LT - & Xii - Neet - GT - 5 (Set - 1) QP - 24.04.2024

IIT/NEET – ACADEMY
NEET GRAND TEST - 5

Date : 24.04.2024 (NEET MODEL) Time : 3hrs
STD : XII & LT SET – 1 Max. Marks : 720
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the
answer sheet.
Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
The question paper consists of four parts (Physics, Chemistry, Botany &
Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.
In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q
Each question has four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE IS
CORRECT.
Candidate have attempt all the questions in Section-A and only 10 questions in
Section-B;
Marking Scheme :
Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks
Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks
For each question in every part you will be awarded4 Marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.
******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

GT - 5 (SET-1) XII & LT-NEET MODEL-24.04.2024
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
1. The acceleration due to gravity is measured on the surface of earth by using a
simple pendulum. If  and  are relative errors in the measurement of length and
time period respectively, then percentage error in the measurement of
acceleration due to gravity is
 1 
1)       100 2)   2  3)  2    100 4)   2   100
 2 
2. What is the de Broglie wavelength (in m) of the wave associated with an electron
that has been accelerated through a potential difference of 50.0 V? (nearly)
1) 2.7 × 10 2) 1.74 × 10 3) 3.6 × 10 4) 4.9 × 10
3. A large number of bullets are fired in all directions with the same speed v. What
is the maximum area on the ground on which these bullets will spread?
 v2  v4 2 v
2
 2v 4
1) 2) 2 3)  2 4)
g g g g2
4. A metal wire of resistance R is cut into three equal pieces which are then
connected side by side to form a new wire, the length of which is equal to one
third of the original length. The resistance of this new wire is :-
R R
1) R 2) 3R 3) 4)
9 3
5. A block of mass m is kept on a frictionless inclined surface with angle of
inclination ‘  . The incline plane is given an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block
stationary. Then ‘a’ is equal to
1) g cosec  2) g/tan  3) g tan  4) g

6. A stream of protons and -particles of equal momenta enter a uniform magnetic
field perpendicularly. The radii of their orbits are in the ratio
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 4 : 1
7. A body of mass 5 10 kg moving with speed 2 m/s collides with a body of mass
3
15 103 kg inelastically and stiks to it. Then, loss in kinetic energy of the system
will be
1) 7.5 kJ 2) 15 kJ 3) 10 kJ 4) 5 kJ
8. The height attained by a ball after 3 rebounds on falling from a height of h on
floor, having coefficient of restitution e is
1) e3h 2) e4h 3) e5h 4) e6h
9. A particle of mass 10gm is describing S.H.M. along a straight line with period of
2sec and amplitude of 10cm. Its kinetic energy when it is at 5cm from its
equilibrium position is
1) 37.5 2erg 2) 3.75 2erg 3) 375 2erg 4) 0.375 2erg
10. A resistance R and inductor L is connected to supply voltage as shown
Which of the following quantities have zero average value over a cycle?
1) Current through inductor 2) Induced emf in inductor
3) Magnetic energy stored in inductor 4) Both 1 and 2
VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

11. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas of equal number of moles of
different volumes are plotted as shown in figure. Choose the correct alternative.
1) V1  V2 , V3  V4 and V2  V3 2) V1  V2 , V3  V4 and V2  V3
3) V1  V2 V3  V4 4) V3  V3 V2  V1
12. In the given figure two tiny conducting balls of identical mass m and identical
charge q hang from non-conducting threads of equal length L. Assume that  is
so small that tan   sin  , then for equilibrium x is equal to
1 1 1 1
 q2 L 3  qL2  3  q 2 L2  3  q2 L 3
1)   2)   3)   4)  
 2 0 mg   2 0 mg   4 0 mg   4 0 mg 
13. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two
processes. It first undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then
its volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant pressure. The correct p-V
diagram representing the two processes is
1) 2) 3) 4)
14. In YDSE, if the intensity ratio of bright and dark fringes is 81 : 25. The ratio
intensity of two waves is
1) 1 : 49 2) 49 : 4 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 40
15. If number of molecules of H2 are double than that of O2, then ratio of kinetic
energy of hydrogen and that of oxygen at 300K is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 16
16. The coefficient of self inductance of a solenoid is 0.18 mH. If a core of soft iron of
relative permeability 900 is inserted, then the coefficient of self inductance will
become nearly
1) 5.4 mH 2) 162 mH 3) 0.006 mH 4)0.0002 mH
17. The area of cross section of the rope used to lift a load by a crane is 2.5 104 m2 .
The maximum lifting capacity of the crane is 10 metric tons. To increase the
lifting capacity of the crane to 25 metric tons. The required area of cross section
of the rope should be  take g = 10ms 2 
1) 6.25 104 m 2 2) 10 104 m2 3) 1104 m2 4) 1.67 104 m2
18. A man grows into a giant such that hs linear dimensions increase by a factor of
9. Assuming that his density remains same, the stress in the leg will change by a
factor of
1 1
1) 9 2) 3) 81 4)
9 81

19. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a -particle to that of a proton being
subjected to the same magnetic field so that the radii of their path are equal to
each other assuming the field induction vector B is perpendicular to the velocity
vectors of the -particle and the proton is
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 2
4 2
20. Water is flowing through a non-uniform radius tube. If ratio of the radius of entry
and exist end of the pipe is 2 : 3 then the ratio of velocities of exit and entering
liquid is:
1) 4 : 9 2) 9 : 4 3) 8 : 27 4) 1 : 1
21. The ratio of escape velocity at earth  ve  to the escape velocity at a planet  v p 
whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is
1)1 : 4 2) 1: 2 3) 1 : 2 4) 1: 2 2
22. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the
satellite is very small compared to the mass of the earth. Then
1) The linear momentum of S remains constant in magnitude
2) The acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
3) The angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in
direction, but its magnitude remains constant
4) The total mechanical energy of S varies periodically with time.
23. Two points charges –q and +q are located at points (0, 0, -a) and (0, 0, a)
respectively. The electric potential at point (0, 0, z) is (z>a)
q q 2qa 2qa
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 z 4 0 a 4 0  z  a  4 0  z 2  a 2 
2 2 2
24. If n1, n2, n3 are the fundamental frequencies of three segments into which a
string is divided, then the original fundamental frequency n of the string is given
by
1) n = n1 + n2 + n3 2) n  n1  n2  n3
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
3)    4) n   
n n1 n2 n3 n1 n2 n3
25. The distance of closest approach of 1.0 MeV  -particles from a gold nucleus
(Z=79) is nearly
13 11 10
1) 2.27  10 m 2) 1.135  10 m 3) 2.27  10 m 4)
12
2.27  10 m
26. A wire carrying a curent of 3A is bent in the form of a parabola y 2  4  x as shown
in figure, where x and y are in metre. The wire is placed in a uniform magnetic
field B  5kˆ tesla. The force acting on the wire is
ˆ
1) 60iN ˆ
2) 60iN ˆ
3) 30iN ˆ
4) 30iN
27. A ray of light propagates from air to glass as shown in the figure. The ratio of
magnitude of momentum of photon in air and glass is

1 1
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4)
2 3
28. The refractive index of a certain glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in vacuum
is 6000 Å. The wavelength of this light when it passes through glass is
1) 4000 Å 2) 6000 Å 3) 9000 Å 4) 15000 Å
29. Which statements is true for interference?
1) Two independent source of light can produce interference
2) There is no violation of conservation of energy
3) White light cannot produce interference
4) All the above
30. A metal rod of Young’s modulus Y and coefficient of thermal expansion  is held
at its two ends such that its length remains invariant. If its temperature is raised
by t oC , the linear stress developed in it is
1 t Y
1) 2) 3) 4) Y  t
 Y t  Y t
31. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating
threads of length L from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there
is no gravitational effect, then the angle between the two suspensions and the
tension in each thread will be
1 Q2 0 1 Q2 0 1 Q2 0 1 Q2
1) 1800 , 2) 90 , 3) 180 , 4) 180 ,
4 0  2 L 2 4 0 L2 4 0 2L2 4 0 L2
32. An aluminium sphere is dipped into water. Which of the following statement is
true? (ignore the expansion of sphere)
1) Buoyancy will be less in water at 0oC than that in water at 4oC
2) Buoyancy will be more in water at 0oC than that in water at 4oC
3) Buoyancy in water at 0oC will be same as that in water at 4oC
4) Buoyancy may be more or less in water at 4oC depending on the radius of the
sphere.
33. Two pulses in a stretched string, whose centres are initially 8 cm apart, are
moving towards each other as shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is 2
cm/s. After 2s the total energy of the pulses will be :
1) zero
2) purely kinetic
3) purely potential
4) partialy kinetic and partialy potential
34. Between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacity C, two parallel plates,
of the same material and area same as the plate of the original capacitor, are
palced. If the thickness of each plate is equal to 1/5th of the distance between
the plates of the original capacitor, then the capacity of the new capacitor is
5 3 3C 10C
1) C 2) C 3) 4)
3 5 10 3
35. Two resistances R1 and R2 are made of different materials. The temperature
coefficient of the material of R1 is  and that of the material of R2 is . The
resistance of the series combination of R1 and R2 does not change with
temperature, then the ratio of resistances of the two wires at 0°C will be :
   2  2 
1) 2) 3) 4)
    
SECTION – B
ANSWER ANY TEN OF THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:
36. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle  with the horizontal reaches
 
maximum height H1. When it is projected with velocity u at angle     with
 2 
the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The relation between the
horizontal range R of the projectile, height H1 and H2 is
H2
1) R  4 H1 H 2 2) R  4  H1  H 2  3) R  4  H1  H 2  4) R  12
H2

37. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the
fig. W,X,Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would
release energy is
1) Y  2 Z 2) W  X  Z 3) W  2Y 4) X  Y  Z
38. A cyclist leans with the horizontal at angle 30 , while negotiating round a circular
0
road of radius 20 3m . The speed of the cycle should be

1) 7 3m / s 2) 14m/s 3) 7 6m / s 4) 10 6m / s
39. Assertion (A): Paramagnetic substances get poorly attracted in magnetic field.
Reason (R): Because magnetic dipoles are aligned along external magnetic field
weakly.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of
assertion
3) Assertion is true and reason is incorrect
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
40. A solid sphere and a solid cylinder have equal mass. They rolled down on inclined
planes of height h1 and h2 respectively. To have equal velocities for the two objects
at the bottom of the inclined planes the ratio of height h1 : h2 should be = ……….
15 7 14 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
14 5 15 7
41. A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.30 metre. The area of its
cross-section is 1.2 103 m2 . Around its central cross-section, a coil of 300 turns is
wound. If an initial current of 2 A flowing in the solenoid is reversed in 0.25 sec,
then the e.m.f. induced in the coil is
1) 6  104 V 2) 4.8 103V 3) 6  102 V 4) 48 mV
42. The value of universal gas constant is 8.3 J/mole/K, the mean kinetic energy of
32gm of oxygen at 73o C will be
1) 480J 2) 4980J 3) 2490J 4) 100J
43. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion having time period T. Starting from
mean position, time taken by it to complete 3/8th of oscillation
3 5 5 7
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
8 8 12 12
44. For a series LCR circuit, I vs  curve is shown:
A. To the left of 1 , the circuit is mainly capacitive.
B. To the left of 1 , the circuit is mainly inductive.
C. AT 1 , impedance of the circuit is equal to the resistance of the circuit.
D. At 1 , impedance of the circuit is 0.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) A and D only 2) B and D only 3) A and C only 4) B and C only

45. An incompressible fluid flows steadily through a cylindrical pipe which has radius
2R at point A and radius R at point B farther along the flow direction. If the
velocity at point A is v, its velocity at point B is:
v v
1) 2v 2) v 3) 4)
2 3
46. A vernier callipers has 1mm marks on the main scale. It has 20 equal divisions
on the Vernier scale which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this Vernier
callipers, the least count is
1) 0.02mm 2) 0.05mm 3) 0.1mm 4) 0.2mm
47. The absorption transitions between the first and the fourth energy states of
Hydrogen atom are 3. The emission transitions between these states will be:
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
48. Particles of masses 1kg and 3kg are at (2i + 5j + 13k)m and (-6i + 4j – 2k)m then
instantaneous position of their centre of mass is
1 1
1)  16i  17 j  7k  m 2)  8i  17 j  7k  m
4 4
1 1
3)  6i  17 j  7k  m 4)  6i  17 j  5k  m
4 4
49. A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2eV. The minimum
frequency of the radiation that can be absorbed by the matieral is nearly
(hc = 1240 eV nm)
1) 11014 Hz 2) 20 1014 Hz 3) 10 1014 Hz 4) 5 1014 Hz
50. In the given circuit, A and B represents two inputs and C represents the output.
The circuit represents.
1) AND gate 2) NOR gate 3) OR gate 4) NAND gate
CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS :
51. The mass of urea (m.w = 60g/mol] required to prepare 2.5 kg of 0.2 molal
aqueous solution is _________g.
1) 30 2) 29.64 3) 29.42 4) 29.82
52. The solubility of a toxic gas ‘X’ in water is 0.2m at STP. Henry’s law constant of
‘X’ is _____bar.
1) 282 2) 292 3) 272 4) 256
53. Carbylamine reaction is used for the detection of
1) aliphatic 2° amines 2) aliphatic 1° amines
3) aromatic 1° amines 4) Both (2) and (3)
54. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1) Cr  Mn : IP2 2) Zn  Cu : IP3 3) Fe  Mn : IP3 4) Cu  Zn : IP2
55. The formula of a metallic carbonate is MCO3. The formula of that metallic
perchlorate is
1) MClO4 2) M2ClO4 3) M3ClO4 4) M(ClO4)2
56. IUPAC name of the compound
O
H2 N
OH
OH
1) 1 – amino – 3 – hyroxybutanoic acid
2) 4 – amino – 2 – hydroxy butanoic acid
3)  - amino -  - hydroxy butanoic acid
4) 2 – amino – 3 – hydroxy butanoic acid

57. If the electron of a hydrogen atom is present in the first orbit, the total energy of
the electron is
e2 e2 e2 e2
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
r r 2r 2r 2
58. Among the following statements.
A) The four quantum numbers ( n, l , m and s) for the valence electron of Rb are
respectively 5, 0, 0,  1 / 2 .
B) The radius of second orbit of H-atom is equal to the radius of 4th orbit of Be3+
ion.
C) A revolving electron makes more number of revolutions in the first orbit of He 
ion than that in 1st orbit of H-atom.
1) All A, B and C are correct. 2) Only A and B are correct.
3) Only A and C are correct. 4) Only B and C are correct.
59. Which of the following pairs of compounds are geometrical isomers?
1) Crotonic acid and cinnamic acid
2) Maleic acid and malonic acid
3) Ethylene dichloride and ethylidene dichloride
4) Maleic acid and fumaric acid
60. Chlomyl chloride test is an conformation test of chloride ion in a given simple
salt. Which of the following chloride salt does not respond to chromyl chloride
test.
1) Hg2Cl2 2) MgCl2 3) AgCl 4) Both 1, 3
61. A solution which is 10 M each in Mn , Fe , Zn and Hg is treated with 1016 M
3 2 2 2 2
sulphide ion. If Ksp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 1013 ,1018 ,1024 and 1053
respectively, which one will precipitate first
1) FeS 2) MgS 3) HgS 4) ZnS
62. For III group cations precipitation, NH4Cl is added before adding NH4OH. It is to
1) decreasing conc. of OH  2) decreasing conc. of NH 4
3) increasing conc. of NH 4 4) increase conc. of OH  ions
63. Assertion (A): The experimentally determined carbon to oxygen bond length in
metal carbonyls is higher than C = O bond length in carbon monoxide molecule.
Reason (R) : In carbon monoxide, carbon atom undergoes sp hybridisation.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect
64. Statement – I: Ionic bonds are dierectional in nature whereas covalent bonds are
non-directional.
Statement – II: According to orbital overlap concept, the formation of a covalent
bond between two atoms results by pairing of electrons present in the valence
shell having same spins.
1) Both statements-I and II are true
2) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false
3) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true
4) Both statements-I and II are false
65. Which of the following diatomic molecule has highest bond energy, according to
molecular ofbital theory?
1) B2 2) O2 3)F2 4) C2
66. Which of the following carbocation is more stable?
 
1) CH3  CH 2  O  CH2 2) CH3  CH2  NH  CH2
3) CH 3  CH  CH  CH 2 4) CH 3  O  CH 2  CH 2
67. Which of the following most basic in nature?
1) CH 3  CH  CH  NH 2 2) Ph  CH 2  NH 2
O
3) || 4) CH  CH 2  CH  NH
CH 3  C  NH  CH 3

68. Order of decreasing tendency to accept lone pair of electron of halides of 13th
group elements is
1) BX3 > AlX3 > GaX3 > InX3 > TlX3 2) AlX3 > BX3 > GaX3 > InX3 > TlX3
3) GaX3 > AlX3 > BX3 > InX3 > TlX3 4) InX3 > TlX3 > AlX3 > BX3 > GaX3
69. Order of decreasing stability of tetrahalides of IVA group elements is
1) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4 2) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
3) CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4 > CI4 4) CI4 > CF4 > Cl4 > CBr4
70. In the following compounds the decreasing order of B.P. is
71.
72. Which of the following halides are not suitable as reagents for Friedel-craft
alkylation?
1) CH 3  CH  Cl   CH  CH 3 2) C6H5Cl
3) CH3 –CH=CH-CH2Cl 4) Both 1 & 2
73. What approximate volume of 0.40 M Ba(OH)2 solution must be added to 50.0 mL
of 0.30 M NaOH solution to get a solution in which the molarity of the OH– ions
is 0.50 M ?
(1) 33 mL (2) 66 mL (3) 133 mL (4) 100 mL
74. The pH of a given NaOH solution is 11. Then the pH of H2SO4 solution having
same molarity of given NaOH solution is ______
1) 3 2) 2.7 3) 6 4) 3.3
 2
75. The number of moles of MnO4 and Cr2 O7 separately required to oxidise 1 mole of
FeC2O4 each in acidic medium respectively.
1) 0.5 : 0.6 2) 0.6 : 0.4 3) 1.2 : 0.5 4) 0.6 : 0.5
76. Molecules whose mirror image is non-superimposable over them are known as
chiral.
Which of the following molecules are chiral in nature?
1) 2 – Bromobutane 2) 1 – Bromobutane
3) 2 – Bromopropane 4) 2 – Bromopropan – 2 – ol
77. Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture of nucleophilic
substitution by OH  ion?(Assume SN1 mechanism for all)
Br
CH 3  CH  Br | CH 3  CH  CH 2 Br
(I) | (II) CH 3  C  CH 3 (III) |
C2 H 5 | C2 H 5
C2 H 5
1) (I) only 2) (I), (II), (III) only 3) (II), (III) only 4) (I), (III) only
78. Which of the following is incorrect match?
1) Thermal stability : H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
2) Bond enthalpy : H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
3) Acidic character : H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
4) Melting point : H 2O  H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2 S

79. Statement – I: Compared to other noble gases ‘Xe’ is chemically active.
Statement – II: ‘Xe’ has low IP value and vacant ‘d’ orbitals available for the
excitation of electron from ‘p’ orbitals of valence shell.
80. For a zero order reaction, the graph drawn between conc.of reactant (At) vs time
(t) gives a straight line with –ve slope and +ve intercept. The magnitude of the
slope is 0.04M.min-1 and intercept is 0.8mol.lit-1. Then the half life of the reaction
is _____minutes.
1) 20 2) 10 3) 40 4) 17.325
81. 20g of a radioactive substance is reduced to 5g in 30days. Then 100g of the
substance is reduced to 6.25g in _____days.
1) 120 2) 45 3) 60 4) 90
82. Match the following columns.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II (Characteristics of glucose
(Reaction of molecule)
glucose with)
(I) HI ,  P) O
Presence of group
C 
(II) HCN Q) Presence of aldehyde functional group
(III)  CH 3CO 2 O R) All six carbon atoms are linked in a straight
chain
(IV) Br2 , H 2O S) Presence of 5-OH groups
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (I) (II) (III) (IV)
1) P R S Q 2) R S P Q
3) R P S Q 4) R P Q S
83. Acetyl bromide reacts with an excess of CH3MgI followed by treatment with a
saturated solution of NH4Cl gives
1) acetone 2) acetyl iodide
3) 2-methyl-2-propanol 4) acetamide
84. Identify the correct statement regarding entropy :
1) at absolute zero temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is
taken to be zero
2) at absolute zero of temperature, the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance
is +ve
3) at absolute zero of temperature the entropy of all crystalline substances is
taken to be zero
4) at 0o C the entropy of a perfectly crystalline substance is taken to be zero
85. The factor of G values is important in metallurgy. The G values for the
following reactions at 800o C are given as :
2S  s   2O2  g  
 2SO2  g  ; G  544 kJ
2Zn  s   S2  s  
 2ZnS  s  ; G  293 kJ
2Zn  s   O2  s  
 2ZnO  s  ; G  480 kJ
The G for the reaction, 2ZnS  s   3O2  s  
 2ZnO  s   2SO2  g  will be :
1) -357 kJ 2) -731 kJ 3) -773 kJ 4) -299 kJ
SECTION – B
86. Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. in its compound. What is the
oxidation number of Ti in the compound?
1) +1 2) +4 3) +3 4) + 2

87. Which of the following is given in wrong order?
2 
1) VO2  Cr2O7  MnO4  Oxidising power
2) Co2  Fe2  Mn 2  Magnetic moment
3) CrO3  MoO3  WO3  Stability of  6 oxidation state
4) Fe  Mn  Co  ve value of 0M 3 / M 2
88. Statement –I : Sodium hydrogen sulphite adds to aldehydes and ketones is a
useful method for separation and the purification of aldehydes.
Statement –II : The hydrogen sulphite addition compound is water soluble and
can be converted back to the original carbonyl compound by treating it with
dilute mineral acid or alkali.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are true
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are false
89. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct combination from the
options given.
Column-I Column-II
(reaction) (name of the reactions)
A) C6 H5CHO  NaOH  C6 H5COOH  C6 H5CH2OH (p) Rosenmund’s reaction
B) C6 H 6  CH 3Cl 
Anhyd
AlCl3
 C6 H 5CH 3 (q) Kolbe’s reaction
C) RCOCl  H2 
Pd / BaSO4
 RCHO (r) Friedel-Crafts reaction
D) OH (s) Cannizzaro’s reaction
C6 H 5OH  NaOH  CO2 

Heat
H
 COOH
Codes :
A B C D A B C D
1) s q r p 2) r s p q
3) s r p q 4) q r s p
90. The IUPAC name of  Ag  NH 3 2   Ag  CN 2  is

1) Diamminesilver (I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
2) Diaminesilver (I) dicyanidoargentate (III)
3) Diemminesilver (III) dicyanoargentite (III)
4) Diammineargentate (I) dicyanosilver(I)
91. The co-ordination number of Cu in CuSO4.5H2O is
1) 4 2) 5 3) 3 4) 2
92. The total number of stereo isomers possible with the complex Mabcdef is
1) 15 2) 30 3) 45 4) 10
93. In which of the following reaction, the concentration of product is higher than the
concentration of reactant at equilibrium?
1) A  B : k  0.01 2) M  N : k  10
3) X  Y : k  0.05 4) K  P : k  0.01
94. At low temperature, Nitrogen dioxide, a reddish brown gas gets associated to form
the colourless dinitrogen tetroxide as in the reaction 2 NO2 g    N2O4 g  . Then at
equilibrium
1) There would be an increase in colour intensity
2) The mixture would become colourless
3) There would be a decrease in colour intensity
4) There would be no change in colour intensity
95. A buffere solution contains 0.04 mole acetic acid (pha=4.75) and 0.08 mole of
sodium acetate. If 0.02 mole of NaOH is added, then the change in the pH is
1) 0.4 units increased 2) 0.4 units decreased
3) Not changed 4) 0.3 units increased

96. Aniline has high boiling point, high vapour pressure at 100°C and is insoluble in
water. Aniline is therefore, separated from aniline-water mixture
1) Steam distillation 2) Simple distillation
3) Distillation at low pressure 4) Sublimation
97. The reaction,
C6 H 5 NH 2  ClCOC6 H 5  NaOH
 C6 H 5 NHCOC6 H 5 is called
1) Friedel-crafts reaction 2) Claisen condensation
3) Benzoylation or Schotten Baumann reaction 4) None of these
98. The electro chemical equivalent of a metal is 0.0006735 g/C. The weight of metal
deposited at cathode by passing 30amp current for 20 minutes through its
molten chloride is _______ gram.
1) 24.24 2) 0.4 3) 12.12 4) 48.48
99. From the following data,
I) Cl2  2e  2Cl  ; E o  1.36V
II) Na   e  Na; E o  2.71V
III) MnO4  2 H 2O  2e  MnO2  4OH  , E o  0.6V
IV) H 2O2  2H   2e  2 H 2O; E o  1.78V
Which of the following is most powerful oxidizing agent?
1) Cl2 2) Na 3) MnO4 4) H2O2
100. The product X will be
1, 2  epoxypropane HBr
Excess
X .
What is X (major) in the above reaction?
1) 2) 3) 4)
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. The rapid multiplication of which of the following may cause decrease in the yield
of marine fishes
1) water blooms 2) Golden algae 3) Gonyaulax 4) Slime moulds
102. The protists that are wall less in vegetative stage but produce spores with the
walls are
1) Dinoflagellates 2) Diatoms
3) Protozoans 4) Slime moulds
103. Match the Column I and Column II and select the correct option.
Column – I Column - II
(A) Chrysophytes (I) Myxotrophs
(B) Dinoflagellates (II) Saprophyte protists
(C) Euglenoids (III) Diatoms & Desmids
.
(D) Slime moulds (IV) Gonyaulax
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
.
1) III IV I II 2) IV III I II
3) III II IV I 4) II III IV I
104. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
Microbes Product Application
1) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin Immunosuppressive drug
2) Monascus purpureus Statins Lowering of blood cholesterol
3) Streptococcus Streptokinase Removal of clot from blood vessel
4) Clostridium butylicum Lipase Removal of oil stains
105. All solids that settle form the A and the supernatant forms the B . If from the
primary settling tank is taken for C treatment.
1) A – primary sludge, B – Effluent, C – Secondary
2) A – anaerobic sludge, B – Effluent, C – Primary
3) A – Primary sludge, B – Effluent, C- Primary
4) A – Activated sludge, B – Effluent, C – Primary

106. The Effluent is passed into aeration tank for
1) Primary treatment 2) Secondary treatment
3) Both (1) and (2) 4) Tertiary treatment
107. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil-binders.
2) Pteridophytes are also frequently grown as ornamentals.
3) The Pteridophytes are found in cool, damp, shady places though some may
flourish well in sandy-soil conditions
4) In Pteridophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle is the gametophytic plant
body.
108. Consider the following statements
I. Algae are nonchlorophyllous, complex, thalloid, autotrophic and largely
aquatic (both fresh water and marine) organisms.
II. Algae occur in a variety of other habitats: moist stones, soils and wood.
III. Algae also occur in association with Cyanobacteria (lichen) and all animals
and higher plants.
IV. The algae reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1) I, II, and IV are correct 2) I, II, III and IV are correct
3) I, II and V are correct 4) II, and IV are correct
109. The dicotyledons are characterised by seeds having ……A… cotyledons,
……B……… venations in leaves, and …C……… or………D… flowers.
A B C D
1) One Parallel Trimerous Pentamerous
2) Two Reticulate Tetramerous Pentamerous
3) Two Parallel Trimerous Pentamerous
4) One Reticulate Tetramerous Pentamerous
110. Restriction endonuclease is employed for cutting
1) A single stranded DNA 2) Double stranded DNA
3) RNA fragment 4) mRNA
111. Bacterial plasmid contains
1) RNA 2) RNA + Protein 3) DNA 4) Protein only
112. Restriction endonucleases are
1) Used in genetic engineering for unwinding two DNA molecules
2) Used in in vitro DNA synthesis
3) Present in mammalian cells for degeneration of DNA of dead cells
4) Synthesized by bacteria for their defence
113. Statement-I: Transformation is a procedure through which a piece of protein is
introduced into a host
Statement-II: Retroviruses have also been disarmed and are now used to deliver
desirable genes into plant cell
1) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false
2) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true
3) Both Statements I, II are false
4) Both Statements I, II are true
114. Find the correct matching:
1) T-DNA : E.coli 2) Bam HI : ampR 3) PvuII : rop 4) Pst I : Tet R
115. Identify the correct statements.
A. In racemose type of inflorescences, the flowers are borne laterally in a
basipetal succession.
B. In mustard, datura and chilli flowers can be divided into two similar halves
only in one particular vertical plane.
C. A flower is a modified shoot where in the shoot apical meristem changes to
floral meristem.
D. China rose, mustard and sunflower plants show opposite types of phyllotaxy.
E. Neem has a pinnately compound leaf.
Choose the correct option.
1) C and E 2) A, C and D 3) B and E only 4) B, D and E only

116. Identify the parts of seed labeled as A and B.
A B
1) Embryo Endosperm
2) Endosperm Embryo
3) Perisperm Endosperm
4) Endosperm Perisperm
117. Analysis statements w.r.t. below diagram.
S–I :The margin of thalamus encloses ovary completely and fuses with the ovary.
S–II :The ovary here is said to be half-inferior.
3) Both Statements I, II are false 4) Both Statements I, II are true
118. Match the following :
List-I (Example) List-II (Family)
A) Spice : Chilli (I) Cruciferae
B) Spices : Black mustard (seeds) (II) Solanaceae
C) Drug : Calendula (III) Poaceae
`
`
D) Builidng material : Bambusa (IV) Asteraceae
A B C D A B C D
1) II I IV III 2) II III IV I
3) III II I IV 4) IV I III II
119. Consider the following statements about DNA replication and choose
the correct options:
I. In E. coli, the average rate of polymerisation during DNA
replication is approximately 2000 base pairs per second.
II. DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in the 5' to 3'
direction, leading to continuous synthesis on the 3' to 5' template
and discontinuous synthesis on the 5' to 3' template.
III. DNA replication in E. coli initiates from a specific sequence called
the origin of replication.
IV. In eukaryotes, DNA replication occurs during the G1 phase of the
cell cycle.
1) Only I, II, and III are correct 2) Only II, III, and IV are correct
3) Only I and III are correct 4) All I, II, III, and IV are correct
120. An experiment was conducted to understand the regulation of gene
expression in E. coli. The bacteria were grown in a medium containing
lactose but no glucose. Which of the following outcomes is expected
based on the functioning of the lac operon?
1) The repressor protein remains bound to the operator, blocking RNA
polymerase and preventing transcription of the operon.
2) The lac repressor protein gets inactivated by lactose, allowing RNA
polymerase to access the promoter and initiate transcription of the
operon.
3) The presence of lactose has no effect on the lac operon as glucose is
the preferred carbon source for E. coli.
4) Both glucose and lactose are required simultaneously for the
expression of the lac operon

121. Which of the following option is incorrect with reference to the
transforming principle ?
1) S strain  injected into mice  mice died
2) R strain  injected into mice  mice lived
3) S strain (heat killed)  injected into mice  mice died
4) S strain (heat killed) + R strain (live)  injected into mice  mice died.
122. Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of :-
1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate 2) Hexose sugar and phosphate
3) Purine and pyrimidine 4) Sugar and purine
123. P was used to radiolabel the which component of bacteriophage in
32
Hershey and Chase experiment :-

1) Viral protein 2) Viral DNA
3) Viral RNA 4) Both DNA and protein
124. If base sequence of one strand is 5' GCCTTAAGC 3' of a DNA
molecule, then its complementary sequence will be :-
1) 3' CGGUUAACG 5' 2) 3' CGGAATTCG 5'
3) 5' GCCUUAAGC 3' 4) 5' CGGTTAACG 3'
125. In dicot stem
1) Protoxylem lies towards pith 2) Metaxylem lies towards periphery
3) Endarch arrangement is present 4) All the above are correct
126. Assertion : The secondary growth occurs in most of the dicotylendonous roots.
Reason : The cambium is present in between the xylem and phloem of vascular
bundles in dicotyledonous roots.
1) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is a the correct explanation of ‘A’
2) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is not the correct explanation of ‘A’
3) ‘A’ is true and ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false and ‘R’ is true
127. Formation of which tissue is example of dedifferentiation
1) Interfascicular cambium 2) Apical meristem
3) Intrafascicular cambium 4) Intercalary meristem
128. Offspring of which of the following crossed are all phenotypically alike?
1) Dd × Dd 2) Dd × dd 3) DD × Dd 4) Ww × Ww
129. If an organism produces 32 types of gametes its genotype should be heterozygous
for
1) 4 genes 2) 5 genes 3) 8 genes 4) 16 genes
130. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options
given
Column-I Column-II
(a) Golgi apparatus i. Membrane bound minute vesicles
(b) Osmosis ii. Cis face and trans face
(c) Microbodies iii. Two cylindrical structures
(d) Centrosome iv. Passive transport
1) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
3) a-i, b-ii, c-i, d-iii 4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i.
131. What is the meaning of segregation in law of segregation?
1) Allelic separation 2) Chromosomal separation
3) Crossing over 4) Linkage
132. Statement-I: Co-dominance and incomplete dominance are different process.
Statement-II: In co-dominance characters express themselves completely in F1
hybrid while in incomplete dominance partial co-existance of characters is seen.
3) Both Statements I, II are false
4) Both Statements I, II are true
133. Which of the following statement is not true?
1) Response to gram stain is due to the cell envelope.
2) The cell envelope act as a single protective unit.
3) The glycocalyx layer is similar in all the bacteria.
4) Glycocalyx as loose sheath known as Slime layer.

134. In prokaryotes, chromatophores are
1) specialized cytoplasmic granules responsible for colouration of cells.
2) structures responsible for organizing the shape of the organism.
3) inclusion bodies lying free inside the cells for carrying out various metabolic
activities.
4) membrane extensions into cytoplasm found in cyanobacteria
135. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination:
1) Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
2) Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
3) Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
4) Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
SECTION – B
136. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from anthers of one plant to stigma of
different plant which, during pollination, brings genetically different types of
pollen grains to stigma, is:
1) Geitonogamy 2) Chasmogamy 3) Cleistogamy 4) Xenogamy
137. In some members of which of the following pairs of families, pollen grains retain
their viability for months after release?
1) Poaceae ; Leguminosae 2) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
3) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae 4) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
138. The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other:
1. Pollen grains inside the anther
2. Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
3. Seed inside the fruit
4. Embryo sac inside the ovule
1) (1), (2) and (3) 2) (3) and (4) 3) (1) and (4) 4) (1) only
139. Enzymes that catalyse inter-conversion of optical, geometrical (or) positional
isomers are
1) Ligases 2) Lyases 3) Hydrolases 4) Isomerases
140. Statement –I : Hydrophilic and cytoplasmic composition roughly in acid soluble
fraction.
Statement –II : Hydrophobic polymers (carbohydrates, proteins, phospholipids,
amino acids) are strictly biomacro molecules.
1) Both statements-I and Statement-II are wrong
2) Both statements-I and Statement-II are correct
3) Statement-I is correct, Statement-II is wrong
4) Statement-I is wrong, Statement-II is correct
141. Identify the correct statement about meristematic phase of growth.
I) It is characterized by increased vacuolation
II) It shows cell enlargement
III) In this phase new cell wall is deposited
IV) Growth is maximum
1) III, I and II 2) I, II and III 3) II, IV and III 4) All are wrong
142. Read the following factors affecting plant development and select the number of
extrinsic factors.
Light, Genes, Temperature, Plant growth regulators, water, oxygen, nutrition.
1) 4 2) 5 3) 2 4) 6
143. Which hormone promotes internode/petiole elongation in deep water rice?
1) Kinetin 2) Ethylene 3) 2, 4-D 4) GA3
144. (i) Snapdragon (ii) Selaginella (iii) Ladybird (iv) Trichoderma (v) Viciafaba
How many of the above follow “Separation of cytoplasm by cell plate method”
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 3) 5
145. Which of the following is not incorrect?
1) Nucleolus reappear in prophase
2) New DNA molecules formed in G1 phase
3) Equatorial plate is not formed in metaphase
4) Major reorganization of all components of cell takes place in m-phase.

146. Which one is incorrect for the figure given?
1) Organelle exhibit clear division of labour

2) They align themselves along the walls of the mesophyll cells, such that they get
the optimum quantity of the incident light.
3) Material present outside the membrane system is responsible for trapping the
light energy and also for the synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
4) They could align themselves perpendicular to the incident light during mid day
or when light intensity in the ambience is more than required.
147. Release of 6 molecules of oxygen from a green leaf, requires reduction of how
many molecules of CO2 ?
1) 6 2) 3 3) 12 4) 18
148. A small plant growing in dense forest. The factor that act as limiting factor is
1) CO2 concentration 2) Light intensity
3) Available water 4) Temperature
149. Which of the following enzyme is responsible for formation of glucose-6-
phosphate from glucose?
1) Hexokinase 2) Aldolase 3) Dehydrogenase 4) Phosphatase
150. In the electron transport system present in the inner mitochondrial membrane,
complexes I and IV are respectively
1) NADH Dehydrogenase and FADH2
2) NADH2 and NADH Dehydrogenase
3) NADH Dehydrogenase and cytochrome-c oxidase complex
4) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. For the first time, therapy was tried on a 4 year old girl in 1990 to treat________
1) Cytosine Deaminase (CDA) 2) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
3) Tyrosine oxidase 4) Glutamate tryhydrogenase
152. The direct ancestor of modern man is
1) Ramapithecus 2) Homo habilis 3) Homo erectus 4) Australopithecines
153. The ancient fossil of horse
1) Procamelus 2) Pliohippus 3) Dryopithecus 4) Stegolophodon
154. Select the hormone-releasing Intrauterine Devices.
1) Multiload 375, Progestasert 2) Progestasert, LNG-20
3) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375 4) Vaults, LNG-20
155. What is common to Lantana, Eicchornia and African catfish?
1) All are invasive species of India 2) All are key stone species of India
3) All are endemic species of India 4) All are threatened species of India
156. The peak of richness of species over the latitudinal range is observed
1) Between 410N and 710N 2) Between 410S and 710S
3) Between 23.5 N to 23.5 S
0 0 4) Between 43.50N and 44.50N
157. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This
chromosome can be inherited by :-
1) Only daughters 2) Only sons
3) Only grandchildren 4) Both sons & daughters
158. Mark the false statement regarding the heart of cockroach.
1) Heart is present along the mid-dorsal line of thorax and abdomen
2) Alary muscles attached to heart chambers
3) Heart is elongated muscular tube
4) It is 10/11 chambered

159. Phylum having radula, calcareous ossicles muscular pharynx and jointed
appendages are respectively.
1) Arthropoda, Aschelminthes, Echinodermata, Mollusca
2) Mollusca, Echinodermata, Aschelminthes, Arthropoda
3) Aschelmithes, Echinodermata, Mollusca, Arthropoda
4) Echinodermata, Mollusca, Platyhelminthes, annelida
160. Which of the following is found in frog?
1) Five fingers and four toes 2) Four fingers and five toes
3) Five fingers and five toes 4) Four fingers and four toes
Column-I Column-II
A) Unipolar neuron (1) Cerebral cortex
B) Bipolar neuron (2) Embryonic stage
C) Multipolar neuron (3) Retina of eye
1) a-1, b-2, c-3 2) a-3, b-1, c-2 3) a-2, b-3, c-1 4) a-2, b-1, c-3
162. Corpus callosum is tracts of nerve fiber connects.
1) Obliquely divided cerebrum 2) Transversely divided thalamus
3) Longitudinally divided cerebrum 4) Longitudinally divided thalamus
163. Statement –I : The female mosquito is not considred as a parasite.
Statement –II : The female mosquito needs our blood for reproduction.
Column-I (Species A-B) Column-II (Interaction)
a) Herbivores-plants (i) Commensalism
b) Mycorrhiza-plants (ii) Mutalism
c) Sheep-cattle (iii) Predation
d) Orchid-mango tree (iv) Competition
Select the correct option from the following :
1) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii 2) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
165. Statement – I : Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in PCT.
Statement – II : PCT maintain the pH and ionic balance of the body fluids.
1)Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
3) Statement-I is true, but Statement-II is false.
4) Statement-I is false, but Statement-II is true.
166. Vital capacity + A = Total lung capacity (TLC). In this ‘A’ stands for
1) IC 2) RV 3) ERV 4) IRV
167. Match the following columns.
(A) Urea (I) Reabsorbed at collecting duct
(B) GFR (II) 180 lit/day
(C) Nephrons (III) 1 million in a kidney
(D)
.
Kidney width (IV) 5 to 7 cm
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) IV III II I 2) I III IV II
3) I II IV III 4) I II III IV
168. Arteries are best defined as the vessels which
1) Carry blood away from heart to different organs
2) Vessels with wide lumen
3) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
4) Supply oxygenated blood to different organs
169. The number of antigens in a person who have AB positive blood.
1) 2 2) 3 3) 1 4) Zero

170. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen and carbon-dioxide is represented as
95
in/at
40
1) Oxygenated blood 2) Deoxygenated blood
3) Aeveoli 4) Tissues
171. The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in form
of reckless behavior, __________ and _______
1) Stealing , financial help for family 2) Vandalism , violence
3) Emphysema , cancer 4) Nausea, sweating
172. Statement (S-I): Fragmentation is a process in which the detritus is breakdown
into smaller particles by detritivores.
Statement (S-II): Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and
chitin
1) S-I & S-II are correct 2) S-I is correct, S-II is incorrect
3) Both S-I & S-II are incorrect 4) S-I is incorrect, S-II is correct
173. The _______ are small solid structures located at different points along the
lymphatic system
1) Lymph nodes 2) Peyer’s patches 3) Spleen 4) Thymus
174. The mature infective stages (sporozoites) escape from gut and migrate to the
mosquito’s ____
1) Haemolymph 2) Malphigian tubules
3) Lumen of gut 4) Salivary glands
175. The rate of formation of new organic matter in consumers is known as
1) Gross primary productivity 2) Secondary productivity
3) Net primary productivity 4) Photosynthetically active radiation
176. Read the following and choose the correct sequence of events in a menstrual
cycle.
a) Secretion of FSH b) Development of ovarian follicles
c) Secretion of progesterone d) Secretion of esteogen (Ist time)
1) abcd 2) abdc 3) dcba 4) acbd
177. Statement –I : The human genome contains 3164.7 billion bp, according to
Human Genome Project (HGP).
Statement –II : Less than 2 percent of the human genome codes for proteins,
according to HGP.
178. Alfonso Corti, is a
1) Italian ecologist 2) German geographer
3) Italian anatomist 4) British naturalist
179. Identify the group of animals that exhibit the following characters.
I. Two pairs of limbs, adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing,
swimming or flying
II. Different types of teeth are present in the jaw
III. External ears or pinnae are present
IV. They are viviparous with few exceptions.
1) Reptilia 2) Aves 3) Amphibia 4) Mammalia
180. Which of the following is correct one?
1) Neural coordination absent in Hydra
2) Mesoderm absent in Tapeworm
3) Sea urchin has anus on upper (dorsal) side
4) Fertilisation is external in flat worms
181. Which of the following molecular diagnostic technique is used to detect the
presence of a pathogen in its early stage of infection-
1) Angiography 2) Radiography
3) Enzyme replacement technique 4) Polymerase chain reaction

182. Statement – I: Progesterone acts on mammary glands and stimulates milk
ejection.
Statement – II: Progesterone help in development of ovarian follicles, regulation
of female sexual behaviour and mammary gland development
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true , S – II is false 3) S – I is false , S – II is true
183. The applications of DNA fingerprinting include:
1) Forensic science 2) Population genetics
3) Genetic diversity studies 4) All of the above
184. The process of gaining of a segment of DNA, which results in alteration in
chromosome is due to ______
1) Insertion 2) Deletion 3) Duplication 4) Both 1 and 3
185. In pedigree analysis the following symbol represents,
1) Unrelated mating 2) Consanguineous mating

3) Affected parents 4) Non- Identical twins
SECTION – B
186. Assertion : Nature’s biological library is burning even before we catalogued the
titles of all the books stocked there.
Reason : Many taxonomists and the time is required to complete species
inventory of the biological wealth of our country.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is correct, but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false
187. Statement – I: Neutrophils are the most abundant phagocytic granular
lymphocytes.
Statement – II: Tunica externa is the external fibrous connective tissue layer of
blood vessels with elastic fibres.
188. Choose from the following, the correct symptoms of the disorder shown in the
figure.
I. Furrowed tongue
II. Short statured with underdeveloped feminine character
III. Retarded psychomotor development
IV. Many loops on fingertips
V. Sterility
1) I,III,IV 2) III,IV,V 3) I,III,V 4) I,II,III,IV,V

189. Choose the correct match.
Column-I Column-II
A) Testicular lobules (I) Each testis has about 250 compartments
B) Ampulla (II) Paired folds of tissue
C) Birth canal (III) Wider part of the oviduct
D) Labia majora (IV) Narrow lumen
(V) Cervical canal along with vagina
(VI) Site of fertilisation
Codes :
A B C D A B C D
1) I II,III IV V,VI 2) I IV,VI V II
3) II V VI III,IV 4) I III,VI V II
190. Match the following .
1) Radiotherapy - p) Anti cancer drugs
2) Chemo therapy - q) X- rays
3) Immunotherapy - r) Suspected tissue
4) Biopsy - s) Cancer specific antibodies
1) 1-s, 2-p, 3-q, 4-r 2) 1-q, 2-r, 3-s, 4-p
3) 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r 4) 1-p, 2-q, 3-r, 4-s
191. The rate of biomass production by autotrophs which becomes available for
consumption to heterotrophs is termed as
1) Gross Primary Productivity 2) Net Primary Productivity
3) Gross Secondary Productivity 4) Net Secondary Productivity
192. Consider the following statements:
A) Cervical caps and vaults are not cost effective as they cannot be reused.
B) Contraceptive efficiency of vaults and cervical caps can be increased by using
spermicidal creams along with these barriers.
Select the correct option.
1) A is true, B is false 2) Both A and B are true
3) A is false, B is true 4) Both A and B are false
193. Match the following and pick correct option.
(A) Genetic drift (I) Genetic drift due to small colonizing
population
(B) Founder effect (II) Change in allele frequency by a chance
event
(C) Genetic recombination (III) A major factor to introduce variations
in sexually reproducing populations.
(D)
.
Bottle neck effect (IV) Adverse environmental factors
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
1) II I III IV 2) I III II IV
3) III II I IV 4) III I II IV
194. Statement – I: The taxonomic categories are distinct morphological aggregates
not merely biological entities.
Statement – II: Classification is a single step process but involves hierarchy of
steps.
195. Assertion (A): Increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary inerstitium is
caused by NaCl & Urea.
Reason (R) : Counter current in loop of Henle & vasa recta help in maintaining
increasing osmolarity towards medulla.
1) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
2) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
4) A is incorrect but R is correct

196. Assertion(A): The pO2 in alveoli is considerably less than that in the atmosphere.
Reason (R):Lungs in mammals do not completely empty with each breath.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of
assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.
197. Which of the following is incorrect about the given graph.
1) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 favours dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin

2) Low temperature favours formation of oxyhaemglobin
3) Lesser H+ concentration favours the formation of oxyhaemoglobin
4) Decrease in partial pressure of oxygen cause formation of oxyhaemoglobin
198. Match the following and choose the right option.
Column – I Column – II
(Period) (Plant group)
(A) Permian (I) Seed ferns
(B) Silurian (II) Progymnosperms
(C) Carboniferous (III) Zosterophyllum
(D) Devonian (IV) Arborescent lycopods
.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

1) IV III I II 2) III IV II I
3) I II III IV 4) II III IV I
199. Statement–I:Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis.
Statement–II:Aldosterone acts mainly on renal tubules and stimulates the
reabsorption of K + and phosphates and excretion of Na+ and water
1) Both S – I & S – II are true 2) Both S – I & S – II are false
3) S – I is true , S – II is false 3) S – I is false , S – II is true
200. A motor unit constitute:
1) One muscle fibre and its single nerve fibre
2) It is the neuron which carries the message from muscle to CNS
3) A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres that it innervates
4) All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a single muscle bundle
*******

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IIT/NEET – ACADEMY

NEET GRAND TEST - 5

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

It is mandatory to use BALL POINT PEN to dark appropriate circle in the

Marks should be dark and should completely fill the circle.

Zoology). Each part contains 50 questions.

In every part contains two sections A&B. Section-A : 35 Q; Section-B : 15 Q

Section-A : 35 questions – 140 Marks

Section-B : 15 Questions – 40 Marks

bubble corresponding to the correct and zero mark if no bubbles are

darkened, minus (–1) will be awarded for incorrect answer.

******** WISH YOU ALL THE BEST ********

1) g cosec  2) g/tan  3) g tan  4) g

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

road of radius 20 3m . The speed of the cycle should be

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) AND gate 2) NOR gate 3) OR gate 4) NAND gate

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

C6 H 5OH  NaOH  CO2 

90. The IUPAC name of  Ag  NH 3 2   Ag  CN 2  is

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

Hershey and Chase experiment :-

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Organelle exhibit clear division of labour

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Unrelated mating 2) Consanguineous mating

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

1) Increase in partial pressure of CO2 favours dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin

(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)

VELAMMAL BODHI CAMPUS, PONNERI IIT/NEET ACADEMY

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WISH YOU ALL THE BEST