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Allen Test Class 11 3
Allen Test Class 11 3
FORM NUMBER
Path to Success
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(ACADEMIC SESSION 2021-2022)
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil
is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 Hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. Question Paper Formate : The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
SECTION – 1 : Contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct. For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened.In all other cases minus
one (–1) mark will be awarded.
SECTION-2 : This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out
of 10. If more than 5 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value Type questions.“For each question, enter the correct numerical
value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30,
30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
For each question you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken all the bubble(s) corresponding to only the
correct answer(s) and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for incorrect
answers in this section.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the
Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone any
electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/
Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Chandigarh Center:
1 2 1 1
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) cos (D) cos
3 3
ˆi ˆi 3ˆ 4ˆ ˆi ˆj
(A) ˆi ˆj (B) (C) i j (D)
2 2 5 5 5
CDG/2001CJA101721001 1/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
6. A force of 120 N and a force of 20 N acting simultaneously at a point may produce a resultant force
of
(A) 80 N (B) 140 N (C) 160 N (D) none of the above
7. The vector A is :
(A) greater than A in magnitude (B) less than A in magnitude
(C) in the same direction as A (D) in the direction opposite to A
8. Find the derivative of given functions w.r.t. corresponding independent variable
y = x2 + sin x
(A) 2x – cos x (B) 2x + cos x (C) – 2x + cos x (D) – 2x – cos x
9. If the position of a particle changes from (1,2,3) m to (5,4,2) m, then find the displacement vector.
(A) 4iˆ 2jˆ kˆ (B) 4iˆ 2jˆ kˆ (C) 4iˆ 2ˆj kˆ (D) 4iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
dy
10. If y = x2 then is
dx
x3 x3
(A) x2
(B) 2x (C) (D) C
3 3
11. If y = x2 + x then
dy dy d2y d2y
(A) 2x x (B) 2x 1 (C) 2x (D) 1
dx dx dx 2 dx 2
Space For Rough Work
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12. x
a b c d
dy
is zero
dx
(A) At x = a (B) At x = b
(C) At x = d (D) None of the marked points
13. The minimum value of y = x2 – 2x + 1 is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 4
14. Which of the following vector can’t be equal to the resultant of 5 and 10 -
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 8
15. The equation of graph shown in figure is y = 2x2. The slope of graph at point P is :
y
P(1, 2)
CDG/2001CJA101721001 3/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
16. The vectors a and b are such that |a b| |a b|, then the angle between a and b will be :–
(A) 11iˆ 26ˆj 1kˆ (B) 4iˆ 4ˆj 6kˆ (C) 14iˆ 38ˆj 16kˆ (D) 11iˆ 26ˆj kˆ
dy
18. If y = sinx + cosx then is :-
dx
(A) sinx – cosx (B) cosx – sinx (C) –(sinx + cosx) (D) None of these
19. If A 60iˆ 15jˆ 3kˆ and B 2iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ , then A.B is :-
(A) 195 units (B) 45 units (C) 75 units (D) 100 units
20. Area of a parallelogram, whose diagonals are 3 i j 2k and i 3j 4k will be :–
4/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more
than 5 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value Type questions.“For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25,
7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. If a particle move 2m east, 3m north and 6m west then find the magnitude of resultant displacement?
2. If a 3iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and b 2iˆ 2ˆj 4kˆ ; then find value of a ·b .
dy
4. Given a function y x2 . Find , when x = 3 ?
dx
5. Value of t dt is
0
CDG/2001CJA101721001 5/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
6. Momentum of a body moving in a straight line is p = (t2 + 2t+1) kg m/s. Force acting on the body at
t = 2 s is [Given : F = dp/dt]
10
7. Given that y . Minimum value of y is
sin x 3 cos x
8. The height (in meters) at any time t (in seconds) of a ball thrown vertically varies according to equation
h t 16t 2 256t . How long after in seconds the ball reaches the highest point.
9. A curve is represented by y = 1000 ( ln x). What is approximate change in y, when x changes from
10 to 10.05?
10. If ˆi 2ˆj nkˆ is perpendicular to 4iˆ 2jˆ 2kˆ then magnitude of n is
Space For Rough Work
6/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
PART B - CHEMISTRY
SECTION–1 : (Maximum Marks : 80)
This section contains TWENTY questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
1. A sample of calcium carbonate (CaCO3) has the following percentage composition : Ca = 40%,
C = 12%, O = 48%. If the law of constant proportions is true, then the weight of calcium in 4 g of a
sample of calcium carbonate obtained from another source will be
(A) 0.016 g (B) 0.16 g (C) 1.6 g (D) 16 g
2. Four containers of 2L capacity contains dinitrogen as described below. Which one contains
maximum number of molecules under similar conditions.
(A) 2.5 g-molecules of N2 (B) 4 g-atom of nitrogen
(C) 3.01 × 1024 N atoms (D) 84 g of dinitrogen
3. 13.4 g of Na2SO4.xH2O gives 6.3 g H2O on strong heating. What is the value of x ?
(A) 6 (B)7 (C) 8 (D) 9
4. Natural Silver exist in two isotopic forms, Ag107 & Ag109 . The average atomic mass of Silver is
108.1. Find % by mole of Ag107 isotope.
(A) 35% (B) 55% (C) 50% (D) 45%
Space For Rough Work
CDG/2001CJA101721001 7/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
5. The vapour density of a mixture containing NO2 and N2O4 is 27.6. The mole fraction of N2O4 in the
mixture is:
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.8
6. Find the empirical formula of a hydrocarbon, 1.4 g of which on complete combustion give 4.4 g CO2 and
1.8 g H2O.
(A) CH3 (B) CH4 (C) CH2 (D) CH
7. The mass % of O in monovalent metal carbonate is 48%. Find the atomic mass of metal
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
8. Phosphorus react with Cl2 to produce PCl3(l) according to reaction.
P4 + 6Cl2 (g) 4PCl3(l)
If the density of PCl3(l) is 1.2g/cc
How many kg of phosphorus is needed to produce 13.75 litres of PCl3(l)
(A) 3.25 kg (B) 3.75 kg (C) 3.70kg (D) 3.72 kg
9. The calcium in 0.80 g sample is precipitated as CaC2O4. The precipitate is washed, dried and ignited
to CaCO3 and found to weigh 0.3 g.
The percentage of CaO in the sample is
(A) 42% (B) 72% (C) 21% (D) 32%
10. Two successive reactions, A B and B C, have yields of 90% and 80%, respectively. What is the
overall percentage yield for conversion of A to C ?
(A) 90% (B) 80% (C) 72% (D) 85%
Space For Rough Work
8/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
11. From the following series of reaction
What is the mass of chlorine needed to produce 27.7g of KClO4 ?
Cl2 + 2KOH KCl + KClO + H2O
3KClO 2KCl + KClO3
4KClO3 3KClO4 + KCl
(A) 55.5 g (B) 53.4 g (C) 56.8 g (D) 57.6 g
12. Equal mass of phosphorus and oxygen are heated in a closed vessel, producing P2O3 and P2O5 in
1 : 1 mole ratio. Find out which component is in excess, and what fraction of excess reagent is left.
(A) O; 6.25% (B) P; 3.125% (C) O; 3.125% (D) P ; 6.25%
13. 10 mL. H2O (d = 1 g/mL) is mixed with 4 mL methyl alcohol (d = 0.8 g/mL) and if the final solution
has the density 1.1 g/mL, then calculate Molarity ‘M’ of alcohol solution.
(A) 8.43 M (B) 8.33 M (C) 8.53 M (D) 8.63 M
14. 200 mL of 1M HCl solution is mixed with 800 mL of 2M HCl solution. If density of final solution is
1.2 g/mL. Calculate molality ‘m’
(A) 1.62 m (B) 1.59 m (C) 1.69 m (D)1.65 m
15. The element having highest percentage by weight in Fe2(SO4)3 is :
(At.wt. Fe = 56, S = 32, O = 16)
(A) Fe (B) S (C) O (D) cannot say
CDG/2001CJA101721001 9/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
16. On analysis, a certain compound was found to contain iodine and oxygen in the ratio of
254 : 80. The empirical formula of the compound is :
[Atomic mass : I = 127, O = 16]
(A) IO (B) I2O (C) I5O2 (D) I2O5
17. Law of multiple proportions is not applicable for the oxide(s) of
(A) carbon (B) iron (C) nitrogen (D) aluminium
18.. A quantity of 13.5 g of aluminium when changes to Al3+ ion in solution, will lose (Al = 27)
(A) 18.0 × 1023 electrons (B) 6.02 × 1023 electrons
(C) 3.01 × 1023 electrons (D) 9.1 × 1023 electrons
19. A quantity of 5 g of a crystalline salt when rendered anhydrous lost 1.8 g of water. The formula mass
of the anhydrous salt is 160. The number of molecules of water of crystallization in the salt is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) 1
20. The concentration of same aqueous solution of glucose is determined by two students-Sawan and
Gautam. Sawan reported the concentration as 20% (w/w) and Gautam reported the concentration as
25% (w/v). If both the concentrations are correct, then the density of solution is
(A) 0.8 g/ml (B) 1.0 g/ml (C) 1.25 g/ml (D) 1.33 g/ml
Space For Rough Work
10/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more
than 5 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value Type questions.“For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25,
7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. A 5.00 gm sample of a natural gas, consisting of methane CH4, and ethylene, C2H4 was burned in
44
excess oxygen, yielding gm of CO2 and some H2O as products. What mole % of the sample was
3
ethylene?
2. Molarity of 98% (by mass) of H2SO4 having density 1.75 gm /cc is
[ Consider H2SO4 is solute ]
3. What is the molarity of a 10% (w /v) solution of NaOH ?
4. How much water should be added to prepare 1L of 0.646 M HCl starting with 2 M HCl solution.
5. 1.11g CaCl2 is added to water forming 500 ml of solution. 20 ml of this solution is taken and diluted 10
folds. Then moles of Cl– ions in 2 ml of diluted solution are ....... × 10–6
CDG/2001CJA101721001 11/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
6. The percentage of an element M is 53 in its oxide of molecular formula M2O3. Its atomic mass is
about
7. Ratio of densities of ozone and oxygen is.......... (under the same temperature & pressure)
8. One mole of potassium chlorate (KClO3) is thermally decomposed and excess of aluminium is burnt
in the gaseous product. How many mol of aluminium oxide (Al2O3) are formed ?
9. When a mixture of aluminium powder and iron (III) oxide is ignited, it produces molten iron
and aluminium oxide. In an experiment, 5.4 g of aluminium was mixed with 18.5 g of iron (III) oxide.
At the end of the reaction, the mixture contained 11.2 g of iron, 10.2 g of aluminium oxide, and an
undetermined amount of unreacted iron (III) oxide. No aluminium was left. What is the mass of the
iron (III) oxide left?
10. The molecular formula of a compound is X409. If the compound contains 40% X, by mass, what is
the atomic mass of X?
Space For Rough Work
12/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
PART C - MATHEMATICS
SECTION–1 : (Maximum Marks : 80)
This section contains TWENTY questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
CDG/2001CJA101721001 13/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
(x 7)(x 9)
6. The complete set of solutions of the inequality (x 2 2x 5)(x 2 1) 0 is
2
1 1
7. If a 4 then a 3 equals to (where a > 0)
a a3
9. The value of 5 2 6 is
10. If f(x) is a cubic polynomial such that f(1) = 1, f(2) = 2, f(3) = 3 with leading coefficient 1 then the
value of f(4) is
(A) 10 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 2
14/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
12. If 2 x 5 x 2 then the integral value of x is
1 1
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) (D)
2 4
3 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 0
2 2
(A) x 2 4 x 2, 2 (B) 9 3
(C) 9 3 (D) x 3 8 0 x 2 , (x R)
Space For Rough Work
CDG/2001CJA101721001 15/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
2
2
(A) (B)
–1 0 1
–1 0 1
2
(C) (D)
–1 0 1 –1 0 1
16/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001
Advance Nurture Course/Phase-II/01-03-2021
SECTION-2 : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more
than 5 questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a Numerical Value Type questions.“For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25,
7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer.
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1 1 1
2 2
1 2 1
5. If x2 – x + 1 = 0 then the value of x x is
x x2
x3 64
6. If 9x + 6x = 2.4x then the value of 16
is
CDG/2001CJA101721001 17/20
Target : JEE (Main + Advanced) 2023/01-03-2021
9. x 7 7 7........ ,x 0
y 6 6 6 ........ , y 0
18/20 CDG/2001CJA101721001