygous forms
2) A homozygous dominant and a heterozygous dominant form
3) A homozygous recessive and a heterozygous form
4) Two heterozygous forms
132. Assertion (A): Gametes are pure for a particular trait.
Reason (R): Gametes contain many alleles of a gene.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
4) A is incorrect but R is correct
133. Which of the following are correct for Mitochondria :-
(a) are easily visible under the microscope (without specifically stained)
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical
(c) are double membrane bound structures
(d) have two aqueous compartments
1) a, d correct and b, c incorrect 2) a, b correct and c,d incorrect
3) a incorrect and b, c, d correct 4) a, d incorrect and b, c correct
134. Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs
1) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm, on E.R as well as in mitochondria.
2) on ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm.
3) only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
reticulum, not in mitochondria
4) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol.
135. Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar are seen in
1) Wind pollinated plants 2) Insect pollinated plants
3) Water pollinated plants 4) Both 1 and 3

SECTION – B
136. In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and triploid structures of a fertilized embryo
sac sequentially are:
1) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
2) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus and zygote
3) Antipodals, synergids, and primary endosperm nucleus
4) Synergids, Zygote and Primary endosperm nucleus
137. In angiosperms the correct sequence of events in formation of female
gametophyte in the ovule is:
(A) 3 successive free nuclear divisions in functional megaspore.
(B) Degeneration of 3 megaspores.
(C) Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell.
(D) Six of eight nuclei are surrounded by cell wall
(E) Resulting structure is seven celled, eight nucleated embryosac.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) 2) (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
3) (B), (C), (A), (D), (E) 4) (C), (B), (A), (D), (Ε)
138. In general the embryo sac in angiosperm consists of
1) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
2) One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
3) One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, three Polar nuclei
4) One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
139. Lipid comes under acid insoluble fraction during analysis of the chemical
composition of tissues why?
1) It has low molecular weight
2) It has high molecular weight
3) It is polymer
4) On grinding the biomembranes are broken into pieces and form insoluble
vesicles
140. Statement–I: Purines are dicyclic and heterocyclic rings structures.
Statement–II : Pyrimidines are monocyclic and heterocyclic ring structutres.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are wrong
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong, Statement-II is correct
141. Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement, and new cell wall deposition are the
characteristics of
1) Meristematic phase 2) Maturation phase
3) Elongation phase 4) All of these
142. Which one of the following plants does not show plasticity?
1) Maize 2) Cotton 3) Coriander 4) Buttercup
143. The gaseous plant growth regulator is used in plants to :
1) promote root growth and root hair formation to increase the absorption surface
2) help overcome apical dominance
3) kill dicotyledonous weeds in the fields
4) speed up the malting process
144. Match the following columns.
Column – I Column - II
(A) G1-phase (I) Replication of DNA
(B) S-phase (II) Quiescent stage
(C) G2-phase (III) Condensation of chromatin
(D) G0-phase (IV) Protein synthesis
(V) Interval between M-phase and DNA replication
1) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-II 2) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3) A-V, B-I, C-IV, D-II 4) A-V, B-II, C-III, D-IV

145. With respect to diplotene which of the following are incorrect?
a) formation of synaptonemal complex
b) oocytes of some invertebrates
c) oocytes of some vertebrates diplotene can last for months or years
d) x – shaped structure formation
e) Terminalisation of x-shaped structure
1) a,b,e only incorrect 2) c,e only incorrect
3) Except a,b,d all are incorrect 4) Except c,e all are incorrect
146. If there as 12 molecules of CO2 to be fixed in photosynthesis, then how many
turns of Calvin cycle and how many molecules of glucose will be synthesized
respectively?
1) 9 turns, 2 molecules 2) 12 turns, 1 molecule
3) 6 turns, 1 molecule 4) 12 turns, 2 molecules
147. Statement–I: In Blackman’s Law, if a chemical process is affected by more than
one factor, then its rate will be determined by the factor which is nearest to its
maximum value.
Statement–II : For photosynthesis, light is rarely a limiting factor in nature.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are wrong
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong, Statement-II is correct
148. Mark the correct matched combination with respect to A,B and C
S.No (A) (B) (C)
Plant Number of carbon in Number of carbon in
primary CO2 primary CO2 fixation
acceptor product
1) C3 Plant 2 3
2) C4 Plant 6 4
3) C3 Plant 5 2
4) C4 Plant 3 4
149. Which of following is connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle?
1) Pyruvic acid 2) Isocitric acid
3) Acetyl Co-A 4) Phosphoglyceric acid
150. Correct sequence of electron transport during E.T.S. of respiration.
1) cyt-a, a3,c2 2) cyt-b, c,a, a3 3) cyt-b, c, a3, a 4) cyt-c, b, a, a3
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
151. Which of the following may accentuate the variations that lead to appearance of
new species resulting in evolution?
1) Genetic drift 2) Habitat fragmentation
3) Continental drift 4) Both 1 & 2
152. ________, need for adventure, ____ and experimentation constitute common
causes, which motivate youngsters towards drug and alcohol use.
1) Addiction, dependence 2) Curiosity, Exctement
3) Peer pressure, Excel in academics 4) Fatigue, isolation
153. Saltation is the concept of
1) Darwin 2) Lamarck 3) Hugo de Vries 4) Morgan
154. Which of the four names are correctly written as per rules of binomial
nomenclature?
1) SOLANUM MELONGENA 2) Solanum melongena
3) Solanum Melongena 4) solanum melongena
155. Which of the following is not a subspecies of tiger?
1) Bali 2) Dodo 3) Javan 4) Caspian
156. Statement A : Greenland at 71 N has only 57 species of birds.
o
Statement B : Colombia located near the equator has nearly 1200 species of
bird.
1) Both statements A and B are correct 2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct 4) Only statement B is correct

157. In periodic abstinence method
1) Female has to take contraceptive pills periodically
2) Couple should avoid from coitus periodically
3) Couple should avoid from coitus for few months or years
4) Female do not ovulate for a few months.
158. In cockroach, the first pair of wings is known as
1) Terga 2) Sterna 3) Tegmina 4) All the above
159. An individual sarcomere consists of:
1) A stack of myosin fibres only 2) A stack of actin fibres only
3) Overlapping actin and troponin 4) Overlapping actin and myosin
160. Mesorchium in frog refers to
1) A duble of fold of peritoneum between kidney and testis
2) Internal tissue of kidney
3) Internal tissue of testis 4) Capsule of kidney
161. Statement – I : When neuron is resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to K+ ions.
Statement – II: K+ diffuses outside the axon membrane and restores the resting
potential of the membrane at the site of excitation.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
162. Find the incorrect statement from the following :
1) The CNS include the brain and the spinal cord
2) The PNS comprises of all the nerves of the body associated with the ANS only
3) The nerve fibres of the PNS are of two types afferent fibres and efferent fibres
4) The afferent nerve fibers transmit impulses from organ to the CNS
163. Which of the following is called a detritivore?
1) An organism feeding on decaying organic matter
2) An organism feeding on a host organism
3) An organism degrading the detritus into simple inorganic substances
4) An organism that decompose the soil
164. Statement–I: Analysis of urine helps in clinical diagnosis of many metabolic
disorders.
Statement–II: Liver also helps in the elimination of excretory wastes.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
165. Nearly all of the essential nutrients, 70-80% of electrolytes & H2O are reabsorbed
by PCT because _____
1) It is the next part of glomerular capsule
2) It is located in cortex of kidney.
3) PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
4) It does not maintain the pH & ionic balance of the body fluids.
166. The circulation between heart and cardiac musculature is called
1) Coronary circulation 2) Systemic circulation
3) Portal circulation 4) Pulmonary circulation
167. Congestion of the lungs is one of the main symptoms in
1) Hypotension 2) Coronary artery disease
3) Angina 4) Heart failure

168. The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of
gases takes place. Select the option which represents labeled part (A, B, C or D)
correctly identified along with its function.
1) C: arterial capillary- passes oxygen to tissues

2) A: alveolar cavity- main site of exchange of respiratory gases
3) D: capillary wall- exchange of O2 and CO takes place here
4) B: red blood cells- transport of CO2 only
169. When ready-made antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign
agents, it is called __________
1) Auto-immunity 2) Active-immunity
3) Passive-immunity 4) Both 1 & 2
170. Identify the number of secondary lymphoid organs.
Peyer’s patches, Tonsils, Thymus, Thyroid, Spleen, Vermiform appendix, Bone
marrow.
1) 4 2) 3 3) 5 4) 2
171. The study of history of life forms on earth is called
1) Palaentology 2) Microbiology 3) Molecular biology 4) Evolutionary biology
172. Smoking is associated with increased incidence of cancers of _________
1) Uterus, heart, gut 2) Colorectal, blood, brain
3) Lung, urinary bladder, throat 4) Gut, breast, oral cavity
173. During spermatogenesis, reduction division occurs between the stages of
1) Spermatogonia and primary spermatocyte
2) Spermatid and sperms
3) Primary spermatocyte and secondary spermatocyte
4) Secondary spermatocyte and spermatid
174. Structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and maternal
body is
1) Placenta 2) Umbilical cord 3) Yolk sac 4) Amnion
175. Which the following are non-human model genome are sequenced,
A. Drosophila B. Caenorhabditis elegans
C. Plants (Rice and Arabidopsis) D. Yeast
E. Earth worm
1) A, B and E only 2) B, C and D only 3) A, C and D only 4) All except E
176. Incorrect statement related with second largest phylum is:
1) The mouth contains a file-like rasping organ for feeding, called radula
2) The space between the hump and the mantle is called the mantle cavity in
which feather like gills are present
3) Gills are also related with respiratory, excretory and reproductive functions.
4) Usually dioecious and oviparous with indirect development
177. Incorrect one related with chrodata characters
1) Double ventral solid nerve cord 2) Ventral heart
3) Notochord
4) Pharyngeal gill slits, in all stages of life
178. All of the following are true about birds except
1) Preen glands at the base of the tail
2) Alimentary canal has the crop and gizzard
3) Endoskeleton is fully ossified
4) Mostly oviparous and some are viviparous
179. Statement - I: Iodothyronines regulate menstrual cycle & CNS development.
Statement - II: Thyroxine & PTH act upon the renal tubules.
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true , S – II is false 4) S – I is false , S – II is true

180. Which one of the following is not an inverted pyramid?
1) Pyramid of numbers on a big tree with many number of insects
2) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem
3) Pyramid of energy in pond ecosystem 4) Pyramid of biomass in ocean
181. Application of DNA fingerprinting involves all of the following except
1) Phylogenetic studies (evolutionary) 2) Determining genetic diversity
3) Forensic analysis 4) Environmental remediation
182. Carrying capacity is
1) The capacity of an individual to produce young ones
2) Availability of resources in a given habitat to support a certain number of
individuals of population, beyond which no further growth is possible
3) The base of natural logarithms
4) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
183. Statement I: In a large number of insects, eggs bear an additional X
chromosome besides the autosomes.
Statement II: Some of the sperms of majority of the insects bear X chromosomes
while others don’t.
1) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
2) Both statement I and II are true
3) Both statement I and II are false
4) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
184. Given pedigree belongs to Myotonic dystrophy. Which of the following represents
the genotype of parents correctly?
1) Father is AA and mother is aa 2) Father is aa and mother is Aa

3) Mother is aa and father is Aa 4) None of the above
185. ___________is used for silencing a specific mRNA.
1) RNAi 2) DNA polymerase
3) Restriction enzyme 4) All of these
SECTION – B
186. Assertion (A): Pyramid of energy is most reliable representation of functional
relationship of any ecosystem.
Reason(R): Energy flow is always unidirectional without any energy loss.
1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
187. Select the incorrect combination of the disease and its symptoms;
1) Acromegaly – Severe facial disfigurement
2) Addison’s disease – loss of water, dehydration, protruded eye balls
3) Dwarfism – Stunted growth
4) Diabetes insipidus – loss of water and dehydration
188. During haemodialysis, the cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a
(an) ______ after _____ to it.
1) Artery, removing heparin 2) Vein, adding heparin
3) Vein, adding anti – heparin 4) Lymphatic vessel, adding anti heparin
189. Consider the following statements:
a) Natural method of contraception is a traditional method to prevent pregnancy.
b) The basic principle of natural method of contraception is to avoid the chances
of ovum and sperms meeting.
Select the correct option.
1) a is true, b is false 2) a is false, b is true
3) Both a and b are true 4) Both a and b are false

190. Assertion: Faced with the conflict between development and conservation, many
nations find in-situ conservation is unrealistic and economically not feasible to
conserve all their biological wealth.
Reason: Pollinators include bees, bumblebees, birds and bats.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
191. Find the mismatch related to convergent evolution.
A) Lemur = Numbat B) Bobcat = Tasmanian tiger at
C) Sugar glider = Flying phalanger D) Mouse = Bandicoot
1) A, B only 2) A, C only 3) B, C, D only 4) A, C, D only
192. Assertion (A): Larynx is a cartilaginous box which helps in sound production.
Reason (R): Epiglottis (flap) covers the glottis during swallowing and prevents the
entry of food into the larynx.
1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is the correct explanation of the (A)
2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
193. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human
heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
1) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down
2) The ‘pace maker’ will stop working
3) The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium
4) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced
194. Reduction in pH of blood will
1) Decrease the affinity of haemoglobin with oxygen
2) Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
3) Reduce the rate of heartbeat
4) Reduce the blood supply to the brain.
195. The following are the features of a mendelian disorder.
I. The heterozygous female may transmit the disease to the sons.
II. Many of the members of pedigree of Queen Victoria showed the disorder
III. Blood clotting mechanism is affected in this disorder.
The given disorder is
1) Haemophilia 2) Sickle cell anemia 3) Colour blindness 4) Thalassemia
196. Silencing of mRNA molecule in order to control the production of a harmful
protein has been used in the protection of plants from
1) Beetles 2) Armyworm 3) Budworm 4) Nematodes
197. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Movements?
A. Protoplasmic streaming helps in movement of Amoeba.
B. Cilia helps for pushing the food through cytopharynx in Euglena.
C. Hydra which belong to phylum ctenophora use its tentacles for capturing prey.
D. In human, limbs are used for changes in body postures only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) B and C only 2) A, B and C only 3) B, C and D only 4) B and D only
198. In cockroach mouth consists of a labrum, a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae
and a labium. Labrum and labium act as
1) Upper and lower jaws, respectively 2) Lower and upper jaws, respectively
3) Upper jaw and lips, respectively 4) upper and lower lips, respectively

199. The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of response of organisms
to abiotic factor. What do (a), (b) and (c) represent, respectively?
1) a-Regulator , b-Partial regulator, c-Conformer

2) a-Partial regulator, b-Regualtor, c-Conformer
3) a-Regulator, b-conformer c-Partial regulator
4) a-Conformer, b-Regulator, c-Partial regulator
200. The possible genotype of F1 progeny in a cross made between skin colour with
genotype AABBCC and aabbcc is
1) AABbCc with darkest skin colour 2) AaBbCC with lightest skin colour
3) AaBbCc with very dark skin colour 4) AaBbCc with intermediate skin colour
*******

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IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 4

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)

1) 0.1T 2) 0.2T 3) 0.3T 4) 0.4

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Zero 2) EL2 3) EL2 /  2 0  4) EL2 / 2

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) 55 2V 2) 110V 3) 110 2V 4) 220 2V

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Paramagneteic in nature 2) sp3d hybridized

1) B > A > C 2) A > B > C 3) C > A > B 4) C > B > A

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) A is reducing sugar and B is non-reducing sugar

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Seed coat is membranous and fused with pericarp

S–I :Develops from multicarpellary ovary.

d) P(3+3) (iv) Trifolium

1) Initiation; A – DNA, B – RNA, C – Promoter

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) C: arterial capillary- passes oxygen to tissues

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Father is AA and mother is aa 2) Father is aa and mother is Aa

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) a-Regulator , b-Partial regulator, c-Conformer

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

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WISH YOU ALL THE BEST