DJS Paper Iii With Answer Key 25-11-2023

Rahul’s a blue p rint of success
DELHI JUDICIAL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION - 2023

MOCK TEST SERIES
CPC, COMMERCIAL COURTS ACT, L.L.P. ENGLISH AND GK
TEST- III
Total Questions: 200

Maximum Marks: 200
Duration: 2:00 Hours
Date: 25/11/2023
1. Which of the following scenarios does not align with the principles of Res
Judicata?
a) The matter was directly and substantially in issue in a former suit
between same parties.
(b) The former suit was decided by a court not competent to try the
subsequent suit.
(c) The matter in the former suit was neither admitted nor denied by the
other party
(d) The matter was a ground of defense in the former suit but was not
explicitly raised.
2. In which of the following situations would a foreign judgment NOT be
considered conclusive?
(a) The judgment was based on the merits of the case.
(b) The court that pronounced the judgment lacked competent jurisdiction.
(c) The judgment was obtained without opposition to natural justice.
(d) The judgment does not sustain a claim founded on a breach of Indian
law.
3. When can an objection to the jurisdiction of a court be raised in an appellate
or revisional court?
(a) The objection can be raised at any time during the appellate
proceedings.
(b) Only if the objection was raised in the Court of first instance at the
earliest possible opportunity.
1
(c) If the objection pertains to the pecuniary limits of the court's jurisdiction,
irrespective of its timing.
(d) Anytime before the final judgment, regardless of whether it was raised
in the lower court.
4. What is the prerequisite for the Supreme Court to transfer a suit, appeal, or
other proceeding under Section 25 of the CPC?
(a) Consent of the lower courts involved.
(b) Sufficient evidence of bias in the current court.
(c) Satisfaction that an order is expedient for the ends of justice.
(d) Mutual agreement between the parties involved in the suit.
5. According to Section 26 of the CPC, how must every suit be instituted?
(a) By filing a written complaint to the judicial magistrate.
(b) Through the presentation of a plaint or in another prescribed manner.
(c) By submitting a petition directly to the High Court.
(d) Through a formal request to the government legal department.
6. As per the CPC, how is a summons served when a defendant resides in
another State?
(a) The summons is directly sent to the defendant by the original court.
(b) It is sent for service to a court in the other state, which then proceeds
as if it had been issued by that court.
(c) Service is done via electronic means without involving courts in the
other state.
(d) The plaintiff is responsible for ensuring the delivery of the summons.
7. Under Section 34 of the CPC, when can a court order interest on the principal
sum adjudged in a decree for the payment of money?
(a) Only from the date of the decree to the date of payment.
(b) From the date of suit to the date of decree and further from the date of
decree to the date of payment.
(c) Interest can only be applied before the institution of the suit.
(d) No interest can be ordered on the principal sum adjudged.
8. What discretion does Section 35 of the CPC give to courts regarding the
awarding of costs?
(a) Costs must always follow the event.
(b) The court has no discretion and must follow statutory guidelines.
(c) The court has full discretion to determine who will pay the costs and to
what extent.
2
(d) Costs are predetermined based on the nature of the suit.
9. Under the CPC, when can a court order compensatory costs for false or
vexatious claims or defenses?
(a) Only if the claim or defense has been fully adjudicated.
(b) If such claim or defense is disallowed, abandoned, or withdrawn in
whole or in part, and the court finds it to be false or vexatious.
(c) In all cases where the defendant raises an objection.
(d) Whenever a claim or defense is proved to be incorrect.
10. According to Sections 26 and 27 of the CPC, what is the correct procedure for
the institution of suits and the issuance of summons to defendants?
(a) Suits are instituted by verbal complaint, and summons are issued
immediately.
(b) Suits are instituted by the presentation of a plaint, and a summons is
then issued to the defendant.
(c) Suits are instituted by direct appeal to the High Court, and no
summons is required.
(d) Suits are instituted by filing an affidavit, and summons are issued at the
discretion of the court.
11. Under what circumstances can a decree be transferred for execution to
another Court as per Section 39 of the CPC?
(a) Only if the decree-holder requests such a transfer.
(b) If the person against whom the decree is passed resides or has
property within the jurisdiction of the other Court.
(c) Transfer can only occur if the decree is related to immovable property.
(d) Only if the original court lacks the resources to execute the decree.
12. What is the scope of a court’s authority under Section 47 of the CPC in
relation to the execution of a decree?
(a) It can only address issues directly related to the satisfaction of the
decree.
(b) It can determine all questions relating to the execution, discharge, or
satisfaction of the decree, including the status of representatives.
(c) It is limited to determining the financial aspects of the decree.
(d) It can order a new trial on matters related to the execution of the
decree.
13. Under Section 51 of the CPC, in what ways can a court order the execution of
a decree?
3
(a) Solely by attachment and sale of property.
(b) By delivery of property, attachment and sale, arrest and detention,
appointing a receiver, or as required by the nature of the relief granted.
(c) Only by arrest and detention in prison.
(d) Exclusively through the appointment of a receiver.
14. According to the CPC, what are the conditions and limitations concerning the
arrest and detention of a judgment-debtor in the execution of a decree?
(a) The judgment-debtor can be arrested at any time without any
limitations.
(b) Arrest is only permissible during daylight hours and with specific
procedures to respect privacy and public convenience.
(c) The judgment-debtor can only be arrested if they refuse to pay the
decree amount voluntarily.
(d) Detention is not allowed under the CPC for the execution of decrees.
15. How does the CPC address the situation where property is attached in
execution of decrees by more than one court?
(a) The property shall be sold, and the proceeds divided equally among all
decree-holders.
(b) The court of highest grade, or the court which first attached the
property, shall deal with the property.
(c) The property shall be released from attachment immediately.
(d) The Supreme Court shall intervene to resolve the matter.
16. What does Section 73 of the CPC provide regarding the distribution of assets
held by a court in execution sales?
(a) Assets are to be distributed equally among all decree-holders.
(b) Assets are distributed rateably among decreeholders who have made
applications for execution prior to the receipt of assets and have not
obtained satisfaction thereof.
(c) The first decree-holder to apply for execution receives all the assets.
(d) Assets are distributed at the discretion of the executing court without
any specific guidelines.
17. What are the various purposes for which a court can issue commissions
under Section 75 of the CPC?
(a) Solely for the examination of persons.
(b) To examine persons, make local investigations, examine or adjust
accounts, make a partition, and for other specific purposes.
4
(c) Only for conducting scientific or technical investigations.
(d) Only for the sale of property in the custody of the court.
18. What is the legal status of private transfers or deliveries of property after
attachment, as per Section 64 of the CPC?
(a) All private transfers are valid irrespective of the attachment.
(b) Private transfers are void only if done with the intention to defraud
creditors.
(c) Any private transfer or delivery of the property after attachment is void
against all claims enforceable under the attachment.
(d) Private transfers are valid if registered before the attachment.
19. Under Section 55(3) of the CPC, what are the conditions for the arrest and
detention of a judgment-debtor in the execution of a decree for the payment of
money?
(a) The judgment-debtor can be arrested without any conditions.
(b) Arrest is only permissible if the judgment-debtor refuses to apply to be
declared an insolvent.
(c) The judgment-debtor must be informed of the right to apply for
insolvency and can be released upon furnishing security for applying
for insolvency.
(d) Detention is mandatory for all judgment-debtors in execution of money
decrees.
20. According to the CPC, when does the property sold in execution of a decree
vest in the purchaser?
(a) From the time when the sale becomes absolute.
(b) From the time when the property is sold, regardless of when the sale
becomes absolute.
(c) Only after the expiry of one year from the date of sale.
(d) After confirmation by the higher court.
21. Which aspect of execution proceedings is specifically addressed in Section
47(3) of the CPC?
(a) Determination of the appropriate method for executing the decree.
(b) Calculation of the amount due under the decree.
(c) Deciding whether a person is the representative of a party in the
context of the execution of a decree.
(d) Determining the rateable distribution of assets among decree-holders.
5
22. Which of the following is not a power granted to the Court under Section 94 of
the CPC for preventing the ends of justice from being defeated?
(a) Issuing a warrant to arrest the defendant and commit him to civil prison
if he fails to provide security.
(b) Directing the defendant to deposit a monetary security in the Court.
(c) Granting a permanent injunction against a party.
(d) Appointing a receiver of any property and enforcing performance of his
duties.
23. Under the CPC, in what circumstances can a court award compensation to a
defendant against whom an arrest, attachment, or injunction was obtained on
insufficient grounds?
(a) Only if the plaintiff's suit was dismissed.
(b) If the arrest, attachment, or injunction was applied for on insufficient
grounds or the suit fails with no reasonable grounds for instituting it.
(c) Compensation is awarded in all cases where an arrest, attachment, or
injunction is used.
(d) Only if the defendant can prove a substantial financial loss.
24. Which type of decree does not allow for an appeal under Section 96 of the
CPC?
(a) A decree passed ex parte.
(b) A decree passed with the consent of parties.
(c) A decree involving a sum less than ten thousand rupees in suits
cognizable by Courts of Small Causes.
(d) A decree from which an appeal is expressly provided by the Code.
25. Who is eligible to apply for a review of judgment under Section 114 of the
CPC?
(a) Any person, irrespective of their connection to the case.
(b) Only the plaintiff in the suit.
(c) Any person considering themselves aggrieved by a decree or order
from which an appeal is allowed or from which no appeal is allowed.
(d) Only a third party who was not a part of the original suit.
26. What powers does an Appellate Court have under Section 107 of the CPC?
(a) Only to determine a case finally.
(b) To determine a case finally, remand a case, frame issues for trial, and
take additional evidence.
(c) Solely to take additional evidence or require it to be taken.
6
(d) Limited to reviewing legal questions and not factual aspects of the
case.
27. When can a lower court refer a case for the opinion of the High Court under
the CPC?
(a) For any trivial matter for clarification.
(b) When it involves a question as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance, or
Regulation or any provision therein.
(c) Only in cases related to constitutional matters.
(d) Whenever the lower court is in doubt about any procedural aspect.
28. Under the CPC, how can the liability of a surety be enforced?
(a) Only through personal liability of the surety.
(b) By sale of property furnished as security, personal liability, or both,
depending on the conditions of the security.
(c) The liability of a surety cannot be enforced under the CPC.
(d) Solely by imprisonment of the surety.
29. What can a Court do in case of disobedience of a temporary injunction under
Section 94 of the CPC?
(a) The Court can only issue a warning to the party.
(b) Commit the person guilty of disobedience to civil prison and order
attachment and sale of their property.
(c) The Court is required to revoke the temporary injunction.
(d) Transfer the case to a higher court for decision.
30. What is the key principle outlined in Section 99 of the CPC regarding the
reversal or modification of decrees?
(a) Any error or irregularity in proceedings always justifies the reversal of a
decree.
(b) A decree cannot be reversed or substantially varied for any misjoinder
or non-joinder of parties or any procedural irregularity not affecting the
merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the Court.
(c) Decrees passed with the consent of parties can be reversed under this
section.
(d) Only errors in the application of law can lead to the reversal of a
decree.
31. What does Section 97 of the CPC stipulate about appeals from final decrees?
(a) Appeals can be made against final decrees regardless of an appeal
against the preliminary decree.
7
(b) A party aggrieved by a preliminary decree who did not appeal from it is
precluded from disputing its correctness in any appeal from the final
decree.
(c) All final decrees are appealable irrespective of the nature of the
preliminary decree.
(d) Appeals from final decrees are limited to questions of law only.
32. In what circumstances can the High Court determine an issue of fact in a
second appeal, as per CPC?
(a) In all second appeals as a standard procedure.
(b) If the evidence on record is sufficient, and the issue was not
determined or wrongly determined by the lower courts.
(c) Only if new evidence is presented in the High Court.
(d) The High Court does not have the power to determine issues of fact in
second appeals.
33. According to Section 99 of the CPC, under what condition can a decree not
be reversed or substantially varied in an appeal?
(a) When there is a misjoinder or non-joinder of parties affecting the case's
merits.
(b) Any error, defect, or irregularity in proceedings that does not affect the
case's merits or the court's jurisdiction.
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
34. What does Section 146 of the CPC specify regarding proceedings taken by or
against representatives?
(a) Representatives cannot be involved in legal proceedings.
(b) Proceedings can only be initiated by legal heirs of a deceased party.
(c) Proceedings may be taken by or against any person claiming under a
party.
(d) Only court-appointed representatives can initiate or defend
proceedings.
35. How is the consent or agreement of a person under disability treated in legal
proceedings according to Section 147 of the CPC?
(a) Such consent or agreement is always invalid.
(b) It is valid only if given by the legal guardian without the court's
permission.
8
(c) It is valid if given or made with the court's express leave by the next
friend or guardian.
(d) Persons under disability cannot give consent or enter into agreements
in legal proceedings.
36. Under the CPC, what is the maximum duration for which a caveat remains
valid if the application referred to in sub-section (1) is not made?
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
37. As per Section 149 of the CPC, when can a Court allow the payment of court-
fee, if not paid initially?
(a) Only at the commencement of the proceeding
(b) At any stage of the proceeding
(c) After the judgment is passed
(d) Before the final hearing
38. Under the CPC, what does the 'inherent power of the Court' entail?
(a) Power to review its own judgment
(b) Power to issue new guidelines for court proceedings
(c) Power to make orders necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent
abuse of the process of the Court
(d) Power to revise the judgments of lower courts
39. In accordance with Section 152 of the CPC, what kind of mistakes in
judgments, decrees, or orders can the Court correct?
(a) Substantive mistakes
(b) Mistakes related to the jurisdiction of the Court
(c) Clerical or arithmetical mistakes
(d) Mistakes based on the merits of the case
40. What does Section 153 of the CPC empower the Court to amend?
(a) Final judgment and decree
(b) Error or defect in any proceedings in a suit for determining the real
question or issue raised
(c) Court fees and costs associated with the suit
(d) The jurisdiction of the Court
41. As per Order I Rule 1 of the CPC, under what condition can multiple persons
be joined as plaintiffs in a suit?
9
(a) When they are related by blood or marriage
(b) If they are suing for the same kind of relief
(c) When there is a common question of law or fact arising from the same
act or transaction
(d) Only if they are residents of the same jurisdiction
42. What power does the Court have under Order I, Rule 2 of the CPC in case of
joinder of plaintiffs?
(a) To order mediation
(b) To dismiss the suit
(c) To order separate trials
(d) To impose fines on plaintiffs
43. In what circumstances can all persons be joined as defendants in one suit
under Order I, Rule 3 of the CPC?
(a) When the plaintiffs are relatives
(b) When there is a right to relief against them arising from the same act or
transaction
(c) When the defendants are government officials
(d) When the plaintiffs have individual claims against each defendant
44. Under Order I, Rule 4, when can a Court give judgment for or against one or
more of joint parties?
(a) Only after amending the suit
(b) When parties agree to partial judgment
(c) When the Court deems it necessary for justice
(d) Without any amendment
45. What does Order I, Rule 5 of the CPC state regarding the defendants' interest
in the relief claimed?
(a) All defendants must be interested in all relief claimed
(b) Defendants' interest in relief claimed is not mandatory
(c) At least one defendant must be interested in all relief claimed
(d) Defendants must have a unanimous interest in relief claimed
46. Under what condition can a plaintiff join parties liable on the same contract in
one suit as per Order I, Rule 6?
(a) Only with the consent of the Court
(b) When the contract is a public document
(c) At the plaintiff's option, whether severally or jointly and severally liable
(d) Only if the parties agree to the joint suit
10
47. In a suit before the Commercial Division of a High Court, what must a
defendant do if they deny an allegation in the plaint?
(a) Simply deny the allegation without reasons
(b) Provide reasons for denial and state their own version of events
(c) Seek permission from the court before denying
(d) Immediately file for an appeal
48. How should a defendant respond to an allegation of receiving a specific sum
of money?
(a) Deny receiving the specific amount only
(b) Deny receiving any amount or specify the amount received
(c) Admit to receiving the amount and dispute it later
(d) Refrain from responding to such allegations
49. What is the consequence if a defendant does not specifically deny an
allegation of fact in the plaint?
(a) The allegation is deemed to be denied
(b) The allegation is deemed to be admitted
(c) The allegation needs to be proved by the plaintiff
(d) The defendant is given a chance to amend the written statement
50. In the context of Order IX of the CPC, what happens when neither party
appears when the suit is called for hearing?
(a) The suit is adjourned to a later date
(b) The suit is decided ex-parte
(c) The suit is dismissed
(d) The suit is referred for mediation
51. Under Order X of the CPC, what is the court's duty at the first hearing of the
suit?
(a) To immediately pronounce judgment
(b) To ascertain admissions and denials of facts in pleadings
(c) To refer the case for alternative dispute resolution
(d) To summon witnesses for evidence
52. According to the CPC, what happens if a party fails to admit a document after
service of the notice to admit documents?
(a) The document is deemed to be admitted
(b) The party is penalized for contempt of court
(c) The party must bear the costs of proving the document
11
(d) The document is considered irrelevant
53. When are parties required to produce original documents?
(a) After the judgment is pronounced
(b) On or before the settlement of issues
(c) Only if the other party disputes the documents
(d) At any time during the trial as the court may require
54. Under Order XIV of the CPC, what are the two kinds of issues that can arise
in a suit?
(a) Preliminary and supplementary issues
(b) Documentary and oral issues
(c) Issues of fact and issues of law
(d) Jurisdictional and procedural issues
55. When can a court order a particular fact to be proved by affidavit?
(a) Only when both parties agree
(b) When the court deems it reasonable for sufficient reason
(c) In all cases as a standard procedure
(d) Only in cases involving government bodies
56. What does Order VIII, Rule 2 of the CPC mandate about new facts in the
defendant's pleadings?
(a) They should be ignored if not relevant to the plaint
(b) They must be specifically pleaded
(c) They should be introduced only with plaintiff's consent
(d) They are not allowed under any circumstances
57. Under Order IX, Rule 2 of the CPC, what happens if the summons is not
served due to the plaintiff's failure to pay court fees or postal charges?
(a) The defendant is penalized
(b) The suit is adjourned
(c) The suit is dismissed
(d) The court fees are waived off
58. What is the purpose of Rule 1A under Order X of the CPC?
(a) To direct parties to opt for alternative dispute resolution
(b) To determine the jurisdiction of the court
(c) To frame issues for the suit
(d) To assess the financial status of the parties
59. Under the CPC, when can a court try an issue of law first?
12
(a) In all cases as a standard practice
(b) When the issue relates to the jurisdiction of the court or a bar to the suit
created by any law
(c) Only if both parties consent
(d) When the issue is too complex to be decided later
60. Under the CPC, 1908, which of the following is not a mode of paying money
under a decree?
(a) By deposit into the court executing the decree
(b) Direct payment to the decree-holder through online banking
(c) Payment through a credit facility arranged by the court
(d) Out of court, to the decree-holder by postal money order
61. As per the CPC, what must a decree-holder do upon receiving payment out of
court?
(a) Inform the judgment-debtor
(b) Certify the payment to the court executing the decree
(c) Apply for a fresh decree
(d) Issue a receipt to the judgment-debtor
62. What happens if a sole plaintiff dies and the right to sue survives?
(a) The suit automatically abates
(b) The legal representative of the deceased must be made a party on an
application made on that behalf.
(c) The defendant can apply for dismissal of the suit
(d) The court will appoint a new plaintiff
63. Under Order XXV, Rule 1, when can the court require a plaintiff to furnish
security for costs?
(a) At any stage of the suit
(b) Only at the commencement of the suit
(c) After the completion of the evidence stage
(d) Once the suit has been decreed in favor of the plaintiff
64. What is the purpose of issuing a commission for the examination of a witness
as per Order XXVI of the CPC?
(a) To expedite the trial process
(b) For examining a person who cannot attend the court due to
exemptions, sickness, or infirmity
(c) To investigate the character of the witness
(d) To verify the authenticity of documentary evidence
13
65. In a suit by or against the government, as per Order XXVII, who must sign
and verify the plaint or written statement?
(a) The President or Prime Minister
(b) A person appointed by the Government
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Attorney General
66. What is the rule under Order XXXII regarding suits by minors in the CPC,
1908?
(a) Minors can sue without a next friend if they are above 16 years of age
(b) Every suit by a minor must be instituted in their name by a next friend
(c) Minors are not allowed to sue under this Code
(d) Parents of the minor must file the suit on their behalf
67. As per Order XXXIII, who is considered an 'indigent person' for the purpose of
instituting a suit?
(a) Anyone who cannot afford legal representation.\
(b) A person not possessing sufficient means to pay the prescribed fee for
the plaint
(c) Any individual not currently employed
(d) Someone who is dependent on government aid
68. What is the main purpose of an interpleader suit under Order XXXV of the
CPC?
(a) To resolve disputes between co-plaintiffs
(b) To enable a plaintiff to determine which defendant has the rightful claim
(c) To protect a plaintiff holding property claimed by multiple parties
(d) To expedite cases involving multiple claims on the same issue
69. Under Order XXXVIII, when can a court order the arrest of a defendant before
judgment?
(a) If the defendant refuses to respond to the summons
(b) When there's a reasonable probability that the defendant will obstruct
or delay the execution of any decree
(c) If the defendant challenges the jurisdiction of the court
(d) When the defendant does not appoint a legal representative
70. What happens if a judgment-debtor does not inform the court of a payment
made under a decree, as per Order XXI, Rule 2 of the CPC?
(a) The payment is deemed null and void
(b) The payment will not be recognized by any court executing the decree
14
(c) The decree-holder must return the payment
(d) The judgment-debtor can reapply to make the payment
71. A limited liability partnership is:
(a) Not a separate entity from that of its partners
(b) A legal entity separate from that of its partners
(c) A body corporate
(d) Only B and C are correct
72. A LLP shall be governed by the provisions of:
(a) The Companies Act, 2013
(b) The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(c) The Co-operative Societies Act, 1912
(d) The Indian Partnership Act, 1932
73. Whether a HUF can become partner in LLP:
(a) HUF may become partner of LLP provided the Registrar may grant
permission in this behalf.
(b) No, HUF can’t become partner in the LLP .
(c) Yes, HUF may become partner of LLP.
(d) None of the above.
74. How many designated partners are required in LLP:
(a) At least two designated partners
(b) Seven designated partners
(c) Two designated partners
(d) At least seven designated partners
75. The LLP shall file the Statement of Account and Solvency in the prescribed
form. Which is this Form:
(a) Form 8
(b) Form 7
(c) Form 6
(d) Form 5
76. Who is the authority to grant compounding of offence under the LLP Act:
(a) The Registrar of Firms
(b) The Central Government
(c) The Registrar
(d) The Registrar of Co-operatives
15
77. What is the time limit within which LLP shall file Annual Return with the
Registrar:
(a) Within 30 days of closure of its financial year.
(b) Within 45 days of closure of its financial year.
(c) Within 60 days of closure of its financial year.
(d) Within 15 days of closure of its financial year.
78. Every LLP shall keep books of account, which shall contain:
(a) Statement of cost of goods purchased inventories, work-in-progress,
finished goods and cost of goods sold.
(b) A record of the assets and liabilities of the LLP.
(c) Particulars of all sums of money received and expended by the LLP
and the matters in respect of which the receipt and expenditure takes
place.
(d) All of the above.
79. At which place the LLP shall maintain books of accounts:
(a) At its Branch Office
(b) At its Corporate Office
(c) At its Head Office
(d) At its Registered Office
80. The LLP shall maintain proper books of account relating to its affairs for each
year of its existence on which basis:
(a) Accrual basis
(b) Double entry system of accounting
(c) Cash basis
81. Who shall sign the Statement of Account and Solvency prepared by the LLP:
(a) By any one partner, authorised in this behalf
(b) By at least two partners, authorised in this behalf
(c) By all the partners
(d) By the designated partners
82. The Statement of Account and Solvency is required to be filed by the LLP
with:
(a) The Registrar of Co-op Societies
(b) Need not to file.
(c) The Registrar
16
(d) The Registrar of Firms
83. Whether incorporation documents, names of partners and changes, if any,
Statement of Account and Solvency and Annual Return field with the
Registrar can be inspected:
(a) Yes, it can be inspected by any of the partners of the LLP
(b) Yes, It can be inspected only Government Authorities and Banks
(c) Yes, it can be inspected only the creditors of the LLP
(d) Yes, it can be inspected by any person on payment of the prescribed
fee.
84. The books of account which a LLP is required to keep shall be preserved for
how many years:
(a) Eight Years
(b) Six Years
(c) Four years
(d) Two years
85. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account
and Solvency, where the contribution does not exceed Rs 1 lakh:
(a) Rs. 200
(b) Rs. 50
(c) Rs. 100
(d) Rs. 150
86. Who shall fix the remuneration of the auditor:
(a) The designated partners shall fix the remuneration
(b) As per the procedure laid down in the LLP Agreement.
(c) The Registrar may fix the remuneration
(d) Both A and B are correct.
87. LLP shall file its Annual Return in which form:
(a) Form 12
(b) Form 11
(c) Form 10
(d) Form 9
88. Where an auditor is unwilling to be re• appointed, he shall give a notice in
writing to that effect at the LLP’s registered office before the end of the time
allowed for appointing the new auditor, along with the statement of
circumstances connected with his ceasing to hold office:
(a) not less than 28 days
17
(b) not less than 21 days
(c) not less than 14 days
(d) not less than 07 days
89. Who can remove the auditors from his office:
(a) The partners of the LLP may remove an auditor form office at any time
by following the procedure as laid down in the LLP Agreement.
(b) Where the LLP Agreement does not provide for the removal of an
auditor, consent of all the partners shall be required for removal of the
auditor form his office
(c) The Registrar.
(d) Both A and B are correct
90. The designated partners may appoint auditor(s), but if the designated partners
fails to appoint the auditor(s), then who will make the appointment of the
auditor(s):
(a) The Registrar of Co-operative Societies
(b) The other partners of the LLP
(c) The Registrar of Firms
(d) The Registrar
91. What is the fee to paid to the Registrar for filing of the Statement of Account
and Solvency, where the contribution exceeds Rs 1 lakh but does not exceed
Rs 5 lakh:
(a) Rs. 200.
(b) Rs. 150.
(c) Rs. 100.
(d) Rs 50.
92. An auditor or auditors of an LLP shall hold office in accordance with the terms
of his or their appointment and shall continue to hold such office till the period:
(a) They are re-appointed
(b) Only for one financial year
(c) The new auditors are appointed
(d) Options A and C are correct.
93. The audit of accounts of every LLP is not''' compulsory if its:
(a) Turnover does not exceed in any financial year, Rs 40 lakh or whose
contribution does not exceed Rs 25 lakh
(b) Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 30 lakh, or whose
18
(c) Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 20 lakh, or whose
(d) Turnover does not exceed, in any financial year, Rs 10 lakh, or whose
94. What are the penal provisions for the LLP, if any LLP fails to comply with the
provisions of Section 35 which deals with the filing of the Annual Return with
the Registrar:
(a) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
10000 but which may extend to Rs 5 lakh.
(b) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
(c) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
(d) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
95. What is the periodicity of preparing the Statement of Account and Solvency by
the LLP:
(a) Within a period of three months from the end of each financial year.
(b) Within a period of nine months from the end of each financial year.
(c) Within a period of twelve months from the end of each financial year.
(d) Within a period of six months from the end of each financial year.
96. What are the penal provisions for LLP, if any LLP fails to comply with the
provisions of Section 34 (which relates to the maintenance of books of
account, other records and audit, etc):
(a) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
15000 but which may extend to Rs 5 lacs.
(b) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
(c) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
(d) The LLP shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than Rs
97. What are the penal provisions for designated partners, if any LLP fails to
comply with the provisions of Section 34 (which relates to the maintenance of
books of account, other records and audit, etc):
19
(a) Every designated partner of such LLP shall be punishable with fine
which shall not be less than Rs 15000 but which may extend to Rs 1
lakh.
(b) Every designated partner of such LLP shall be punishable with fine
lakh.
(c) Every designated partner of such LLP shall be punishable with fine
lakh.
(d) Every designated partner of such LLP shall be punishable with fine
lakh.
98. What are the penal provisions for the designated partners of LLP, if any LLP
fails to comply with the provisions of Section 35 which deals with the filing of
the Annual Return with the Registrar:
(a) The designated partners of the LLP shall be punishable with fine which
shall not be less than Rs 1000 but which may extend to Rs 1 lakh.
(b) The designated partners of the LLP shall be punishable with fine which
(c) The designated partners of the LLP shall be punishable with fine which
(d) The designated partners of the LLP shall be punishable with fine which
99. What is the penalty for the false statement made by the LLP in any return,
statement of other documents required by or for the purposes of any of the
provisions of the LLP Act Y.
(a) The person concerned shall be punishable with imprisonment for a
term which may extend to 1 years and shall also be liable to fin which
extend to Rs 5 lakh but which shall not be less than Rs 1 lakh.
(b) The person concerned shall be punishable with imprisonment for a
(c) The person concerned shall be punishable with imprisonment for a
20
(d) The person concerned shall be punishable with imprisonment for a
100. An individual or body corporate cannot be a partner in a limited liability
partnership.
(a) Only Body corporate can form LLP
(b) Only Individual can form LLP
(c) The statement is wrong.
(d) The statement is correct.
101. Every limited liability partnership shall have atleast two designated partners
who are individuals and at least one of them shall be:
(a) An Indian resident
(b) A person of foreign national
(c) A resident inIndia
(d) A person having Indian Passport
102. In terms of section 23 (2) of the LLP Act, 2008, every LLP shall file information
with regard to the LLP agreement in the prescribed form, with the Registrar
within thirty days of the date of information. What is the prescribed Form No.:
(a) Form No.2
(b) Form No.3
(c) Form No. 4
(d) Form No. 1
103. The Court or Tribunal may reduce or waive penalty leviable against any
partner or employee of LLP if it is satisfied that:
(a) When any information given by any partner or employee(whether or not
during investigation) leads to LLP or any partner or employee of such
LLP being convicted under this Act or any other Act.
(b) Such partner or employee of a LLP has provided useful information
during investigation of such LLP.
(c) Both the options A and B are correct
104. A person shall not be capable of being appointed as a designated partner of a
LLP, if he:
(a) Suspends, or has at any time within the preceding five years
suspended payment to his creditor and has not at any time within the
preceding five years made, a composition with them
21
(b) Has been convicted by a Court for any offence involving moral
turpitude and sentenced in respect thereof toe imprisonment for not
less than six month or has been convicted by a Court for an offence
involving section 30 of the Act.
(c) Has at any time within the preceding five years been adjudged
insolvent.
105. A limited liability partnership:
(a) Shall not have perpetual succession.
(b) Shall have its operations only for 5 years.
(c) Shall have perpetual succession.
(d) Shall have its operations for a limited period
106. Ministry of Corporate Affairs enforced the LLP Act, with effect from-
(a) 31st March, 2008
(b) 1st April 2008
(c) 31st March, 2009
(d) 1st April 2009
107. Which of the following cannot be converted into LLP?
(a) Partnership firm
(b) Private company
(c) Listed company
(d) unlisted company
108. The approved name of LLP shall be valid for a period of _____ from the date
of approval:
(a) 1 Month
(b) 2 Months
(c) 3 months
(d) 6 months
109. Name of the Limited Liability Partnership shall be ended by:
(a) Limited
(b) Limited Liability partnership or LLP
(c) Private Limited
(d) OPC
110. For the purpose of LLP, Resident in India means:
22
(a) Person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 182 days
during the current year.
(b) Person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 180 days
during the immediately preceding one year.
(c) Person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 181 days
(d) Person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 182 days
111. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for designation of
"Commercial Appellate Courts"?
(a) Section 2
(b) Section 3
(c) Section 3A
(d) Section 4
112. What is the minimum specified value for a dispute to be considered under the
Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) One lakh rupees
(b) Two lakh rupees
(c) Three lakh rupees
(d) Four lakh rupees
113. Which of the following is not a type of commercial dispute under the
(a) Disputes related to franchising agreements
(b) Intellectual property rights disputes
(c) Family law disputes
(d) Agreements for sale of goods
114. What does the term "District Judge" refer to in the Commercial Courts Act,
2015?
(a) A judge of a Commercial Court
(b) A judge of the Commercial Division of a High Court
(c) A judge appointed under Article 236(a) of the Constitution of India
(d) The Chief Justice of a High Court
115. Under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, which High Courts can have a
Commercial Division?
(a) All High Courts
(b) Only High Courts with appellate jurisdiction
23
(c) Only High Courts with ordinary original civil jurisdiction
(d) Only High Courts designated by the Central Government
116. What is the role of the Chief Justice in the context of the Commercial Courts
Act, 2015?
(a) Appointing Judges to Commercial Courts
(b) Nominating Judges for the Commercial Division and Commercial
Appellate Division
(c) Deciding the pecuniary limits for commercial disputes
(d) Issuing notifications for the constitution of Commercial Courts
117. What is the jurisdiction of Commercial Courts as per the Commercial Courts
Act, 2015?
(a) Only within the district where they are located
(b) Across the entire state
(c) Over commercial disputes of unspecified value
(d) Limited to specific areas as notified
118. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 bars revision applications
against interlocutory orders of a Commercial Court?
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9
119. Under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, which High Court Division hears
suits and applications relating to commercial disputes of a specified value?
(a) Commercial Appellate Division
(b) Commercial Division
(c) Original Civil Division
(d) Appellate Civil Division
120. What happens to applications or appeals related to international commercial
arbitration under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) Heard by the Supreme Court
(b) Heard by the Commercial Court
(c) Heard by the Commercial Division of the High Court
(d) Transferred to the respective District Courts
121. What is the effect of a State Government notification under Section 3(2) of the
(a) It constitutes the Commercial Appellate Division
24
(b) It designates the judges of the Commercial Court
(c) It specifies the local limits of the jurisdiction of a Commercial Court
(d) It determines the pecuniary value of commercial disputes
122. Which statement is true regarding the jurisdiction of the Commercial Appellate
Division as per the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) It has jurisdiction over all civil matters
(b) It hears appeals against the orders of the Commercial Division
(c) It only deals with arbitration matters
(d) It is equivalent to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
123. As per the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, what is the role of the Central
Government in the context of commercial disputes?
(a) Appointing Judges to Commercial Courts
(b) Constituting Commercial Courts
(c) Notifying additional types of commercial disputes
(d) Deciding the pecuniary value of disputes
124. Which section of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 deals with the jurisdiction
in respect of arbitration matters?
(a) Section 9
(b) Section 10
(c) Section 11
(d) Section 12
125. What is the effect of a commercial dispute involving a State or its agencies
under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) It is not considered a commercial dispute
(b) It automatically involves the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(c) It is still considered a commercial dispute
(d) It requires special permission from the Central Government
126. According to Section 12 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, how is the
Specified Value determined for a suit or application seeking monetary
recovery?
(a) Based on the amount in the legal notice
(b) According to the discretion of the judge
(c) Money sought to be recovered in the suit inclusive of interest up to the
date of filing
(d) Fixed statutory amount regardless of the suit value
25
127. How is the Specified Value determined for disputes involving movable
property under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) Based on the original purchase price
(b) Market value as on the date of filing the suit
(c) Assessed value at the time of dispute resolution
(d) Arbitrary value assigned by the court
128. What does Section 12(c) of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 specify about
disputes related to immovable property?
(a) The Specified Value is based on the government's assessed value
(b) It's determined by the original purchase price of the property
(c) The market value of the property on the filing date is considered
(d) A fixed statutory value is applied irrespective of the property's market
value
129. In the context of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, how is the Specified Value
of intangible rights determined?
(a) Based on the plaintiff's estimated market value
(b) A fixed statutory value
(c) Determined by an independent assessor
(d) Equal to the value of tangible assets involved
130. Under Section 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, in what situation is
pre-institution mediation not required before filing a suit?
(a) When the dispute involves a government entity
(b) If the suit demands an urgent interim relief
(c) For all suits under the Act
(d) When the suit involves international parties
131. What is the maximum duration for pre-institution mediation as per Section 12A
of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months, extendable by two more months
(d) Six months
132. As per Section 13 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, what is the time limit
for appealing against the order of a Commercial Court?
(a) 30 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
26
(d) 90 days
133. According to Section 14 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, within what time
frame should the Commercial Appellate Court ideally dispose of appeals?
(a) Within 3 months
(b) Within 6 months
(c) Within 9 months
(d) Within 1 year
134. Under Section 15 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, which suits are not
transferred to the Commercial Division or Commercial Court?
(a) Suits filed after the constitution of the Commercial Court
(b) Suits where the final judgment has been reserved prior to the
constitution of the Commercial Division or Court
(c) Suits involving international commercial arbitration
(d) Suits where the Specified Value is below the prescribed limit
135. What happens to procedural steps already completed in suits transferred to
the Commercial Division or Commercial Court as per Section 15(3) of the
Act?
(a) They are deemed null and void
(b) They need to be redone under the Commercial Division or Court
(c) They are recognized and retained
(d) They are subject to review by the Commercial Division or Court
136. As per the amendments to the Code of Civil Procedure in Section 16 of the
Commercial Courts Act, 2015, what prevails in case of conflict with state
amendments?
(a) The state amendments to the Code
(b) The provisions of the Code as amended by the Act
(c) The discretion of the presiding judge
(d) The original provisions of the Code
137. What data must Commercial Courts disclose as per Section 17 of the
(a) Financial statements
(b) Personal information of litigants
(c) Statistical data on cases filed, pending, and disposed
(d) Details of judgments and orders passed
138. Under Section 18 of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, what power does the
High Court have?
27
(a) To amend any provision of the Act
(b) To issue practice directions supplementing the provisions of Chapter II
and the CPC
(c) To overrule decisions of the Commercial Courts
(d) To change the pecuniary limits for commercial disputes
139. What is the purpose of Section 20 in the Commercial Courts Act, 2015?
(a) To provide for the appointment of judges to Commercial Courts
(b) To establish training facilities for judges appointed to Commercial
Courts
(c) To regulate the fees and costs in Commercial Courts
(d) To define the jurisdiction of Commercial Courts
140. What is the overriding effect of the provisions of the Commercial Courts Act,
2015 as per Section 21?
(a) They override only the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation
Act, 1996
(b) They override the provisions of any inconsistent law
(c) They have no overriding effect
(d) They override the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 only
141. The Commercial Courts Act, 2015 came into force on-
(a) 23.10.2015
(b) 23.11.2015
(c) 31.12.2015
(d) 23.12.2015
142. “Commercial dispute” means a dispute arising out of-
(a) Ordinary transactions of merchants, bankers, financiers and traders
such as those relating to mercantile documents, including enforcement
and interpretation of such document.
(b) Insurance and re-insurance
(c) Technology development agreement
(d) All of the above
143. The term “specified value” in relation to a commercial dispute has been
defined under section_______
(a) 2(t)
(b) 2(i)
(c) 2(f)
(d) 2(g)
28
144. The Commercial Courts Act, 2015 provides for ___________ chapters and
_________ sections
(a) VII, 23
(b) VIII, 23
(c) VIII, 25
(d) VII, 24
145. Chapter IIIA which deals with Pre-Institution Mediation and Settlement has
been inserted by way of an Amendment Act of ___________.
(a) 2018
(b) 2017
(c) 2019
(d) 2020
146. The ________________ may after ______________ with concerned High
Court, by notification, constitute number of Commercial Courts at district level.
(a) State Government, consultation
(b) Central Government, consultation
(c) State Government, concurrence
147. Pre-Institution Mediation Settlement has been dealt under section
_______________
(a) 12
(b) 12-A
(c) 13
(d) 13-A
148. The _________________ may after ___________________ with concerned
High Court, by notification, constitute number of Commercial Appellate Courts
at District Judge level.
(a) Central Government, concurrence
(b) State Government, consultation
(c) State Government, concurrence
149. Choose the correct statement amongst the following: -
(a) The Commercial Division and Commercial Court shall follow the
provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 as amended by the
Commercial Court Act, in the trial of a suit in respect of commercial
dispute of a specified value.
29
(b) The Commercial Division and Commercial Court may follow the
(c) The Commercial Division and Commercial Court shall not follow the
(d) None of the above
150. ____________ may make rules by way of a notification for carrying out
provisions of Commercial Courts Act, 2015.
(a) State Government
(b) Central Government
(c) Union Government
(d) None of the above
151. What is the minimum imprisonment suggested by a parliamentary panel for
individuals selling adulterated food or drinks under the proposed Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)?
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Two years
152. How does the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 address the
time frame for the President’s decision on mercy petitions in death sentence
cases?
(a) Sets a strict 30-day deadline
(b) Provides a flexible 90-day period
(c) Does not impose a specific time frame
(d) Requires a decision within six months
153. What special condition was imposed by an NIA court in Jammu on Ghulam
Mohammad Bhat, released on bail under the UAPA?
(a) House arrest
(b) Community service
(c) GPS tracker anklet
(d) Regular court appearances
30
154. What is the objective of the Supreme Court of India's guidelines on the
resolution of criminal cases against MPs and MLAs?
(a) To increase their immunity
(b) To expedite case resolution
(c) To modify existing laws
(d) To reduce their legal responsibilities
155. Who is responsible for allocating symbols to political parties in India?
(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Election Commission of India
(d) The Ministry of Home Affairs
156. What is an affidavit as defined under Section 3(3) of India’s General Clauses
Act, 1897?
(a) A legal contract between two parties
(b) A formal statement or declaration
(c) A government-issued identity document
(d) A court order
157. What significant gap did the Supreme Court of India identify in the
implementation of the POSH Act?
(a) Inadequate compensation for victims
(b) Lack of legal definitions for harassment
(c) Implementation issues in small establishments and domestic settings
(d) Insufficient training for law enforcement
158. What compensation amount has the Supreme Court of India set for the
families of sewer death victims?
(a) Rs 10 lakh
(b) Rs 20 lakh
(c) Rs 30 lakh
(d) Rs 40 lakh
159. In the case involving copyright infringement by the Bhaktivedanta Book Trust,
what was the primary content of concern?
(a) Music albums
(b) Online courses
(c) Religious texts and commentaries
(d) Documentary films
31
160. What stance did the Supreme Court of India take regarding the recognition of
same-sex marriages in its October 17, 2023, verdict?
(a) It recognized same-sex marriages
(b) It declined to recognize same-sex marriages
(c) It referred the matter to the Parliament
(d) It remained neutral on the issue
161. Why was the 2018 Electoral Bonds Scheme referred to a five-judge
Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court of India?
(a) To evaluate its financial impact
(b) To decide on its constitutionality
(c) To consider amendments to the scheme
(d) To assess its political influence
162. What is the significance of forming a seven-judge bench to hear challenges to
the use of the money bill route for key legislations in India?
(a) To evaluate the economic implications
(b) To decide on the legal validity of the route used
(c) To assess the political motives behind the legislations
(d) To amend the legislations in question
163. What preventive legal action did the Delhi High Court take regarding the ICC
Men’s Cricket World Cup 2023?
(a) Banned public screenings
(b) Issued a dynamic injunction against illegal broadcasting
(c) Reduced ticket prices
(d) Ordered increased security measures
164. What prompted the Supreme Court of India to review the 1998 P V Narasimha
Rao case granting legislators immunity against criminal prosecution for
bribery?
(a) New evidence surfaced
(b) Changes in the legislative assembly
(c) Concerns over interpretation of constitutional provisions
(d) Pressure from political parties
165. Question: What key issue did Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud address by
announcing the formation of a seven-judge bench?
(a) The appointment of judges
(b) The classification and passage of money bills
(c) Judicial review of executive orders
32
(d) The allocation of government funds
166. What significant change does the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
(BNSS) 2023 introduce in the mercy petition process for death sentence
cases?
(a) Elimination of the President's discretion
(b) Reduction of the time frame for filing mercy petitions
(c) Removal of the necessity for the President to follow council of
ministers’ advice
(d) Mandatory judicial review of the President’s decision
167. What does the Indian Supreme Court's ruling regarding "self-respect"
marriages under the Hindu Marriage Act’s Section 7(A) signify?
(a) Advocates cannot solemnize these marriages
(b) These marriages require traditional rituals and priests
(c) Advocates can solemnize these marriages without traditional rituals
(d) Public declaration of marital status is mandatory for these marriages
168. What does the draft SOP note prepared by the Centre suggest regarding the
treatment of government officials in court?
(a) Strict penalties for non-compliance with court orders
(b) Harmonious engagement and balanced approach in proceedings
(c) Limiting the judicial power in government-related cases
(d) Exemption of government officials from court appearances
169. What is the primary goal of the handbook released by Chief Justice DY
Chandrachud addressing gender stereotypes in judicial discourse?
(a) To mandate gender-specific language
(b) To highlight gender discrimination in laws
(c) To promote the use of gender-neutral and accurate language
(d) To focus on women’s rights exclusively
170. What is the main objective of the Press and Registration of Periodicals (PRP)
Bill, 2023?
(a) To restrict the freedom of the press
(b) To modernize and streamline the registration process for periodicals
(c) To increase government control over media content
(d) To phase out digital media
171. Under the new guidelines for designating senior advocates released by the
Supreme Court of India, what is the minimum age requirement to apply?
(a) 35 years
33
(b) 40 years
(c) 45 years
(d) 50 years
172. How have the High Courts of Allahabad and Delhi interpreted the right to
change one's name?
(a) As an economic right
(b) As a part of the right to privacy
(c) As an intrinsic part of the right to life under Article 21
(d) As a privilege rather than a right
173. What are the key amendments proposed by the Law Commission of India to
the law of sedition?
(a) To enhance the severity of punishments
(b) To abolish the law of sedition entirely
(c) To prevent alleged misuse and ensure clarity
(d) To restrict freedom of speech
174. What is the main focus of the Draft Aircraft Bill, 2023 introduced by India's civil
aviation ministry?
(a) To decrease government involvement in aviation
(b) To enhance regulations in the aviation sector
(c) To privatize the aviation industry
(d) To limit foreign investment in aviation
175. What legal term describes the practice of choosing a specific court for a case
in hopes of a favorable outcome, and how is it addressed in common law
countries?
(a) Litigation arbitrage; addressed by mandatory jurisdiction rules
(b) Judicial lobbying; addressed through legal reforms
(c) Forum shopping; addressed by the principle of non-conveniens
(d) Court canvassing; addressed by random judge allocation
Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to
make the sentence meaningfully complete.
176. It is a month since the holidays……………
(a) Began
(b) Have begun
(c) May began
(d) Will begin
34
177. The commission has recommended and addition of twenty percent of the
basis …………..a minimum of Rupees fifty for fixing the pay.
(a) Subjected to
(b) Subject to
(c) Subjecting to
(d) None of these
178. He has………. Awake in bed for hours.
(a) Laid
(b) Lain
(c) Lay
(d) Laying
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word or
group of words given in capitals in each question.
179. APPARENT
(a) Obvious
(b) Transparent
(c) Vague
(d) Actual
180. PANDEMONIUM
(a) Great joy
(b) Big crowd
(c) Utter confusion
(d) Loud noise
181. INADVERTENT
(a) Unintentional
(b) Ignorant
(c) Careful
(d) Forgetful
In the following questions choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in
meaning of the word given in capitals.
182. TERMINATE
(a) Remain
(b) Stay
(c) Continue
(d) Hold
35
183. VACILLATING
(a) Timid
(b) Unattractive
(c) Hateful
(d) Resolute
184. HAUGHTY
(a) Cowardly
(b) Scared
(c) Humble
(d) Pitiable
Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word or
group of words given in capitals in each question.
185. REBATE
(a) Compensation
(b) Refund
(c) Loss
(d) Discount
186. MERE
(a) Complete
(b) Empty
(c) Only
(d) Some
187. TEDIOUS
(a) Troublesome
(b) Lengthy
(c) Tiresome
(d) Painful
In each of the following questions, one of the words is written in bold. From
among the four alternatives given below each question, choose the word
which is nearest in meaning to the bold word.
188. The striking labourers attempted to intimidate the loyal and dutiful labourers.
(a) Persuade
(b) Inform
(c) Attack
(d) Threaten
36
189. Sohrab parried the blow aimed at him by Rustum.
(a) Evaded
(b) Defied
(c) Opposed
(d) Sparred
190. He has been exonerated by the court.
(a) Forgiven
(b) Declared innocent
(c) Suspended
(d) Warned
Four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct
alternative out of the four and tick the corresponding alphabet.
191. …………….. the high decrease in inflation, our currency seems to have
increased in value.
(a) Thanks to
(b) Despite
(c) As far as
(d) However
192. She is the girl ……… won the award.
(a) Which
(b) That
(c) Who
(d) That will
193. Kamla jumped ………. the pier.
(a) Of
(b) From
(c) Off
(d) At
In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best express
the meaning of the given idioms/phrase
194. To break the ice
(a) To start quarreling
(b) To end the hostility
(c) To start a conversation
(d) To end up partnership
37
195. To oil the knocker
(a) To instigate a person to do a job
(b) To do a work with increased pace
(c) To tip the office boy
(d) To revive old enmity
196. To cut the crackle
(a) To humiliate
(b) To annoy someone
(c) To act in a friendly way
(d) To stop talking and start
In each of the following questions, out of four options, one option is
grammatically wrong. Choose the grammatically wrong option.
197. (a) It is time you went to bed
(b) There is no end to troubles
(c) We got out of the swimming pool and dried us.
(d) He gloried in his victory
198. (a) The dacoits robbed my belongings.
(b) The first two pages of this book are torn.
(c) He came to us every third-day.
(d) He atoned for the sin by giving alms to the poor.
199. (a) Sumit is my elder brother
(b) He is two years younger to me.
(c) He is the eldest man of this village.
(d) Ravi is five years older than me.
200. (a) On entering the room I found the light quite dim.
(b) I don’t remember to have met you before.
(c) We got into the train at last
(d) They fought to the last man.
38
DELHI JUDICIAL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION - 2023
MOCK TEST SERIES
CPC, COMMERCIAL COURTS ACT, L.L.P. ENGLISH AND GK
TEST- III
Date: 25/11/2023
S. No. Ans. Explanations
1. C III of Section 11 stipulates that for a matter to be considered under Res
Judicata, it must have been alleged by one party and either denied or
admitted, expressly or impliedly, by the other in the former suit. Options A, B,
and D are scenarios that would typically fall under the purview of Res
Judicata, assuming other conditions of Section 11 are met.
2. B Section 13 of the CPC clearly states that a foreign judgment shall not be
conclusive if it has not been pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction.
Options A, C, and D are instances where a foreign judgment would typically
be considered conclusive, barring any specific exceptional circumstances
outlined in the other clauses of Section 13.
3. B Section 21 mandates that an objection as to the place of suing must be
taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity for it to
be considered by any appellate or revisional court. This requirement ensures
that jurisdictional objections are raised promptly and not used as a strategy
to prolong litigation or as an afterthought following an unfavorable decision.
4. C Section 25(1) of the CPC empowers the Supreme Court to transfer any suit,
appeal, or other proceeding from one High Court or other Civil Court to
another, if it is satisfied that such an order is expedient for the ends of
justice. This section underscores the importance of justice and fairness over
procedural rigidity, allowing the Supreme Court to intervene when necessary
to uphold these principles.
5. B Section 26(1) of the CPC specifies that every suit shall be instituted by the
presentation of a plaint or in such other manner as may be prescribed. This
provision is fundamental in civil procedure, as it outlines the initial step
required for a suit to be officially recognized and processed by the courts. It
emphasizes the structured and formal nature of legal proceedings.
6. B Section 28(1) and (2) of the CPC provide that a summons may be sent for
service to a court in another state. The court that receives the summons is
required to proceed as if the summons had been issued by itself. This
process ensures that the summons is served effectively while respecting the
39
jurisdictional boundaries between different states.
7. B Section 34(1) of the CPC allows the court to order interest at a reasonable
rate on the principal sum adjudged, from the date of the suit to the date of
the decree, in addition to any interest adjudged on such principal sum for
any period prior to the institution of the suit. The court may also order further
interest on such principal sum from the date of the decree to the date of
payment or to such earlier date as the Court thinks fit. This provision
recognizes the time value of money and the potential losses incurred due to
delays in legal proceedings.
8. C Section 35(1) of the CPC grants courts the discretion to determine by whom
and to what extent the costs of and incidental to all suits shall be paid. This
includes the power to give necessary directions for these purposes. The
provision embodies the principle that the awarding of costs is a matter best
left to the judicial discretion of the court, based on the specifics of each case.
9. B Section 35A(1) of the CPC provides that a court may order compensatory
costs against a party whose claim or defense is found to be false or
vexatious, and such claim or defense is disallowed, abandoned, or
withdrawn, in whole or in part. This section is designed to deter frivolous
litigation and penalize parties who bring or defend claims without any
substantial basis, thus ensuring the efficiency and integrity of the judicial
process.
10. B Section 26(1) of the CPC specifies that every suit shall be instituted by
presenting a plaint or in another prescribed manner. Following this, as per
Section 27, a summons is issued to the defendant to appear and answer the
claim, which must be served in the manner prescribed. This process
underscores the formal and structured nature of initiating legal proceedings
in civil courts.
11. B Section 39(1) of the CPC allows for the transfer of a decree for execution to
another court if the person against whom the decree is passed resides,
carries on business, or has property within the jurisdiction of that other court.
Additionally, it can be transferred if the decree directs the sale or delivery of
immovable property outside the jurisdiction of the court which passed it. This
provision ensures that the execution of decrees is carried out effectively,
respecting the geographical and jurisdictional aspects.
12. B Section 47(1) of the CPC stipulates that all questions arising between the
parties to the suit (or their representatives) related to the execution,
discharge, or satisfaction of the decree shall be determined by the court
40
executing the decree, not by a separate suit. This provision is designed to
streamline the execution process and avoid multiplicity of proceedings.
13. B Section 51 of the CPC provides a range of methods for the enforcement of a
decree, including the delivery of specific property, attachment and sale of
property, arrest and detention in prison, appointing a receiver, or any other
manner as the nature of the relief may require. This provision ensures
flexibility and appropriateness in the execution process, catering to the
specifics of each decree.
14. B Section 55(1) of the CPC lays down specific conditions for the arrest and
detention of a judgment-debtor. It includes provisions like no entry into a
dwelling-house after sunset and before sunrise, breaking open doors under
certain conditions, allowing privacy for women, and releasing the debtor
upon payment of the decree amount. These provisions ensure a balance
between effective decree execution and respect for individual rights and
public convenience.
15. B Section 63(1) of the CPC states that when property not in custody of any
court is under attachment in execution of decrees of more than one court,
the court of the highest grade or, where there is no difference in grade, the
court under whose decree the property was first attached, shall deal with the
property. This provision ensures orderly and authoritative resolution in
situations involving multiple attachments.
16. B Section 73(1) of the CPC specifies that when assets are held by a court from
an execution sale, and several decree-holders have applied for execution of
decrees for the payment of money against the same judgment-debtor before
the receipt of these assets, the assets, after deducting the costs of
realization, shall be rateably distributed among all such persons. This
provision aims to ensure a fair and proportionate distribution of assets
among multiple decree-holders.
17. B Section 75 of the CPC empowers the court to issue commissions for various
purposes such as examining persons, making local investigations,
examining or adjusting accounts, making partitions, holding scientific,
technical, or expert investigations, conducting sales of perishable property,
and performing any ministerial act. This provision provides courts with the
necessary tools to effectively gather evidence and perform essential
functions related to legal proceedings.
18. C Section 64(1) of the CPC states that where an attachment has been made,
any private transfer or delivery of the attached property or any interest
41
therein and any payment to the judgment-debtor contrary to the attachment
shall be void against all claims enforceable under the attachment. This
provision seeks to protect the interests of the attaching creditor against
subsequent transfers that might defeat or delay the execution of the decree.
19. C Section 55(3) and (4) of the CPC outline that when a judgment-debtor is
arrested in execution of a decree for payment of money and brought before
the court, the court shall inform them of their right to apply to be declared an
insolvent. If the judgment-debtor expresses their intention to apply for
insolvency and furnishes security, the court may release them from arrest.
This provision ensures that judgment-debtors are informed of their legal
rights and are provided an opportunity to resolve their insolvency status.
20. B Section 65 of the CPC states that when immovable property is sold in
execution of a decree and such sale has become absolute, the property is
deemed to have vested in the purchaser from the time when the property is
sold, not from the time when the sale becomes absolute. This provision
clarifies the point of transfer of title in the context of property sold during
execution, ensuring legal certainty for both the purchaser and other parties
involved.
21. C Section 47(3) of the CPC specifically addresses the question of whether a
person is or is not the representative of a party for the purposes of execution
proceedings. This provision ensures that any ambiguity regarding the
representation in the execution process is clarified by the executing court,
thereby preventing potential legal disputes and confusion in the enforcement
of the decree.
22. C Section 94 of the CPC provides the Court with various powers to prevent the
ends of justice from being defeated, including issuing arrest warrants,
directing defendants to furnish security or attaching their property, granting
temporary injunctions (not permanent), and appointing receivers. The option
of granting a permanent injunction is not included in the powers listed under
this section, reflecting the temporary and immediate nature of the remedies
that Section 94 aims to provide.
23. B Section 95(1) of the CPC allows for compensation to be awarded to a
defendant when an arrest, attachment, or injunction in a suit was obtained
on insufficient grounds, or when the plaintiff's suit fails and there were no
reasonable or probable grounds for instituting it. This provision serves as a
safeguard against the misuse of judicial processes for arrest, attachment, or
injunction and aims to compensate the defendant for any unwarranted legal
42
actions taken against them.
24. B Section 96(3) of the CPC explicitly states that no appeal shall lie from a
decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties. This provision
reflects the principle that parties who have consented to a decree are
presumed to have accepted its terms voluntarily, thus eliminating the need
for an appeal. Appeals from ex parte decrees and decrees from which
appeals are provided in the Code are allowed, but there is a limitation on
appeals based on the value of the subject matter in suits of the nature
cognizable by Courts of Small Causes.
25. C Section 114 of the CPC allows any person who considers themselves
aggrieved by a decree or order (from which an appeal is allowed but not
preferred, or from which no appeal is allowed) to apply for a review of
judgment. This provision recognizes the right of any party affected by a
judgment to seek its review, provided they meet the criteria of being
'aggrieved' by it. It allows for judicial decisions to be re-examined in light of
potential errors, new evidence, or other pertinent factors.
26. B Section 107(1) of the CPC provides the Appellate Court with broad powers
in handling appeals. These include the power to determine a case finally,
remand a case (send it back to a lower court for further action), frame issues
and refer them for trial, and take additional evidence or require such
evidence to be taken. This range of powers allows the Appellate Court to
address various aspects of a case, ensuring comprehensive justice by
considering new evidence, revisiting the framing of issues, or even
remanding cases where it deems necessary for further proceedings in the
lower court.
27. B Section 113 of the CPC allows a lower court to refer a case to the High
Court when it involves a question regarding the validity of an Act, Ordinance,
Regulation, or any provision contained therein, and such a question is
necessary for the disposal of the case. This provision is pivotal for ensuring
that lower courts can seek guidance from the High Court on complex legal
issues, particularly those concerning the validity of legislative provisions,
thereby upholding the principle of legal certainty and consistency.
28. B Section 145 of the CPC stipulates that the liability of a surety can be
enforced in the manner provided for the execution of decrees. This includes
executing the decree against the surety to the extent of their personal liability
if they have rendered themselves personally liable, and/or by the sale of
property if they have furnished any property as security. The method of
43
enforcement depends on the nature of the security provided by the surety,
making it a flexible mechanism that accommodates various forms of surety
arrangements.
29. B Under Section 94(c) of
30. B Section 99 of the CPC posits that no decree shall be reversed, modified, or a
case remanded in appeal due to any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or
any error, defect, or irregularity in proceedings, provided these do not affect
the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the Court. This principle
underscores the importance of substantial justice over procedural
technicalities, ensuring that judicial decisions are not overturned on minor
procedural grounds that do not impact the final decision's fairness or legality.
31. B Section 97 of the CPC states that if a party aggrieved by a preliminary
decree does not appeal against it, they are barred from challenging its
correctness in any subsequent appeal from the final decree. This provision
aims to promote finality in litigation and prevent parties from circumventing
the appeal process by not challenging preliminary decrees but later disputing
them during appeals against final decrees.
32. B Section 103 of the CPC allows the High Court, in any second appeal, to
determine any issue necessary for the disposal of the appeal if the evidence
on record is sufficient. This can be done for issues not determined by the
lower appellate court or both by the Court of first instance and the lower
appellate court, or for issues that have been wrongly determined due to a
decision on a question of law. This provision empowers the High Court to
ensure that all relevant facts have been correctly ascertained and applied in
the context of the legal issues raised in the second appeal.
33. B Section 99 of the CPC states that a decree shall not be reversed or
substantially varied, nor a case remanded in an appeal, due to any
misjoinder or non-joinder of parties, or any error, defect, or irregularity in the
proceedings, provided these do not affect the merits of the case or the
jurisdiction of the court. This provision aims to ensure that technical
procedural irregularities that do not impact the substantive justice of the case
do not lead to the reversal or significant alteration of decrees.
34. C Section 146 of the CPC states that where any proceeding may be taken or
application made by or against any person, then the same may be taken or
made by or against any person claiming under him. This provision extends
the scope of legal proceedings to include not just the original parties to a suit
but also their representatives or anyone claiming under them, ensuring the
44
continuity and comprehensiveness of legal actions.
35. C Refer Section 147
36. C According to Section 148A(5) of the CPC, a caveat lodged under sub-
section (1) shall not remain in force after the expiry of ninety days from the
date on which it was lodged, unless the application referred to in sub-section
(1) has been made before the expiry of the said period.
37. B Section 149 of the CPC empowers the Court to allow the person by whom
such fee is payable, at any stage of the proceeding, to pay the whole or part
of such court-fee.
38. C Section 151 of the CPC saves the inherent power of the Court to make such
orders as may be necessary for the ends of justice or to prevent abuse of
the process of the Court.
39. C Section 152 of the CPC allows the Court to correct clerical or arithmetical
mistakes in judgments, decrees, or orders, or errors arising therein from any
accidental slip or omission.
40. B Section 153 of the CPC provides the Court the power to amend any defect
or error in any proceeding in a suit, necessary for determining the real
question or issue raised by or depending on such proceeding.
41. C Order I Rule 1 allows the joining of multiple persons as plaintiffs when any
right to relief in respect of, or arising out of, the same act or transaction or
series of acts or transactions is alleged to exist in such persons, and if such
persons brought separate suits, any common question of law or fact would
arise.
42. C Order I, Rule 2 of the CPC empowers the Court to order separate trials if the
joinder of plaintiffs may embarrass or delay the trial of the suit.
43. B Order I, Rule 3 allows the joinder of all persons as defendants where a right
to relief against them is alleged to exist, concerning the same act or
transaction.
44. D According to Order I, Rule 4, the Court can give judgment for or against one
or more of the joint parties without any amendment, based on their
entitlement or liability.
45. B Rule 5 clarifies that it is not necessary for every defendant to be interested in
all the relief claimed in any suit against them.
46. C Refer Order I Rule 6.
47. B Rule 3A of Order VIII requires that in suits before the Commercial Division of
a High Court, when a defendant denies an allegation, they must provide
45
reasons for the denial and, if applicable, state their own version of the
events.
48. B Rule 4 of Order VIII mandates that a defendant must not deny allegations
evasively. In case of allegations regarding receiving money, they must deny
receiving that sum or any part of it or specify the amount received.
49. B As per Rule 5 of Order VIII, every allegation of fact in the plaint, if not denied
specifically or by necessary implication, is taken to be admitted, except as
against a person under disability.
50. C Order IX, Rule 3 provides that if neither party appears at the hearing, the
court may dismiss the suit.
51. B Order X, Rule 1 requires the court at the first hearing of the suit to ascertain
from each party or their pleader whether they admit or deny the allegations
of fact made in the plaint or written statement.
52. C As per Order XII, Rule 2, if a party neglects or refuses to admit a document
after the service of the notice to admit documents, they must bear the costs
of proving the document, unless the court directs otherwise.
53. B Rule 1 of Order XIII mandates that the parties or their pleaders shall produce
all the documentary evidence in original on or before the settlement of
issues.
54. C Order XIV, Rule 1(4) specifies that issues are of two kinds: issues of fact and
issues of law.
55. B Rule 1 of Order XIX provides that a court may order any particular fact or
facts to be proved by affidavit whenever it finds it reasonable and for
sufficient reason.
56. B Order VIII, Rule 2 requires the defendant to raise by his pleading all matters
which show the suit to be not maintainable or that the transaction is void or
voidable, among other defenses.
57. C Rule 2 of Order IX provides that if the summons has not been served due to
the plaintiff's failure to pay the required fees or charges, the court may
dismiss the suit.
58. A Correct Answer: A) To direct parties to opt for alternative dispute
resolutionRule 1A of Order X directs the court, after recording admissions
and denials, to guide the parties to opt for a mode of settlement outside the
court as specified under section 89.
59. B Rule 2(2) of Order XIV allows the court to try an issue of law first if it relates
to the court's jurisdiction or a legal bar to the suit. This can be done before
46
settling other issues.
60. C Order XXI, Rule 1 specifies the modes of paying money under a decree,
which include deposit into the court, payment by postal money order or
through a bank, or as directed by the court. Payment through a credit facility
arranged by the court is not mentioned in the Code.
61. B When a payment is made out of court under a decree, the decree-holder
must certify such payment to the court responsible for executing the decree,
as per Order XXI, Rule 2(1).
62. B According to Order XXII, Rule 3(1), if a sole plaintiff dies and the right to sue
survives, the court shall, upon application, make the legal representative of
the deceased plaintiff a party and proceed with the suit.
63. A Order XXV, Rule 1 empowers the court to order the plaintiff to give security
for the payment of costs incurred and likely to be incurred by any defendant,
at any stage of a suit.
64. B Order XXVI provides for the issuance of a commission for examining
witnesses who are unable to attend the court due to exemptions under the
Code, or due to sickness or infirmity.
65. B Order XXVII specifies that in suits by or against the government, the plaint or
written statement shall be signed and verified by a person appointed by the
government.
66. B Order XXXII Rule 1 states that a minor must sue through a next friend. This
is to ensure that the minor's interests are adequately represented in the suit.
67. B Order XXXIII defines an 'indigent person' as someone who lacks sufficient
means (other than exempt property and the subject-matter of the suit) to pay
the prescribed fee for the plaint.
68. C An interpleader suit allows a plaintiff, who claims no interest in the subject-
matter other than charges or costs, to seek the court's intervention in
resolving claims made by multiple defendants on the same property or
subject-matter.
69. B Order XXXVIII allows for the arrest of a defendant before judgment if the
court is satisfied that the defendant may obstruct or delay the execution of
any decree that may be passed against him, as stated in Rule 1.
70. B According to Order XXI, Rule 2(3), a payment or adjustment that has not
been certified or recorded will not be recognized by any court executing the
decree. This emphasizes the importance of formally recording such
transactions.
47
71. D
72. B
73. B
74. A
75. A
76. B
77. C
78. D
79. D
80. D
81. D
82. C
83. D
84. A
85. B
86. D
87. B
88. C
89. D
90. B
91. C
92. D
93. A
94. D
95. D
96. B
97. B
98. C
99. B
100. C
101. C
102. B
48
103. C
104. D
105. C
106. C
107. C
108. C
109. B
110. D
111. C Section 3A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, specifically deals with the
designation of Commercial Appellate Courts at the District Judge level by
the State Government.
112. C According to Section 2(i) of the Act, the specified value in relation to a
commercial dispute shall not be less than three lakh rupees.
113. C Section 2(c) of the Act lists various types of commercial disputes, including
those related to franchising agreements, intellectual property rights, and
agreements for the sale of goods. Family law disputes are not included.
114. C As per Section 2(e) of the Act, "District Judge" refers to the meaning
assigned to it in clause (a) of Article 236 of the Constitution of India.
115. C Section 4(1) of the Act specifies that High Courts with ordinary original civil
jurisdiction can have a Commercial Division.
116. B Sections 4(2) and 5(2) of the Act state that the Chief Justice of a High Court
nominates Judges for the Commercial Division and Commercial Appellate
Division.
117. D Section 3(2) of the Act mandates that the jurisdiction of a Commercial Court
extends to the local limits of the area specified by the State Government.
118. C Section 8 expressly prohibits civil revision applications or petitions against
any interlocutory order of a Commercial Court.
119. B Section 7 of the Act specifies that the Commercial Division of a High Court
hears suits and applications relating to commercial disputes of a specified
value.
120. C Section 10(1) of the Act states that applications or appeals arising out of
international commercial arbitration are to be heard by the Commercial
Division of the High Court.
121. C As per Section 3(2), a State Government notification under this section
specifies the local limits of the jurisdiction of a Commercial Court.
49
122. B Section 5(1) explains that the Commercial Appellate Division exercises
jurisdiction and powers conferred on it by the Act, including hearing appeals
against orders of the Commercial Division.
123. C Under Section 2(c)(xxii), the Central Government has the power to notify
additional types of commercial disputes.
124. B Section 10 specifically addresses the jurisdiction of the Commercial Courts
and Divisions in respect of arbitration matters.
125. C As per the Explanation to Section 2(c), a commercial dispute does not
cease to be so merely because it involves a State or its agencies.
126. C Section 12(a) specifies that for suits seeking monetary recovery, the
Specified Value is determined by the money sought, including any interest
computed up to the filing date.
127. B Section 12(b) clearly states that for disputes related to movable property,
the market value of the property on the filing date is considered for
determining the Specified Value.
128. C For immovable property disputes, Section 12(c) mandates that the market
value as of the suit's filing date is used to determine the Specified Value.
129. A Section 12(d) states that for suits involving intangible rights, the Specified
Value is determined based on the market value estimated by the plaintiff.
130. B Section 12A(1) exempts suits requiring urgent interim relief from the
obligation of pre-institution mediation.
131. C Section 12A(3) sets a three-month period for mediation, which can be
extended by another two months with the parties' consent.
132. C Section 13(1) and (1A) specify a 60-day time frame for filing appeals against
the judgment or order of a Commercial Court.
133. B Section 14 states that the Commercial Appellate Court should aim to
dispose of appeals within six months of filing.
134. B Section 15(2) states that suits where the final judgment is reserved prior to
the constitution of the Commercial Division/Court will not be transferred.
135. C Section 15(3) implies that for transferred suits, procedures completed before
the transfer remain valid under the Commercial Division or Court.
136. B Section 16(3) clarifies that in case of any conflict, the provisions of the Code
as amended by the Commercial Courts Act will prevail.
137. C Section 17 requires Commercial Courts to maintain and publish statistical
data regarding case filings, pendency, and disposals.
50
138. B Section 18 empowers the High Court to issue practice directions that
supplement Chapter II of the Act or the CPC.
139. B Section 20 discusses the State Government's role in establishing training
facilities for judges of Commercial Courts.
140. B Section 21 states that the provisions of the Act will have effect
notwithstanding any inconsistency with other laws in force.
141. A The Commercial Courts Act, 2015 came into force on 23.10.2015.
142. D Refer Section 2
143. B Refer Section 2
144. A
145. A
146. A
147. B
148. B
149. A
150. B
151. B The committee has recommended a minimum imprisonment of six months
for those selling adulterated food or drinks.
152. C The BNSS 2023 does not specify a time frame for the President’s decision
on mercy petitions,
153. C Bhat was released on bail with the condition of wearing a GPS tracker
anklet to monitor his movements.
154. B The guidelines aim at expediting the resolution of criminal cases against
MPs and MLAs.
155. C The Election Commission of India oversees the allocation of symbols to
political parties.
156. B An affidavit is defined as an "affirmation and declaration" made by
individuals permitted to affirm or declare instead of swearing.
157. C The court pointed out the gap in implementing the POSH Act in small
establishments and domestic work settings.
158. C The Supreme Court has set a compensation amount of Rs 30 lakh for the
kin of those who lose their lives while cleaning sewers.
159. C The trust accused various online platforms of reproducing copyrighted
works related to religious texts and commentaries.
51
160. B The Supreme Court declined to recognize same-sex marriages and civil
unions for non-heterosexual couples.
161. B The Supreme Court referred the petitions challenging the Electoral Bonds
Scheme to a Constitution Bench to assess its constitutionality.
162. B The seven-judge bench will hear pleas challenging the government's use of
the money bill route to assess the legal validity of this practice.
163. B The Delhi High Court issued a dynamic injunction against nine websites to
prevent the illegal broadcasting of the World Cup matches.
164. C The Supreme Court decided to review the case due to concerns about the
interpretation of Articles 105(2) and 194(2) of the Constitution.
165. B The formation of the seven-judge bench is to hear challenges regarding the
classification of bills as money bills and their passage in India’s
parliamentary system.
166. C The BNSS 2023 introduces a change by removing the requirement for the
President to align with the council of ministers’ advice in death sentence
cases.
167. C The Supreme Court overruled a previous decision and stated that
advocates can solemnize "self-respect" marriages under Section 7(A)
without the need for traditional rituals.
168. B The draft SOP proposes a more harmonious engagement between the
judiciary and government officials, focusing on a balanced approach in court
proceedings.
169. C The handbook aims to address gender stereotypes by advocating for the
use of gender-neutral and accurate language in legal proceedings.
170. B The PRP Bill, 2023 aims to update and simplify the registration process for
periodicals, acknowledging the evolution of the media landscape.
171. C The new guidelines set a minimum age of 45 years to apply for the ‘senior
advocate’ designation, though this limit may be relaxed in certain cases.
172. C Both High Courts have ruled that the right to change one's name is
protected under Article 21 of the Constitution, which guarantees the right to
life.
173. C The Law Commission has proposed amendments to prevent misuse of the
sedition law while safeguarding constitutional rights and providing clarity.
174. B The Draft Aircraft Bill, 2023 aims to establish an effective regulatory
framework for various aspects of aircraft operations, reflecting the need for
52
modernized regulations.
175. C Forum shopping refers to selecting a court based on expected favorable
outcomes. In common law countries, the principle of non-conveniens is
used to prevent this practice by allowing courts to refuse jurisdiction if
another forum is more suitable.
176. A
177. B
178. B
179. A
180. B
181. A
182. B
183. D
184. B
185. D
186. B
187. B
188. D
189. A
190. C
191. B
192. C
193. C
194. C
195. C
196. D
197. C
198. C
199. C
200. B
53

DJS Paper Iii With Answer Key 25-11-2023

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

DJS Paper Iii With Answer Key 25-11-2023

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Rahul’s a blue p rint of success

DELHI JUDICIAL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAMINATION - 2023

Total Questions: 200

You might also like