(CMD303001230007) NURTURE COURSE PHASE- I

R NEET(UG)
(MND11EE,12,13,14,15EM,) MINOR
28-05-2023
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be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
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are mandatory) and Sections B will have 15 questions. Candidate can choose to attempt any 10 question
out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attepmts more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions
will be considered for making.
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.
 SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Topic : BASIC MATHEMATICS,VECTOR,UNIT & DIMENSION,ERROR,1D (UP TO BB-1).
5. →
SECTION-A Vector A has magnitude of 5 units directed
Attempt All 35 questions →
along East, then vector 6A
1. → →
Two vectors A and B have equal magnitudes. (1) Has magnitude 6 unit along East
→ →
The magnitude of ( A + B) is 'n' times the (2) Has magnitude 5 unit along East
→ → → (3) Has magnitude 30 unit along East
magnitude of ( A − B ). The angle between A
→ (4) Has magnitude 6 unit towards West
and B is:
→
2
6. What is the value of 'α' if a = 4 î − 2 ĵ + 4kˆ is
(1) −1 n −1 (2) cos −1 n−1 →
sin
b = −4 î + 2 ĵ + αkˆ ?
[ ] [ ]
n2 + 1 n+1 perpendicular to
(3) n2 − 1 (4) n−1 (1) 4 (2) – 4
cos−1 [ ] sin−1 [ ]
n2 + 1 n+1
→ (3) 5 (4) 8
2. → π
If angle between two vectors a and b is , → →
→
6 7. Vectors A = î + ĵ − 2kˆ and B = 3 î + 3 ĵ − 6kˆ are :
then angle between vectors 2→
a and –2 b is
(1) Parallel
(1) π (2) 2π
3 3 (2) Antiparallel
(3) π (4) 5π (3) Perpendicular
6 6
3. The unit vector along î + ĵ is (4) At obtuse angle with each other
8. → →
(1) (2) î + ĵ A = 2 î + 4 ĵ + 4kˆ
and B = 4 î + 2 ĵ − 4kˆ are two
k̂
√ 2 vectors. The angle between them will be
(3) î + ĵ (4) (1) 0° (2) 45°
î or ĵ
√ 3 (3) 60° (4) 90°
4. The X and Y components of a force are 2N and
9. Identify the vector quantity among the following
–3N. The force is
(1) Distance (2) Heat
(1) 2 î − 3 ĵ (2) 2 î + 3 ĵ
(3) Velocity (4) Energy
(3) −2 î + 3 ĵ (4) 3 î + 2 ĵ

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10. → 15. Which of the following is dimensionally
If a vector A of magnitude a is rotated by an
angle of θ from initial direction then the incorrect?
magnitude of change in vector is (the symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) v = u + at (2) 1 2
(1) θ (2) θ S − ut = at
2a cos( ) 2a sin( ) 2
2 2
(3) 1 (4) v2 – u2 = 3as
(3) 2a sin θ (4) Zero S = ut2 + at
2
11. → +B
If A → = C→ and A + B = C, then the angle 16. 1 Joule of energy is to converted into new
→ and C
→ is: system of units in which length is measured in
between A
10 meter, mass in 10 kg and time in 1 minute.
(2) π (3) π
(1) 0 (4) π The numerical value of 1J in the new system is :
4 2
12. Two forces F1 =1 N and F2 = 2 N act along the x (1) 36 × 10–4 (2) 36 × 10–3
– axis and y – axis respectively. Then the (3) 36 × 10–2 (4) 36 × 10–1
resultant of forces would be
17. Which of the following relation can not be
(1) 2 î + ĵ (2) î + ĵ deduced using dimensional analysis? (the
(3) î − ĵ (4) î + 2 ĵ symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) y = A sin (wt + kx)
13. In vector diagram shown in figure where (R→ ) is
→ ) and (B
the resultant of vectors (A →) . (2) v = u + at
(3) 1 2
k= mv
2
(4) All of these
18. Which is a supplementary unit?
(1) radian (2) steradian
B
If R = , then value of angle θ is:
2 (3) candela (4) both (1) and (2)
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
19. Displacement of a particle is describe as
14. Which of the following functions of A and B x=
1
then, the dimension of AB is
may be performed if A and B possess different (At − B)
dimensions? (1) [M°L1T1] (2) [M°L2T–1]
(1) A + B (2) A - B (3) [M°L–2T1] (4) [M°L–2T–1]
(3) A (4) A
eB
B
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20. Force of a particle varies with distance x from a 25. If α = F sinβt, find dimensions of α/β
fixed origin as F = A x + Bx2 , where A and B
√ V2
[Here V = velocity, F = force, t = time]
are dimensional constants then dimensional
A (1) ML-1T-1 (2) M-1LT
formula for is
B (3) ML-1T (4) M-1L-1T-1
3 3
(1) [
o
M L T2
−2
]
(2) [
o
M L T2
o
]
26. If x = t2, then graph between dx
and t will
[M°L4T–2]
( )
(3) (4) [ML3T2] dt
be:
21. The dimensions of pressure are:
(1)
(1) [MLT–2] (2) [ML–1T2]
(3) [ML–1T–2] (4) [MLT2]
22. Which of the following is not a derived
quantites?
(1) Velocity (2) Speed (2)
(3) Force (4) Time
23. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms–2 and
the units of length and time are changed in
kilometer and hour respectively, the numerical
(3)
value of the acceleration is
(1) 360000 (2) 72,000
(3) 36,000 (4) 129600
24. If area (A), velocity (V), and density (ρ) are base
units, then the dimensional formula of force can (4)
be represented as
(1) Avρ (2) Av2ρ
(3) Avρ2 (4) A2vρ

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27. The equation of a curve is given as y = x2 + 2 – 3x . 33. The derivative of cos3 x is
The curve intersect the x-axis at (1) sin3 x
(1) (1,0) (2) (2,0) (2) sin2 x cos x
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) No where (3) −3 sin xcos2 x
28. sin4° is approximately equal to (4) −sin2 x cos x
(1) 4 (2) 0.5 34. ∫ sin 4x dx is
(3) π (4) π
180 45 (1) −4 cos 4x + c
29. dy
y = loge (tan x), =? (2) −4 sin 4x + c
dx
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) cos 4x
× sec2 x ×x − +c
x tan x 4
(3) 1 (4) None (4) tan 4x
× sec2 x +c
tan x 4
30. cos0°· cos1°· cos2° ...... cos180° = 35. dy
If y = sin(2x) + e2x + x3 ,then will be
(1) 1 (2) –1 dx
(1) sin(2x) + 2e2x + 3x
(3) 0 (4) 1
−
2 (2) cos(2x) + 2e2x + 3x
31. dy (3) 2 cos(2x) + 2e2x + 3x2
y = x4 − 2 sin 30∘ + 3 cos 45∘ ,then will be
dx
(1) 4x5 (4) cos(2x) + e2x + 3x2
5
SECTION-B
(2) 3x2 + 2 cos 30∘ − 3 sin 45∘
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
(3) 4x3 − 2 cos 30∘ − 3 sin 45∘ can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
(4) 4x3
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
32. 1
questions will be considered for marking.
∫ x√xdx equal to
36. → →
0 Given vector A = 2 î + 3 ĵ, the angle between A
(1) 1 (2) 2/5 and x-axis is
(3) 3/5 (4) 4/5 (1) tan–1 3/2 (2) tan–1 2/3
(3) sin–1 2/3 (4) cos–1 2/3
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37. A force of 4N is inclined at an angle of 60° from 40. → and B
If A → are two non -zero vectors such that
the vertical. Find out its components along → − B|
|A →
→ + B|
|A → = →
and |A| → , then the angle
= 2|B|
horizontal and vertical directions. z
between A→ and B→ is:

(1) 37° (2) 53°

(3) 3 (4) 4
cos−1 (− ) cos−1 (− )
4 3
41. Match vector →a shown in column-I with its
vector representation in column-II.
(1) 2√3N, 2√3N (2) 2N, 2N Column-I Column-II
(3) √ 3N, 2√3N (4) 2√3N, 2N
(A) (P) →a = a sin θ^i + a cos θ^j
38. → →
If two vectors, A = a^i + 6^j and B = b^i + c^j are
equal then correct option for value of a, b and c
is (B) (Q) →a = −a cos θ^i + a sin θ^j
(1) a = b (2) a = c
(3) c = 6 (4) Both (1) & (3)
39. → (C) (R) →a = −a sin θ^i − a cos θ^j
The vectors → a and b each of magnitude x are
inclined to each other such that their resultant is
equal to 3x. Then magnitude of the resultant of
√

→ → (D) (S) →a = a cos θ^i − a sin θ^j

a and - b is
(1) √ 3x
(1) A-P, B-Q, C-R, D-S
(2) √ 2x
(2) A-Q, B-R, C-P, D-S
(3) x
(3) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(4) 3x (4) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S

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42. The gas equation for n moles of a real gas is 47. In C.G.S. system the magnitude of the force is
a 100 dyne. In another system where the
( P+ ) (V – b) = nRT where P is the
v2 fundamental physical quantities are kilogram,
pressure, V is the volume, R is the molar gas metre and minute, the magnitude of the force is
constant and a, b are arbitrary constants. Which of :-
the following have same dimensions as of PV ?
(1) 0.036 (2) 0.36
(1) a (2) a
b v2 (3) 3.6 (4) 36
(3) Pb2 (4) ab
48. If y = x2 , then area of curve y with x from x = 0
v3
to x = 5 will be
43. The dimensions of time in energy are
(1) 125 (2) 25
(1) 0 (2) –2 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) 25 (4) 125
2 2
44. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are 49. Find the maximum value of 2sinθ + 5cosθ
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy (1) √ 30 (2) 4
(1) [F] [A–1] [T] (2) [F] [A] [T] (3) √ 29 (4) 5
(3) [F] [A] [T2] (4) [F] [A] [T–1] 50. For the shown graph the magnitude of slope of
graph from point A to point B :
45. Which of the following has same dimensional
formula
(1) Velocity gradient, time
(2) Velocity gradient, frequency
(3) time, frequency
(4) None
46. Light year is a unit of :- (1) Continuously decreases
(1) Time (2) Mass (2) Continuously increases
(3) Distance (4) Energy (3) First increases then decreases
(4) First decreases then increases

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

Topic : ATOMIC STRUCTURE,MOLE CONCEPT ( UP TO BB-1) .

SECTION-A 56. Which of the following electronic transition in a

hydrogen atom will emit longest value of
Attempt All 35 questions wavelength?
51. For how many electrons, the quantum number (1) n = 4 to n = 2 (2) n = 4 to n = 3
will be
(3) n = 5 to n = 3 (4) n = 5 to n = 2
n = 4 ℓ = 2 m = 0 s = +1/2 is :-
57. The maximum number of electrons that can be
(1) 1e– (2) 2e– accommodated in the Mth shell is
(3) 10e– (4) 32e– (1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 18 (4) 36
52. In which of the following Hunds rule is violated 58. For any H like system, the ratio of velocities of I,
? II & III orbit i.e., V1 : V2 : V3 will be :
(1) (1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 1/2 : 1/3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1
(2)
59. Which type of radiation is not emitted by the
electronic structure of atoms –
(3) (1) Ultraviolet light (2) Infra red

(4) (3) Visible light (4) Radio waves

60. Number of de-Broglie waves formed by electron
in one comple revolution in 5th orbit of hydrogen
53. Total number of nodes in 3p orbital will be :- atom is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
54. Which of the following sets of quantum 61. An atom of an element contains 29 electrons.
numbers is not valid ? Write the electronic configuration of the
(1) n = 1, ℓ = 2 (2) n = 2, m = 1 element.
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0 (4) n = 4, ℓ = 2 (1)

55. Orbital angular momentum depends on______. (2)

(1) ℓ only (2) n only (3)
(3) s only (4) n and s both (4)
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62. Degenerate orbitals means 68. If water sample are taken from sea, river or lake,
(1) Orbitals having same energy they will be found to contain hydrogen and
oxygen in the ratio of 1:8 This indicates the law
(2) Orbitals having different wave function of :-
(3) Orbitals having different energy and (1) Multiple proportion
different wave function
(2) Definite proportion
(4) None of these
(3) Avogadro law
63. Which of the following set of quantum number
is impossible for an electron ? (4) None of these

(1) n = 1, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2 69. The law of conservation of mass is not obeyed

by a :-
(2) n = 9, ℓ = 7, m = –6, s = –1/2
(1) Redox reaction
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = +1/2
(2) Double decomposition reaction
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = –3, s = +1/2
(3) Nuclear reaction
64. Which of the following species has minimum
(4) Neutralization reaction
specific charge ?
(1) Alpha-Particle (2) Proton 70. 4.88 g of KClO3 when heated produced 1.92 g of
(3) Neutron (4) All have same O2 and 2.96 g of KCl. Which of the following
65. Which of the following orbital diagram violates statements regarding the experiment is correct ?
Pauli's exclusion principle?
(1) The result illustrates the law of conservation
(1) (2) of mass.

(3) (4) (2) The result illustrates the law of multiple

proportions.
66. Which one of the following pairs constitutes (3) The result illustrates the law of constant
isotones? proportion.
(1) 6C13 and 6C14 (2) 6C13 and 7N14 (4) None of the above laws is followed.
(3) 7N14 and 9F19 (4) 7N14 and 7N15 71. Calculate total number of electron in P3- ?
67. ψ311 is :- (1) 15 (2) 18
(1) 3pz (2) 3dz2 (3) 3px (4) 3dxy (3) 12 (4) 31
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72. The statements for laws of chemical
combinations are given below. Mark the
statement which is not correct.
(1) Matter can neither be created nor destroyed
: law of conservation of mass
(2) A compound always contains exactly the
same proportion of elements by weight:
Law of definte proportions
(3) When gases combine they do so in a simple
ratio by weight : Gay Lussac's Law.
(4) Equal volumes of gases at same
temperature and pressure contain same
number of molecules : Avogadro's Law.
73. At room temp. and pressure, two flasks of equal
volume are filled with H2 and SO2 separately.
Particles which are equal in numbers in the
flasks are :-
(1) Atoms (2) Electrons
(3) Molecules (4) Neutrons
74. Which of the following is a compound :
(1) Oxygen gas (2) Sodium
(3) limestone (4) Helium gas
75. Carbon and oxygen combine to form two
oxides, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide in
which the ratio of the weights of carbon and
oxygen is respectively 12 : 16 and 12 : 32.
These figures illustrate the :
(1) Law of multiple proportions
(2) Law of reciprocal proportions
(3) Law of conservation of mass
(4) Law of constant proportions
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76. Which one is a incorrect statements?
(1) The electronic configuration of N -atom is
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an e— in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers.
(3) Total orbital angular momentum of e— in
's' orbital is equal to zero.
(4) The value of m for dz2 is (-2)
77. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R),
Assertion (A): Most of the space in the atoms is
empty.
Reason (R): Most of the α-particle passed
through the foil remain undeflected.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
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78. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 80. Given below are two statement:
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Statement-I: The ψ 640 represents an orbital.
Reason (R), Statement-II: The orbital is 6g.
Assertion (A): Energies of the orbitals in In the light of the above statements. Choose the
hydrogen or hydrogen like species depends only most appropriate answer form the options
on the quantum number 'n'. given below.
Reason (R): Energies of the orbitals in (1) Both statement I and statement II are
multielectrons atoms depends on quantum incorrect
numbers 'n' and 'l'
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the incorrect
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false correct
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true 81. Maximum number of spectral lines possible
79. Given below are two statement: when an electron jumps from 5th excited state to
Statement-I: Bohr's theory accounts for the ground state in a sample containing only
stability and line speetrum of Li+ ion. Hydrogen atom will be –
Statement-II: Bohr's theory was unable to (1) 4 (2) 14 (3) 5 (4) 15
explain the splitting of spectral lines in the
pressence of a magnetic field. 82. The de broglie wavelength of a tennis ball of
In the light of the above statements. Choose the mass 60 g moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is
most appropriate answer form the options approximately:-
given below. (1) 10–16m (2) 10–25m
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect (3) 10–33m (4) 10–31m
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is 83. If kinetic energy of a proton is increased nine
incorrect times the wavelength of the de-Broglie wave
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is associated with it would become :-
correct (1) 3 times (2) 9 times
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct (3) 1
times (4) 1
times
3 9

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84. Among the following select incorrect statement 87. An electron has wavelength 1Å. The potential by
regarding spectrum :- which the electron is accelerated will be
(1) To produce an emission spectrum, energy (1) 0.09 V (2) 0.05 V
is supplied to a sample by heating it or (3) 0.08 V (4) 150 V
irradiating it
88. The correct set of quantum numbers for the
(2) An absorption spectrum is like the unpaired electron of a chlorine atom is :-
photographic negative of an emission
(1) 1 (2) 1
spectrum 2, 0, 0, + 2, 1, −1, +
2 2
(3) The study of emission or absorption spectra (3) 1 (4) 1
3, 1, −1, ± 3, 0, 0, ±
is referred to as spectroscopy 2 2
89. If wavelength of a photon is 4000 Å then the
(4) Many elements have same emission
energy of that photon will be :-
spectrum
(1) 0.5 × 10–19 J (2) 5 × 10–19 J
85. The uncertainity in the momentum of a particle
is 2.5 × 10–16 g cms–1. What is the uncertainity (3) 0.5 × 1018 J (4) 3 × 1020 J
in it's position 90. The wave length of β-line (2nd spectral line) of
(1) 5.6 × 10–10 cm lymen series in H-atom is :-
(2) 2.1 × 10–12 cm (1) 8R (2) 9
9 8R
(3) 3 × 10–15 cm
(3) 3R (4) 4
(4) 6 × 10–19 cm 4 3R
91. The angular momentum of electron can have the
SECTION-B
value(s) :-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) 0.5 h (2) h
π π
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(3) h (4) All are correct
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted 0.5 π
questions will be considered for marking. 92. What is the ratio of time periods in 3rd orbit
86. Which is the magnetic moment of Fe2+ ion? of H-atom to the 2nd orbit of He+ ion -
(1) √ 35 BM (2) √ 24 BM (1) 32 : 27 (2) 27 : 2
(3) √ 8 BM (4) √ 3 BM (3) 2 : 27 (4) 27 : 32

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93. Given below are two statement: 95. Which of the following matching option is
Statement-I: 2p-orbitals do not have any correct?
spherical node .
Column –I Column –II
Statement-II: The number of total nodes in p-
orbitals is given by (n -2) where n is the
principle quantum number.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the
(A) dx2- y2 (p)
most appropriate answer form the options
given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect (B) dxy (q)
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
correct
94. Match the List -I with List -II.
(C) dzx (r)
List –I List –II
Orbital angular
(A) (i) n(n + 2)
√
momentum
Orbit angular
(B) (ii) nh
momentum 2π
Spin only angular (D) dz2 (s)
(C) (iii) s(s + 1)h
√
momentum
(D) Magnetic moment (iv) √ ℓ(ℓ + 1)h
Choose the correct answer for the options given (1) (A) -p, (B) -q, (C) -r , (D) - s
below.
(2) (A) -s, (B) -p, (C) -r , (D) - q
(1) (A)- (ii), (B)- (iv), (C)- (iii), (D)- (i)
(3) (A) -q, (B) -r, (C) -p , (D) - s
(2) (A)- (iv), (B)- (ii), (C)- (iii), (D)- (i)
(4) (A) -r, (B) -s, (C) -q , (D) - r
(3) (A)- (i), (B)- (ii), (C)- (iv), (D)- (iii)
(4) (A)- (iii), (B)- (ii), (C)- (iv), (D)- (i)
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96. The angular momentum of an electron of a H 100. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
atom is proportional to ? as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
(2) 1 Reason (R),
(1) r2
r Assertion (A): Half filled and fully filled
(4) 1 degenerate set of orbitals acquire extra stability.
(3) √ r
√ r Reason (R): The reason for the above fact is the
97. Find the total numbers of electrons having ℓ = 0 symmetry of such orbitals.
is an atom having atomic number 24. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
(1) 7 (2) 6 correct explanation of (A)
(3) 8 (4) 9 (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
98. What will be the total spin of Fe3+ ion ?
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) 5/2 (2) 2
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) 3/2 (4) 1
99. The graph between |ψ2 | and r (radial distance) is
shown below. This represents-

(1) 1s - orbital (2) 2p - orbital

(3) 3s - orbital (4) 2s - orbital

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 SUBJECT : BOTANY

Topic : CELL STRUCTURE, CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION UPTO MITOSIS ONLY.

SECTION-A 104. Read the following four statements (A-D)

(A) Every chromosome essentially has a primary
Attempt All 35 questions constriction or the centromere.
101. Match the column (B) During different stages of cell division, cells
Column I Column II show structured chromosomes in Place of
chromatin.
(a) Cristae i Flat membranous (C) Nuclear pores are the passages through
sacs in chloroplast which movement of RNA & Protein take place
Infoldings in in one direction between nucleus and the
(b) Cisternae ii
mitochondria cytoplasm.
Disc shaped sacs (D) Chromatin contains DNA, some basic
(c) Thylakoid iii proteins called histone and RNA only
in golgi apparatus
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) (a)- ii, (b)- i, (c)- iii (2) (a)- ii, (b)- iii, (c)- i (1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three
(3) (a)- iii, (b)- ii, (c)- i (4) (a)- iii, (b)- i, (c)- ii 105. Which of the following process will be most
102. Which of the following statement is incorrect affected if nucleolus is destroyed in a cell-
(1) The number of mitochondria in a cell do (1) starch synthesis
not correspond to the function of cell.
(2) lipid synthesis
(2) Mitochondria are common to both plant
and animal cells. (3) protein synthesis
(3) Mitochondria and Chloroplast are (4) nuclear membrane formation
semiautonomous organelle.
(4) Mitochondria divides by fission to increase 106. Nuclear envelope consists of two parallel
its number membranes with a space of _____between them.
103. Perinuclear space provide- (1) 1 to 5 Å (2) 10 nm – 50 nm
(1) Barrier between material inside nucleus and (3) 1–5 nm (4) 10–50 Å
cytoplasm
107. Chromosomes have polarity and polar ends of
(2) Barrier between material inside ER & Nucleus chromosomes are known as-
(3) Barrier between Nucleolus & nucleoplasm (1) Kinetochores (2) Satellite
(4) Barrier between cytoplasm and extracellular (3) Telomere (4) Chromatids
matrix.

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108. Which one of the following is a polymorphic
cell organelle-
(1) Nucleus (2) Lysosome
(3) Cell membrane (4) Mitochondria
109. Every chromosome essentially has a primary
constriction or the ________, on the sides of
113. What is the cause of cell division ?
which disc shaped structures called _____ are
present
(1) centrosome, centromere
(2) chromocenter, centromere
(3) centromere, kinetochores
(4) centromere, centromere
114. Proteinaceous radial spokes and hub are the part
110. A cell is in metaphase if-
(1) Its chromosomes are visible as distinct
thread like structure.
(2) The nuclear membrane is not visible.
115. Interphase lasts more than __a__ of the duration
(3) The chromosomes are lined up on the
equator of the cell.
(4) The chromosomes are separated into two
distinct groups attached to the spindle.
111. (A) Mitosis produce two identical daughter cell.
(B) Mitosis does not introduce variation
(C) During anaphase chromosome have two
chromatid
(D) In Telophase nuclear membrane and
nucleolus reappears.
(1) All are correct (2) A, B, C are correct
(3) A, B, D are correct (4) C, D are correct
112. Cell cycle of any organism includes-
(1) Mitosis and meiosis
(2) G1, S, G2
(3) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
(4) Interphase and mitosis.
(1) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio increases due to
increase in size of cell.
(2) Nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio decreases due to
increase in size of cell.
(3) Increase in DNA content of the cell.
(4) All of the above.
of ..............
(1) Nuclear membrane (2) Nucleolus
(3) Chromosome (4) Centriole
of cell cycle. Interphase is also called __b__ is
the time during which cell is preparing for
division by under going both __c__ and __d__
in an orderly manner.
(1) (a)- 95%, (b)- division phase, (c)- cell growth,
(d)– RNA replication.
(2) (a) - 90%, (b)- resting phase, (c)- cell division,
(d)– DNA replication.
(3) (a)- 95%, (b)- resting phase, (c)- cell growth,
(d)– DNA replication.
(4) (a)- 5%, (b)- resting phase, (c)- cell growth,
(d)– Protein synthesis.

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116. The axoneme usually has ____ pairs of doublets 121. Ingestion of solid food by plasma membrane is
of radially arranged peripheral microtubules. called-
(1) Six (2) Eight (1) Endo osmosis (2) Pinocytosis
(3) Nine (4) Twelve (3) Cytokinesis (4) Phagocytosis
117. Nuclear envelope is derived from- 122. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in-
(1) Golgi body (2) RER (1) Grana
(3) Mitochondria (4) Cytosol (2) Pyrenoid
118. Find correct match- (3) Stroma
(1) Amyloplast - Store lipid (4) Both grana and stroma.
(2) SER - Synthesize steroid hormone 123. Catalase is the main enzyme of-
(3) RER - Drug detoxification (1) Lysosome (2) Peroxisome
(4) Golgi body - protein synthesis (3) SER (4) Golgi
119. Which of the following present in vacuoles ? 124. Select the incorrect statement wrt cilia and
(1) Water and sap only. flagella-

(2) Water and excretory product only. (1) They are covered by plasma membrane.

(3) Water, sap and excretory product. (2) Axoneme has number of microtubules.

(4) None of the above (3) Microtubule arrangement is ( 9+ 0)

120. Assertion : If the cell had diploid or 2n number
of chromosome at G1phase, even after S phase
the number of chromosome remains the same.
Reason : There is no increase in the number of
chromosome in S phase.
(1) Both A and R are correct and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(4) The peripheral doublets are interconnected
by linkers.
125. Filamentous structures present in cytoplasm
involved in many functions such as mechanical
support, shape of cell is-
(1) Cyto-ribosomes

(2) Both A and R are correct and reason is not (2) Cyto-skeleton
the correct explanation of assertion. (3) Microbodies
(3) A is correct but R is false. (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.
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126. Match the column- 129. Chromosomes composed of-
Column I Column II (1) DNA, RNA, Histone, non-histone
(a) Metacentric i Middle
(2) DNA and Histone
chromosome centromere
Centromere (3) DNA and RNA
slightly (4) DNA, RNA and Histone
(b) Sub-metacentric ii
away from
middle 130. Proteins for spindle apparatus is synthesize in-
Centromere close (1) G1 - phase
(c) Acrocentric iii
to its end
(2) G2 - phase
Terminal
(d) Telocentric iv (3) M - phase
centromere
(1) (a)- i, (b)- ii, (c)- iii, (d)- iv (4) S - phase
(2) (a)- ii, (b)- i, (c)- iii, (d)- iv 131. Assertion (A) : Eukaryotic cell has variety of
complex locomotory and cytoskeletal structure.
(3) (a)- i, (b)- ii, (c)- iv, (d)- iii Reason (R) : All eukaryotic cells are not
identical.
(4) (a)- iv, (b)- iii, (c)- ii, (d)- i
(1) Both A and R are correct and reason is the
127. The following cells are without nucleus- correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Mature Erythrocytes of many mammals (2) Both A and R are correct and reason is not
(2) Sieve tube cells of plant the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Bacterial cell (3) A is correct but R is false.

(4) All of these (4) Both A and R are incorrect.

128. Statement I : No organelles, like the one present
in eukaryotes, are found in prokaryotes except
for ribosomes.
Statement II : The cytoplasm is the main arena of
cellular activities in both plant and animal cell.
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement are correct.
(4) Both statement are incorrect.
132. Select not incorrect statement-
(1) Number of cisternae is variable in golgi
body.
(2) ER will form lysosomes directly.
(3) Chloroplast reappear in late prophase.
(4) F0-F1 particles are freely present in
mitochondria matrix.

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133. Statement I : During anaphase centromere
divides and chromatids are separated. Statement
II : Nuclear membrane disappears during early
prophase.
(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement are correct.
(4) Both statement are incorrect.
134. Select the incorrect statement from the following-
(1) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA.
(2) The chloroplast are generally larger than
mitochondria.
(3) Both chloroplast and mitochondria are
surrounded by two membrane.
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have an
internal compartment called matrix
135. Select the incorrect statement from the following-
(1) The membrane covering the vacuole in
known as Tonoplast.
(2) Cilium and flagellum emerges from
centriole like structure which is called
Basal granule.
(3) Endomembrane system involve Double
membrane organelles.
(4) Microfilaments are composed of proteins
called Actin.
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SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
136. Select the incorrect statement from the
following-
(1) Cytoskeleton are filamentous proteinaceous
structure.
(2) Cytoskeleton provides mechanical support
to cell.
(3) Cytoskeleton helps in motility and
maintenance of shape of cell.
(4) Cytoskeleton occurs in prokaryotic cell
also.
137. Assertion (A) : Mitotic division is also called as
equational division.
Reason (R) : The number of chromosome in
parent cell and progeny cell is same.
(1) Both A and R are correct and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both A and R are correct and reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) A is correct but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.
138. DNA containing organelles are-
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
(3) Ribosome (4) Both (1) and (2)
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139. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D and select 141. Match the columns-
the right option respectively-
Column I Column II
Nucleolus,
(a) Telophase i
ER disappear
Chromosomes
(b) Anaphase ii
at equator
(c) Metaphase iii Centromeres split
Nucleolus,
(d) Prophase iv
ER refrom
(1) (a)- i, (b)- ii, (c)- iii, (d)- iv
(2) (a)- ii, (b)- iii, (c)- iv, (d)- i
(1) Plasma membrane, CentralTubule, Radial (3) (a)- iii, (b)- iv, (c)- i, (d)- ii
Spoke, Central Sheath
(4) (a)- iv, (b)- iii, (c)- ii, (d)- i
(2) Plasmamembrane, Radial Spoke, Central
Sheath, CentralTubule 142. Find out the correct match of cell structure and
(3) Protoplasmic Sheath, Radial Spoke, its function-
Central Tubule, Central Sheath (1) Secondary constriction : Kinetochore
(4) Protoplasmic Sheath, Central Tubule,
Central Sheath, Radial Spoke (2) More nucleoli : More protein
140. Read the following statements and select the (3) Prokaryotic flagella : Axoneme
incorrect statements- (4) Cytoskeleton : Helps in excretion
(i) Cytoplasmic increase is not discontinuous
143. ___________is a protein which helps
process. inhydrolysis of ATP liberates energy
(ii) Cell cycle is not a genetically controlled for flagellar movement.
process.
(1) Tubulin (2) Flagellin
(iii) Synthesis phase synthesize cell organelles.
(iv) Interphase is not metabolically inactive. (3) Nexin (4) Dynein
(1) (i) and (ii) 144. Every dividing cell has cell cycle what is the
correct sequence of cell cycle ?
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(1) S, M G1, and G (2) G1, G2, S and M
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(3) M, G1, G2 and S (4) G1, S, G2 and M
(4) (iii) and (i)
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145. How many of the given statements are correct
(w.r.t. mitochondria)-
(a) Both outer and inner membrane have similar
enzyme.
(b) Matrix is site for calvincycle.
(c) Outer membrane and inner membrane have
differential permeability for various molecules.
(d) Similar to prokaryotic cell.
(1) One (2) Four (3) Two (4) Three
146. I. The M phase starts with division of cytoplasm and
ends with the nuclear division.
II. Amount of DNA per cell doubles during S phase
III. Spindle fibres attached to kinetochores of
chromosomes.
IV. Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform in
Anaphase.
(1) I, II, III are correct
(2) II and III are correct
(3) I, III, IV are correct
(4) I, II, III, IV are correct
147. Two key events take place, during ‘S’ phase in
animal cell. DNA replication and duplication of
centriole. These two events occurs in ________
w.r.t. this, which of the following is correct.
(1) DNA replication in cytoplasm and centriole
duplication in nucleus.
(2) Both DNA and centriole duplicate in
nucleus.
(3) DNA replication in nucleus and centriole in
cytoplasm.
(4) DNA and centriole duplicate in both
cytoplasm and nucleus.
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148. (a) Centrioles are found only in animal cells.
(b) During cell divisions, chromosomes are best
visible in anaphase stage.
(c) Nucleus may contain haploid, diploid or
polyploid genome.
In given statement which of the following is
correct.
(1) Only (a) is correct (2) (c) is correct
(3) All are correct (4) All are wrong
149. The processes listed below are all involved in
cell division
I. Segregation of sister chromosomes
II. Division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis)
III. Formation of a new nuclear envelope.
IV. DNA replication
Which of the following lists the processes in
the correct sequence ?
(1) I, IV, III, II (2) I, III, IV, II
(3) II, IV, III, I (4) IV, I, III, II
150. A. The concentration is significantly higher in
the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
B. In plant, the tonoplast facilitates the transport
of number of Ions from cytoplasm to cell sap.
In given statement, which of the following is are
correct option.
(1) A is correct, B is incorrect
(2) B is correct, A is incorrect
(3) A and B both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect
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 SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY
Topic : ANIMAL TISSUE AND COCKROACH

SECTION-A 154. In cockroach as development occur through the

Attempt All 35 questions nymphal stage, so such a type of development is
called-
151. In cockroach, excretion is brought about by-
A. Phallic gland. (1) Holometabolous (2) Ametabolous
B. Fat body (3) Hypermetabolous (4) Paurometabolous
C. Nephrocytes 155. Match the following with reference to cockroach
D. Collateral glands and choose the correct option-
E. Urecose gland
Column – I Column – II
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below- Chains of
A. Phallomere i.
developing ova
(1) A, B and E only (2) B, C and D only
B. Gonopore ii. Bundles of sperms
(3) B, C and E only (4) A, C and E only
Opening of the
152. Which of the following is characteristic feature C. Spermatophore iii.
ejaculating duct.
of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
The external
(1) Presence of sclerites D. Ovarioles iv.
genitalia
(2) Presence of Anal cerci
(3) Presence of caudal styles.
(4) Dark brown body colour and Anal cerci
153. Following features are related to male
cockroach, except-
(1) Mushroom gland is present in 6th 7th 156. Which of the following statement is true for
abdominal segment. Cockroach?
(2) Presence of Phallomeres (1) The number of ovarioles in each ovary are
(3) Presence of seminal vesicle ten.
(2) The larval stage is called Caterpillar
(4) A pair of spermatheca is present in 6th
abdominal segment. (3) Anal styles are absent in female.
(4) They are ureotelic
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157. How many of the below - given organs of the
cockroach are included as sense organs?
Antennae, Anal styles, Anal cerci, Maxillary
palps, Compound eyes, Labrum and
Gonapophysis.
(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Seven
(4) Four
158. Given below are two statements:
Statement – I: Anterior end of Cockroach’s head
bears appendages forming biting and chewing
type of mouth parts.
Statement – II: A median flexible lobe, acting as
tongue (hypopharynx), lies within the cavity
enclosed by the mouth parts.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are
correct
159. In Cockroach the first and second pair of wings,
respectively, originate from.
(1) Mesothorax and Metathorax
(2) Prothorax and Mesothorax
(3) Prothorax and Metathorax
(4) Pronotum and Mesonotum
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160. Which of the following pair of wings are
transparent, membranous and used in flight-
(1) Tegmina (2) Elytra
(3) Fore wings (4) Hind wings
161. The abdomen of both males and females consists
of-
(1) Eleven segments (2) Ten segments
(3) Nine segments (4) Seven segments
162. In female Cockroaches anterior part of brood or
genital pouch contains-
(1) Female gonopore, spermathecal pores and
collaterial glands.
(2) Only collaterial glands
(3) Only spermathecal pores
(4) Opening of Phallic and conglobate glands
163. In male Cockroaches genital pouch/chamber
bounded by-
(1) 9th and 10th terga at dorsal side
and ventrally by the 9th sternum
(2) 7th and 9th sterna at ventral side and
10th tergum at dorsal side.
(3) 7th and 8th and 9th sterna
(4) 8th, 9th and 10th tergites.
164. Following statements are related to Foregut of
Cockroach, except-
(1) Crop used for food storage
(2) Crop is followed by proventriculus
(3) The entire foregut is lined by cuticle.
(4) Short tubular pharynx open into crop.
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165. A ring of 6-8 blind tubules lies at junction of 168. Given below are two statements:
foregut and midgut as well as secretes digestive Statement I: The respiratory system consists of a
enzymes called- network of trachea, that open through 10 pairs of
small holes called spiracles present in the lateral
(1) Malpighian tubules side of the body.
(2) Hepatic or gastric caeca. Statement II: Exchange of gases takes place at
the tracheoles by diffusion.
(3) Fat bodies
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
(4) Urecose glands. incorrect
166. The structure/part of Cockroach alimentary (2) Statement I is correct and statement II is
canal whose outer layer made up of thick incorrect
circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming (3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is
six chitinous teeth- correct
(1) Crop (4) Both statement I and statement II are
(2) Mesenteron correct

(3) Proventriculus 169. Match List - I with List - II-

List – I List - II
(4) Ileum
A. Tracheoles i. Only in Male
167. Which of the following statement regarding Malpighian
Cockroach circulatory system is incorrect- B. ii. Carries Oxygen
tubules
(1) Blood vascular system is of open type. Present in both Male
C. Hypopharynx iii. & Female
(2) Blood vessels are poorly developed and
open into haemocoel. Tongue of
D. Anal Cerci iv
Cockroach
(3) The haemolymph is composed of
Organ for excretion
colourless plasma and haemocytes. E. Anal styles v.
& osmoregulation
(4) Blood from sinuses enter heart through Choose the correct answer from the options
osculum. given below-
(1) A – ii, B – v, C – iv, D – i, E – iii
(2) A – ii, B – v, C – iv, D – iii, E – i
(3) A – v, B – iii, C – i, D – iv, E – ii
(4) A – v, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E - iv
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170. Given below are statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): All glands composed of epithelial
tissue.
Reason (R): Epithelial tissue originates from
three types of germ layers.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
171. Assertion (A): Simple squamous epithelium
found in alveoli of lungs.
Reason (R): Simple squamous epithelium helps
in rapid diffusion of substances/gases.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
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172. Assertion (A): Cockroaches are dioecious
animals.
Reason (R): Male and Female gonads are found
in different animals.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
173. The body cells in Cockroach discharge their
nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in
the form of-
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia
(3) Potassium urate (4) Urea
174. Which of the following correctly states as if
happens in the common Cockroach?
(1) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs
projecting out from the colon.
(2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in
blood
(3) Fat body acts as accessory excretory organ
(4) Each compound eye consists of 200 visual
units, ommatidia.
175. Spermatheca of Cockroach lies in which of the
following abdominal segment-
(1) 7th (2) 8th
(3) 9th (4) 6th
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176. Which of the following statement is not 179. The given figure is related to the head region of
incorrect- cockroach. Identify A to F with the correct
(1) Cockroach have ventral tubular heart. combination of options.

(2) Twelve pairs of alary muscles helps in

blood circulation.
(3) Blood from sinuses enters heart through
ostia and is pumped posteriorly to sinus
again.
(4) The heamolymph is composed of colourless
plasma and haemocytes with haemocyanin (1) A-Maxilla, B-Compound eye, C-Ocellus,
as respiratory pigments. D-Labrum, E-Labium, F-Mandible
177. Nymphal stage of Cockroach undergoes (2) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla,
moulting _______ to attain adult stage- D-Labrum, E-Labium, F-Mandible
(1) 13 times (3) A-Maxilla, B-Compound eye, C-Labrum,
D-Ocellus, E-Labium, F-Mandible
(2) 12 times
(4) A-Mandible, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla,
(3) 10 times D-Ocellus, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(4) 7 times 180. Select the correct sequence of organs in the
178. In the exoskeleton of the cockroach, sclerites are alimentary canal of cockroach starting from
joined to each other by mouth
(1) Ossicles (1) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Gizzard→Crop→
Ileum→Colon→Rectum
(2) Arthrodial membrane
(2) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Gizzard→Ileum→
(3) Amino acids
Crop→Colon→Rectum
(4) Chitin
(3) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Ileum→Crop→
Gizzard→Colon→Rectum
(4) Pharynx→Oesophagus→Crop→Gizzard→
Ileum→Colon→Rectum

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181. Which of the following parts of the cockroach
helps in the removal of excretory products from
the haemolymph?
(1) Rectum
(2) Malpighian tubules
(3) Ileum
(4) Cloaca
182. Given below is the figure of open circulatory
system of cockroach. Identify A, B, C and
choose the correct option.
(1) A-Lateral aorta, B-Ciliary muscles, C-
Chambers of heart
(2) A-Internal aorta, B-Alary muscles, C-
Chambers of heart
(3) A-Anterior aorta, B-Alary muscles, C-
Chambers of heart
(4) A-Posterior aorta, B-Fibrous muscles, C-
Chambers of heart
183. Malpighian tubules in the cockroach are lined by
(1) Glandular and ciliated cells
(2) Cuboidal and ciliated cells
(3) Columnar and glandular cells
(4) Glandular and cuboidal cells
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184. In the head region of the cockroach, brain is
represented by
(1) Supraoesophageal ganglion
(2) Ganglia
(3) Nerve cord
(4) Sub-oesophageal ganglion
185. The vision of cockroach is
(1) More sensitive with less resolution
(2) Very poor during night
(3) Less sensitive with high resolution
(4) High resolution during night
SECTION-B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
186. Assertion (A): In the wall of blood vessels
yellow fibrous connective tissue is present.
Reason (R): In the blood vessels, alteration of
diameter is required frequently.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
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187. Mushroom glands are
(1) Accessory glands in 6-7th abdominal
segments of male cockroach
(2) Helpful in storing sperms
(3) Glands which secrete chemicals to make
egg capsules, i.e. oothecae
(4) Non-functional glands in 8-9th segments of
female cockroach
188. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which
part of the reproductive system?
(1) Seminal vesicles (2) Mushroom glands
(3) Testes (4) Vas deferens
189. How many fertilised eggs are present in a
ootheca of cockroach?
(1) 14 - 16 (2) 19 - 24
(3) 20 - 25 (4) 25 - 30
190. What external changes are visible after the last
moult of a cockroach nymph?
(1) Mandibles become harder
(2) Anal cerci develop
(3) Both forewings and hindwings develop
(4) Labium develops
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191. Select the correct statement from the given
below with respect to Periplaneta americana.
(1) Nervous system located dorsally, consists of
segmentally arranged ganglia joined by a
pair of longitudinal connectives
(2) Males bear a pair of short thread-like anal
styles
(3) There are 16 very long Malpighian tubules
present at the junctions of midgut and
hindgut
(4) Grinding of food is carried out only by the
mouth parts
192. Consider the following statements.
I. The thorax of cockroach contains 6 ganglia,
while abdomen contains 3 ganglia.
II. The next to last nymphal stage of cockroach
possess wings.
Select the correct option.
(1) I is true, II is false
(2) I is false, II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) Both I and II are false
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193. Consider the following statements about the 196. Match the following columns.
hind wings of cockroach. Column I Column II
I. They are broad and thin. (Tissues) (Location)
II. They are not used in flying.
III. They are also known as mesothoracic wings. Squamous Presents in
A. 1.
IV. They are transparent and delicate. epithelium bronchioles
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Cuboidal
incorrect? B. 2. Presents in lungs
epithelium
(1) Only I (2) II and III Columnar Presents in
C. 3.
(3) I and IV (4) I, II, III and IV epithelium stomach
194. Consider the following statements. Ciliated
D. 4. Presents in kidneys
I. Malpighian tubules help in the removal of epithelium
excretory products from the haemolymph in
cockroach.
II. Female cockroach bears mushroom glands,
while male cockroach bears collaterial glands.
Select the correct option.
(1) Both I and II are 197. Match the following columns.
(2) I is true, II is false
true Column I Column II
(3) Both I and II are (Tissues) (Composition)
(4) I is false, II is true
false A. Areolar tissue 1. Fat cells
195. Consider the following statements. Adipose
I. All connective tissues except blood contain B. 2. Osteocytes
tissue
cells which secrete fibres of collagen
and elastin. Loose connective
C. Ligament 3.
II. The matrix of connective tissues is formed by tissue
the modified polysaccharides. Dense regular
Select the correct option. D. Bone 4.
connective tissue
(1) I is true, II is false
(2) I is false, II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
(4) Both I and II are false
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198. With reference to cockroach, match the 199. Match the following cell structures with their
following columns. characteristic features.
Column I Column II Column I Column II
(Body parts of (Location in the Cement neighbouring
cockroach) body) Tight
A. 1. cells together to form
junctions
4th and 6th sheet
A. Anal cerci 1.
segments Transmit information
Adhering
B. Tegmina 2. 10th segment B. 2. through chemical to
junctions
C. Testes 3. Forewings another cells
D. Ommatidia 4. Sclerites Establish a barrier to
Gap
C. 3. prevent leakage of fluid
E. Exoskeleton 5. Visual unit junctions
across epithelial cells
Cytoplasmic channels to
Synaptic
D. 4. facilitate communication
junctions
between adjacent cells

200. Select incorrect statement regarding

cockroaches-
(1) Many species of cockroaches are wild and
are of no known economic importance yet.
(2) They can transmit a variety of bacterial
diseases by contaminating food.
(3) On an average female produce 9-10 ootheca
(4) Ootheca contains unfertilized eggs

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