Combined Civil MCQ

MAINTENANCE OF TRACK IN TRACK CIRCUITED AREAS
1. Which type of liner is used in track circuited areas?

A) Metal B) GFN C) Both D) Not Required
2. Pulling back of running rails in track should be done in track-circuited areas in the presence of S&T
staff, where signalling connections are involved.
A) Electrical staff B) Signal staff C) Traffic staff D) None of these
3. In case of track circuiting, minimum ballast resistance per kilometre of track should not be less than
----- per km in station yard:
A) 2 ohms B)3 ohms C) 4 ohms D) 5 ohms
4.In case of track circuiting, minimum ballast resistance per kilometre of track should not be less than
------- per km in the block section
A) 2 Ω B)3 Ω C) 4 Ω D) 5 Ω
5. Any hole drilled in the rail for providing S&T fixtures should be at ------
A) Foot of rail B) the neutral axis of the rail C) Any portion in web of rail D) None of these
6. Metallic tape should be used in Track circuited areas:
A) True B) False
7. In Track circuited area On PSC sleepers track, availability of insulated liners up to a minimum level of
------ shall be ensured.
A) 50% B)60% C)80% D) 97%
8. No signal fixtures/installation, which interferes with maintenance of track, should be provided on
track unless the approval for same is available from
A) Track Directorate of RDSO B) Railway Board C) Any one of (A) & (B) D) None of these
9. In case of curves in track circuited area, efforts should be made to keep ------ rail as positive rail.
A) Inner B) Outer C) both D) none of these
10. All gauges, levels and trolleys used in the track-circuited length should be insulated.
A) True B) False
MAINTENANCE OF TRACK IN ELECTRIFIED AREAS
1. Defects or break down in overhead equipment including track and structure bonds noticed by
the engineering staff shall be reported immediately to……
(a)Traction power controller (b) MTS (c) SM (d) SSE(P-way)
2. In electrified areas the return current fully or partially flows through the -------.
(a)Rail (b) Earthing arrangement (c) OHE mast (d) None of these
3. -------- are provided between adjacent tracks at regular intervals to reduce resistance of the
current to the minimum.
a) Cross bond (b) Longitudinal bond (c) square bond (d) Structure bond
4. --------- are also known as Transverse bonds.
Cross bonds (b) Longitudinal bonds (c) square bonds (d) Structure bonds
5. Any hole drilled in the rail for providing OHE bonds should be at
(a) the foot of rail (b) the web area of the rail
(c)the neutral axis of the rail (d) None of these
6. In electrified area no work shall be done within a distance of ------ metres from the live parts of
the OHE without a ‘permit to work’
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 5
7. In electrified area no part of the tree shall be nearer than ______metres from the nearest live
conductor
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
8 ) In electrified area track which of the following statement is true
In all cases of discontinuity of rails, the two parts of the rail shall not be touched with bare hands; Gloves
of approved quality shall be used.
Before Fish plates are loosened /removed temporarily connection shall be made.
a) (i) (b) Both (i) & (ii) (c) (ii) (d) None of these
9) When unloading rails along tracks, care should be taken to ensure that rails do not touch each other
to form a continuous metallic mass for length greater than………. meter.
(a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) 1200
10) Permanent way staffs are advised to keep clear of the tracks and avoid contact with the rails when
an electrically hauled train is within ______meter
A) 250 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500
11) In electrified areas, Minimum height from rail level to the underside of contact wire under bridges
and in tunnels should be……..meter
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.0 (d) 5.3
12) In electrified areas, Minimum height from rail level to the underside of contact wire at level crossing
should be……. meter
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.5 (d) 5.3
13) In electrified areas, Minimum height from rail level to the underside of contact wire within block
section/open space should be……..meter
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.5 (d) 5.3
14) In electrified areas, Minimum height from rail level to the underside of contact wire in running &
carriage shade should be……..meter
(a) 3.5 (b) 4.8 (c) 5.5 (d) 5.8
15) -------- are provided at each rail joints under the fish plates for continuity of return current flows
through the rail
(a) Longitudinal bonds (b) Cross bonds (c) Straight bonds
(d) Structure bonds
16) All structures supporting overhead equipment either in AC or DC track circuited areas are connected
to the running rails by ------- for ensuring good earthing.
(a) Longitudinal bonds (b) Cross bonds (c) Straight bonds
(d)Structure bonds
17) In electrified area track
(i) In case fire is noticed adjacent to any electrified equipment, the Permanent Way Official shall make
no attempt to extinguish the fire but shall report the occurrence of fire to the nearest Station Master by
most expeditious means.
(ii) Steel tapes or metallic tapes with woven metal reinforcement or metallic staff should not be used in
electrified tracks
(iii) ) In electrified area, In case of rectification of rail fracture, the two ends of fractured rail shall be first
temporarily connected by a temporary metallic jumper
Only (i)&(ii) are true (b) All are true (c) only (i)&(iii) are true (d) None is true
18) The day to day trimming of the tree branches, wherever required, to maintain the 4 m safety
clearances from OHE shall be done by the ---------.
A) TRD staff B) electrical staff C) engineering staff D) none of these
ENGINEERING RESTRICTIONSS & INDICATORS
Q 1. The normal life of detonators is -------- years.
a)3 b) 5 c) 4 d) 6
Q 2. Safety radius of detonator while on testing
a) 45M b) 50M c) 30M d) 25M
Q 3. Detonating signal is also called
a) Fog signal B) Danger Signal C) Stop Signal D) Permissive Signal
Q 4. The testing of detonators should be done under an ------------ propelled by an engine.
a) empty 8-wheeled wagon b) empty 4-wheeled wagon
c) loaded 8-wheeled wagon d) loaded 4-wheeled wagon
Q 5. In one tin case, how many detonators are kept?
(a)12 b) 10 c) 8 d) 6
Q 6. While testing detonator speed of the empty wagon should be
a)10Kmph b) 30Kmph c) Walking Speed d) 20Kmph
Q 7. Disposal of time barred detonators can be done by soaking them in light mineral oil for ----------
hours and then throwing them one by one into fire with due precautions
a)12 b)36 c)24 d)48
Q 8.The life of thedetonators can be extended to ----- years on a yearly basis subject to the condition
that two detonators from each lot of over 5-year-old ones are tested for their effectiveness and the
results being found satisfactory.
a) ten b) nine c) seven d) eight
Q 9. Warning signal is indicated by ------- during day.
a) Red flag b) Green flashing hand signal lamp c) Banner Flag d) Green Flag
Q 10.Rail dolley working can be done only when the visibility is clear for at least ------ metre
a) 1200 b) 800 c) 500 d) none of these

Q 11.Rail dolley shall not be worked on sections having gradients steeper than ---------.
a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 300 c) 1 in 400 d) none of these
Q 12.Not more than ------ rail dolleys should be worked in a group in any one block section
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
Q 13. In case, a rail dolley is to carry rails longer than 3 rail panel or it is required to move over x-overs in
yard crossing more than one line in deep cuttings and curves then it should work under_____.
a) block protection b) without block protection (c) caution order (d) none of
these
Q 14.The rail dolley shall be protected by a flagman at a distance of ------ metre from the rail dolley, on a
double line in the direction from which trains may approach, and by two flagmen one on either direction
on single line.
Q 15. For intermediate tracks on triple or multiple lines, Engineering indicators should be fixed between
tracks to within ------ mm from rail-level, to avoid infringements of standard dimensions
a)200 b)300 c)400 d)500
Q 16. The height of bottom of T/P& T/G board should be ----- meter above rail level
a)1.5 b)1.6 c)1.65 d)2
Q 17. During poor visibility, two detonators, 10 meters apart should be fixed not less than ------ meter in
rear of the caution indicator.
a)200 b)270 c)140 d)600
Q 18. All indicators should be placed on ------ side as seen by the drivers except CTC sections.
a)Left hand b)Right hand c)Any side d) none of these
Q 19. The distance of placing caution indicator board from place of work for stop dead restrictions is
a)400M b)600M c)800M d)1200M
Q 20. The distance of placing caution indicator board from place of work for reduced speed is
a)400M b)600M c)800M d)1200M

Q 21. The distance of Stop dead indicator from place of work is
a)15M b)45M c)30M d)35M
Q 22. The distance of placing speed restriction indicator board from place of work for restricted speed
condition is
A)15M B)45M C)30M D)35M
Q 23. How many categories of engineering works are there?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
Q 24. Which of the following does not fall under works of routine maintenance?
a) Through packing b) Picking up slack c) Overhauling

d) Casual renewal of rails and sleeper
Q 25. Short duration works are those which are completed within
a)1 day b) 30 days c) 7 days d) None of these
Q 26. Works such as casual renewals of rails and sleepers, adjustment of creep & lubrication of rail joints
which are completed by sunset of the day of commencement and no restriction of speed thereafter is
required, are termed as
a) Works of long duration b) Works of short duration c) Temporary works d) None of the above
Q 27. To carryout engineering works of short duration ------ shall be used at specified distances to
protect the trains
a) Hand signal b) Banner Flags c) Detonators d) All of these
Q 28. The works such as relaying and deep screening of track, bridge construction, diversions which
extend over a few days or weeks during which period a continuous restriction of speed is to be in-forced
are termed as
a) Works of long duration b)Works of short duration c) Temporary works d) None

of the above
Q 29. To carryout long duration engineering works -------- shall be used at specified distances to protect
the trains
a) Hand signal b) Banner Flags c) Fog signals
d) Temporary Engineering Fixed signal
Q 30. T/P board is placed at a distance of ____ from the work site
a) Longest length of passenger train running in that section
b) Longest length of goods train running in that section
c)Longest length of mix train running in that section
d)None of the above
Q 31. T/G board is placed at a distance of ______ from the work site
a) Longest length of passenger train running in that section
b) Longest length of goods train running in that section
c)Longest length of mix train running in that section
d)None of the above
Q 32. Dimension of speed indicator is
a) 1-meter equilateral Triangle
b) 900 mm equilateral triangle
c) 600mm x 1000mm rectangular
d) None of the above
Q 33. Diameter of T/P & T/G board is
a)600 mm b) 900 mm c) 1000 mm d) 2000 mm
Q 34.Length of caution indicator&stop indicator board is
a)600 mm b) 1400 mm c) 1500 mm d) 2000 mm
Q 35. Thickness of the letters ‘T / P’ ‘T / G’ written on termination indicator is
a)25 mm b) 30 mm c) 40 mm d) 50 mm
Q 36. Height of the letters ‘T / P’ ‘T / G’ written on ‘T/P’ ‘T/G’ board is
a) 250 mm b) 200 mm c) 150 mm d) 100 mm
Q 37. The height of the number written on speed indicator showing the speed limit is
a)100 mm b) 200 mm c) 300 mm d) 400 mm
Q 38. Heightof bottom of the stop indicator from rail level is

a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm
Q 39. Heightof bottomof the ‘T/P’ & ‘T/G’ board from rail level is
a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm
Q 40. Heightof bottom of the speed indicator board from rail level is
a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm
Q 41. Heightof bottom of the caution indicator board from rail level is
a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm
Q 42. Width of stop indicator& caution indicator board is
a)100 mm b) 200 mm c) 300 mm d) 400 mm
Q 43. Minimum dimension of banner flag is
a)1750 mm x 180 mm b) 1500 mm x 450 mm
c)2000 mm x 500 mm d) 2500 mm x 550 mm
Q 44.Works of short duration are ----
a) Can complete in a day

b) To fixed Engg. Indicators
c) Do not require any SR
d) Take prior permission from CRS
Q 45.For works of short duration, when train has to stop at worksite, then hand signals shall be
exhibited at _____, _____, and ______m. in case of BG
a) 30, 600, 1200b) 30, 400, 800 c) 20, 400, 600 d) at spot, 270, 540
Q 46. A competency certificate to the contractor’s supervisor shall be issued by ____ which will be valid
only for the work for which it has been issued.
a) DEN b) ADEN c) SSE(in-charge) d) none of these
Q 47. The flagman placing detonators should station himself at a distance not less than………………m from
the place of detonators.
a)100 b)45 c)1200 d)600

Q 48. In multi speed restrictions when s1 is less than s2, then minimum length of s1 zone should be
………………m.
a)100 b)200 c)300 d)400
Q 49.Indicators shall be placed on the ………. side as seen by the Drivers except on CTC section (Single
line)
a) left b)right c)centrally d)oblique
Q 50.Indicators shall be placed on the ………. side as seen by the Drivers on CTC section(Single line).
a)left b) right c)centrally d)oblique
Q 51. When works at times of poor visibility are to be undertaken and site is protected by temporary
engineering fixed signals……nos.detonators, 10m apart be fixed not less than………….m in rear of CI and a
caution hand signal exhibited to approaching trains.
a)3&600 b) 2&270 c)2&800 d)3&1200
Q 52. Name the equipment that can be effectively used to warn the driver of an approaching train on a
track fouled by a derailed train on an adjacent track
a) Warning signal b) Detonator c) Red flag d) Red lamp
Q 53. Permanent speed restrictions are shown in __________ Published by division.
a) Train time table b) Working time table c) G&SR d) IRPWM
Q 54. Minimum distance between two Motor trollies running together on same line………. m
a) 100 b) 200 c) 400 d) 500
Q 55. Banner flag is a………………
a) Permanent fixed stop signal b) Temporary fixed stop signal

c) Caution signal d) none of the above
WORKING OF TROLLy, MOTOR TROLLy AND LORRy
Q 1. ______ can be attached to a train

(a) Trolly b) Motor trolly c) Lorry d) None of these
Q2. When attaching a motor trolly with petrol in the tank to any train , it shall be insured that
a) The flow of petrol in the carburettor has been cut off

b) Any pressure has been released from the tanks
c) The tank is sound condition and closed by a well fitted cap
d) All of the above
Q 3. When a trolley/motor trolley is placed on a platform to be loaded into a train, it should be under
the charge of a ______.
a) SSE/P.Way b) ADEN c) SM d) Trollyman
Q 4. In special cases magistrates, police, military or a person requiring medical aids may conveyed by
trolley by order of which competent authority
a) ADEN & above

b) SSE/P.Way (IC) & above
c) Keyman & above
d) Any competent railway servant
Q 5. Trollies in all cases shall be manned by minimum _______ men.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
Q 6. Trollies should be worked under block protection in ____.
a) the night b) Foggy weather (c) where visibility impaired (d) All of these
Q 7. . Minimum railway authority to work with the rail dolly is

a) Key man b) Mate c) JE/P.way d) ADEN
Q 8. When two or more trollies are running together in the same direction in the same line, they are
kept at least _____ meter apart.
a) 125 b) 100 c) 150 d) 250
Q 9. Moped trolley should be manned by at least ______ man including the driver.
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
Q 10. The person in-charge for working of rail dolly shall be a railway servant not lower the rank than
_________.
a) Mate b) Keyman c) JE/P.Way d) SSE/P.Way

Q 11. Certificate of competency shall be issued by _____.
a) JE/P.Way b) SSE/P.Way(IC) c) ADEN d) DEN
Q 12. The official in-charge of rail dolly should have passed in medical category
a) A1 b) A2 c) A3 d) B1
Q 13. Rail dolly can work only when the visibility is clear for at least ________ meter.
a) 800 b) 600 c) 1200 d) 1000
Q 14. Rail dolly shall not be worked on section having gradients steeper than 1 in ______
a) 200 b) 150 c) 100 d) 50
Q 15. Not more than _________ rail dollies should be worked in a group in any block section.
a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8
Q 16. Rail welded panel not more than _______ rail should be carried by dolly
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Q 17. Push trolley when used for the carriage of P.way materials shall be deemed to be a ______.
a) Lorry b) Dip Lorry c) Push trolley d) Dolly
Q 18. The validity period for competency certificate shall be _____ year for trolly operator.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q 19. When visibility is restricted the push trolley shall be protected by a flag man having danger signal
in his hand and two detonators with him at a distance of _____ meter.
a) 1200 b) 1000 c) 800 d) 600
Q 20. Minimum distance between two motor trollies running together on the same line on rising
gradient should be ______ meters.
a) 360 b) 180 c) 100 d) 200
Q 21. A lorry when working without block protection shall be protected by deputing a flag man with
banner flag at ____ meter on B.G.
a) 1200 b) 600 c) 800 d) 400
Q 22. Rail dollies shall not be worked on gradients steeper than 1 in ______.
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 400

Q 23. A rail dolly shall be protected by a flag man at 1200 meter distance from dolly having ______ in his
hand.
a) Danger Hand Signal c) Banner flag

b) Detonator d) Fusee
Q 24. Push trolley when working in ghat section shall have efficient ______.
a) Hand brakes
b) screw down brakes
c) 1 & 2 Both
d) None
Q 25.Maximum persons carry on a BG push trolly is ………………
a) 4 b)6 c)8 d)10
Q 26. A Motor trolly can be operated on Paper line clear.
1) True 2) False
Q 27. Heavy P.Way material like rails ,sleepers, girders etc are transported on track by ……………
a) Trolly b) Dolly c) Dip lorry d) Motor Trolly
Q 28. When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the
………………………………is responsible for its safe working.
a) The Head Trolley man

b) Trolley Holder
c) The man who is manning the brakes
d) Higher official accompanying trolley
Q 29. In cuttings and high banks trolley refuges should be provided at …m intervals.
a)50 b)100 c)150 d)200
Q 30.The night signal for trolley/motor trolley/lorry on single line shall be……
a)Both side Red
b) red on one side and green on the other
c) both side green
d) one side white and other side red
Q 31. Protection of trollies with H.S. flags is required only when the visibility is less than………………… m
a) 1200 b)800 c)600 d)350
Q 32. Lorries working in gradients steeper than ………………...should be controlled by hand brakes as well
as by rope tied in rear.
a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 100 c) 1 in 400 d)1 in 300
Q 33.What is the maximum distance apart of trolley refugees in tunnels?

a) 300 mts. 2)500 mts. 3) 200 mts. 4)100 mts.
Q 34. Maximum distance apart from trolley refuges on Bridges with main span of 100 mtrs. and more is
a) one on each pier b) 200m c) 50m d)None of the above
CRS SANCTION
1. Full form of CRS

a) Commissioner of railway safety
b) Commissioner of railway service
c) Chairman of rail safety
d) None of these
2. The safety of the travelling public is governed (ensured) by the Rules laid down in –
(i)The Railways Act, 1989 (24 of 1989) (as amended from time-to-time),
(ii)The Indian Railways (Open Lines) General Rules, 1976 (as amended from time-to-time),
(iii)The Railways (Opening for Public Carriage of Passengers) Rules, 2000 (as amended from time-to-
time), and
(iv) Indian Railways Schedule of Dimensions (as amended from time-to-time).
a) (i), (ii) and (iii) b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)` c) all of these d) None of these
3. Which of the following works require CRS sanction for opening---
a) Opening of additional lines of railway and deviation lines
b) Opening of stations, junctions and level crossings
c) Re-modelling of yards and re-building of major and important bridges
d) All of the above
4. Which of the following works require CRS sanction for opening---
a) Opening of additional lines of railway and deviation lines
b) Opening of stations, junctions and level crossings
c) Any alteration or reconstruction materially affecting the structural character of any
work
d) All of the above
5. Decision whether a component of work is materially affecting the structural character or not will
be taken by ____ for construction works.
a) GM(con) b) Chief engineer (con) c) any one of (a) and (b) d) None of these
6. Decision whether a component of work is materially affecting the structural character or not will
be taken by ____ for open line works.
b) GM b) Principal Chief engineer c) CTE/CBE d) None of these
7. Which of the following works are not required CRS sanction for opening
a) Construction, re-building, modification and strengthening of foot over bridges and road over
bridges
b) Construction, re-building, regirdering and strengthening of minor bridges
c) Regirdering and strengthening of all existing bridges
d) All of these
a) Elimination of manned level crossings
b) Upgradation of level crossing, including interlocking outside station limits
c) Both of above
d) None of these
a) Introduction of electric traction
b) Works related to Dedicated Freight Corridor
c) Both of above
d) None of above
10. The Safety Certificate for engineering works should be signed by the _____ concerned and
countersigned by the____..
a) Assistant Divisional Engineer, Divisional Engineer
b) Divisional Engineer, DRM
c) Sr. Divisional Engineer, CTE
d) None of these
Curves, Horizontal curves, Realignment of curve
(1) For measuring versines of a curve, ------ metres overlapping chords should normally be used with
stations at -------metres intervals. (a) 20,10 (b) 20,20 (c) 6,3 (d) none of these.
(2) A 2° curve has a radius of ------- metres.

(a) 1750 (b) 875 (c) 583 (d) none of these.
(3) The length of virtual transition is taken as ------ m

(a) 15 (b) 15.5 (c) 14.785 (d) none of these.
(4) Versine in cm on a chord of-------- metre is equal to degree of the curve.

(a) 11.83 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) none of these.
(5) The permissible speed for 1 in 8 ½ symmetrical split with curve switches is --------Kmph
(a) 15 kmph (b) 30 kmph (c) 45 kmph (d) none of these.
(6) Dynamic gauge (G) (in mm) is the ------

(a) nominal gauge of track (b) (nominal gauge of track + width of railhead) (c) (nominal gauge of track -
width of railhead) (d) none of these.
(7)A transition curve is laid out as a --------.

(a) Euler's Spiral (b) Cubical Spiral (c) Cubic Parabola (d) none of these
(8)Inspection of curves of 2 degree and less shall be inspected by JE/SSE(sectional) once in a -------
(a)month (b) six months (c) year (d) none of these
(9) The cant excess should not be allowed to exceed ------- for all types of rolling stock.
(a) 100 mm (b) 75 mm (c) 65 mm (d) none of these
(10)Maximum cant on curved track shall be for Broad Gauge– Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ routes are ------ mm.
(11) A vertical curve is required to be provided at those points of grade where the algebraic difference
between the grades is equal to or more than
a) 4 mm/m b) 10 mm/m c) 0.4mm/m d) none of these
(12) For high speeds, in Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ routes, a straight with a minimum length of ----- shall be kept
between two transitions of reverse curves
(a) 25 m (b) 50 m (c) 75 m (d) none of these
(13)Cant deficiency is taken as ----- mm on routes with sectional speed more than 100 Kmph for
nominated rolling stock with permission of Principal Chief Engineer
(a) 75 (b) 100 (c) 150 (d) none of these
(14) In the case of long circular curve the cant value should be indicated at intermediate stations at a
distance not exceeding -------- metres.
(15)In exceptional cases where room is not available for providing sufficiently long transitions, the
maximum cant gradient will be limited to -------
(a) 1.4 mm per metre (b) 2.8 mm per metre (c) 3.6 mm per metre (d) none of these
(16)The super elevation remains constant along

a) circular curve, b) transition curve, c)spiral curve
(17)The compensation for curvature on gradient to be allowed is

(a) 0.04% per degree of curvature (b) 0.03% per degree of curvature (c) 0.02% per degree of
curvature (d) none of these
(18) To accommodate a transition curve in between straight and circular curve, the main circular curve is
moved inwards by an amount called the ------
(a) slew(b) shift (c) versine (d) none of these
(19) Twist in floating condition on straight and curve track (other than transition) from passenger
comfort perspective on a base of 3.0 m base shall not exceed
(a)2.1 mm/m, (b) 3.5 mm/m(c) 2.8 mm/m (d) 1.4 mm/m
(20)The minimum radius of the vertical curve for Gr-B route is shall be kept as under:
(a)4000 m (b) 3000 m (c) 2500 m (d) none of these.
(21).In case of similar flexure turnout followed by reverse curve, a change of cant on the turnout may be
permitted starting behind the crossing (after the last exit sleeper) and being run out at a rate not steeper
than ---------- .
a) 1.4mm/metre, b) 2.8mm/ metre c)3.5 mm/metre d) none of these.
(22) Maximum super elevation that can be provided for group B route
a) 140 mmb) 120 mm c) 165 mm d) 185 mm
(23) The level of -------- of any curve is taken as reference level

(a) outer rail (b) inner rail (c) both rail (d) none of these.
(24) On the inside of the curve, rail posts should be erected on each approach of the curve, to indicate
the positions of the beginning and end of transition curves. These rail posts may be painted in -----
and -------colours respectively.
(a) Red, white (b) white ,red (c) red ,yellow (d) none of these.
(25) 1 in 8.5 turn out shall not be laid from --------- of a curved track.
(a) inside (b) outside (c) not specified (d) None of these
(26) On the sharp curves of radius less than 400 metres the rail joints may be ----------.
(a) Squared(b) staggered(c) not specified (d) None of these
(27) Check rail should be provided on the -------- of the inner rail of the curve.
(a) inside of the inner (b) inside of the outer (c) both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
(28) The length of transition so calculated should be rounded off to the next higher value in multiple of
-------- m.
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) None of these
(29) Maximum cant on curved track shall be for BG Group ‘D’ route is -------- mm.
(30) The versines of turn-in curves on loops should be recorded at stations at ----- m intervals on ----- m
chord length during the inspection of points and crossings.
(a) 3,6 (b) 10,20 (c) 5,10 (d) None of these
(31) Variation of design versine for Turn out (pts& Xing) curve should not be more than ------- mm.
(a) +/- 3 mm (b) +/- 4 mm (c) +/- 5 mm (d) None of these
(32)The maximum permissible speed for transitioned curves is determined using the following formulae
----------- .
(a) V=0.72√ R(Ca+Cd¿) ¿
(b) V=0.27√ R(Ca+Cd¿) ¿
(c)) V=0.27√ R(Ce+Cd ¿)¿
(d) none of these
(33) The equilibrium super elevation/cant necessary for any speed is calculated from the formula
-------- .
(a) GV2/127R (b)125C2 /R (c) 125V2 /R (d) none of these
(34) The calculated cant shall be rounded off in the multiple of ----- mm.
(35) Super-elevation or cant should be indicated by painting its value on the inside face of the web of
the ---------- of the transition curve at every versine station beginning with zero at the commencement
of the transition curve.
(a) outer rail (b) inner rail (c) both inner & outer rail (d) None of these
(36) There should be no change of cant between points -------- metres outside the toe of the switch and
the nose of the crossing
(a) 30 m (b) 20 m (c) 15 m (d) none of these.
(37) when the speed on curve is below 110 kmph and upto 50 kmph, the limits of station to station
variation of versine(mm) is -------
(a) 40 mm or 20% of average versine on circular portion, whichever is more
(b) 20 mm or 20% of average versine on circular portion, whichever is more
(c) 10 mm or 20% of average versine on circular portion, whichever is more
(d) none of these.
(38) Extra shoulder ballast of -------- mm should be provided on outside of the turn-in curve.
(39) In the case of turnout of similar flexure, the maximum cant that can be provided, on the main line
will be the sum of equilibrium cant for the turnout and ------------- .
(a)permissible cant excess.
(b)permissible cantdeficiency
(c)permissible cantgradient
(d) none of these.
(40)The degree of the curve is the angle subtended at its centre by a chord of ------- metres
(a) 30 (b) 30.5 (c) 35 (d) none of these.
(41) Cant deficiency occurs when a train travels around a curve at a speed ------- than the equilibrium
speed.
(a) lower (b) equal (c) higher (d) none of these.
(42) Cant excess occurs when a train travels around a curve at a speed ------- than the equilibrium
speed.
(a) lower (b) equal (c) higher (d) none of these.
(43) The offset in metres from the straight to any point on the transition curve is calculated from the
formula – -------
(a) Y= X3/6RL (b) ) Y= X3/8RL (c) ) Y= X3/24RL (d) none of these.
(44) In the case of turnouts of contrary flexure, the maximum cant on the main line (negative Super-
elevation on turnout) will be the difference between the ------------- and the equilibrium cant
determined for turnout
(a)permissible cant excess.
(b)permissible cant deficiency
(c)permissible cant gradient
(d) none of these.
(45). Joggled fish plate with clamps or two far end bolts on good AT welds shall be provided on curves of
___⁰ or sharper.
a) 30 b) 40 c) 50 d) none of these.
(46) In every case, the Super-elevation to be provided should be specified when the line is originally laid
and thereafter altered only with the prior approval of the ______.
(a) Chief engineer (b) Sr. DEN (c) (c) GM (d) none of these
(47) Normally, turn out should not be taken off from the transitioned portion of a main line curve.
(a) False (b) True
(48)The maximum cant gradient will be limited to ------

(a) 2.8 mm per metre (b) 1.4 mm per metre (c) 1.0 mm per metre (d) none of these
(49) The “Shift”is calculated from the formula

(a) S=L2/(50 R) (b)S=L2/(25 R) (c) S=L2/(24 R) (d) none of these
(50) 1 in 8.5 turnout with curved switches may laid from outside of a curve upto ___ degrees in
exceptional circumstances with the approval of PCE.
(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) none of these
(51)The desirable length of transition ‘L’ shall be --------.

(a) L= 0.0056 Ca × Vm
(b) L= 0.0056 Cd × Vm
(c) L= 0.72 × Ca
(d)maximum of the above three values.
(52)Cant should be run up or run out on the ‘virtual transition’ in case of

(a) Transitionedcurves (b) non-transitioned curves (c) Both Transitioned&non-transitioned curves (d)
none of these
(53) Limits of station to station variation of versine on curve for 110 kmph speed is
(a) 15 mm (b) 10mm (c) 20mm (d) none of these
(54) The slew in any direction at a station in a curve affects the versine values at the adjacent stations by
--------- the amount in the opposite direction, when the track is not disturbed at the adjacent stations.
(a)Full (b) half (c) one third (d) none of these.
(55) Check rails to be provided in curves where the curvature is ---------

(a)4° ormore (b) 6° ormore (c) 8° or more (d) none of these.
(56)Track mounted automatic Gauge Face Lubricators should be provided on curves of radius ------ to
reduce rail gauge face wear.
(a)1750 m (1°) and sharper (b) 875 m (2°) and sharper (c) 583 m (3°) and sharper (d) none of
these.
(57)The wear of rails of curves having radius of ------- shall be recorded during schedule curve inspection
by SSE/P.way/Incharge and JE/SSE/P.way (sectional).
(a) 400 m or less (b) 600 m or less (c) 800 m or less (d) none of these.
(58)On single line,in case of curve of 2° and sharper, the Gauge Face lubricator shall be located
---------------- .
(a)in the direction of heaviest traffic. (b) at both ends of the curve
(c) at the centre of the curve(d) none of these.
(59) In case of compound curve, common transition may be provided when the length of common
transition is -------- the length of virtual transition.
(a) more than (b) less than (c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of these
(60) To ensure inclusion of the point of commencement of the curve, a mark is made on the gauge face
of the outer rail at a distance of at-least -------- behind the beginning of curve, and at the end of curve as
indicated by station markings on the rails. i.e., station number zero/last station.
(a) 20 m (two stations) (b) 30 m (three stations) (c) 40 m (four stations) (d) none of
these
(61) One of the basic principles of string lining is that the second summation of versine difference
between proposed versine and existing versine represents ---------- at any station.
(a) The full slew (b) proposed versine (c) half the slew (d) none of these
(62) Inspection of curves > 2 degree shall be inspected by JE/SSE(sectional) once in ------- on rotation
with SSE/P.way(In charge)
(a)month (b) six months (c) year (d) none of these
(63) Maximum cant of ___ mm may be assumed for the purpose of locating all permanent structures
etc., by the side of the curves on new constructions and doubling on group ‘A’ routes having potential
for increasing the speed in future.
(a) 165mm (b) 185mm (c) 140mm (d) None of these
(64) During yard remodelling in existing yard, under exceptional circumstances, where due to site
constraints and techno economic reasons it is not practicable to ensure lead radius not less than 350m,
laying of 1 in 12 or flatter turnout with curve switches may be allowed from inside of curve mainline so
that the resultant lead curve radius is not less than ____ m with the personal approval of PCE.
(a) 220m (b) 290m (c) 300m (d) None of these
(65) On a main line curve from which a curve of similar flexure takes off, followed immediately by a
reverse curve , change of cant on the turnout may be permitted starting behind the crossing (after the
last exit sleeper) and being run out at a rate not steeper than 2.8 mm per metre and subject to the
maximum cant on the main line turnout being limited to ____ mm.
reverse curve, change of cant on the turnout may be permitted starting behind the crossing (after the
last exit sleeper) and being run out at a rate not steeper than ___ mm per metre and subject to the
maximum cant on the main line turnout being limited to 65 mm.
(a) 4mm (b) 1.4mm (c) 2.8mm (d) None of these
reverse curve , change of cant on the turnout may be permitted starting behind the crossing after the
last ___ sleeper and being run out at a rate not steeper than 2.8 mm per metre and subject to the
maximum cant on the main line turnout being limited to 65 mm.
(a) longest (b) approach (c) exit (d) None of these
(68) In the case of diamond crossings on a straight track located in the approach of a curve, a straight
length of minimum ___ m between the curve and the heel of acute crossing of diamond is necessary for
permitting unrestricted speed over the diamond, subject to maximum permissible speed over the curve
from considerations of cant deficiency, transition length etc.
(69) The minimum radius of the vertical curve for Gr-A route is _____
(70) The minimum radius of the vertical curve for Gr-D route is ____
(71) While computing slew for curve realignment it should be ensured that at the first and at the last
station slew should be ____.
(a) positive (b) negative (c) zero (d) None of these
(72) Locations where checkrail should be provided shall be decided by the _______ taking into
consideration the negotiability of the rolling stock and the curve geometry.
(a) Divisional Engineer (b) CTE (c) PCE (d) None of these
(73) Desirable length of Transition curve is based on

(a) rate of change of cant and of cant deficiency of 50 mm per second.
(b) maximum cant gradient of 1 in 720 or 1.4 mm per metre.
(c) Both (a) and (b) is true
(d) None of these
(74) Minimum length of Transition curve is based on the

(a) rate of change of cant and of cant deficiency of 60 mm per second.
(b) maximum cant gradient of 1 in 360 or 2.8 mm per metre.
(c) Both (a) and (b) is true
(d) None of these
(75) In case of doubling and New lines, if a curve is not possible to be designed for 160 Kmph for Group
‘A’ and 130 Kmph for Group ‘B’ routes, approval of ___ shall be obtained.
(a) PCE (b) CTE (c) GM (d) Railway Board

(76) It should be ensured that there is no change of grade over the _____.
(a) Circular (b) Transition (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(77) Whenever straights between reverse curves can neither be eliminated nor the straight length
increased to over 50 metres, speed in excess of ____ Kmph should not be permitted.
(78) Each approach of a curve should be provided with a curve board at the tangent point fixed on the
____ of the curve.
(a) Inside (b) Outside (c) can be fixed any side (d) None of these
(79) 1 in 8.5 turn out with curved switches can be laid in exceptional circumstances taking off from
straight track with the approval of ___.
(a) CTE (b) PCE (c) GM (d) None of these
(80) For snag dead end, ______ turnouts may be used.
(a) 1 in 8½ symmetrical split (b) 1 in 8½ curve switch (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(81) Criteria for realignment curve is as under
(i) For speed on curve of 160 kmph and above 110 kmph – 10mm or 20% of average Versine on circular
portion, whichever is more
(ii) For speed on curve of 110 kmph --. 15mm or 20% of average Versine on circular portion, whichever is
more
(iii) For speed on curve below 110 Kmph and up to 50 Kmph -- --. 20mm or 20% of average Versine on
circular portion, whichever is more
(iv) For speed below 50 Kmph -- --. 40mm or 20% of average Versine on circular portion, whichever is
more
(a) Only (i) is correct (b) Only (i), (ii), and (iii) is correct (c) Only (i) and (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
82. Maximum cant on curved track for Broad Gauge– Group ‘C’ and ‘D’ route shall be ------ mm.
(a) 18 5 mm (b) 165 mm (c) 140 mm (d) none of these.
83. For non transition curve the desirable length of transition ‘L’ shall be --------.
(a) L= 0.008 Ca × Vm
(b) L= 0.008 Cd × Vm
(c) L= 0.72 × Ca
(d)maximum of the above three values.
84. Minimum length of Transition curve is based on the
(i) the rate of change of cant and cant deficiency of 60 mm per second.
(ii) the rate of change of cant and cant deficiency of 55 mm per second.
(iii) maximum cant gradient of 1 in 360 or 2.8 mm per metre.
(a) Both (i) and (iii) is true (b) Both (ii) and (iii) is true (c) All are true (d) None is true
Investigation of Derailment
(1) If the travelling wheel rides on fish plate, distance blocks etc., shall be designated as a wheel of
---------
(a) sharp flange (b) Thin flange (c) Deep flange(d) none of these.
(2) In case of positive angularity, the frictional force acts --------

a) upward b) downward c) parallel to track d) none of these.
(3) Permissible limit of flat tyre for locomotive is ------- mm.

(4) A wheel shall be classified as thin flange when its thickness is ------------
(a) less than 15 mm (b) less than 16 mm (c) less than 20 mm (d) none of these
(5) When flat tyre run on track, a speed restriction of ---- kmph should be imposed till checked by
JE/SSE(P-WAY) by trolly.
(6) Chances of bursting of point is due to entering of ------ between tongue rail and stock rail
(a) sharp flange (b) thin flange (c) deep flange (d) none of these
(7) On accident site track measurement is taken for a distance of 90m in rear and ------- m ahead of POM
if the cause of derailment not known indisputably.
(a) 100 (b) 50 ( c) 45 (d) none of these
(8) Permissible limit of flat tyre for goods stock is ------- mm.
(9) A false flange may split open points while travelling in

(a)Facing direction (b) Trailing direction (c) Both direction d) all of these
(10) Standard play when wheel has reached to the condemning limit in case of 1676 mm gauge is -------
(11) Value of wheel tread conicity is--------

(a) 1 in 20 (b) 1 in 30 (c) 1 in 40 (d) none of these
(12) Lurching is caused due to

(a) cross level defect(b) alignment defect including gauge variation (c) unevenness (d) none of these
(13) Bouncing is caused due to

(a) cross level defect(b) alignment defect (c) unevenness of rail top (d) none of these
(14) When the wheelset is angular to the rail such that the wheel
makes flange contact near its leading edge, is called
(a) positive angularity(b) negative angularity (c) zero angularity (d) none of these
(15) In case of ---------- , wheel flange contact is behind the wheel tread contact
(a) positive angularity(b) negative angularity (c) zero angularity (d) none of these
(16) In case of track measurement, left side and right side are considered with respect to ------------.
(a) direction of train movement
(b) direction of increasing Km
(c) direction of decreasing km
(d) none of these
(17) In case of derailment, for track measurement, the ------- should be marked as station no.0
(a) point of mount(b) point of drop(c) zero angularity (d) none of these
(17) In case of derailment, normally measurement will be taken at station 3 M. apart for a distance of
------- meters on either side of zero station if the cause of derailment is indisputably known.
(18) In case of derailment, normally measurement will be taken for a distance of -------- meters in rear
and 45 meters ahead of zero station if the cause of derailment is not known.
LEVEL CROSSING GATE
1. A Speed restriction of ------- kmph to be imposed when manned/unmanned L.C.gate is without check
rail. (a) 10 kmph b) 20 kmph c) 30 kmph d) none of the above
2. Census of LC gates is done at an interval of -------years.
(a) One b) Two c) Three d) none of the above.
3.Overhauling of L.C gates should not be delayed by more than -------- years.
(a) One b) Two c) Three d) none of the above.
4.For calculation of TVU, motorized two wheeler is considered as ----- unit
(a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0.25 d) none of the above
5. Periodical census of traffic at all level crossings shall be carried out for -------- days
(a) 3 b) 7 c) 15 d) none of the above
6. The competent track maintainers elected as gate men should be certified fit in class ------- by the
Medical Department.
(a) A1 b) A2 c) A3 d) none of the above
7. Where the level crossing is on a curve, the gate-lodge should be built on the ------- of the curve.
(a) outside b) inside c) none of the above
8.L.C gate is classified as special class when TVU is
(a) 20,000-30,000 b) 30,000-50,000 c) greater than 50,000 d) none of the above
9.Angle of crossing between railway track and road should not be less than ------ for all types of Level
crossing
(a) 300 b) 450 c) none of the above
10.Height gaugeto be provided on electrified section at a distance of ----metersfrom Gate post.
11.Rail joints should be avoided in check rails and on the running rails, within the level crossings and
------ metres on either side from the end of level crossing.
12.The level crossing should not fall within the breathing length of LWR.
(a) False b) True
13.In the case of SWR track fish plated joint should be avoided on the level crossing and within --------
metres from theend of level crossing.
14.Check rail clearance for L.C gate
(a) 44-48 mm b) 41-45 mm c) 51-57 mm d) none of the above
15.Minimum distance of gate posts from centre line of track
(a) 3 m b) 5 m c) 6 m d) none of the above
16.Minimum distance of gate lodge from centre line of nearest track
(a) 6.5 m b) 5 m c) 6 m d) none of the above
17.Minimum distance of gate lodge from edge of road metalling
(a) 6.5 m b) 5 m c) 6 m d) none of the above
18.Minimum length of check rail
(a) 2 m more than the width of the gate b) 3 m more than the width of the gate
c) 2.5 m more than the width of the gate d) none of the above
19.Minimum depth of space between running rail and check rail for wheel flange from rail level.
(a) 35 mm b) 38 mm c) 40 mm d) none of the above
20.minimum length of fencing in L.C gate
(a) 15 m from each gate post parallel to track b) 20 m from each gate post parallel to track
c) 25 m from each gate post parallel to track d) none of the above
21.SSE/P.way(In-charge) and JE/SSE/P.way(sectional) will inspect all level crossings ------ by rotation.
(a) once in a month b) once in two month c) once in three month d) none of the above
22.Frequency of medical examination of gate man
(a) age less than 45 yrs-every 4 yrs b) age between 45-55 yrs-every 2 yrs c) age greater than
55 yrs-every year d) All of these
23.Validity of competency certificate of gate man
(a) 2 yrs b) 3 yrs c) 5 yrs d) none of the above
24.One speed breaker should be provided on either approach of level crossings at a distance of about
-------- m from the gate post of the Level Crossing.
25.At the approaches of all level crossings, bilingual whistle boards should be erected at ------ metres
along the track from the level crossing
26.Census of L.C gate to be carried out by Multi-disciplinary inspectorial team consisting of
representative of --------------------.
(a) Enggdept,S&Tdept and Traffic dept.
b) Enggdept,Mechdept and Traffic dept.
c) Enggdept,S&T dept and Personal dept.
d) none of these.
27.For calculation of TVU, Train, Road Vehicle, Bullock Carts and Tongas are considered as ----- unit.
28.For calculation of TVU, Cycle rickshaw/Auto rickshaw is considered as ----- unit.
29. Level crossings over colliery, factory and other similar sidings where Railway traffic is light may,
however, be dealt with according to local conditions, subject to the approval of the _____ being
obtained in each case to the measures adopted for the safe working of trains.
(a) Commissioner of Railway Safety (b) Railway Board (c) General Manager
(d) None of these
30. Class I roads are those----
(i)National Highways, (ii)State Highways,
(iii)Important roads with in municipal towns, and
(iv)Roads in and around towns where road and rail traffic is heavy.
(a) All of these (b) Only (i) , (ii) and (iv) (c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) None of these
31. Class II roads are those----
(i)Major and other District roads,
(ii)Unimportant (Other than important) roads within municipal towns,
(iii)Roads within Non-Municipal towns including those within shunting limits of Railway stations,
and
(iv)Other surfaced roads.
(a) Only (i),(ii) and (iii) (b) only (i) and (ii) (c) All of these (d) None of these
32. At all level crossings the gate posts shall be fixed____.
(a) square to the road (b) square to the track (c) parallel to the road
(d) None of these
33. Gateman shall at all level crossings be prepared, wherever level crossings be open to road traffic, to
show ____ to any approaching train and for this purpose throughout the period the level crossing is
open to Road traffic.
(a) a danger signal (b) Green signal (c) White signal (d) None of these
34. Gatemen working on double line/multiple lines, ghat sections, sub urban and automatic block
territories shall be provided with ___ warning signals.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) None of these
35. Gatemen working on single line sections shall be supplied with ___ warning signal.
(a) Two (b) Three (c) One (d) None of these
36. At every Level Crossing there should be distinct indication at ___ meters and___ meters on Broad
Gauge on either side to guide the Gateman for placing the detonators in case of obstruction at the level
crossing.
(a) 600,1200 (b) 800, 1200 (c) 1000, 2000 (d) None
37. The maintenance of signals, interlocking, lifting barriers at interlocked gates and communication
equipment will rest with the _____in the case of all level crossing gates, whether located within or
outside the outermost stop signals.
(a) Signal Department (b) Engineering Department (c) Both (a)and (b)
(d) None of these
38. Arrangements for exhibiting the danger signal at a distance of ____ meters during emergency should
be made at each level crossing.
39. No Gateman shall change his hours of duty without the order of the _____.
(a) SSE/P.Way (In-charge) (b) JE/P-WAY (Sectional) (c) Gang Mate
(d) None of these
40. In case of National Highway/State Highways or their by passes and important city roads, no new
Level Crossing to be provided and only grade separators to be provided. Relaxation of these will require
____
(a) Board’s prior approval. (b) CRS’s approval (c) GM’s approval
41. Minimum Train Vehicle Units (TVU) on a Level Crossing should be ___ per day to become eligible for
replacement with Road Over/Under Bridges on 'Cost Sharing' basis.
(a) 1 lakh (b) 75000 (c) 2 lakh (d) None of these
42. Minimum Train Vehicle Units (TVU) on a Level Crossing should be 1 lakh per day to become eligible
for replacement with Road Over/Under Bridges on 'Cost Sharing' basis. However, this could be relaxed in
the following cases:-
(i)Suburban sections having high frequency of train services
(ii) Near stations where detentions to road traffic are very high on account of either shunting operations
or multi-directional receipt/dispatch of trains or stabling of trains etc.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i) (c) Only (ii) (d) None
43. Railways may, based on specific request of concerned Road authorities, consider sharing cost of
constructing new FOUR lane Road Over Bridge in lieu of level crossings having minimum TVU of ____
per day comprising not less than _____ Road vehicle units.
(a) 3 lakh, 6000 (b) 2 lakh, 5000 (a) 1 lakh , 10000 (d) None
44.Level length for class-I road outside gates should be level upto___ m and Gradient beyond shall not
be steeper than
(a) 15, 1in 40 (b) 8, 1in 30 (c) 8, 1in20 (d) None
45.Level length for class-II road outside gates should be level upto___ m and Gradient beyond shall not
be steeper than
(a) 15, 1in 40 (b) 8, 1in 30 (c) 8, 1in20 (d) None
46. Level length for class-III road outside gates should be level upto___ m and Gradient beyond shall not
be steeper than
(a) 15, 1in 40 (b) 8, 1in 30 (c) 8, 1in20 (d) None
47. Minimum straight length outside Level crossing gate in class I road ____
(a) 15m (b) 9m (c) 4.5m (d) none
48. Minimum straight length outside Level crossing gate in class II road ____
(a) 15m (b) 9m (c) 4.5m (d) none
49. Minimum straight length outside Level crossing gate in class III road ____
(a) 15m (b) 9m (c) 4.5m (d) none
50. Desirable straight length outside Level crossing gate in class I road ____
(a) 30m (b) 22.5m (c) 15m (d) none
51. Desirable straight length outside Level crossing gate in class II road ____
(a) 30m (b) 22.5m (c) 15m (d) none
52. Desirable straight length outside Level crossing gate in class III road ____
(a) 30m (b) 22.5m (c) 15m (d) none
53. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class I road in plain or rolling country ___
(a) 120 m (b) 60 to 90 m (c) 40m (d) None
54. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class II road in plain or rolling country ___
(a) 120 m (b) 60 to 90 m (c) 40m (d) None
55. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class III road in plain or rolling country ___
(a) 120 m (b) 60 to 90 m (c) 40m (d) None
56. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class I road in hilly country ___
(a) 60 m (b) 40 to 50 m (c) 30m (d) None
57. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class II road in hilly country ___
(a) 60 m (b) 40 to 50 m (c) 30m (d) None
58. Distance of road sign board from level crossing for class III road in hilly country ___
(a) 60 m (b) 40 to 50 m (c) 30m (d) None
59. Size of stop disc at L/C is ____
(a) 300mm (b) 600mm (c) 1000mm (d) None
60. Height of bottom of W/L board from rail level ___
61. Size of W/L board is ____ square
(a) 1m (b) 800mm (c) 600mm (d) None of these
62. Width of speed breaker____
63. Height of speed breaker ___
(a) 20cm (b) 12.5cm (c) 50cm (d) None of these
64. Radius of speed breaker___
65. Level crossing at cuttings or near cuttings should be avoided as far as possible.
(a) True (b) False
66. Dimension of speed breaker warning sign board is _____
(a) 600mm square (b) 900mm triangular (c) 1m triangular (d) None
67. Mounting height of speed breaker warning sign board from ground in kerbed road ____
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2m (c) 3m (d) None of these
68. Mounting height of speed breaker warning sign board from ground in unkerbed roads ____
(a) 1.5 m (b) 2m (c) 3m (d) None of these
69. Level crossings where TVUs from 50,000&up to 30,000; or
Line capacity utilization 80% (on single line) and number of road vehicles greater than 1000 is classified
as
(a) Special class (b) A class (c) B1 class (d) C class
70. Level crossings where TVUs less than 30,000 and up to 25,000 and number of road vehicles greater
than 750 is classified as
(a) Special class (b) A class (c) B1 class (d) C class
71. Level crossings where TVUs less than 25,000 and up to 20,000 and number of road vehicles greater
than 750 is classified as
(a) B2 class(b) A class (c) B1 class (d) C class
72. Traffic gates are those which are located-
(a) within the outermost stop signal
(b) within the outermost signal
(c) Beyond the outermost stop signal
(d) Beyond the outermost signal
73. Engineering gates are those which are located-
(a) Within the outermost stop signal
(b) Within the outermost signal
(c) Beyond the outermost stop signal
(d) Beyond the outermost signal
LWR
1. Long Welded Rail (LWR) is a welded rail, the central part of which does not undergo any longitudinal
movement due to temperature variations.
(a) True (b) False
2.A length of welded rail greater than ----- m on Broad Gauge will normally function as LWR
3. LWR/CWR shall not be laid on curves sharper than ----- m radius except in temperature Zone-I
4.The conventional SEJ (RT-4160 and RT-4165) with straight tongue and stock shallnot be located on
curves sharper than ------.
(a) 0.5° (b) 1° (c) 2° (d) none of these
5. Level crossings situated in LWR/CWR territory shall not fall within the_____.
(a) Central portion (b) breathing lengths (c) Both(d) None of these
6. The improved SEJs (RT-6902, RT-6914, RT-6922, RT-6930) may be located on curves up to ------ .
(a) 4° (b) 3° (c) 2° (d) none of these
7. The SEJ shall not be located on _____ of curves.
(a) Transition (b) circular (c) Both(d) None of these
8. For measurement of rail temperature, the thermometer is attached on the shady side of the ----- of
the rail.
(a) head (b) foot (c) web (d) none of these
9. Lubrication of the bearings of bridges shall be done --------.
(a) once in two years (b) once in a year (c) once in three years (d) none of these
10.Rail tensor is used for distressing work when prevailing temperature(t p) is ------ than stress free
temperature(t0)
(a) less than b) more than c) equal to d) none of the above.
11.Gaps at SEJ shall be adjusted at the time of de-stressing of LWR/ CWR (for 52kg/m rail section) as
--------
(a) 60 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 30 mm (d) none of these.
12. SWR maybe continued over girder bridges with un-ballasted decks up to ------- m opening if the
length of SWR is unsymmetrical to the centre line of the bridge.
a) 6.1 m (b) 13.3 m (c) 20 m (d) none of these
13. During winter, if it is noticed that gap at SEJ is much more than the specified range, it implies that
the existing td is -------- than the required actual td.
(a) more than (b) less than (c) equal to (d) none of these
14.Maximum length of single span bridge with SEJ (190 mm gap) at 30 m away from both abutments
with full creep resistant fastening at approaches over which welded rail can be continued in zone III is
----------
a) 75 m (b) 87 m (c) 110 m (d) none of these
15.When rail tensor is used to get the desired gap of 25 mm for welding, tensor can be released after a
lapse of a minimum of -------- minutes after pouring of the weld metal.
a) 30 min (b) 45 min (c) 60 min (d) none of these
16.Destressing temperature(td) is fixed as ---------0c in temperature zone III.

a) tm (b) tm to tm + 5 (c) tm + 10 (d) none of these
17. The regular track maintenance in LWR/CWR shall be confined to hours when the rail temperature is
between --------°C and --------°C.
a) td +10,td-30 (b) td +10,td -20 (c) td -10,td +20 (d) none of these
18.Hot Weather Patrolling will be introduced, when the rail temperature rises above -------° C on PSC
sleeper track with sleeper density 1540 nos. Per km and above.
a) td +10 (b) td+ 25 (c) td+ 20 (d) none of these
19.The length of track of minimum -------- m on either side of the location of buckling of the affected
LWR shall be de-stressed as soon as possible
a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) none of these
20. The gaps between the reference mark and tongue rail tip/stock rail corner, which is attached to the
LWR/CWR side at various rail temperatures, shall not differ by more than ----- mm from the theoretical
range as shown in Annexure - 3/9.
a) ±5 (b) ±10 (c) ±15 (d) none of these
21.Where fish-plated or SWR track is joined on one side of SEJ, the gap between the reference mark and
tongue rail tip/stock rail corner on SWR/Fish plated track side shall not be measured.
a) True (b) False
22.In case of excessive creep of more than -------- mm in the central portion of LWR is noticed,
distressing to be done.
23.Permitted gradient in LWR track is------------.
a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 200 (c) 1 in 150 (d) none of these
24.During distressing work on straight track, the rail shall be lifted and placed on rollers at every ------
sleeper to permit the rails to move freely.
a) 10th (b) 15th (c) 20th (d) none of these
25. If range of rail temperature falls within -----------, deep screening may be done without cutting or
temporary de-stressing.
a) td+10°C to td-20°C (b) td+20°C to td-20°C (c) td+10°C to td-30°C (d) none of these
26.At fracture after emergency repairs are completed, speed restriction to be imposed for first train
-------
a) stop dead & 10 kmph (b) 20 kmph (c) 30 kmph (d) none of these
27. The average of the maximum and minimum rail temperature recorded for a continuous period of at
least 5 years is the --------- for the region
a) prevailing rail temperature (b) mean rail temperature
(c) distressing temperature (d) none of these
28. Temperature changes cause movement of the ends of LWR/CWR in the breathing lengths.
a) False (b) True
29.The building up of thermal forces in the central portion of LWR is calculated by
a) P = E A α t (b) P = E A/ α t (c) P = E A α/ t (d) none of these
30. Anchor length is taken as equal to ---- metre per degree Celsius of (to - tp).
a) 3 (b) 2.5 (c) 2.0 (d) none of these
31.At no time, not more than ------- sleepers spaces in a continuous stretch shall be opened for manual
maintenance or shallow screening with at least ------ fully boxed sleeper spaces left in between adjacent
openings.
a) 30,30 (b) 25,25 (c) 15,15 (d) none of these
32.In exceptional circumstances when more than 30 sleeper spaces have to be opened for any specific
work, like through screening of ballast etc. upto------- sleeper spaces may be opened under the direct
supervision of JE/SSE/P.Way when the rail temperature is in between td-30°C to td+10°C
33.Not more than ------- sleeper in 30 consecutive sleepers shall be replaced at a time.
a) one (b) two (c) three (d) none of these
34.Fastenings not requiring lifting of rails, shall be renewed on not more than --------- sleeper at a time.
35.In case fastenings not requiring lifting of rails of more than one sleepers are required to be renewed
at a time, then at least -------- sleepers in between shall be kept intact.
36.Fastenings requiring lifting of rails i.e., grooved rubber pads, etc. shall be renewed on not more than
-------- sleeper at a time.
37.In case fasteningsrequiring lifting of rails of more than one sleeper are required to be renewed at a
time, then at least ----- sleepers in between shall be kept intact.
38.If prevailing rail temperature is lower than td-10, fastening requiring lifting of rails may be removed
for replacement of rubber pad under the rail up to ------- sleepers on either side
39.To execute deep screening work, temporary de-stressing shall be carried out --------- below the
maximum rail temperature likely to be attained during the period of work If range of rail temperature
falls outside td-30°C to td+10°C
a) 15°C (b) 10°C(c) 5°C (d) none of these
40.If number of locations where repairs by way of replacement of rail / weld have been done, exceed
------- per km, de-stressing of affected portion of LWR / CWR shall bedone.
a) three(b) four (c) five (d) none of these
41.After permanent repair of rail fractures,it is necessary to carry out local destressing of ------- m on
either side for equalizationof stresses, induced in LWR due to permanent repair
a) 50 (b) 100 (c)125 (d) none of these
42.Shortage of ballast in the shoulder at isolated places shall be made up by the Gang Mate by taking
out minimum quantity of ballast from the centre of the track between the two rails over a width not
exceeding ----- mm and a depth not exceeding ----- mm.
a) 600,100 (b) 300,150 (c)500,150 (d) none of these
(43) Max. Design gap of improved double gap SEJ is
a) 100 mm each (b) 65 mm each (c)80 mm each (d) none of these
(44) Max. Design gap of improved single gap SEJ is
a) 100 mm (b) 65 mm (c)80 mm (d) none of these
(45) Oiling and greasing of SEJ done by key man at a regular interval of
a) once in a month (b) once in fortnight (c)once in a week (d) none of these
(46) When the fracture gap is more than -------- mm, a closure of appropriate length should be used, and
fish plated with clamps.
a) 30 mm (b) 40 mm (c) 50 mm (d) none of these
(47) SWR maybe continued over girder bridges with un-ballasted decks up to ------- m opening if the
length of SWR is symmetrical to the centre line of the bridge.
a) 6.1 m (b) 13.3 m (c) 20 m (d) none of these
(48) Isolation of LWR with points and crossings on PSC layout to be done by Providing-
a) Single rail length b) Three nos. of single rails
c) Two nos. of three rail panels d) One no. of three rail panel
(49) LWR plans may be prepared to a horizontal scale of

a) 1:100 b) 1:1000 c) 1:50 d) 1:5000
(50) For installation of LWR/CWR, A detailed LWR plan should be prepared and shall have to be
approved by the ____ a) PCE b) CTE c) RDSO d) Railway Board
(51) Authority to approve plans for continuation of LWR through points and Crossings
a) RDSO b) CTE c) PCE d) Railway Board
(52) While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to rise above
td+10
a) Stop the work b) Continue the work c) Do a temporary de-stressing at 10°C lower than
maximum anticipated rail temperature d) None of these
(53) While the LWR continue over a girder bridge, rail sleeper fittings should be
a) rail free fastenings b) rigid fastenings c) elastic fastenings d) None of these
(54) LWR/SEJs are inspected by the SSE /JE (P-way) In-charge and sectional once in
a) Every fortnight b) every week c)every month
d) every fortnight during two hottest and two coldest months of the year on rotation and once
in 2 months on rotation in remaining period
(55) In case welded rails are provided over bridges as per Sub Para (4) or (5) of IRPWM Para 331,
a) these shall not been entered in TMS as LWR
b) Measurement of gaps of at such SEJs of welded panels is not warranted c) Both (a) and (b)
d) none of these
(56) Bridges on which LWR/CWR is not permitted shall be isolated by a minimum length of _________m
either side a) 30 b) 26 c) 39 d) 50
(57) To arrive mean rail temperature (tm) at least how many years of maximum &minimum temperature
to be considered?a) 4 years b) 5 years c) 6 years d) 10 years
(58) If LWR/CWR is continued over a bridge with the provision of SEJ at the far end approach of the
bridge using rail-free fastenings over the girder bridge, SEJ is to be installed ___ metre away from the
abutments a) 10 b)1 5 c) 30 d) 39
(59) Speed restriction for distressing work in LWR should be___ kmph
a) 20 b) 30 c) 45 d) one of above
60) During machine tamping a general lift in LWR/CWR track should not exceed mm in case of PSC
sleepers a) 50 b) 40 c) 25 d) 75
(61) De stressing of LWR/CWR should be done after the execution of the following woks.
(i) Through fittings renewal
(ii) Deep screening/mechanised cleaning of ballast
(iii) Lowering/Lifting of track
(iv) Machine tamping
(v) Casual renewals of sleepers
(vi) Rehabilitation of bridges and formation causing disturbance to track
a) only (i), (ii) and ((vi) is correct
b) Only (i), (ii) ,(iii) and (vi) is correct
c) Only (iii), (iv) and (vi) is correct
d) All is correct
(62) If range of rail temperature falls outside td+10 to td-20°C during BCM work, temporary de-stressing
shall be carried out ___ below the maximum rail temperature likely to be attained during the period of
work. a) 20°C b) 5°C c) 10°C d) None of these
(63) If range of rail temperature falls outside _______ during BCM work, temporary de-stressing shall be
carried out 10°C below the maximum rail temperature likely to be attained during the period of work.
a) td+10 to td-20°C b) td+10 to td-30°C c) td+25 to td-30°C d) none of these
(64) During the period of deep screening, if there is any possibility of minimum temperature falling
_____ below td / temporary de-stressing temperature, cold weather patrol should be introduced to
detect / guard against rail fractures. a) 20°C b) 30°C c) 10°C d) None of these
(65) Maintenance of in between lengths which is left during manual maintenance shall not be
undertaken till passage of traffic for at least ____ hours in case of BG carrying more than 10 GMT routes.
a) 24 hrs b) 48 hrs c) 12 hrs d) None of these
(66) ) Maintenance of in between lengths which is left during manual maintenance shall not be
undertaken till passage of traffic for at least ____ hours in case of BG carrying 10 GMT and less routes.
a) 24 hrs b) 48 hrs c) 12 hrs d) None of these
(67) If rail temperature after the maintenance operation in LWR/CWR track exceeds ____during the
period of consolidation, then the speed restriction of 50 Km/h shall be imposed.
a) td+20°C b) td+30°C c) td+25°C d) None of these
(68) If rail temperature after the maintenance operation in LWR/CWR track exceeds td+20°C during the
period of consolidation, then the speed restriction of ____ shall be imposed.
a) 30kmph b) 50 kmph c) 10kmph d) 20kmph
(69) While the reference marks on the reference pillars shall be saw marks, corresponding marks on the
running rails shall be ____
a) Saw marks on the non-gauge face of the rail.
b) Paint marks on the non-gauge face of the rail.
C) paint marks on the gauge face of the rail
d) None of these
(70) Side rollers on the inside of curve shall also be used while undertaking de-stressing on curved track
these should be spaced at every nth sleeper, Where,
a) n = Radius of curve (R) x No. of sleepers per rail length/ 100 x (to-tp)
b) n = Radius of curve (R) x No. of sleepers per rail length/ 50 x (to-tp)
c) n = Radius of curve (R) x No. of sleepers per rail length/ 30 x (to-tp)
d) None of these
(71) The work of de-stressing shall be done during a traffic block under the personal supervision of____.
a) JE/SSE/P.Way b) ADEN c) Gang Mate d) None of these
(72) Drawing no. RDSO/T-6902 (60 Kg) & RDSO/T-6914 (52 Kg) is for ___
a) Conventional SEJ b) single gap improved SEJ c) double gap improved SEJ d) None
(73) Single gap improve SEJ drawing no. RDSO/T-6902 is for ____
a) 52 kg rail b) 60 kg rail c) 60kg E1 rail d) None of these
(74) Single gap improve SEJ drawing no. RDSO/T-6914 is for ____
a) 52 kg rail b) 60 kg rail c) 60kg E1 rail d) None of these
(75) Drawing no. RDSO/T-6922 (60 Kg) & RDSO/T-6930 (52 Kg) is for ___
a) Conventional SEJ b) single gap improved SEJ c) double gap improved SEJ d) None
(76) Consolidation period for Existing track where maintenance activity involving disturbance to ballast
compaction (tamping operation) has been undertaken.
a) For the track structure consisting of concrete sleepers, passage of at least 50,000 gross tonnes
of traffic or a period of two days whichever is later.
b) At least one round of stabilisation by Dynamic Track Stabiliser (DTS).
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
(77) Wherever conditions permit, conversion of SWR into LWR should be considered. The additional
precautions should be observed when converting SWR into LWR –
a) The anticipated residual life of rails shall be at least10 years.
b) The rails shall be tested ultrasonically and all defective rails replaced before conversion into LWR.
c) Rail ends which are hogged or battered or have a history of cracks in bolthole region shall be cropped
before conversion into LWR.
d) All of the above
(78) Increase in temperature in LWR from td level will generate
a) Compressive force b) Tensile force c) depend upon hysteresis curve d) None
(79) Decrease in temperature in LWR from td level will generate
a) Compressive force b) Tensile force c) depend upon hysteresis curve d) None
(80) Breathing length in LWR can be expressed as___
a) Lb = E A α t/R b) Lb = E A α t/2R c) Lb= E α t/A d) none
(81) Factors affecting breathing length in LWR are----
a) Zone, sleeper density b) sleeper density, rail section
c) rail section, zone c) time of laying, zone
82. At a SEJ, theoretical calculations of movement of one LWR end shows an expansion of 4mm and a
contraction of 3mm during falling and rising temperature trends, respectively if the standard gap at td is
20mm what range of gap in permissible as per LWR manual
a) 23mm to 16mm b) 33mm to 6 mm
c) 3mm to 4mm d) 33mm to 16mm
83. Authority to approve plans for continuation of LWR through points and crossings
a) RDSO b) CTE c) PCE d) Rly Board
84. While continuing the LWR over a girder bridge, rail sleeper fittings should be
a) Rail free fastenings b) rigid fastenings c) two way keys d) hook bolts
85. While repairing a fracture in which a gap „g‟ has been created and paint marks made at a distance of
‟a‟ and „b‟ from the fractured rail ends, the following relationship should hold good if a closure rail
piece of length „l‟ is inserted
a) a+b+1mm = l+(2x25mm) b) a+b+g+1mm = (2x25mm)
c) a+b+1mm = l+(2x25mm)-g c) a+b = 1mm+l+(2x25mm)
Manual maintenance of Track
1. Annual Programme for Regular Track Maintenance is divided into ------- parts
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) none of these
2. In case of manual systematic through packing Ballast should be opened out on either side of the rail
seats to the extent from end of sleepers to ------ mm inside of the rail seat to a depth of ------ mm below
the packing surface without disturbing the cores under the sleepers.
(a) 400,25 (b) 450,50 (c) 500,75 (d) none of these
3.While opening of ballast for through packing, care should be taken to see that the ridge of ballast
between the rails does not project more than ------ mm above rail level.
4. If crow bars are used for slewing, these should be planted well into the ballast at an angle not more
than ------ degrees from the vertical otherwise lifting of the track may occur.
5.The alignment of the track is normally checked by “eye judgment”, On straight sighting the rail from a
distance of about --------.
(a) 10 to 15 m (b) 15 to 20 m (c) 30 to 60 m (d) none of these
6. The alignment of curve track is normally checked by sighting the ------- rail.
(a) outer (b) inner (c) outer or inner (d) none of these
7.The base rail is sighted by mate with eye along the ------ of the head of rail to locate the dip or low
joints. (a) top surface (b) lower edge (c) top edge (d) none of these
8.Complete overhauling of track will be accomplished normally within --------.

(a) 3 to 5 years (b) 5 to 7 years (c) 8 to 10 years (d) none of these
9. At or near the commencement of each gang length between stations a sample of standard section of
track of ---------- should be maintained
(a) one rail lengths (b) two rail lengths (c) three rail lengths (d) none
10. In case of manual overhauling, the crib ballast in the shoulders should be opened out to a depth of
______mm below the bottom of sleepers, sloping from the centre towards sleeper end.
a) 50 t0 75 b) 25 to 50 c) 75 to 100 d) None of these
Patrolling
1. Hot weather Patrolling will be introduced, when the rail temperature rises above------- on PSC sleeper
track with sleeper density 1540 nos. Per km and above.
(a) td + 20° C b) td + 25° C c) td + 30° C d) none of the above
2. Hot weather Patrolling will be introduced, when the rail temperature rises above------ on PSC sleeper
track with sleeper density less than 1540 nos. Per km
(a) td + 20° C b) td + 25° C c) td + 30° C d) none of the above
3.Patrol beat for Hot weather patrolling on single line or where only one road in a double line section is
having LWR/CWR is as follows
(a) One patrolman for 1 km b) One patrolman for 2 km c) One patrolman for 4 km d) none
4.Patrol beat for Hot weather patrolling on double line section when LWR/CWR exist on both roads is as
follows
(a) One patrolman for 1 km length of UP and DN line
b) One patrolman for 1 km length of UP line and one patrolman for 1 km DN line c) none
5.Cold weather patrolling shall compulsorily be started when rail temperature goes below ------.
(a) td - 20° C b) td - 30° C c) td -40° C d) none of the above
6.The walking speed of a Patrolman may be taken as ------ Kmph.

7.Patrol beat for cold weather patrolling on single line or where only one road in a double line section is
having LWR/CWR is as follows
(a) One patrolman for 2 km b) One patrolman for 4 km c) One patrolman for 3 km d) none
8.Patrol beat for cold weather patrolling on double line section when LWR/CWR exist on both roads is as
(a) One patrolman for 2 km length of UP and DN line
b) One patrolman for 2 km length of UP line and one patrolman for 2 km DN line
c) none of the above
9. The maximum distance covered by a Patrolman should not normally exceed ---- km in a day.
10. The length of each patrol beat should not normally exceed ------ km
11. The schedule of inspection of night patrolling for JE/SSE/P.Way (Sectional) by train to check over
patrolling at nights
(a) once a fortnight b) once a month c) once in three months d) none of the above
12. The schedule of inspection of night patrolling for SSE/P.Way (In-charge) by train to check over
patrolling at nights
(a) once a fortnight b) once a month c) once in three months d) none of the above
13. The beat length of Gang Patrolling shall be -----------
(a) Similar to the monsoon patrolling. (b) similar to hot weather patrolling
c) similar to cold weather patrolling d) None of the above
14. If the local conditions warrant, the JE/SSE/P-Way of the section concerned may introduce or
continue monsoon patrolling outside the stipulated dates, duly advising all concerned.
(a) True (b) False
15. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified and notified by
______.
(a) The GM (b) the Principal Chief engineer (c) the CTE (d) None of the above
16. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified and notified by
______.
(a) The Divisional Engineer (b) thePCE (c) the CTE (d) None of the above
17. Ordinarily patrolling will be carried out by a single Patrolman, but in regions where danger from wild
animals, dacoits and other risks exist, as in Ghat sections, suburban section or other specified sections,
patrolling in pairs may be introduced with the approval of ______.
(a) PCE (b) CTE (c) Sr DEN Co. (d) DEN
18. In connection with preparation of patrol charts which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The walking speed of a Patrolman may be taken as 5 Kmph.
(b) The maximum distance covered by a Patrolman should not normally exceed 20 km in a day.
(c) A period of at least half an hour rest is desirable between consecutive beats.
(d) For giving better protection to passenger trains between sun-set and sun-rise, it would be
advantageous to plot the scheduled paths of all passenger trains and then plot the patrol
movement in such a way, so as to minimize the time interval between patrolling of the beat and
passage of train.
19. In connection with preparation of patrol charts which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The walking speed of a Patrolman may be taken as 3 Kmph.
(b) The maximum distance covered by a Patrolman should not normally exceed 20 km in a day.
(c) A period of at least one hour rest is desirable between consecutive beats.
(d) Patrol charts should show all vulnerable locations where stationary watchmen are posted.
20. Size of number plate supplied to monsoon patrolmen is _____
(a) 15 cm square (b) 10 cm square (c) 15 cm Triangle (d) None
21. In connection with selection of patrolmen which of following statement is correct?
(a) Literate, Intelligent, experienced and trustworthy track maintainer should be selected from
the Permanent Gangs by JE/SSE/P-Way to work as Patrolmen and Watchmen.
(b) Twice the number required should be selected to serve as relief, in case of illness, to provide
for rest giver Patrolman etc.
(c) The track maintainer selected from each gang should be sent to the Divisional Medical Officer
for vision test and shall not be employed as patrolmen unless they have passed the requisite
medical test.
(d) All of these
22. The SSE/P.Way (In-charge) shall submit a certificate to the DEN through ADEN, ____ before the
commencement of the monsoon that he has made all arrangements for monsoon patrolling and for
watching vulnerable locations/bridges and that the patrolmen and the watchmen have been made
conversant with their duties, rules for the protections of the line and vulnerable locations in their beats.
(a) a month in advance (b) Two month in advance
(c) Three month in advance (d) None of these
23. Which of the following is not a equipment of the hot weather patrolman ?
(i) HS Flags - Red 2
(ii) HS flag green -1
(iii) Staff for Flags 1
(iv) Detonators 10
(v) Canne-a-boule fitted with rubber ball 1
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) and (v)
24. When a kink is observed by the Patrolman, he shall immediately examine at least ____ ahead and in
the rear of the kink for any floating condition of track.
(a) 100 sleepers (b) 50 sleepers (c) 200 sleepers (d) 100 m
25. The patrolling conducted during civil disturbances and special occasions –
(a) security patrolling (b) monsoon Patrolling (c) Gangs patrol (d) All of these
26. Apprehend damage to line when-
(i) the flood exceeds danger level at any of the bridges,
(ii) when there is damage to the protection work on bridges or on their approaches even before danger
level is reached,
(iii) the water on one side of the embankment is at a much higher level than on the other side,
(iv) When any obstruction such as a fallen tree is blocking the waterway of a bridge.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are true (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are true (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are true
(d) All are true
27. SSE/P.Way (In-charge) should check hot weather patrolmen when introduced; during day time
preferably between _____once in a month either by Train/Push trolley/Motor Trolley
(a) 10:00 to 14:00 hrs (b) 12:00 to 16:00 hrs (c) 10:00 to 16:00 hrs (d) none of these
28. SSE/P.Way (In-charge) should check hot weather patrolmen when introduced; during day time
preferably between 12:00 to 16:00 hrs _____ either by Train/Push trolley/Motor Trolley
(a) once in a month (b) once in two month (c) once in a fortnight (d) None of these
Points and crossing
1.For making gapless joint, -------- mm dia drilling bit is used.

(a) 28 mm b) 30 mm c) 26.5 mm d) none of the above.
2. A Tongue rail may be classified as damaged when it is chipped/cracked over small lengths aggregating
to ------- mm with in a distance of 1000 mm from its toe.
(a) 100 mm b) 200 mm c) 300 mm d) none of the above.
3. Spherical washers are used in heel block and distance block on the ----- side for both LH and RH Turn
out. (a) LH side b) RH side c) on both sides d) none of the above.
4. Overall length of 1 in 12 fan shaped turn out is

5. The versine at each station in lead curve and turn in curve should not be beyond ------- mm, from its
design value, as a good maintenance practice. (a) 3 mm (b) 4 mm (c) 5 mm (d) none of these
6.Maximum gap allowed between bottom of rail foot and top of leading stretcher bar is ---------.
7.Electrodes of H3B class used for reconditioning have a minimum service life of------ GMT
a) 35 GMT (b) 40 GMT (c) 50 GMT (d) none of these
8.In case of reconditioning of switches and crossings, Welding should be done using ------ mm diameter
electrodes only.
9.The versines of turn-in curves on loops should be recorded at stations at ----- m intervals on ----- m
chord length during the inspection of points and crossings.
a) 10,20 (b) 5,10 (c) 3,6 (d) none of these
10.Any hole drilled in the rail for providing S&T fixtures should be --------- of the rail and chamfered.
a) at the neutral axis (b) 6 mm above the neutral axis (c) 6 mm below the neutral axis (d) none of these
11.As per provisions of SOD diamond crossing shall not be laid flatter than -------.
a) 1 in 8.5 (b) 1 in 12 (c) 1 in 16 (d) none of these
12.Total number of sleepers required on 1 in 8.5 fan shaped turn out is -----
13.Permissible speed on turn out having 1 in 12 curved switch is ------- kmph

14.--------- machines have been deployed for mechanized tamping of turnout.
a) Unimate (b) Duomatic (c) CSM (d) none of these
15.There should be no change of cant between points ------- metres outside the toe of the switch and
the nose of the crossing
16.In case of CMS crossings for 52 kg section ------ mm should be deducted from the wear
measurements to find out the actual wear of wing rails and nose of crossing. .
a) 3 (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) none of these
17.At turn out Check rails are provided to prevent wheel flange from entering wrong groove and from
striking the nose of crossing in facing direction.
a) True (b) False
18.Joint inspection of points and crossing with S&T department shall be conducted ---------------------
a) once in three months on rotation basis by SSE/P.Way(in charge) and JE/SSE/P.Way(sectional)
(b) once in six months on rotation basis by SSE/P.Way(in charge) and JE/SSE/P.Way(sectional)
(c) once in a year on rotation basis by SSE/P.Way(in charge) and JE/SSE/P.Way(sectional)
(d) none of these
19.In case of Overriding switches, throw of switch to be maintained as ------- mm.

a) 120 ± 3 (b) 115 ± 3 (c) 125 ± 3 (d) none of these
20.’RE’ mark on the turn out sleeper should on RHS while facing towards the turn out
a) true b) False
21.Nominal gauge on PSC turn out is -------- mm

22)The gauge in crossing portion shall be ------ mm to ------- mm with respect to gauge prescribed in
standard drawing, i.e., 1673 mm, both in case of New Laying/ Renewal and during service.
(a) 0,4 (b) -3,+3 (c) -6,+6 (d) none of these
23) The checkrail clearance should be between ----- mm to ----- mm for fan-shaped turnout.
(a) 51,57 (b) 44,48 (c) 41,45 (d) none of these
24. -------- turnout shall not be laid from inside of a curved track
(a) 1 in 8.5 (b) 1 in 12 (c) 1 in 16 (d) none of these
25).The permissible speed for 1 in 8 ½ symmetrical split with curve switches is --------Kmph
(26) The number of crossing “N” will be equal to ----------. (where F is the crossing angle)
(a) tan F (b) cot F (c) sin F (d) none of these
28) Distance between ANC to TNC in case of 1 in 12 60 kg Turn out is

29) For 1 in 12 Turn out distance between ATS to TTS is ------ mm

30) Radius of lead curve of 1 in 12 turn out is ------ mm

31) Points and crossings should be laid ------- the 1 in 20 cant unless otherwise specified in the drawing.
(a) without (b) with (c) none of these
32) Heel divergence for 1 in 12 PSC Turn out is ------- mm

(a) 175 (b) 182.5 (c) 190 (d) none of these
33)The location where tongue rail acquires full head width is called ---------.
(a) Level point (b) Junction of heads (c) none of these
34) In case of CMS crossing on Rajdhani/ Shatabdi routes, as a good maintenance practice, crossing and
the wing rails should be planned for reconditioning/resurfacing by welding on reaching the wear limit of
35) Points and Crossings containing cracks on the worn-out portion having depth more than ------ mm
(as determined by gouging) beyond the condemning size shall not be selected for further reconditioning
36) Chipped length of tongue rail is considered as the portion where -----------------------------
(a) the tongue rail has worn out for a depth of more than 10 mm over a continuous length of 10 mm
(b) the tongue rail has worn out for a depth of more than 10 mm over a continuous length of 20 mm
(c) the tongue rail has worn out for a depth of more than 20 mm over a continuous length of 10 mm
(d) none of these
37) Limit of vertical wear for 60 kg stock rail is ------- mm

38) Cross over length for 1 in 12 60 kg/52 kg turn out is 97.578 m when centre to centre distance of
track is
(a) 4900 mm (b) 5000 mm (c) 5300 mm(d) none of these
39) In case of thick web switches, throw of switch to be maintained as ------- mm.
a) 160 ± 3(b) 115 ± 3 (c) 125 ± 3 (d) none of these
40. A tongue rail may be classified as worn/ damaged when-
(i)it is chipped/cracked over small lengths aggregating to 200 mm within a distance of 1000 mm from its
toe.
(ii)it is badly twisted or bent and does not house properly against the stock rail causing a gap of 5 mm or
more at the toe, the limit described in the IRSEM.
(iii) wear on stock rail shall not exceed the limits laid down in IRPWM.
(iv) Burred stock rail likely to obstruct the lock bar.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) is true (b) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) is true (c) All are true (d)
None are true
41. Radius of lead curve of 1 in 8.5 turn out is ------ mm
(a) 232260 b) 441360 (c) 784993 (d) none of these
42. For 1 in 8.5 Turn out distance between ATS to TTS is ------ mm
(a) 439 ` (b) 498 (c) 0 (d) none of these
43. In case of CMS crossings for 60 kg rail section ------ mm should be deducted from the wear
measurements to find out the actual wear of wing rails and nose of crossing. .
a) 3 (b) 2.5 (c) 2 (d) none of these
44. Overall length of 1 in 8.5 fan shaped turn out is
45. For the purpose of Cleaning and Lubrication of Points ,- which of the following statements is/are true
(i) At all interlocked and partially interlocked stations, the Signal staff will be responsible for the
periodical cleaning and lubrication of those slide chairs in which signalling and interlocking gears are
connected(generally upto third sleeper from toe of switch) in all points interlocked with signals or
provided with locks.
(ii) The SSE/JE/P. Way shall be responsible for the cleaning and lubrication of slide chairs of all hand
operated points on their sections and remaining slide chairs of all points interlocked with signals or
provided with locks.
(a) Both are true (b) (i) is true (c) (ii) is true (d) None of these
Rail, sleeper, Ballast and Fastening

1. Spacing of sleepers in case of M+7 sleeper density is
(a) 55 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 65 cm (d) none of these
2. When 52 kg rail is laid on 60 kg sleeper in track circuited area, Drg. No of GFN liner used in non gauge
face side is
(a) RT 3702 (b) RT 3707 (c) RT 3708 (d) none of these
3.No paint on gauge/non-gauge face indicates ---------
(a) class B rail (b) class A rail (c) US rail (d) none of these
4. Stipulated service life of 52 kg 90 UTS rail in terms of GMT
5. Minimum cess width for Formation shall not be less than
6. Shoulder ballast on outside of curve for BG LWR track is
7. For Group ‘B’ BG lines, future maximum permissible speed is.
(a) speeds upto 160 kmph b) speeds upto 130 kmph c) speeds upto 110 kmph d) none
8. Corrosion at liner contact area is not allowed to exceed a limit of------- mm at any point of time.
(a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 3 d) none of the above
9. For 25 T axle load minimum rail section to be -------
a) 52 kg 72 UTS b)50 kg 90 UTS c) 60 kg 90 UTS d) none of these
10. Minimum formation width for new works of straight single line BG track is ------- mm
11. Cross-Slope of formation top for new works is ------
(a) 1 in 30 (b) 1 in 40 (c) 1 in 50 (d) none of these
12. Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of the sleepers at the rail seat for loop lines is
------ mm
13. Juggle fish plate is used in case of
(a) weld failure (b) rail fracture (c) fish plated track (d) none of these
14. Limit of lateral wear on straight track for A & B routes is ------- mm
15. Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of the sleepers at the rail seat for siding lines
speed upto 50 kmph is ------ mm
a) 350 b) 300 ( c) 250 (d) 200
16.’RE’ mark on the turn out sleeper should on ____ while facing towards the turn out
a) RH side b) LH side (c ) Skew side (d) None of the above
17.UIC stands for International Union of Railway
a) United International Congress, b) Union of International railways
c) International Union of Railway d) None of these
18. Height of 60 kg rail is ------- .
a) 160 mm b) 172 mm c) 156 mm d) none of these
19. 880 grade rail is having ---------
a) Green paint on both sides of web surface b) No paint on web surface
c) blue paint on both sides of web surface d) none of these
20. 90UTS rail are --------- compared to 72 UTS rail.
a.softer and more ductile b) harder and less brittle
c) harder and more brittle d) none of these
21. For stacking of rails and welded panels, no. of layers in a stack should not be more than ---------
22. In case of lifting of 26 m rail, no. of lifting points is -------
23. Frequency of greasing and sealing of liner contact area for gauge face side is --------
a) once a year b) once in two year c) once in six months d) none of these
24. Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of the sleeper of the rail seat in case of CTR &
TSR a) 500mm b) 300mm c) 200mmd) 150mm
25. Fish plates are to be used at joints of two different rail sections
A) 1 mtr long fish plate B) Joggled fish plate
C) Combination fish plates D) Joggled fish plate with clamp
26. The liners generally used in track-circuited location_____ .
a) GFN b) Metal (c) Both(d) None of these
27. Side slope of ballast should not be steeper than
A) 1:2 B) 1.5:1 C) 2:1 D) none of these
28. Toe load of ERC MK-III is
A) 650kg B) 850-1100kg C) 1100kg D) 850kg
29. Minimum clean ballast cushions required for machine tamping is -------
(A) 150 mm (B) 200 mm (C) 350 mm (D) 250 mm
30. In how many groups BG lines are classified.
A) 5 Groups B) 4 Groups. C) 7 Groups D) none of these
31. Diameter of drilling bit used for making gapless joint is ____mm
a) 26.5 mm b) 28 mm c) 32 mm d) none of these
32. Minimum sleeper density in the loop lines and sidings with permissible speed upto 50 kmph for
zone -III is (A) 1660 (B) 1340 (C) 1540 (D) none of these
33. Frequency of toe load testing in non-corrosion prone area is
(a) 4 years or 200 GMT whichever is earlier (b) 2 years or 100 GMTwhich ever is earlier
(c) 3 years or 200 GMT whichever is earlier (d) none of these
34. Limit of vertical wear for 60 kg rail is -------mm
35.90 UTS rail having Minimum Ultimate Tensile Stress of ----- N/mm2
36. Weight of 60 kg UIC rail is ------
a) 51.89 kg/m b) 60.34 kg/m c) 75 kg/m d) none of these
37. Second hand rail fit to be re-laid in running lines –Ends to be painted with --------
a) a daub of white b) a daub of yellow c) a daub of blue d) none of these
38. Colour code for 13m rail is ------ on each end face.
a) white paint b) yellow paint c) blue paint d) none of these
39. In case of anti-corrosive painting, surface preparation should not be done when ambient
temperature is _____
a) below 10° C or above 50° C b) below 20° C (c) below 30 ° C (d) None of these
40. The limiting loss in rail section, as a criterion for recommending rail renewals for 52 kg rail shall be
------ % a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) none of these
41. In EUR rake three specially designed wagons are provided at the unloading end. The sequences of
the wagons starting from BFRs are ------------------------.
a) Ramp wagon followed by Threader wagon followed by Chute wagon
b) Threader wagon followed by Ramp wagon followed by Chute wagon
c) Threader wagon followed by Chute wagon followed by Ramp wagon
d) none of these
42. During Unloading of Long Rail Panel from EURs, Speed of unloading should not exceed -------- kmph
43.Loading / Unloading shall be done under the supervision of an Engineering Official NOT BELOW THE
RANK OF SSE/P WAY who shall personally ensure no infringement within the danger zone ie.
a) within 4 m of OHE b) within 3 m of OHE c) within 2 m of OHE d) none of these
44.If 20% or more of sample size of ERC records toe load below ------ kg and confirmed by testing
additional 5 % sample size of ERC then proposal for through fastening renewal should be initiated.
45. Length of PSC sleeper is ------
a) 2750 mm b) 2800 mm c) 2900 d) none of these
46. At the time of laying of PSC sleeper on curves of Radius > and upto 350m,the Gauge of track to be
maintained is a) -5 to + 10 mm b) -5 mm to +3 mm c) -6 mm to + 6 mm d) none of these
47. Minimum sleeper density for main line track (BG) is
a) 1660 nos/km b) 1540 nos/km c) 1340 nos/km d) none of these
48. periodicity of measurement of depth of corrosion both vertically and laterally using straight edge
and feeler gauge or any other suitable device is once in a year on every ------ sleepers
49. The slope at rail seat in PSC sleeper is
a) 1 in 40 b) 1 in 30 c) 1 in 20 d) none of these
50. Which fastenings are used on open web deck bridges?
a) Rail free b) elastic ( c) Rigid (d) All of these
51. In case of CGRSP,
a) the harder layer should be kept in contact of Rail,
b) the harder layer should be kept in contact of sleeper,
c) either (a) or (b) d) none of these
52.The surface of CGRSP where the manufacturer’s initials are embossed should be placed on rail seat,
--------- .a) facing down .b) facing up. c) either (a) or (b) d) none of these
53. Sample Size for Toe load measurement of elastic rail clip should be taken as
(a)measurement on 1% of ERCs randomly on every100 sleepers (all 4 ERCs to be measured on
one sleeper).
(b) measurement on 2% of ERCs randomly on every100 sleepers (all 4 ERCs to be measured on
one sleeper).
(c) measurement on 3% of ERCs randomly on every100 sleepers (all 4 ERCs to be measured on
one sleeper).
(d) none of these
54. The testing of ERCs is to be done after ---------.

a) four years b) passage of 200 GMT of traffic
c) four years or passage of 200 GMT of traffic, whichever is earlier.
d) none of these
55.if ____ % or more of sample size of ERC records toe load below ____ kg, both frequency of inspection
and sample size are to be doubled.
a) 20,600 b) 80, 400 (c ) 20, 400 (d) None of these
56. During sieve analysis, % age retention of machine crushed ballast on 40 mm square mesh sieve
should be (a) 20% to 30% (b) 40% to 60 % (c) 50% to 60% (d) none of these
57. Limits of vertical wear for 52 kg rail is --------
58. Limits of vertical wear for 60 kg rail is --------
59. Limits of lateral wear of rails when used in straight track of C & D routes is --------
60. Limits of lateral wear of rails when used in straight track of A & B routes is --------
61. Areas prone to corrosion of rails shall be identified by the ____ of the Railway on the basis of reports
sent by Divisional Engineers.
(a) Principal Chief Engineer (b) Chief Track Engineer (c) Sr.Divisional Engineer (d) none of these
62. Rail Painting should be done in two coats of thickness of 100 microns each by anti-corrosive
bituminous black paint conforming to _____ after an interval of 8 hours between two coats.
(a) IS: 9862 (b) IS: 9863 (c) IS: 9864 (d) none of these
63. In identified corrosion prone areas, the rail liner seat should be greased using graphite grease
_______ specification after proper cleaning.
(a) IS-408-1981 Gr. O (b) IS-406-1981 Gr. O (c ) IS-408-1982 Gr. O
66. Frequency of greasing and sealing of liner contact area for non-gauge face side of rail is --------
a) once a year b) once in two years c) once in six months d) none of these
64. A stiff paste of plumbago (Graphite) and kerosene oil, made in the proportion of ---- kg of plumbago
to ---- kg of kerosene oil may be used as lubricant for lubrication of rail joints
a) 3,3 b) 2,3 c) 3,2 d) none of these
65. All rail joints should normally be lubricated ------- on a programmed basis during the cold weather
months after the monsoon, from October to February.
a) once a year b) once in two years c) once in six months d) none of these
66. Cross sectional area of 52 kg/m rail section is ____.
a) 66.15cm2 b) 76.86 cm2 c) 76.70 cm2 d) none of these
67. Cross sectional area of 60 kg/m (UIC) rail section is ____.
68. Cross sectional area of 60 kg/m(E1) rail section is ____.
69. Actual Weight of 52kg rail is ------
a) 51.89 kg/m b) 60.34 kg/m c) 60.21 kg/m d) none of these
70. Actual Weight of 60kg E1 profile rail is ------
a) 51.89 kg/m b) 60.34 kg/m c) 60.21 kg/m d) none of these
71. Toe load of ERC MK-V is
A) 650kg B) 850-1100kg C) 1200-1500kg D) 850kg
72. Drawing number of 25 ton axle load wider sleeper___
(a) RT-2496 (b) RT-4149 (c) RT-8527 (d) None of these
73. IU (industrial Use) rails can be used in industrial sidings with a speed restriction of ___ Kmph.
(a) 30 kmph (b) 60 kmph (c) 50kmph (d) None of these
Track Machine
1. A ramp in and ramp out of --------- at the beginning and closing of Machine’s work should be given to
the track. (a) 1 in 500 (b) 1 in 1000 (c) 1200 (d) none of these.
2. Tamping Express Machine tamp -------- no of sleepers at a time.

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) none of these.
3. Block required for deep screening of turn out with RM – 80 92U (M/s Plasser India) M/c
(a) 2.5 hrs (b) 3.5 hrs (c) 5 hrs (d) none of these
4. When more than one track machine is running in a block section, there should be a minimum
distance of ------ metres between two units.
5. For tamping two insertions may be necessary if the lift is above ------- mm
6. Tamping tools to be replaced after ------ of wear from its original sectional area.
a) 30% (b) 20% (c) 50% (d) none of these
7. A trench of minimum ----- cm. Depth & 1.00 to 1.5 m width should be made for lowering of cutter bar.
a) 30 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 28 cm (d) none of these
8. Ballast cleaning machine used for points & crossing

a) RM – 80 (M/s PlasserIndia) (b) RM -76 (M/s PlasserIndia) (c) RM – 80 92U (M/s Plasser India)
(d) both (b) & (c)
9. Output of BCM is -------- m per effective working hour
a) 300 m (b) 200 m (c) 250 m (d) none of these
10. For working of BCM there should be no obstructions within a width of -------mm exist, infringing
cutter chain. a) 3000 mm (b) 4000 mm (c) 4500 mm (d) none of these
11. For tamping of one 1 in 12 turn out by UNIMAT 08-475 4S------ minutes are required.
a) 30- 45 minutes (b) 45 -60 minutes (c) 90-100 minutes
(d) none of these
12. Tamping depth to be set in the machine for track structure of PSC sleeper with 60 kg rail is
13. Function of tamping machines

a) Lining (b) levelling (c) tamping (d) all of these
14. Output of CSM is -------- per effective working hour

a) 1.2 Km b) 1.0Km c)0.8 Km d) 1.3 Km
15. Gap between the top edge of the tamping blade and the bottom edge of the sleeper in closed
position of the tamping tool should be adjusted to ---------.
a) 10-15 mm (b) 15-20 mm (c) 20-25 mm (d) none of these
16. The tamping (squeezing) Pressure for plain track should be adjusted
a) 110 – 120 Kg/Sq. Cm (b) 125-135 Kg/Sq.cm (c) 90-110 Kg/Sq.cm (d) none
17. The tamping (squeezing) Pressure for P&C should be adjusted
a) 110 – 120 Kg/Sq. Cm (b) 125-135 Kg/Sq.cm (c) 90-110 Kg/Sq.cm
18. Squeezing time for tamping machine should be
a) 0.8 second to 1.2 second (b) 0.4 second to 0.6 second (c) 0.6 second to 1.0 second
19. A minimum depth of ------- of clean ballast cushion below the bottom of the sleepers is
recommended for the proper functioning of the tie tampers.
20. Setting of____ tamping depth will squeeze bottom of sleeper & not ballast hence ineffective packing
effort a) Less (b) excess (c) Both(d) None of these
21. Setting of ------ tamping depth causes squeezing out of ballast from the high gap between bottom of
sleeper and top of tine and thus loose pockets in ballast, non-uniform compaction and hence retentivity
will be poor. a) Less (b) excess (c) Both(d) None of these
22. The squeezing pressure should be kept on ------ of the stipulated range for caked ballast.
(a)Higher side (b) lower side (c) not specified(d) None of these
23. For deep screening sites and newly laid tracks with unconsolidated ballast bed, the squeezing
pressure should be kept on ------- of the stipulated range.
a)Higher side (b) lower side (c) Not specified (d) none of these
24. BCM can do Lifting of track up to ------- mm in one pass.
25. BCM can do slewing up to -------- mm in one pass.
a) ±100(b) ±200 (c) ±300 (d) none of these
26. During BCM working, In absence of DTS for stabilization, speed restriction of ------ kmph on newly
screened location shall be imposed.
27. In case of M/C tamping, if lifting of track required is more than ------ mm but less than ------ mm,
double insertion in the same pass of tamping machine should be done.
(a) 30, 50 (b) 25, 40 (c) 30, 60 (d) None of these
28. Which of the following operation is not a step of Overhauling?
(a)Shallow screening and making up of ballast.
(b)All items attended to, while doing through packing as detailed in Para 607.
(c) Making up the cess.
(d) None of the above
29. Tamping depth to be set in the machine for track structure of wider sleeper with 60 kg rail is
30. The amount of general lift, to be applied to datum rail, will be ___
(a) The algebraic difference of higher and lower point of Datum rail.
(b) The algebraic difference of higher and lower point of Datum rail + 10 mm
(c) The algebraic difference of higher and lower point of Datum rail + 20 mm
(d) None of the above
31. For levelling of tamping dips and peaks are decided on preliminary survey of Datum rail in chord
length of _____m for eliminating short wave defects.
(a) Equal to machine chord length (15 m) approximately (b) 30m (c) 50m
32. Which of the following track parameter is not corrected by a Tamping machine?
(a) Gauge (b) alignment (c) cross level/twist (d) unevenness
33. The general principle followed in deciding the direction of feeding (toggle switch) versine
compensation (Vm) is as below: If machine is entering:-
(a) From large radius to low radius towards- outside
(b) From Low radius to large radius towards- inside
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
34. The lifting cap of PQRS machine is ___ tonne
a. 9 b) 10 c) 12 d) 6
35. The maximum speed of PQRS Portal crane is ______KMPH
a.15 b) 20 c) 14 d) 8
36. The permissible speed of self-propelled for BCM is _________KMPH
a.30 b) 20 c) 40 d) 50
37. The permissible speed on self-propelled for CSM is _____KMPH
a.50 b) 60 c) 30 d) 20
38. The permissible speed of self-propelled for FRM is _____ KMPH
a. 30 b) 40 c) 20 d) 50
39. The permissible speed on self-propelled for DGS is _____ KMPH
a.60 b) 50 c) 40 d) 30
40. The permissible speed on self profiled for UNI is _____ KMPH
a.60 b) 50 c) 40 d) 30
41. In BCM machine how many engines are available
a.Two b) Three c) one d) five
42. Who is responsible for pre block, block operation (other than machine operation) and post block
operations of machines
a.JE(P-WAY) b) Machine (IC) c) MTS d) All the above
43. After ______ Km of work POH of CSM be done
a.3750 b) 4000 c) 3000 d) 3500
44. After ____ numbers of T/O’s work, POH of UNIMAT is to be done
a.5000 b) 4000 c) 3000 d) 4500
46. The speed of cutting chain of BCM is ____ m/s
a.24 -40 b) 5 c) 2 d) 15
47. What medical category is required for staff working in track machines?
a.A-3 b) A-1 c) B-1 d) B-2
48. What is the minimum safe distance to be maintained while moving machines to work in block
section? A.200 b) 100 c) 50 d) 60
49. In 09-32 CSM machine________ numbers of tamping tools are provided
a.30 b) 32 c) 24 d) 36
50. For tamping of one sleeper ______ numbers of tamping tools are provided
a.20 b) 32 c) 16 d) 36
51. __________ Kmph speed to be resumed after deep screening with BCM and one round of tamping
along with DGS . a.65 b)50 c)30 d) 40
52. The level of auxiliary track should not be more than ______mm higher than the existing track
a.50 b) 75 c) 25 d) 100
53. What is the frequency of training that the operator should undergo in train working?
once in ? a. 3 yrs b) once in 5 yrs c) once in 2 yrs d) Annually
54. What is the size of tamping blade?
a.140 x 70mm b) 140 x 60mm c) 120 x 70mm d) 150 x 70mm
55. The lifting capacity of T-28 machine is _____tonnes
a.30 b)20 c) 40 d) 25
56. What is the stipulated output of the T-28 machine?
a.1 T/O in 3 gross block hours b) 1T/O in 3 ½ block hours
c) 1 T/O in 4 net block hours d) 1 T/O in 4 ½ block hours
Track Renewal
(1).The limiting loss in rail section, as a criterion for recommending rail renewals for 52 kg rail shall be
(2)The service life of P.Way components at special locations like turnout, CC aprons, Curves sharper than
5 Degree, SEJ, Gradient sharper than 1 in 100, coastal areas, station yards including approaches etc. is
----% that of plain track or on condition basis as decided by CTE
(3) Through Rail Renewal is also allowed in locations of track where more than ------ defective welds per
track km existing. (a) 20 (b) 25 (c) 30 (d) none of these
(4) ) Renewal of 60 kg CMS crossing shall be planned (after carrying out three rounds of reconditioning
using H3B/H3C IRS electrodes) after it has carried the minimum total traffic of ------ GMT
(5) If 20% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg, which is to be confirmed by ------ %
sample size, proposal of through fastening renewal should be initiated.
(6) The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering through rail renewal of 52kg 90
UTS rail is
(a) 550 (b) 525 ( c) 800 (d) none of these
(7) All loop lines should be deep screened once in ------ years
(8) Deep screening of track for turn out on main line shall be carried out if the clean ballast cushion is
less than -------- mm. (a) 200 (b) 250 (c) 150 (d) none of these
(9) The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering through rail renewal on the
bridge proper and in approaches (up to 100 m on either side) for all the important bridges shall be -------
of the GMT specified for normal track.
(a) same (b) half (c) three fourth (d) none of these
(10) Criteria for renewal of CGRSP in plain track location is

(a) 250 GMT or 4 years whichever is earlier or on condition basis as decided by CTE
(b) 400 GMT or 8 years whichever is earlier or on condition basis as decided by CTE
(c) 300 GMT or 4 years whichever is earlier or on condition basis as decided by CTE
(d) none of these
(11) Lateral wear is to be measured at ------- mm below the rail top table
(a) 10 (b) 13 to 15 (c) 16 to 20 (d) none of these
(12) The service life of ERC in plain track location is
(d) none of these
(13) Mechanised renewal of points & crossing is done by

(a) PQRS (b) TRT (c) T-28 M/c (d) none of these
(14) Dynamic gauge of auxiliary track for PQRS working is ----- mm .

(15) Through fittings renewal without replacement of ERCs is called --------.
(a) Through Fitting Renewal (R)

(b) Through Fitting Renewal
(c) Through liner & rubber pad Renewal
(d) none of these
(16) Concrete sleepers will be considered for replacement/renewal if they have developed notches more than---------- m
rail seat locations.
(17) Scattered Renewals are carried out in isolated locations and not more than ----- rails and/or ------
sleepers in a gang beat in a year.
(a) 20 ,500 (b) 10 ,250 (c) 5 ,200 (d) none of these
(18) Renewal of 52 kg CMS crossing shall be planned (after carrying out three rounds of in-situ reconditioning
using Robotic welding machine) after it has carried the minimum total traffic of ------ GMT
(a) 350 (b) 400 (c) 300(d) none of these
(19) ) Renewal of 52 kg Fabricated switch(ORS) shall be planned after it has carried the minimum total traffic
of ------ GMT
(20) Through sleeper renewal should be considered if the percentage of sleepers qualify for renewals exceeds
--------- in a patch.
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) none of these
(21) Corrosion beyond ------- mm in the web or foot may be taken as the criterion of rail renewal for wear
due to corrosion
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1.5 (d) none of these
(22) The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering through rail renewal on the
bridge proper and in approaches (up to 100 m on either side) for all major bridges having bank height
------- shall be half of the GMT specified for normal track.
(a) 3 m or more (b) 4 m or more (c) 5 m or more (d) none of these
(23) The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering through rail renewal on all
tunnels and their approaches (up to 100 m on either side) shall be ------ of the GMT specified for normal
track
(a) same (b) half (c) three fourth (d) none of these
(24) A minimum block of ------ hours duration is necessary where renewal works are carried out
manually. (a) 1 to 2 (b) 2 to 3 (c) 3 to 4 (d) none of these
(25) Criteria for renewal of GFN-66 liner in plain track location is

(d) none of these
(26) Criteria for renewal of metal liner in plain track location is

(d) none of these
(27) Codal life of insulated glued joints may be taken as for 60 kg/60 E1 rail section with 6 mm thick end
post (a) 300 GMT (b) 400 GMT (c) 500 GMT (d) none of these
(28) Codal life of insulated glued joints may be taken as for 60 kg/60 E1 rail section with 10 mm thick
end post and 52 kg with 6 mm/10 mm thick end post
(a) 200 GMT (b) 400 GMT (c) 500 GMT (d) none of these
29. The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering through rail renewal of 60kg
90 UTS rail is
30. The limiting loss in rail section, as a criterion for recommending rail renewals for 60 kg rail shall be
31. The work of Track renewals on double line should normally proceed in the______.
(a) direction opposite to Traffic (b) direction to Traffic (c) Any direction as feasible
32. Renewal of 60 kg Fabricated switch (ORS) shall be planned after it has carried the minimum total
traffic of ------ GMT
33. Renewal of 60 kg CMS crossing shall be planned (after carrying out three rounds of in-situ
reconditioning using Robotic welding machine) after it has carried the minimum total traffic of -----GMT.
(a) 350 (b) 400 (c) 300(d) none of these
34. The service life in terms of total GMT of traffic carried for considering renewal of 60kg Thick web
switch is (a) 800 (b) 400 (c) 300 (d) none of these
35. Foot by foot survey is carried out prior to the track renewal for----
(a) Accountal of materials to be released (b) Accountal of materials to be used
(c) To decide about need for track renewal (d) None of the above
Track structures on Bridges

1. In case of ROB/FOBs, the guard rail shall be provided on the track adjacent to a
column/pier/abutment which is located within a distance of ------ m from centre of track.
2. The top table of the guardrail should not be lower than that of the running rail, by more than ------
mm.
3. Clearance between guard rail and running rail for BG is ------- mm
(a) 200 +/- 25 b) 250 +/- 50 c) 300 +/- 25 d) none of the above
4. The clear distance between joint sleepers in case of steel sleepers on bridges should not be more than
------- a) 300 mm (b) 250 mm (c) 200 mm (d) none of these
5. In case of SWR track on bridge, no fish-plated joint should be located on the girder or within -------
metre from either abutment. a) 6 m (b) 10 m (c) 3 m (d) none of these
6. In standard plate girders no camber is provided a) True (b) False
7. Open web girders of span ------- m and above are provided with camber.
a) 12.2 (b) 18.3 (c) 30.5 (d) none of these
8. SWR maybe continued over girder bridges with un-ballasted decks up to ------ m opening if the length
of SWR is symmetrical to the centre line of bridge
9. SWR maybe continued over girder bridges with un-ballasted decks up to --m opening if the length of
SWR is unsymmetrical to the centre line of the bridge.
10. Guard rail should be provided on all girder bridges (including pre-stressed Concrete girder bridges
without deck slab) a) True (b) False
11. In case of ballasted deck bridges, Guardrails should be provided on --------
a) Important bridges (b) major bridges (c) minor bridges (d) both (a) & (b)
12. The track on the girder bridges not laid with LWR/CWR shall be isolated from LWR/CWR by a
minimum length of ------ metre of well-anchored SWR on either side.
(13) Maximum centre-to-centre spacing of steel sleeper should be ------ mm at all locations on the bridge
except at the cross girder in open web girders
(14) Bearings come under ------ components of a bridge
a) Super structure (b) sub structure (c) semi sub structure (d) none of these
(15) Provision of guard rail along the inner rail can be dispensed with in case of ballasted deck bridge
located on 5° or sharper curves with ------ kmph speed restriction
16. Which of the following is not a component of bridge superstructure?
(a) Track (b) Girder (c ) Bearing (d) None of these
17. Which of the following is not a component of bridge superstructure?
(a) Track (b) Girder (c ) Bearing (d) Bed block
18. Provision of guard rail along the inner rail can be dispensed with in case of ballasted deck bridge
located on ____or sharper curves with 30 kmph speed restriction
a) 5° (b) 4° (c) 8° (d) none of these
19. In the case of small bridge openings less than 6.1 m, rail joints should be avoided. For other spans,
the preferred position of the rail joint is at___ the span from either end.
(a) ½ (b) 1/3 (c) 1/5 (d) None of these
20. Track on girder bridges with un-ballasted deck is always laid with _______fastenings in all cases
(a) Rail free (b) elastic (c) rigid (d) None of these
21. Track on girder bridges laid with standard single rails and fish-plated joints should be isolated from
the SWR, if existing, on approaches on either side by providing at least ____ well-anchored Standard rail
lengths (a) Three (b) Two (c) One (d) None of these
22. Fabrication of Steel Sleepers on bridges and its protective coating should be inconformity with ___
issued by RDSO. (a) BS-45 (b) BS-65 (c) BS-40 (d) None of these
23. Minimum level of supervision while laying of channel sleepers shall be ___
(a) JE/P-WAY (b) SSE/P-WAY (c) Mate (d) None of these
24. Minimum length of guard rail outside ballast wall and maintained to Clearances of 250+/-50 is _____
mm (a) 1825 (b) 1875 (c) 4875 (d) None of these
25. Length of guard rails to be bent so as to be brought together at the middle of the track. is ____ mm
26. No guard rail/ derailment guard is required on approaches of a tunnel with single track for speed
upto ____ kmph (a) 100 (b) 75 (c) 60 (d) None
27. On approaches of a tunnel with single track having speed above 110 kmph guard rails/ derailment
guard shall be provided for a length _____ m from portal face outside the tunnel to 25m inside the
tunnel (a) 200 (b) 300 (c) 500 (d) None of these
28. On approaches of a tunnel with double track having speed above 110 kmph guard rails/ derailment
guard shall be provided for a length _____ m from portal face outside the tunnel.
29. Drawing number of H-Beam steel sleeper for 60KG Running rail
(a) B-1636/8 (b) B-1836/8 (c) B-1638/8 (d) None of these
30. Drawing number of 10 mm thick GRSP for 60 kg running rail on channel sleeper
(a) RT-5163 (b) RT-5156 (c) RT-5199 (d) None of these
TRC, OMS, Track tolerances
(1) The frequency of Track geometry monitoring by TRC for Routes with speed above 100 kmph and
upto 110 kmph is -----
(a) Once in 4 months (b) Once in three months (c) once in two months (d) none of these.
(2) TRC measures track parameters for each block of ------- m in entire km.
(a) 100 m (b) 200 m (c) 300 m d) none of these
(3)Frequency of OMS Recording On routes having Speed above 100 Kmph is ----------.
(a) once every three months (b) once every two months (c) once every month (d) none of these.
(4) For sectional speed above 110 kmph, Track quality is considered as very good when average total
number of peaks per km is
(a) less than 1.0 (b) less than 1.5 (c) greater than 1.0 (d) none of these.
(5).For sectional speed upto 110 kmph, the track will have to be attended urgently at locations where
lateral and vertical accelerations peaks exceed
(a) 0.25g (b) 0.20g (c) 0.30g (d) none of these
(6) Calculation of TQI value is based on

(a) Gauge and twist indices b) Unevenness and alignment indices
c) both of these d) none of these
(7) Any recording done by TRC is taken as 'Non recorded' when the speed of TRC is
(a) below 30 kmph (b) below 20 kmph (c) 50 kmph (d) none of these
(8) Permissible gauge range in floating condition for maintenance of track where speed is upto 30 kmph
is (a) -10 mm to +25 mm (b) -10 mm to + 27 mm ( c) -10 mm to + 20 mm (d) none of these.
(9) Track geometry Parameters measured by the Track Recording Car are -----
(a) unevenness (b) alignment (c) twist (d) all of these.
(10) The limits of twists as per measurement in floating condition, for guidance of the Engineering
officials regarding condition of track from passenger comfort perspective (to be calculated on a base of
3.0 m)on transition of curve is ----
(a) 2.1 mm/m (b) 2.8 mm/m (c) 3.8 mm/m (d) none of these
(11) TRC measures alignment parameter on short chord of length ------

a) 18 m b) 15 m c) 9.0 m d) none of these.
(12) To assess the track quality for routes having speed up to 110 kmph, vertical and lateral acceleration
peaks exceeding the values of ----- are to be considered.
(a) 0.2g (b) 0.1g (c) 0.15g (d) none of these.
(13) UML limits for TRC recordings are laid in terms of acceleration limits on comfort consideration and
peak values for
a) Both twist and gauge (b) only twist (c) only gauge (d) none of these
(14) In case of new track (when measurement recorded in floating condition), the gauge tolerance for
straight track including curves of radius up to 350 m and more is
(a) -6 mm to +6 mm (b) -5 mm to +3 mm (c) -3 mm to +3 mm
(d) none of these.
(15) The laying standards of track geometry for track laid with new material to be measured ------ after
speed is raised to normal.
(a) three months (b) one month (c) six months (d) none of these
(16)The limits of gauge on curves with radius 440 m or more as per measurement in floating condition,
for the guidance of the Engineering officials regarding condition of track from passenger comfort
perspective shall be -----
(a) -6 mm to +15 mm (b) -6 mm to +20 mm (c) -6 mm to +6 mm (d) none of these
(17) Permissible variation of spacing of sleeper w.r.t theoretical spacing is ---------

(a) +/- 10 mm (b) +/- 15 mm (c) +/- 20 mm (d) none of these
(18) No. of readings taken by TRC for each block of 200 m-------.
(19) For objective assessment of track quality, the following mechanized means are being used on Indian
Railways.
(a) Track Recording Car
(b) Oscillation Monitoring System
(c) Oscillograph Car
(d) All of these
(20) When Contact gauge sensors is used in TRC for measurement of Gauge Parameter, the maximum
recording speed of TRC is----- Kmph
(21) When Contactless laser based gauge sensor used in TRC for measurement of Gauge Parameter, the
maximum recording speed of TRC is ----- Kmph
(22) For planning/taking up maintenance of track in respect of Alignment, Unevenness, Gauge and Twist
Parameters based on TRC results, track shall be categorized under ------- categories:
(a) two (b) three (c) four (d) none of these
(23) The block section should be planned for through tamping if the percentage of blocks exceeding PML
is more than ------ .
(24) During OMS run, if vertical/lateral acceleration peaks exceed ------, suitable speed restriction should
be imposed immediately.
(a) UML (b) NBML (c) PML (d) none of these
(25) The Planned Maintenance Limits (PML) for Unevenness and Alignment are based on -----------
(a) Peak values (b) Standard Deviation (SD) values. (c) both (a) & (b)
(d) none of these
(26) In case of new track (when measurement recorded in floating condition), the gauge tolerance for
curves of radius less than 350 m is
(a) upto to +15 mm (b) upto +10 mm (c) upto to +20 mm (d) none of these.
(27) For speeds below 110 kmph and upto 50 kmph, the limits of station to station variation of versine in
a curve is
(a) 20 mm or 20% of average Versine on circular portion, whichever is more (b) 15 mm or 20% of
average Versine on circular portion, whichever is more (c) 40 mm or 20% of average Versine on circular
(d) none of these
(28) For speeds of 110 kmph, the limits of station to station variation of versine in a curve is
(d) none of these
(29) If more than ------ stations are having versine variations above the limits prescribed, complete
realignment of curve should be planned within a month.
(30) For maintenance of track where speed is upto 30 kmph, permissible peak value of twist (on 3m
chord) measured in floating condition is
(31) Yards should be planned for through tamping if the percentage of blocks exceeding PML is more
than ------ .
(32) Urgent maintenance limits (UML) are laid in terms of

(a) Acceleration limits on comfort consideration
(b) Peak values for Gauge and Twist.
(c) None of these
(d) all of these
(33) For new track and through renewal of track, tolerances for cross level recorded on every 4 th sleeper
measured in floating condition is
(a) +/- 6 mm (b) +/- 5 mm (c) +/- 3 mm (d) none of these
(34) The actual maintenance of track shall be planned on the basis of _____of different track parameters
in comparison to respective benchmark values.
(a) SD values (b) Peak values (c) Both SD & Peak values (d) None of these
35. For sectional speed above 110 kmph and upto 130 kmph the track will have to be attended urgently
at locations where lateral and vertical accelerations peaks exceed
36. For sectional speed above 130 kmph and upto 160 kmph the track will have to be attended urgently
at locations where lateral and vertical accelerations peaks exceed
37. Permissible gauge range in floating condition for maintenance of track where speed is upto 15 kmph
is
(a) -10 mm to +25 mm (b) -12 mm to + 27 mm ( c) -10 mm to + 27 mm
(d) none of these.
38. For speeds below 50 kmph, the limits of station to station variation of versine in a curve is
(d) none of these
39. For maintenance of track where speed is upto 45 kmph, permissible peak value of twist (on 3m
40. For maintenance of track where speed is upto 15 kmph, permissible peak value of twist (on 3m
41. OMS does not give----
(a)Lateral and vertical acceleration (b) Track parameters (c) Ride index (d) Speed of the train
USFD
1) USFD is a type of
a) Non destructive testing b) Destructive testing
c) Magnetic particle testing d) Dye penetration testing
2) Frequency of Ultrasonic wave is KHz

a) Below 20 b) Above 10 c) Above 20 d) Below 10
3) Frequency of USFD testing of rails on B/G section below or equal to 5GMT

a) Once in 5 years b) Once in six months
c) Once in year d) Once in two years
4) In USFD, Velocity of longitudinal wave in steel

a) 273 x 103 b) 59 x 103 c) 378 x 103 d) 18 x 103
5) In USFD, longitudinal wave is more than shear wave by times
a) 1.82 b) 1.6 c) 2 d) 2.82
6) In USFD, velocity of shear wave in steel is m/s

a) 2.73 x 103 b) 5.9 x 103 c) 3.23 x 103 d) 1.8 x 103
7) In USFD, linearity of times base means
a) Verification of vertical scale b) Verification of horizontal scale
c) Calibration of linear scale d) None of these
8) In USFD, Transverse fatigue cracks in head are detected by probe

a) 0º normal b) 80º c) 70º d) 37º
9) In USFD, Defect codification of Transverse crack in Thermit weld joint is

a) 111 b) 212 c) 421 d) 422
10) Total life of USFD machine is years
a) 8 b) 5 c) 2 d) 10
11) For USFD, Single rail tester is provided with no. of plates
a) 3 b) 5 c) 2 d) 1
12) In USFD, Concept of need based inspection is
a) Inspection frequency dependent on type of machine
b) Inspection frequency dependent on the incidence of defects
c) Inspection frequency dependent on type of rail
d) All the above
13) In USFD, if classification of rail defect is IMR, then paint mark on both faces of web is
a) XX with red paint b) X with red paint
c) XXX with red paint c) XXX with yellow paint
14) In USFD, dead zone is more in
a) Single crystal probe b) double crystal probe
c) Single &double crystal c) none of this
15) The sensitivity of USFD equipment shall be set up, with help of standard test rail piece at once in a
a) Week b) day c) month d) 2 days
16) In USFD, the gap between the contact face of normal probe and the sole of probe shoe shall be
----------- mm a) 0.1 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 0.2
17) in USFD, -------- probe is used to detect porosity, blow hole and slag inclusion in head and up to mid
web of AT weld a) 0°4 MHz b)70°2 MHz c) 0° 2 MHz d)37°2 MHz
18) In USFD, horizontal distance of the flaw from the probe index mark shall be calculated using formula
a) H=D sine b) H=s sine c) H=S Sine d) H=D tan e
19) In USFD, periodicity of setting the sensitivity calibration against temperature variation shall be
carried out at least once in
a) month b) year c)week d)3 months
20) In USFD, minimum flaw size which can be detected by present ultrasonic probes
a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0.8 d) 3
21) In USFD, latest technical specification no for digital ultra sonic testing equipment for welded rail joint
with LCD screen, trigonometrically function and A-scan storage is
a) M&C/NDT/129/2005 b) M&N/NDT/200/2005
b) M&D/NDT/128/2007 d) NONE OF THIS
22) In USFD length of co axial cable for probes shall not be more than ----m
a) 2.0 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 3
23) In USFD frequency of gauge face corner testing of rail is----------
a) Once in a year b) same as flange testing c) at the same frequency specified under NBC
d) none of these
24) In USFD, defects lying below, scabs / wheel burns can be detected by using --------- probe on head
a) 0° 4MHz normal b) 70° angle c) 0°2 MHz d) 45° 2 MHz side
25) In USFD, Defects are nearly vertical: they can be detected by using ----
a) Additional gain of 10-db b) horizontal crystal
c) Vertical crystal d) none of this
26) In USFD, frequency of first periodic testing of SKV welds on BG section route GMT is more than 45
a) once in 2 years b) once in a year c) once in a month d) once in a 3 month
27) In USFD, if classifications of rail weld defect is DFW (unprotected) then the speed restriction imposed
by USFD PWI is--------- kmph
a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 70
28) In USFD, accomplish GFC testing in present available SRT machines, Shifted 70° (F&B) GFC probes are
used in plane of --------probe
a) 0° b) 70°(F&B) c) 37°(F&B) d) none of this above
29) In USFD, no of probes in DRT modified to suit GFC Testing are
a) 10 b) 18 c) 6 d) 4
30) In USFD, first periodic test of gauge face corner testing of rails in new rails to be done at
a) once in year b) after passage of 40GMT c) at the frequency specified under NBC d) none
31) In USFD, linearity of amplitude means
a) verification of vertical scale b) verification of horizontal scale
c) calibration of linear scale d) none of these
32) In USFD, if classification of rail weld defect is DFW protected then the speed restriction for passenger
trains shall be imposed is --- kmph
a)20 b) 30 c)70 d) 100
33) As per Para 4 of USFD manual /correction slip No, check proper function of angle 70°angle probes
with respect to
a) Rail ends at fish plated joint b) gauge face corner c) Head web junction d) None
34) In USFD, oscillogram pattern for 45°probe mounted in test rig defected transverse crack on major
bridge and to mark IMR classification is
a) Loss of signal height equal to or more than 80%of full scale height
b) Loss of signal height equal to or more than 20% of full-scale height
c) Flaw echo height equal to or more than 20% of full scale height
d) Flaw echo height to or more than 20% of full scale height
35) Periodicity of setting the horizontal calibration of USFD Equipment
a) Once in a month b) daily c) once in a week d) once in 3 months
36) In USFD, OBS in a gauge corner defect is classified as
a) OBS(X) b) OBS (C) GCC D) OBS (G)
37) In USFD, Defect codification of traverse crack in flash butt weld joint is
a) 411 b) 212 c) 421 d) 412
38) In USFD, Horizontal crack in web are detected by ---------- probe
a) 0° normal probe b) 80° angle probe c) 80°angle probe d) none
39) In USFD, half moon cracks in AT welds are detected by --------probe on hand
a) 0° 2 MHz b) 45° c)80° d)70°
40) What is periodicity of the inspection of sectional AEN with USFD team?
a) minimum 2 hours once in each month b) minimum one hr each month
c) once in month d) quarterly
41) In USFD, the minimum probe gap between probing face and probing shoe is ------mm
a) 0.2 b)0.6 c)0.3 d) 1
42) In USFD, for sensitivity checking the duration is
a) once in week b) once in a month c) every day d) once in 15 days
43) In USFD, the ultra sonic probes used in the rail tester have frequency of 4MHz and 2 MHz, hence
cracks less than -------mm cannot be detected
a) 0.8 b)1 c) 5 d) 6
44) In USFD, for detection of bolt hole cracks, which probes are ideal?
a)37° b) 70° c)80° d) normal
45) In USFD, checking of the resolving power is made?
a) once in a month b) once in a week c) once in a fort night d) every day
46) In USFD, segregation in head and web junction is detected by -----probe
a) 0° b) 70° c)37° d)80°
47) In USFD, wheel bushes (2251, 2252) is detected by-----------probe
a) 70° b)0° c)37° d) 80°
48. In case two or more OBS/OBSW defects are located within a distance of 4.0 metre from each other,
such OBS/OBSW defects shall be classified as ------
a) IMR/IMRW b) REM c) DFWR d) None of these
49. What is the frequency of major bridge approach weld test and tongue rail test of SEJ
50. Normal probe is indicating a crack in fish plated area connecting bolt hole to head web junction, the
defect is classified as
a) REM b) IMR c) OBS d) Non reportable defect
51. Piping in rail head can easily detected by
a) 0 degree from top b)70 degree from top c) 0 degree from side d) 45 degree from side
52. Poor linearity of horizontal scale of USFD will result in
a) Improper location b) Improper size c) improper orientation d) no effect on flaw assessment
53. During side probing by two 45 degree probes to check crack below wheel burn 70% drop of signal
height from other end observed, the defect is classified as
a) IMR b) OBS c) non reportable defect d) DFWO
54. 300mm range calibration for longitudinal wave is equivalent to
a) 164.83mm b) 300mm shear wave c) 137.36 shear waves d) 546mm shear waves
55. 70 degree central forward probe ( during rail testing) is indicating a moving signal of 70% horizontal
movement and 50% vertical height on a AT weld, according to IR specification the defect shall be
classified as a) IMRW b) OBSW c) non reportable defect d) IMR
56. A star crack in bolt hole when tested by 0 degree probe may indicate
a) Stationary flaw echo b) shifting flaw echo with 0 effect on back echo
c) shifting flaw echo with drop of back echo d) all of these
57. 70 degree central forward probe (during rail testing) is indicating a moving signal of 70% horizontal
movement and 50% vertical height on a AT Weld, according to IR specification the defect shall be
classified as
(a) OBSW (b) Non-reportable defect (c) IMRW (d) IMR
58. A star crack in bolt hole when tested by 0 degree probe may indicate
(a) stationary flaw echo (b)shifting flaw echo with o effect on back echo
(c) shifting flaw echo with drop of back echo (d) all these
59. 70° forward probe (gauge face) is indicating moving signal of 40% horizontal scale movement & 60%
vertical height on a mid-rail, according to USFD manual, the defect is classified as
(a) REM (b) IMR (c) OBS (d) Non-reportable defect
60. The defect code (numeric) for transverse crack in rail head outside fish-plated area is
(a) 112 (b) 212 (c) 111 (d) 211
61. When sound energy is incident at steel-air interface
(a) Most energy is transmitted in air
(b) Most energy is reflected back in steel
(c) Equal energy is transmitted in air and reflected in steel
(d) None of these
62. While testing for piping by side probing of rail head by normal probe, a flaw echo was observed with
multiples the flaw is classified as
(a) OBS (b) IMR (c) Non-Reportable defect (d) None of these
63. In contact ultrasonic testing, defects near the entry surface cannot always be detected because of
(a) The far field effect (b) Attenuation (c) The dead zone (d) Refraction.
64. During testing of single line track, 70 degree central backward probe is indicating a moving signal
showing maximum vertical height of 30% and horizontal movement of 60% the defect is classified as
(a) REM (b) IMR (c) OBS (d) Non-reportable defect
65. During Rail testing, 70° gauge face probe is indicating a flaw signal of 70% vertical height with 0 to 2
div horizontal movement, the defect is classified as
(a) IMR (b) OBS (c) GCC (d) depends upon operator
66. Which probes are used during Flash Butt weld testing?
a) 45° b) 70° c) both a& b d) None of these
Welding of rails
1. The traffic can be allowed only after ------- have elapsed after welding of the joint.
(a) 30 min b) 45 min c) 60 min d) none of the above
2. DFWR defect of weld is marked by -------- with red paint on both faces of weld on head.
(a) one cross X b) two cross XX c) three cross XXX d) none of the above
3. In case of 25 mm gap A.T welding, mould waiting time is generally--------- minutes.

(a) 10-12 minutes b) 6-8 minutes c) 4-6 minutes d) none of the above
4. IMR defect rail should be replaced within -------days of detection.

(a) 2 day b) 3 days c) 5 days d) none of the above
5.Joggled fish plate with clamps or two far end bolts on good AT welds shall be provided on bridges
having length of waterway as ----------- and on its approaches upto 100 m length.
(a) 50 m or more (b) 75 m or more (c) 100m or more (d) none of these
6.Pre heating time for A.T weld with Compressed Air Petrol Mix technique is -------minutes with
pressure----------kg/cm2
(a) 8-10 minutes, 7-8 kg/cm2 b) 4-4.5 minutes, 0.2-0.3 kg/cm2
2
c) 6-8 minutes, 2-3 kg/cm d) none of the above
7.In case of rail fracture, the two ends of the fractured rail shall be first temporarily connected by a
temporary metallic jumper of approved design
(a) True (b) False
8. For both new as well as second hand rails, before welding it should be ensured that the end bends of
the rails are within ______ mm in vertical direction when checked with one metre straight edge
(a) +0.5 mm,-0.5 mm b) +0.5 mm,-0 mm c) +0.5 mm,-1 mm d) none
9. For both new as well as second hand rails, before welding it should be ensured that the end bends of
the rails are within ____ mm in lateral direction when checked with one metre straight edge
(a) +0.5 mm b) +0.6 mm c) +1 mm d) none of the above
10. In case of 52 kg second hand rail, minimum height of rail should be ------ for welding to be done.
11. In case of 52 kg second hand rail, minimum width of head of rail should be ------ for welding to be
done. (a) 60 mm b) 65 mm c) 61 mm d) none of the above
12. In case of 60 kg second hand rail, minimum height of rail should be ------ for welding to be done.
13. In case of 60 kg second hand rail, minimum width of head of rail should be ------ for welding to be
done. (a) 68 mm b) 66 mm c) 61 mm d) none of the above
14. A minimum traffic block of ____ minute duration, depending upon the type of preheating technique
adopted, should be obtained for complete operation of welding and to ensure good quality of AT weld.
(a) 60-65 minute b) 65-70 minute c) 70 -75 minute d) none of the above
15.A Thermit welding done in-situ shall be joggled fish plated with two clamps and supported on
wooden blocks of length _____mm until tested as good by USFD.
(a) 300-450 b) 250-350 (c) 200-400 (d) None of these
16. Joggled fishplate with clamps or two far end bolts on good AT welds shall be provided
(a) on banks having height 5 m or more.
(b) on bridges (having length of waterway as 100 m or more) and on its approaches upto100 m
length. (c)on curves of 3° or sharper. (d) All of these
17.While checking finished weld with one metre straight edge, variation of vertical alignment should not
more than -------- mm measured at the end of one metre straight edge.
(a) +1.0 mm, − 0.0 mm b) +1 mm,-0.5 mm c) +0.5 mm,-0.5 mm d) none of the above
18. While checking finished weld with one metre straight edge, variation of lateral alignment should not
more than --- mm measured at centre of one-metre straight edge.
(a)± 1mm b)± 0.5 mm c) ± 0.75 mm d) none of the above
19. While checking finished weld top surface with 10 cm straight edge, finishing of top surface variation
should not more than -------- mm measured at the end of 10 cm straight edge.
(a) +0.5 mm, − 0.0 mm b) +0.5mm,-0.5 mm c) +0.4 mm,-0.0 mm d) none of the above
20. While checking finished weld top surface with 10 cm straight edge, head finishing on sides variation
should not more than -------- mm over gauge side of the rail head measured at the centre of 10 cm
straight edge.
(a)± 0.3 mm b) ± 0.4 mm c) ± 0.5 mm d) none of the above
21. In case of second hand rails, If rail ends do not have bolt holes, the ends may be cropped to a
distance of minimum ----- mm for A.T. welds and ----- mm for flash butt welds from the centre of
welded joint to eliminate heat affected zone of welds.
(a)150,85 b) 200,100 c) 150,75 d) none of the above
22.At the time of welding, the joint shall be kept higher by ------ mm for 72 UTS rails and ------- mm for
higher UTS rails when measured at the end of 1.0m straight edge (as a compensation against sagging
caused by differential shrinkage on cooling).
(a)4 to 5mm ,2 to 2.5 mm b) 2 to 3 mm ,1 to 1.5 mm c) 3 to 4 mm , 2 to 2.4 mm
d) none of the above
23. The two rail ends to be welded shall be held in position with a uniform vertical gap of _____mm for
normal welding (a)25 mm+/-1 b) 50 mm+/-1 c) 75 mm+/-1 d) none of the above
24. Where rails of Grade 710 (72 UTS) rail chemistry and that of Grade 880 (90 UTS) chemistry are to be
welded, the portion of Grade ______chemistry shall be utilised for welding
(a) 710 (72 UTS) b) 880 (90 UTS) c) both (a) & (b) d) none of the above
25.No weld should lie with in ------- m of any other weld/fish plated joint
(a) 4 b) 6 c) 6.5 d) none of the above
26. Self life of thermit portion ___
(a) one year (b) Two years (c) Three years (d) Not stipulated
26. In case of repair of fractured rail/defective weld with wide gap (75mm gap) weld, the rail shall be cut
from centre of rail fracture/defective weld 37-38mm each side for making suitable gap of 75mm,
provided bolt holes do not fall within ____mm from cut faces.
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 40 (d) 100
27. Training and certification of Departmental welders and supervisors shall be done by ___
(a) Thermit Portion Plant (TPP), Northern Railway, Lucknow
(b) Thermit Welding Centre (TWC), South Central Railway, Vijayawada
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
28. Only ____ certified/passed portions should be used for welding.
(a) Railway Board (b) RDSO (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these
29. The rejected portions are to be disposed-off by igniting ____ portions at a time in pit away from the
store. (a) Three (b) Ten (c) Five (d) None of these
30. The rail end face and adjacent sides at foot (top and bottom), web and head up to ___ mm shall be
thoroughly cleaned using kerosene oil and brushing with wire brush to remove all dirt, grease and rust
before welding. (a) 50 (b) 75 (c) 30 (d) 100
31. No Alumino-Thermic welded joint shall be located closer than ____ from any other welded or fish
plated joint.
(a) 5m (b) 5.5m (c) 4m (d) 6m
32. In case of in-situ welding the rail fastenings for at least ___ sleepers on either side of the proposed
weld shall be loosened.
(a) Five (b) three (c) six (d) None of these
33. Shelf life of mould shall be ___ months minimum from the date of manufacturing.
(a) Six (b) Nine (c) twelve (d) Not stipulated
34. The pre-heating shall be done from the top of the mould box for stipulated period for welding
technique adopted, so as to achieve a minimum temperature of around____.
(a) 650 ⁰C (b) 900 ⁰C (c) 600 ⁰C (d) 1200 ⁰C
35. Pre heating time for Oxy- LPG preheating technique is -------minutes.
(a) 2-2.5 minutes b) 4-4.5 minutes c) 6-8 minutes, 2-3 kg/cm2 d) none
36. In case of pre-heating by Oxy-LPG process, pressure for oxygen and LPG cylinders shall be adjusted in
the range of ____ kg/cm2 and ____ kg/cm2 respectively.
(a) 7.0-8.0, 2.0-2.5 (b) 6.0-7.0, 0.2-0.25 (c) 8.0-9.0, 2-3 (d) None of these
37. For AT weld painting___
(i) Apply one coat of ready mixed paint, brushing, bituminous black, lead free, acid, alkali, water and
chlorine resisting, conforming to IS: 9862-1981 (with latest amendments) on the welded area and 10cm
on either side.
(ii) After eight hours drying, apply a second coat of the same paint.
(iii) Painting should be carried out by brush only.
(a) Only (i) is true (b) (i) and (iii) is true (c) All are true (d) None is true
38. The activities involved in Flash Butt welding of rails are (1) Burn-off, (2) Upsetting, (3) Aligning and (4)
Flashing. What is the correct sequence of these activities?
(a) 1-4-2-3 (b) 4-3-2-1 (c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 3-1-4-2
39. While checking finished Flash-Butt weld with new rail by one metre straight edge at the centre,
variation of vertical alignment should not more than -------- mm.
(a) +0.3 mm, − 0.0 mm b) +1 mm,-0.5 mm c) +0.5 mm,-0.5 mm d) none
40. While checking finished Flash-Butt weld with new rail by one metre straight edge at the centre,
variation of lateral alignment should be not more than -------- mm.
(a) +(-) 0.3mm b) +1 mm,-0.5 mm c) +0.5 mm,-0.5 mm d) none
41. While checking finished Flash-Butt weld with old rail by one metre straight edge at the centre,
variation of vertical alignment should not more than -------- mm.
(a) +(-)0.5mm b) +(-) 0.3mm c) +1.0mm, -0.0mm d) none of the above
42. While checking finished Flash-Butt weld with old rail by one metre straight edge at the centre,
variation of lateral alignment should be not more than -------- mm.
(a) +(-) 0.5mm b) +(-) 0.3mm c) +0.5 mm,-0.0 mm d) none of the above
WORKING OF MATERIAL TRAINS
Q 1. _________ train means a departmental train intended solely or mainly for carriage of railway
material when picked or put down for execution of works, either between stations or within station
limits.
(a) Goods (b) Mix (c) Material (d) Passenger
Q 2. The ADEN should arrange to form a material train in consultation with the __________ department.
(a) Engineering (b) S&T (c) Operating (d) Commercial
Q 3. For a material train to work during periods of poor visibility whose permission is required
(a) ADEN (b) DEN (c) Either 1 or 2 (d) DOM
Q 4. A material train must be equipped with at least ________ brake van on the rear
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
Q 5. If material train is required to work during night whose permission is required
(a) Den (b) Sr. DEN (c) DOM (d) ADEN
Q 6. Which of the following statement is correct regarding material train?
(i) Working of material train can be permitted between sunset & sunrise.
(ii) In normal condition a material train must not push back to the station in rear.
(iii) Normally material train can be push back during day- light only.
(a) Only (i) &(ii) are true (b) Only (ii) & (iii) are true (c) All are true (d) None is true
Q 7. _______________ department is the authority for ordering a material train.

(a) Engineering (b) S&T (c) Operating (d) Commercial
Q 8. The notice for ordering of material trains by the engineering department should not normally be
less than __________ days.
a.15 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 12
Q 9. _____________ certificate is required before a material train is allowed to work.
a.Competency (b) Fit to run (c) Medical (d) No
Q 10. Before a material train is allowed to work “Fit to run” certificate is issued to whom
a.JE/P.Way (b) LP/ALP (c) Guard (d) ADEN
Q 11. The official in-charge of material train shouldn’t be below the rank of ___________
(a) ADEN (b) SSE(P.Way) (c) JE(P.Way) (d) Mate
Q 12. Which of these is not required to be in possession of the Guard of a material train?
(a) A Watch (b) A whistle (c) Wedge/Skid (d) Banner Flag
Q 13. A material train whether or not provided with vacuum brake, must be provide with a _______
capable of being fastened down.
a. Hand Brake (b) Chain (c) Padlock (d) Detonator
Q 14. Which statement is not correct regarding Material train?
(i) A material train should not be divided outside station limits except in an emergency.
(ii) The driver of a material train can pass through any catch, loop or spring points which are
facing for his train and which are not protected by signals.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) None of these
Q 15. On stopping a material train driver should give __________ whistle to call the attention of the
guard.
(a) A Long blast (b) 3 Sharp blasts
(c) 2 sharp blasts (d) 4 Sharp blasts
Q 16. On stopping a material train driver should give __________ whistle to let the guard know for
application of hand brakes.
a. A Long blast (b) 3 Sharp blasts
Q 17. To start a stopped material train driver should give __________ whistle to let the guard know that
he needs to release the brake.
a.A Long blast (b) 3 Sharp blasts
Q 18. Before entering a steeper gradient ( 1 in 50 or steeper) the engine should be at _____ end of the
train. a. Up hill (b) Down hill (c) Front (d) Rear
Q 19. When running between block stations with the engine leading, the speed of material train shall
not exceed.
A.75 Kmph b. 60 Kmph c.Speed of a goods train with a similar load d. 40 Kmph
Q 20. Vehicles should not be detached from a material train on a grade of 1 in _____ or steeper.
a.200 (b) 100 (c) 50 (d) 150
Q 21. On down gradient steeper than 1 in ____, pushing of material train is not permitted .
a.100 (b) 200 (c) 50 (d) 150
Q 22. On gradient easier than 1 in 100 ascending or descending pushing of material train may be
permitted at a speed not exceeding ________ provided the brake van is leading and guard is present.
a.5 Kmph (b) 10 Kmph (c) 15 Kmph (d) 25 Kmph
Q 23. On gradient easier than 1 in 100 ascending or descending pushing of material train may be
permitted at a speed not exceeding ________ provided the brake van is not leading.
a.5 Kmph (b) 10 Kmph (c) 15 Kmph (d) 25 Kmph
Q 24. No material train is allowed to push back without ___________ from the station master.
a.Written authority (b) ‘Off’ position of last stop signal
c. Token/ Tablet (d) Metal Badge
Q 25. Before starting ________ flag must be tied in front of the engine & also at the back of the brake
van to let the men working on the line know that the train will push back.
a.Green (b) Red (c) No (d) Banner
Q 26. In an emergency, material train may push back during the night at a speed of
a.5 Kmph (b) 8 Kmph (c) Walking Speed (d) Sectional Speed
WORKS INCIDENTAL TO REGULAR TRACK MAINTENANCE
(1) Deep screening of Plain Track on Main line shall be carried out if the clean ballast cushion is less than
----- for section having sectional speed of 130 kmph and above
(2) Deep screening of Plain Track on Main line shall be carried out if the clean ballast cushion is less than
----- for section having sectional speed less than 130 kmph
(3) When deep screening is done by BCM machine followed by Tamping and Stabilisation of Track with
TTM(Tie Tamping Machine) and DTS (Dynamic Track Stabiliser),the initial speed restriction to be
imposed is (a) 40 kmph (b) 20 kmph (c) 15 kmph (d) none of these
(4) When deep screening is done by BCM machine followed by Tamping and Stabilisation of Track with
TTM(Tie Tamping Machine) and DTS (Dynamic Track Stabiliser), normal sectional speed can be resumed
on the ------ . (a) 21st day (b) 10th day (c) 8th day (d) none of these
(5) At the end of BCM working, Ramp shall not be located in locations like level crossing, Girder Bridge,
transition portion of curve etc. It shall be kept minimum -------- away.
(a) one rail length (b) two rail length (c) three rail length (d) none of these
(6) The lifting of track should not exceed ------- mm at a time so as to allow proper consolidation.
(7) The bottom of side drains should be at least ------ cm below the formation level.
(a) 30 cm (b) 40 cm (c) 50 cm (d) none of these
(8) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges shall not exceed ------- m in case of high banks.
(9) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of less than 100 metres
(10) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of 100 metres or more
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) A refuge over each pier. (d) none of these
(11) In the case of tunnels, the maximum distance apart of trolley refuges shall not exceed ------ metres.
(12) Tracks adjacent to platforms should be provided, with ‘distance pieces’ made of unserviceable
timber or any suitable material fixed at intervals of about -------- metre.
(13) During lifting of track the easement gradient for the passage of trains should not be steeper than
------ mm in one rail length of 13 metres.
(14) Lowering of track, should be restricted to a maximum of ------ mm at a time and the grade for
passage of trains should not exceed 25 mm in a rail length of 13 m.
(15) The ----------- is responsible for maintaining the railway land boundaries between stations and at
unimportant stations.
(a) SSE/P.Way (In-charge) (b) SSE/Works (In-charge) (c) ADEN (d) none of these
(16) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges shall not exceed ------ m on straight track in cuttings.
(17) Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges shall not exceed ------ m on curve track in cuttings.
(18) In the gang diary supplied to each gang, --------- programme of work should be entered by the
JE/SSE/P.Way. (a) weekly (b) fortnightly (c) monthly (d) none of these
(19) The person- in-charge for the working of rail dolleys shall be a railway servant not lower in rank
than --------- . (a) JE/P.way (b) Mate (c) Keyman (d) none of these
Question on contract management

1.In case of Limited tender, the tenders are invited from the number of contractors borne on
the approved list for the particular type of work should not be less than 10
2.Power of calling of open tender uptoRs. 4 crore lies with Sr.DEN/C
3.Numbers of tenderers from whom special limited tender is to be invited should preferably
with more than six but not less than four
4.In case of Two packet tendering system,--------- are opened at the first instance and evaluated
by a committee.(a) Technical bids (b) Financial bids (c) both technical & financial bids (d) none of
these.
5.For tenders valuing more than Rs.10 Crore, “Two packet system” shall mandatorily be
followed,except in cases where it is decided not do so by Accepting Authority (not below SAG)
with finance concurrence.
6.JAG/SG & SS officers (Independent charge) can invite quotation forworks directly related to
safe running of trains up to and including Rs.2 lakhsper case without finance concurrence
subject to annual ceiling limit of Rs. 10 Lakhs.
7.Quotations should normally be invited from at least three wellexperienced contractors/
agencies not necessarily borne on the approved list.
8.Most commonly usedtype of contracting format in Railways is schedule contract.
9.The zonal contractsadopted on the Railways fall under the category of Piece work contract.
10.Maximum value of one work order is Rs 5.0 lakhs
11.The LumpsumContract is a contract under which the contractor engages to carry out a work
or effect supply as specified and within a given period for a fixed total sum.
12.In case of any conflict between provisions of GCC and SCC, the provisions of SCC prevail.
13.e-Tender Forms shall be issued free of cost to all tenderers. True/false
14.For works in remote locations or of specialize nature or amount higher than Rs. 50 crore,
tender notice period should not less than21 days.
15.Accepting Authority nominates Tender Committee as per delegation of power. True/False
16.Direct Acceptance by Acceptance Authority without Tender Committee forOpen tender
UptoRs.50L invited through e-tendering
17.when there are multiple Lowest bidder, tender may be awarded
(a) as per higher bid capacity,
(b)to tenderer having done more value of similar work in last 3 pervious financial year and
current financial year
(c) to tenderer having done more value of similar work in last 3 pervious financial year and
current financial year If Bid capacity is same.
18.As per GCC,ENGINEER means (a) DEN,(b) ADEN, (c) SSE,(d) none of these.
19.Earnest money is taken as 2%of the estimated tender value for works costing up
toRsonecrore.
20.The Contract Agreement shall be executed only after submission of (a) valid PerformanceGuarantee.
(b) Security deposit, (c) Earnest money Deposit
21.Security Deposit is the amount taken by railway

(a)For the due and faithful fulfillment of the contract (all the contract conditions) by the contractor
(b) to safe guard against withdrawing or altering offer by tenderer [Bid Security ]
(c) both a & b above
(d) none of these.
22.The amount of security deposit to be deposited by the contractor @ 5% of the contract

value.
23.Security Deposit Shall be returned to the Contractor after

(a)Final Payment of the Contract and
(b) Execution of Final Supplementary Agreement or Certification by Engineer that Railway has
No Claim on Contractor and
(c) Issue of Maintenance Certificate, issued on expiry of the maintenance period, in case
applicable.
(d) all of the above
24.Performance Guarantee to be deposited within21 daysof issue of LOA and before signing of
agreement.
25.Extension to the time of submission of PG beyond 21days can be given by the authority
competent to sign the agreementupto 60 days.
26.PG to be deposited by the contractor @5%of contract value in acceptable Forms.
27.PG amount would not change for a variation of contract valueupto(+/-) 25%.
28.The tenderer who has offered lower total cost as compared to tender value by more than 10
%, shall be required to submit additional Performance Guarantee of value equal to half
the percentage of tender value by which offer is lower than10%
29.If performance prevented or delayed by reason of any war, hostility, acts of public enemy, civil
commotion, sabotage, serious loss or damage by fire, explosions, epidemics, strikes, lockouts or acts of
God (events)for a period exceeding 120 days, either party may terminate the contract by giving notice to
the other party.
30.If contractor fails to complete the works within the specified time due to his own fault, the
Railway may allow the contractor for further extension of timewith imposition of liquidated
damage(LD)
(a) with, (b) without, (c) none of these.
31.The Contractor shall commence the works within 15 daysof receipt of an order in writing
from the Engineer
32.Work Approved By Engineer’s Representative Can Be Disapproved / Rejected By
Engineer.True/False
33.when cost of work to be executedisRs. 2 Cr and above,the contractor should deploy Qualified
Graduate Engineer at work site.(a) graduate engineer, (b) diploma engineer (c) none of these.
34.A final termination notice should be issuedif the Contractor does notproceed to make good
his default.after expiry of 48 hours’ notice. (a) 7 days’ notice, (b) 48 hours’ notice, (c) 15 days’
notice, (d) none of these
35.In case Termination of Work as a Whole
(a)SD to be forfeited.
(b) PG to be encashed.
(c) Balance work shall be got done independently without risk & cost of original contractor
(d) All of these.
36.Obtaining tenders by direct invitation to a limited number of firms/contractors is termed as
(a) Limited tenders, (b) Open tenders, (c) single tenders, (d) none of these.
37.Limited tenders may be invited for works costing up to Rs. 7.5 Crores (Rupees Seven Crore
Fifty lakhs)
38.Technical Eligibility Criteria for tenderer is that the tenderer must have successfully
completed during last 07 (seven) years, ending last day of month previous to the one in which
tender is invited:
(a)Three similar works each costing not less than the amount equal to 30% of advertised value
of the tender,
(b)Two similar works each costing not less than the amount equal to 40% of advertised value of
the tender,
(c) One similar work each costing not less than the amount equal to 60% of advertised value of
the tender.
(d) any of the above
39.Financial Eligibility Criteria for tenderer is that the tenderer must have received contractual
payments inthe previous three financial years and the current financial year up to the date of
inviting of tender, at least 150% of the advertised value of the tender.
40.No Technical and Financial credentials are required for tenders having value up to Rs 50 lakh.
41.Reasons for Discharge of tender (a)Exceptionally high rates (b) Ring/ cartel formation (c)
Insufficient response (d) any of the above
42.Earnest money for works costing more than Rsonecroreis ----------- subjecttoamaximumof
Rs.1crore.
(a)Rs 2 lakh plus ½ % (half percent) of amount excess ofRs 1 crore
(b) Rs 1.5 lakh plus 1 % (half percent) of amount excess of Rs 1 crore
(c) Rs 1.0 lakh plus 1.5 % (half percent) of amount excess of Rs 1 crore
43.EMD of successful tenderer to be converted into - - - - - - - (a) PG, (b) SD, (c) LD, (d) none of
these.
44.If the tender value is 100 crores and the contract value is 80 crores. The additional
performance guarantees to be paid by the contractor is ------- (a) 4.5 crore (b) 5 crore (c) 3
crore (d) none of these.
45.If the contractor fails to deploy qualified graduate engineer at site as per condition of the
contract, he is liable to pay LD of --------. (a) Rs. 40,000 per month, (b) Rs. 25,000 per
month, (c) Rs. 50,000 per month, (d) none of these.
46.Stages in award of contract
(a) Pre tender planning, Calling of tender, Finalization of tender, Tender opening, Issue of acceptance
letter, Execution of contract agreement
(b)Pre tender planning, Calling of tender, Tender opening, Finalization of tender, Issue of acceptance
letter, Execution of contract agreement
(c)Pre tender planning, Calling of tender, Tender opening, Finalization of tender, Execution of contract
agreement, Issue of acceptance letter,
(d) none of these.
47.All the Government contracts are made in the name of ------ (a) Pr. Chief Engineer, (b) General
manager, (c)President of India, (d) none of these.
48.IREPS stands for (a) Indian Railways Engineering Procurement System (b) Indian Railways E-
Procurement System (c) Indian Railways Engineering Production System (d) none of these.
49.Minimum authority to signing contract agreement up to Rs.4 crores (a) DEN,(b) Sr.DEN/C,(c)
CTE (d) none of these
50.Tender validity period for two packet system of tendering is ----- (a) 60 days,(b) 45 days,(c)
120 days (d) none of these.
51.Extension to the time of submission of PG beyond 21days can be given by the authority
competent to sign the agreement (upto 60 days), however a penal interest @12%per annum
would be applicable for delay beyond 21 days i.e. 22nd day after the date of issue of LOA.
IR Works manual
( Duties, Buildings, Passenger Amenties)
1. When shall the AEN should carry out inspection of each section engineer's office and stores?
A. Once in 6 months
B. Once in 2 years
C. once in a year
D. Once in a month
2. Progress report on passenger amenities works should be sent by

A. AEN to Sr. DEN
B. IOW to AEN
C. IOW to Sr. DEN
D. Sr. DEN to CE
3. Progress report on works under execution by construction units to be sent by to _

.
A. CAO/C to GM and PHODs
B. IOW to AEN
C. IOW to Sr. DEN
D. Sr. DEN to CE
4. The SSE (Works) shall examine all tools and plants with artisans in .
A. Once in 6 months
B. Once in 2 years
C. once in a year
D. Once in a month
5. Service Books for group “d” staff should be prepared by the by whom on the prescribed
form.
A. Sr. DEN(CO)
B. AEN
C. SSE(Works)
D. Chief OS
6. Inspection of land boundary verification should be done by SE/Works & SE/P.Way once in
_________
A. 3 months
B. six month
C. 1 year
D. None of the above
7. Full Form of NBC

A. National Building Committee
B. National Building Code
C. National Building Corps
D. National Board Certification
8. What should be the per capita consumption for designing the water supply system?
A. 100 litres per person per day
B. 180 litres per person per day
C. 200 litres per person per day
D. 220 litres per person per day
9. What should be the Minimum height of plinth from the surrounding ground?
a. 60 cm
b. 45 cm
c. 30 cm
d. 25 cm
10. Which Code is used for design of structures for Earthquake resistant design in construction
of buildings?
a. IS 456-2000
b. IS 816-1969
c. IS 4326-1993
d. IS 2720-1980
11. For addition and alteration of any temporary structures whose written sanction should be
necessary.
a. ADEN
b. SR. DEN
c. DRM
d. PCE
12. In office building, How many Urinal are proposed for every 7 to 20 persons.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
13. In office building, drinking water fountain to be provided one for how many persons.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 125
d. 100
14. Plinth Area for type II quarters

a. 35.50 sqm
b. 45 sqm
c. 54.0 sqm
d. 55.75 sqm
15. Plinth area for type III quarters is .

a. 40.80 sqm
b. 54.00 sqm
c. 63.00 sqm
d. 86.00 sqm
16. approval of concerned grade officer is necessary for using New material available in
the market may be used
a. JAG
b. Jr. Scale
c. Selection Grade
d. SAG
17. The sitting of buildings or other structures in the vicinity of tracks should be avoided.
a) Inside of curve
b) Out side of curve
c) both inside and outside
d. None of the above
18. Minimum slope to be provided on the Floor of bathroom towards water outlets.
a. 1 in 60
b. 1 in 100
c. 1 in 80
d. 1 in 50
19. As per NBC, minimum size of bathroom .

a. 2.0 sqm
b. 1.5 sqm
c. 1.8 sqm
d. 2.2 sqm
20. When SSE (Works) should inspect all the buildings, water supply installations, sewage
installations and drainage arrangements?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once a year
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in month
21. When should be All the structures situated alongside the running lines should be
thoroughly inspected by SSE/JE (Works)?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once a year
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in month
22. When the Annual Zonal contract was commences every year.
a. 1st September
b. 1st April
c. 1st July
d. 1st January
23. Decode SIG

a. Station Information Group
b. Service Installation Group
c. Station improvement Group
d. Service Improvement Group
24. . When should the inspection of Colony Care Committee along with SSE (Works)?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once a year
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in month
25. When should the Colony care Committee hold meeting?

a. Once in 2 months
b. Once a year
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in month
26. Petty Repair Register is maintained by whom at every station.

a. IOW
b. AEN
c. Station Master
d. PW
27. Who will be chairman of Colony Care Committee?

a. IOW
b. AEN
c. Station Master
d. PWI
28. How many numbers of members constitutes from each of the two recognised unions for
Colony care Committee?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
29. When should the Painting of the interior wood or steel work should normally be done
a. 3 to 5 years
b. 1 to 5 years
c. 1 to 3 years
d. 5 to 7 years
30. When should the Colour washing and distempering of hospital building to be done for area
with having more than 1500 mm rainfall per year?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once a year
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in month
31. Additions and alterations of a permanent nature in staff quarters shall be carried out
with the prior approval of
a. DEN
b. DRM
c. PCE
32. Use of new materials available in market may be used with the approval of
a. ADEN
b. DEN
c. SAG
33. Mosquito proof shutters should be provided in higher than

a. Type III and above
b. Type IV and above
c. Type V and above
d. All of above
34. The number of water closets to be provided in office buildings for 100 persons.
a. 2 Nos
b. 3 Nos
c. 4 Nos
35. Hospitals important room flooring should be

a. Mosaic
b. Cement concrete
c. Granite
36. The colony committee will be constituted for railway colonies when the number
of staff quarters is more than
a. 500 Qrs
b. 1000 Qrs
c. 2000 Qrs
37. Transfer of buildings should be affected with approval of ___________ Committee

a. Colony committee
b. SIG
c. Quarters Committee
38. Colony committee will be hold meetings once in every ____________ months
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
39. Painting woodwork should be normally being done once in __________ years
a. 2-3 years
b. 3-5 years
c. 5-7 years
40. ADEN should inspect FOB once in a year _____________
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 50%
41. Handing over of commissioned assets by construction organization to open line with in
_______ days of commissioning of the said assets.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 90
42. Major dismantling sites minimum level of supervision should be nominated by

a. ADEN/AXEN
b. DEN/XEN
c. Sr.DEN/Dy.CE
43. The slope of Platform end ramp should be provided
a. 1 in 6
b.1 in 8
c. 1 in 10
44. Height of letters for Principal & Secondary name boards are
a. 75 mm
b.200mm
c. 300mm
45. Platform Number signs board colour should be

a. White figure on blue background
b. Blue figure on white background
c. Black figure on white background
46. For foot-over bridges, sub-way and pathway the lowest overhead clearance should be
a. 2 meters.
b. 2.75 meters
c.3 meter.
47. The principal board height from platform level to bottom of board should be
a. 1.5 meters
b. 1.75 meters
c. 2 meters
48. Demarcation line should be drawn at _______ m from the edge of platform for free movement
of passengers and not to allow the trolleys.
a. 1.2m
b. 1.5m
c. 1.8m
49. For foot over bridges and sub ways minimum width for movement of passengers should be
_______ m.
a. 1.5m
b. 2m
c. 2.5m
50. All single face platforms should be provided with a suitable fencing or hedging of a height of
a. 1.5m
b. 1.8m
c. 2m
51. As per scale of minimum essential amenities at ‘A’ class station ________number of water taps
should be on each platform.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
52. Water cooler may be provided if the total number of passengers is more than ________ per
day.
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 2000
53. Standard slope for installation of escalators at important stations in degrees

a. 60 degrees.
b. 45 degrees.
c. 30 degrees.
d. 50 degrees.
54. What is the Number of booking counter for category B station based on minimum essential
amenities.
a. 8
b. 15
c. 12
d. 10
Water Supply
55. In verticality of tube well what is the maximum deviation for every 30m of boring is acceptable.
a. 75 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 100 mm
56. During Chlorination, what is the minimum contact time is provided before delivery of water.
a. 30 to 60 minutes
b. 60 to 90 minutes
c. 10 to 30 minutes
d. 20 to 45 minutes
57. What is the Distance between two Manholes of upto 300 mm diameter of sewer line?
a. 60 m.
b. 15 m.
c. 30 m.
d. 45 m.
58. Specific yield of well is

a) Discharge per unit time
b) Yield of well per metre of drawdown
c) Velocity of water per unit time
59. While taking sample of water from well, sample is collected

a)About 2 metre above the bottom of wel
b) About 1 metre above the bottom of well
c)About 1 metres below the bottom of well
d) none of the above
60. While collecting sample of water from tap the

a) Mouth of tap is heated for 3 minutes
b) Mouth of tap is heated for 10 minutes
c)Mouth of tap is not heated
d)none of the above
61. Demand of water for passengers on railway station is

a)10 litres per passenger
b)15 litres per passenger
c) 20 litres for passenger
d) 25 litres per passenger
62. Maximum daily demand of water is taken as ---------- times the average daily demand
a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.70
d) 2.0
63. The spacing of tube wells should generally be more than ----------from the circle of influence
a)10 metre
b)50 metre
c)100 metre
d) 500 metre
64. The capacity of highest storage tank with efficient standby pump should be higher of the
following figures
a)1/4 the maximum water consumption in 24 hours
b)1/3 the normal water consumption in 24 hours
c)1/4 the normal water consumption in 24 hours.
d) a or b
65. With regard to standard of quality of drinking water as laid down by Indian Railway , the
requirement (desirable) limit of total dissolved solids should not be more than---------- mg/l
a)200
b) 300
c) 400
d) 500
66. Chandigarh is a city which has roads generally parallel or perpendicular to each other. The ideal
water supply system in such a city should be
a. Dead and system
b. Grid Iron system
c. Ring system
d. Any of them
67. From distribution main of 40 mm size , number of service pipe of 15 mm size can be taken off
are--?
a) 3
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
68. From distribution main of 40 mm size, number of service pipe of 20 mm size can be taken off are
---?
a)3
B) 6
c) 10
d) 12
69. From distribution main of 50 mm size, number of service pipes of 15 mm size can be taken off
are --?
a) 6
b)10
c) 12
d) 20
70. PH value of drinking water as per wh0 standards should lie between
a)5 and 5.5
b)6 and 7
c) 7 and 7.5
d) 6.5 and 8.5
71. The amount of residual chlorine after a period of contact 10 to 20 minutes is
a. 0.1 to 0.2 ppm.
b. 0.2 to 0.3 ppm.
c. 0.3 to 0.4 ppm
d. 0.4 to 0.5ppm
72. A rural water supply serves a population of 10, 000 at the rate of 50 litres per capita per day .
For the chlorine dose of 2 PPM the required amount of bleaching powder with 20% available
chlorine will be
a. 0.5 kg
b. 5 kg
c. 10 kg
d. 15 kg
73. Aeration Of water is done to remove

a) Odour
b) Colour
c) Bacterias
d) Turbidity
74. Requirement of water for platform washing is

a) 5 litre per square metre per day
b) 10 litre per square meter per day
c) 15 litre per square metre per day
d) 20 litre per square metre per day
75. Requirement of water for apron washing

a. 5 litre per square metre per day
b. 10 litre per square metre per day
c. 15 litre per square metre per day
d. 20 litre per square metre per day
76. The pumping system should be capable of supplying the normal quantity of water required in 24
hours in
a)12 hours or less
b) 16 hours or less
c) 20 hours or less
d) 8 hours or less
77. Water connection given to contractor for construction work can be discontinued by giving a
notice of
a) 3 days
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) no notice is required
78. The water supply system should be designed on the basis of at least ____liters/person/day
a.150
b.200
c.250
79. The minimum residual free chlorine should be available at tail end point
a. 0.1 ppm
b. 0.2 ppm
c. 0.3 ppm
80. The spacing of manholes designed for 300 mm diameter sewer is

a. 30 meters
b. 40 meters
c. 45 meters
81. Horizontal separation for water main to any drain and sewer _________ m
a. 1m
b. 2m
c. 3m
82. The rate of flow at delivery end of hydrant shall not be less than ______liters/min.
a. 100
b. 150
c. 200
83. When the reduced level of the water source is higher than the reduced level of the consumer's
place, water is generally supplied
a. By pumping system
b. By gravitational system
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. All the above
84. In pressure supply mains, water hammer pressure is reduced by providing

a. Sluice valves
b. Air valves
c. Pressure relief valves
d. None of these
85. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of
a. Suspended solids
b. Acidity of water
c. B.O.D.
d. None of these
86. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a. Water with hardness upto 75 ppm is considered soft
b. Water with hardness more than 200 ppm is considered hard
c. Water needed for laundries should contain hardness less than 75 ppm
d. All the above
87. The process of passing water through beds of granular materials, is called
a. Screening
b. Sedimentation
c. Filtration
d. None of these
88. Mathamoglobinemia or blue baby disease is caused due to

a. Chlorides
b. Nitrites
c. Nitrates
d. Sulphides
89. The main disadvantage of hard water, is

a. Greater soap consumption
b. Scaling of boilers
c. Corrosion and incrustation of pipes
d. All the above
90. Mostly used coagulant, is

a. Chlorine
b. Alum
c. Lime
d. Bleaching powder
91. Time of concentration

a. Is the time taken, for precipitation
b. Duration of rainfall
c. Time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
d. Time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain
92. For calculation of economical diameter D of a pipe in metres for a discharge Q to be pumped in
cumecs, Lea suggested the empirical formula
a. D = 0.22 Q
b. D = 1.22 Q
c. D = 2.22 Q
d. D = 3.22 Q
93. Rapid gravity filters
a. Were developed by G.W. Fuller
b. Make use of coarser sand with effective size as 0.5 mm
c. Yield as high as 30 times the yield of slow sand filters
d. All the above
94. Maximum threshold number permitted for indicating the odour of public water supplies, is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
95. In a rapid sand filter, air binding is caused due to excessive

a. Negative pressure
b. Pressure
c. Turbidity
d. Water pressure
96. The factor for the selection of pumping station site, is

a. Distance of the source of contamination or pollution
b. Height above the H.F.L. of the river
c. Future expansion
d. All the above
97. To remove very fine suspended particles from water, the method adopted is
a. Screening
b. Sedimentation
c. Boiling
d. Filtration
98. The detention period for plain sedimentation water tanks, is usually
a. 4 to 8 hours
b. 8 to 16 hours
c. 16 to 24 hours
d. 24 to 36 hours
99. Air valves are generally provided in pressure pipes of water supply
a. At pipe junctions
b. At summits
c. At low points
d. Near service pipes
100. Hardness of water can be removed by boiling if it is due to

a. Calcium bicarbonates
b. Calcium sulphates
c. Calcium chloride
d. Calcium nitrates
101. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
a. Adding alum
b. Adding lime
c. Adding chlorine
d. Zeolite process
102. The maximum pressure to which a pipe is subjected to during its operation, is known
a. Working pressure
b. Design pressure
c. Test pressure
d. Pipe pressure
103. The best process of disinfection of public water supply, is by

a. Boiling
b. Chlorination
c. Adding lime
d. Adding ozone
104. The storage capacity of a reservoir may be divided into three zones. The lowest zone is
a. Dead storage
b. Useful storage
c. Surcharge storage
d. None of these
105. Aeration of water is done to remove

a. Odour
b. Colour
c. Bacterias
d. Turbidity
106. Pressure relief valves are provided in water mains

a. To reduce the pressure
b. At low points
c. Upstream of sluice
d. All the above
107. Quality of water is said to be good if it is

a. Free from suspended matter
b. Colourless
c. Free from pathogenic organism
d. All the above
108. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be

a. Nil
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15
109. At break point of chlorination,
a. Chlorine is used to oxidise
b. Residual chloride is zero
c. Residual chloride is maximum
d. Residual chlorine reappears
110. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to

a. Calcium sulphate
b. Magnesium sulphate
c. Calcium nitrate
d. Calcium bicarbonate
111. In a rapid gravity filter

a. Raw water from the source is supplied
b. Disinfected raw water is supplied
c. Raw water passed through coagulation tank is supplied
d. None of these
112. The maximum permissible nitrites in public water supplies, is

a. Nil
b. 0.5 P.P.M.
c. 1.0. P.P.M.
d. 1.5 P.P.M.
113. The standard B.O.D. at 20°C, is taken for the consumption in

a. 2 days
b. 3 days
c. 4 days
d. 5 days
114. During treatment of water, sedimentation is done

a. Before filtration
b. After filtration
c. Simultaneously with filtration
d. Along with chlorination
115. Per capita demand of water is calculated in litres

a. Per person per day
b. Per person per month
c. Per person per year
d. None of these
116. The yield of a rapid gravity filter as compared to that of slow sand filter, is
a. 10 times
b. 15 times
c. 20 times
d. 30 times
117. The most ideal disinfectant used for drinking water throughout the world, is
a. Alum
b. Lime
c. Chlorine
d. Nitrogen
118. Dissolved carbon dioxide, can be removed from the supply main by
a. Sedimentation
b. Aeration
c. Chlorination
d. Coagulation
119. The temporary hardness of water can be removed by

a. Boiling
b. Adding lime
c. Adding alum
d. Filtration
120. The level of underground water is called

a. Water level
b. Water table
c. Negative level
d. Invert level
121. Rapid sand filter

a. Should be preceded by coagulation and sedimentation
b. Uses rapid sand as filter media
c. Is used after slow sand filtering has been done
d. Can combine disinfection also
122. Water having pH value as 6, is

a. Alkaline
b. Acidic
c. Neutral
d. None of these
123. Efficiency of removing bacterias from raw water by a slow sand filter, is
a. 80% to 81%
b. 85% to 86%
c. 90% to 97%
d. 98% to 99%
124. Disinfection of drinking water is done to remove

a. Turbidity
b. Odour
c. Colour
d. Bacterias
125. The specific retention is least in case of
a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Silt
d. Coarse gravel
126. Pipes are laid parallel

a. To increase the capacity of the water supply
b. To provide a means of repairing without closing water supply
c. To meet the requirement of excessive supply
d. All the above
127. B.O.D. of treated water should be

a. 10 ppm
b. 25 ppm
c. 20 ppm
d. Nil
128. Corrosion of a pipe

a. Reduces its life span
b. Reduces its carrying capacity
c. Adds colour to water
d. All the above
129. A well is considered to be good if it is sunk into

a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Coarse gravel
d. Silt
130. Chlorination of water does not remove

a. Ammonia content
b. B.O.D.
c. Organic matter content
d. Dissolved oxygen
131. The ensure proper growth of children's teeth, the quantity of fluoride used in water
mains, is
a. 1 mg/litre
b. 2 mg/litre
c. 3 mg/litre
d. 5 mg/litre
132. The permissible pH value for public water supplies may range between
a. 4.5 to 5.5
b. 5.5 to 6.5
c. 6.5 to 8.5
d. 8.5 to 10.5
133. Alum is a
a. Coagulant
b. Flocculent
c. Catalyst
d. Disinfectant
134. Chemical coagulation of drinking water, is done

a. To settle suspended materials
b. To increase rate of settlement of suspended materials
c. To remove the bacterias
d. None of these
135. pH value is a symbol for ____________ concentration.

a. Hydrogen ion
b. Nitrogen ion
c. calcium ion
136. Data for Estimating Requirements of Water in Offices per head
a. 30 lit per head
b. 35 lit per head
c. 45 lit per head
137. Absolute verticality is ideal to a deviation of 100mm per _________ metres of boring is
generally acceptable where submersible pumps are not to be installed.
a. 20 m
b. 30m
c. 45m
138. Minimum residual pressures at ferrule points for two storey building is
a. 7m
b. 12m
c. 17m
139. Generally ______ %of the water supplied may be considered to reach the sewers
a. 60
b. 80
c. 90
140. Vertical separation for water main to any drain and sewer _________ m
a. 0.5
b. 1
c.3
141. In water distribution system at consumers end, the minimum residual gauge pressure
should be __________.kg/cm2.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
142. Maximum Velocity of flow in a sewer is recommended not to exceed ______ mps
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
Plantations & Management of Lands
143. The frequency for hedge cutting should be?

a. once in a month
b. once in two month
c. once in three month
d. once in every forth night
144. At wayside stations where Engineering staff is not posted, daily watering to
young trees may be entrusted to _________ staff.
a. Operating
b. S&T
c. Commercial
145. Watering to hedge should be provided?

a. once in a week
b. once in a week till fully grown
c. once in a week till fully grown than once in two month
d. once in every forth night
146. Provision of lawn and hedge for officer's bungalow should be
a. 200 sqm. & 200m
b. 100 sqm. & 200m
c. 200 sqm. & 75m
d. 100 sqm. & 75m
147. The fixing of reserve price of lots to be sold by auction should be fixed by divisional
engineer in whose consultation?
a. FA&CAO
b. DEN
c. Sr. DEN
d. Accounts officer
148. Normal size of pit for plantation should be what as per area wise as well as how
much deep it should be?
a. 0.5 Sqm and .5mts
b. 0.5 Sqm and 1mts
c. 0.75 Sqm and 1mts
d. 0.75 Sqm and .5mts
149. Licensing of borrow pit tanks for pisi-culture can be done for a period of?
a. 1 to 5 years
b. 2 to 5 years
c. 3 to 5 years
d. 4 to 5 years
150. Steps to clear the obstruction from private land are laid down in which act
a. section 11 of Indian railway act 1989
b. section 12 of Indian railway act 1989
c. section 13 of Indian railway act 1989
d. section 14 of Indian railway act 1989
151. Consolidated information regarding the afforestation in railway land to be sent to

railway board by ?
a. 30th April of every year.
b. 30th May of every year.
c. 30th June of every year.
d. 30th July of every year.
152. Lawns mowing schedule

a. Once a fortnight
b. Once a week
c. Once a once a fortnight and once a week in summer
d. Once a month
153. Lawns watering schedule

a. Once a fortnight
b. Once a week
d. Once a month
154. Lawns weeding

a. Once a fortnight
b. Once a week
d. Once a month
155. The law regarding acquisition of land is embodied in.

a. Land acquisition act of 1894.
b. Land acquisition act of 1984.
c. Land acquisition act of 1948.
d. Land acquisition act of 1989.
156. Relinquishment of railway land should be as per

a. Indian railway code of engg dept.
b. Indian railway P-WAY manual.
c. Indian railway works manual
d. Indian railway Bridge manual.
157. The contingency charges in all relinquishment estimates should be

a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
158. Annual license fee for commercial plots for city booking agencies, out agencies etc.
should be
a. 5%
b. 6%
c. 7%
d. 8%
159. Licensing and leasing of railway land to other govt. dept. should be
a. 5% of market value
b. 6% of market value
c. 7% of market value
d. 8% of market value
160. The size of pit before planting should be

2
a. 0.5 m
b. 0.75 m2
c. 1.0 m2
161. Provision of Lawns in Officers Bungalows may be adopted as a guideline

a. 100 m2
b. 150 m2
c. 200 m2
162. Survey of surviving trees should be maintained in the register the minimum girth of
a. 15 cm
b.30 cm
c. 50 cm
163. The depth of pit for planting young tree should be dug ________m
a. ½
b. 1
c.1½
164. The periodicity of inspection for encroachment should be done once in

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. one year
165. In areas having habitation bordering railway land and also where habitation is likely in
near future, boundary should be provided with
a. Boundary walls
b. Fencing
c. Boundary Stone
166. Encroachments by outsiders removal of which requires action under PPE Act
a. Category – A
b. Category –B
c. Category – C
167. Demarcation of Land Boundary stones should, in no case be at a greater

distance apart ___________ m.
a. 50
b. 100
c. 200
168. The boundary stones may be of suitable size and section, projecting about
________ mm above ground
a. 300
b. 500
c. 1000
169. In land plan permanent land should be marked in

a. Yellow colour
b. Pink colour
c. Red colour
170. Rates fixed for water pipe line x’ing for cultivation by individual farmers
a. Rs.500
b. Rs.1000
c. Rs.2000
171. Land for assisted siding outside the railway boundaries will be acquired under
the land acquisition Act by _________
a. Railway
b. Siding owner
c. Non of the above
172. The licence fee for land used to lay private siding
a. 6%
b. 10%
c. 20%
173. The maximum period of lease for Kendriya Vidyalaya may be give upto
a. 10 years
b. 30 years
c. 99 years
174. The inspection interval of encroachment by SE/Works is once in

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
175. Encroachment by outsider removal of which requires action under PPE Act.
a. Category-A
b. Category-B
c. Category-C
Preparations of plans, Explosive And Security of Railway Materials
176. Drawing and documents which are capable of being reproduced is known as
a. Engineering scale plan
b. Standard drawing.
c. topo sheet
d. Tracing.
177. The sequential sheet number is indicated by

a. n/n
b. p/n
c. n/p
d. p/p
178. If a corrected survey for river does not exist then length of stream to be surveyed
on upstream as well as on downstream respectively.
a. 2 KM & 2Km
b. 8 KM & 8Km
c. 2 KM & 8Km
d. 8 KM & 2Km
179. Existing work remain should be shown in which line.

a. full line
b. dashed line
c. double line
d. dot line
180. Standard drawing for track and bridges are provided by

a. CCRS Office.
b. General manager offices
c. Railway board
d. RDSO
181. Blasting operation within how many meters of a running line should normally be
carried out under block protection.
a. 25
b. 45
c. 50
d. 100
e.
182. Track with in how many mts of rock to be blasted should be protected by covering
with old sleepers.
a. 20
b. 40
c. 60
d. 80
183. The presence of work inspector is necessary when blasting operation take place
within how many mts from the building.
a. 40
b. 60
c. 80
d. 100
184. What is the quantity of Dynamite and other similar explosive should destroy at a
time.
a. 2.5 Kg
b. 5.0 Kg
c. 10.0 Kg
d. 7.5 Kg
185. All blasting, storage and use of explosive should be as per which act?
a. Indian explosive act
b. Indian blasting act
c. Indian explosive storage act
d. Indian explosive and blasting act
186. The offence in which police is not liable

to take action including effecting arrest without specific order of magistrate are .
a. Non Negotiable offence
b. Major penalty
c. Cognizable offence
d. Non Cognizable offence
187. The offence in which police can effect arrest without specific order of magistrate
are ?
a. Non Negotiable offence
b. Major penalty
c. Cognizable offence
d. Non Cognizable offence
188. Smoking is prohibited while conveying, handling or using of explosives with in

a. 5 m
b. 10 m
c.100 m
189. The minimum safety distance for heavy blasting not less than
a. 60 m.
b.100 m
c.150 m
190. The maintenance of Law and Order on railways including running trains dealt with
a. RPF
b. Local Police
c. GRP
191. Rock to be blasted near by track should be protected with wooden sleeper
a. 60 m
b. 100 m
c. 150 m
192. When there is a tie at an action and a railway servant happens to be one of the bidders,
offer shall be given preference to
a. Outsider
b. Rly servant
c. Cancel
193. Index Plan and Index Section should be prepared in sheet size
a. AO
b. A1
c. A2
194. Title block should be drawn at ____________ corner of drawing.

a. Left bottom
b. Right bottom
c. Left top
195. Blasting operations with in ______ metres of a running line should be carried out under
block protection.
a. 60m
b. 100m
c. 150m
196. No blasting should be done within _________ hour of the time when any train is
expected to pass.
a. ½
b. 1
c. 1½
197. The responsible of Law and Order in Rly staff quarters area dealt with ______
a. RPF
b. GRP
c. Local Police
198. Office records may be handed over to GRP with the authority of _________
a. SE/Works
b. DEN
c. PCE
199. Under section 147 of the Rly Act empowers a Rly official to effect the arrest of any
person who has committed _________ offence
a. cognizable
b. non-cognizable
c. none of the above
200. Reserve price for each lot sold by auction should be fixed by __________ in
consultation with the Accounts Officer.
a. ADEN
b. DEN
c.PCE
201. The Security for Railway property lies with

a. RPF
b. Local Police
c. GRP
Schedule of Dimensions
202. Maximum gradient in station yard for existing work.

(a) 1 in 1200
(b) 1 in 260
(c) 1 in 400
(d) ruling gradient
203. Maximum gradient in station yard for new works

(a) 1 in 1200
(b) 1 in 260
(c) 1 in 400
(d) ruling gradient
204. Maximum clearance of check rail at level crossing

(a) 48mm
(b) 51mm
(c) 44mm
(d) 57mm
205. Minimum clearance of check rail at level crossing

(a) 48mm
(b) 51mm
(c) 44mm
(d) 57mm
206. Minimum clearance of check rail at curve

(a) 48mm
(b) 51mm
(c) 44mm
(d) 57mm
207. Formation width on curve ……………………….

(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remain the same
(d) none of these
208. Full for of MMD………………………………

(a) Maximum moving dimension
(b) minimum moving dimension
(c) Maximum moving diameter
(d) Maximum modifying dimension
209. Minimum radius of curve …………………

(a) 175m
(b) 440m
(c) 875m
(d) 1000m
210. Full form of CRS………………………………

(a) Commissioner of railway safety
(b) Commissioner of rail safety
(c) Commission of railway safety
(d) Commissioning of railway safety
211. Formation width for double line BG in cutting

(a) 7850mm
(b) 12160mm
(c) 13160mm
(d) 5300mm
212. Formation width for double line BG in embankment

(a) 7850mm
(b) 12160mm
(c) 13160mm
(d) 5300mm
213. Formation width for single line BG in embankment

(a) 7850mm
(b) 12160mm
(c) 13160mm
(d) 5300mm
214. Formation width for single line BG in cutting

(a) 7850mm
(b) 12160mm
(c) 13160mm
(d) 5300mm
215. Minimum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of passenger platform coping:
(a) 1670mm
(b) 1680mm
(c) 1675mm
(d) 1905mm
216. Maximum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of passenger platform
coping……………………….
(a) 1670mm
(b) 1680mm
(c) 1675mm
(d) 1905mm
217. Maximum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of passenger platform
wall……………………….
(a) 1670mm
(b) 1680mm
(c) 1675mm
(d) 1905mm
218. Minimum Horizontal distance from centre of track to face of passenger platform
wall……………………….
(a) 1670mm
(b) 1680mm
(c) 1675mm
(d) 1905mm
219. Minimum slope of Diamond crossing

(a) 1in85
(b) 1 in 440
(c) I in 400
(d)1 in 1200
220. Minimum horizontal distance of any building on a passenger platform from centre line
track from platform level to 305 mm above platform level
(a) 5330mm
(b) 5330 mm decreasing uniformly to 5180 mm.
(c) 5180 mm increasing uniformly to 5300 mm.
(d) 5180 mm increasing uniformly to 5330 mm
221. Minimum distance centre to centre of tracks for new works / additions to existing works.
a) 4265mm
b) 4725 mm
c) 5300 mm
222. Where 25 K.V. A.C Traction is likely to be used, the minimum height above rail level for a
distance of 1600mm on either side of the centre of track shall be for Light overhead structure such
as foot over bridges.
a) 4875 mm
b) 5870 mm
c) 6250 mm
d). None of the above
223. Gauge on straight including curves of 350 m radius shall be

a) -5mm to +3mm
b) 6mm loose
c) exact gauge
224. Where 25 K.V. A.C traction is likely to be used, the minimum height above rail level for a
distance of 1600mm on either side of the centre of track shall be for Heavy overhead structure such
as road over or fly over bridges.
a) 4875 mm
b) 5870 mm
c) 6250 mm
225. Minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to any structure except a platform for
new works from 1065mm above rail level to 3355mm.
a) 2135mm
b) 2360mm
c) 1905mm
226. Formation width on curves increase due to extra ballast on outside of curves
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
227. The minimum centre to centre distance of a B.G. track in mid-section is ……….. mm
(a) 4200
(b) 4265
(C) 4350
(d) 4000
228. Any deviations from the Schedule of dimensions will require prior sanction of ……….
(a) Zonal Rly
(b) Rly Board
(c) CRS
(d) All of them
229. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is ……. M or less in B.G.
(a) 150m
(b) 200m
(c) 218m
(d) 225m
230. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange form rail level in B.G. is …… mm
(a) 35
(b) 38
(c) 42
(d) 45
231. What is maximum height above rail level for low-level passenger platform for BG?
(a) 300mm
(b) 455mm
(c) 525mm
(d) 550mm
232. O.D.C. Stands for

(a) On direct current
(b) Over dimensioned consignment
(c) None of them
(d) Operating & gate
233. In case of ‘A’ Class ODC escort is………..

(a) Necessary
(b) not necessary
(c) does not matter
(d) on direct current
234. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platform is ……. Mm
(a) 1000mm
(b) 1050mm
(c) 1065mm
(d) 1075mm
235. Maximum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of any platform wall is ………..
(a) 1905mm
(b) 1855mm
(c) 1805mm
(d) 2100mm
236. Maximum height above rail level for high passenger platforms:
(a) 760mm
(b) 840mm
(c) 1065mm
(d) 455mm
237. Minimum height above rail level for high passenger platforms:
(a) 760mm
(b) 840mm
(c) 1065mm
(d) 455mm
238. Minimum radius of curve in new line having passenger platform

(a) 1750m
(b) 1000m
(c) 750m
(d) 875m
239. Minimum length of tongue rail

(a) 5300mm
(b) 4500mm
(c) 3660mm
(d) 3550mm
240. Minimum Horizontal distance centre to centre of track in tunnels, Road Over Bridges /
Flyovers, through and semi through girder bridges clearances prescribed for existing works
(a) 4495mm
(b) 4265mm
(c) 4725mm
(d) 5300mm
241. Minimum Horizontal distance centre to centre of track in tunnels, Road Over Bridges /
Flyovers, through and semi through girder bridges clearances prescribed for new works
(a) 4495mm
(b) 4265mm
(c) 4725mm
(d) 5300mm
242. Recommended horizontal distance of any building

(a) 6830mm
(b) 8500mm
(c) 10201mm
(d) 12130mm
243. Maximum height of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 2745mm
(b) 3250mm
(c) 3450mm
(d) 4140mm
244. Maximum width of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 2745mm
(b) 3250mm
(c) 3450mm
(d) 4140mm
Engineering Code, Engineering Survey
245. In reconnaissance survey which measuring instrument is used?

(a) theodolite
(b) Dumpty level
(c) Total station
(d) No instrument is used
246. ----------survey will solely decide whether a line Is to be built or not.
(a) reconnaissance survey
(b) preliminary survey
(c) Final location survey
(d) none of these.
247. What percentage is minimum acceptable rate of return by applying DCF technique for
financial appraisal?
(a) 10%
(b) 2.0%
(c) 5%
(d) 12.5%
248. What should be the useful life of assets taken For financial appraisal?
(a)5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 30
249. All doubling should be taken over by open line organisation within how many Months of
the date of opening to goods traffic, ballasting and other residual works.
(a) 12
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 6
250. Completion report for the work should be given in which form?
(a) E-1720
(b) E-1702
(c) E-702
(d) E-1706
251. For opening of passenger traffic at least how many month notice should be given to who
this is given for the date on which it is desired that the inspection should takes place.
(a) one and CRS
(b) two and CCRS
(c) one and ACRS
(d) one and CCRS
252. Who will be the in-charge of the engineering survey of the project will also
be in overall in-charge of the traffic survey of the project.
(a) DY.CE
(b) PCE
(c) ADEN
(d) Sr.DEN(Co)
253. For working financial appraisal of railway project reference may be made to which
chapter of which code?
(a) First and IRFC
(b) Second and IRFC
(c) Third and IRPWM
(d) second and IRWM-2000
254. FULL FORM OF PFA

(a) Principle Finance Advisor
(b) Principle Finance Assistant
(c) Principle Finance Administrator
(d) Principle Finance Auditor
255. Which survey is detailed examination of route or routes obtained?
(a) Preliminary
(b) Reconnaissance
(c) Detailed
(d) Final location
256. Staking out of the alignment with the theodolite is required in which survey.
(a) Preliminary
(b) Reconnaissance
(c) Detailed
(d) Final location
257. Which survey is used to obtain Proper working details and accurate costing is done in
which Survey.
(a) Preliminary
(b) Reconnaissance
(c) Detailed
(d) Final location
258. The whole data plotted on a sheet after final location survey called:
(a) Preliminary Plan and Section
(b) Cross-Sections
(c) Detailed plan and section
(d) Detailed sections
259. Survey which is normally based on contour survey

(a) Preliminary
(b) Reconnaissance
(c) Detailed
(d) Final location
260. In a preliminary survey bench mark should similarly be left at an interval of about how
many meters?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 250
(d) 500
261. The centre line finally located should be marked out by pegs at how many meters?
(a) 10
(b) 500
(c) 20
(d) 100
262. At how many meter interval a large peg is used which have number braded on stamped
on them?
(a) 10
(b) 50
(c) 100
(d) 500
263. Masonry pillars should built at the tangent point of curve and along the centre line at
interval of not less than ……. meters
(a) 500
(b) 1000
(c) 100
(d) 10
264. The degree of curvature should be taken as the angle at the centre subtended by an arc
of how many meters in length?
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 30.5
(d) 100
265. Grade compensation to be allowed for BG track should be
a. a. 0.02%
b. b. 0.03%
c. c. 0.04%
d. d. None of the above
266. Bench mark should be left along the line in final location survey at intervals of not more than
a. 100 m
b. 500 m
c. 1000 m
267. The centre line finally located should be marked out by pegs at every ________ m
a. 10m
b. 20m
c. 50m
268. Index plan and section should be drawn to a scale of ___________

a. 1 : 10,000
b. 1 : 50,000
c. 1 : 100,000
269. Important rivers should be surveyed for a distance of _______ KM up stream side.
a. 2 km
b. 5km
c. 8 km
270. As per categories of lines future max permissible speed of Group ‘A’ line is
a. 110 Kmph
b. 130 Kmph
c. 160 Kmph
271. For BG track the minimum length of straight between reverse curve should be
a. 30 m
b. 50 m
c. 100 m
272. For BG ‘A’ category track the minimum radius of vertical curves shall be
a. 2500 m
b. 3000 m
c. 4000 m
Execution of Works, New Building material, Works budget
273. Material modification need approval of the estimate by whom?

(a) sanctioning authority
(b) competent authority
(c) FA and CAO
(d) Railway board
274. Execution of work can be carried out by …………………………..

(a) verbal order
(b) written order
(c) verbal order by competent authority
(d) none of these
275. How much percentage is supervision charge for the deposit work as the total cost.
(a) 10%
(b) 5%
(c) 2%
(d) 12.5%
276. Introduction of any new station or omission of any station is classified in which type of
Modification.
(a) station modification
(b) material modification
(c) estimate modification
(d) none of these
277. Progress report of all works during the month in a division to be submitted to …………..
(a) DY.CE
(b) ADEN
(c) DEN
(d) PCE
278. The introduction or omissions of any work or facility involving how much amount comes
under material modification?
(a) 2 lakhs
(b) 5 lakhs
(c) 10 lakhs
(d)1 lakhs
279. The scope of the term material modification can be extended by whom on his discretion
under some conditions.
(a) DRM
(b) GM
(c) DY.CE
(d) PFA
280. Any particulars to the progress of works are entered in which book by upper
subordinate?
(a) work
(b) order
(c) pink
(d) note
281. For all important works which book should be opened for all instruction issued to
executive, subordinate or contractor?
(a) work
(b) order
(c) pink
(d) note
282. The cost of fly ash brick compared Traditional clay brick.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) equal to
(d) none of these
283. Full form of HDF………………………….

(a) High density fibre board
(b) Hard density fibre board
(c) heavy density fibre board
(d) none of these
284. Full form of LDF………………………….

(a) low density fibre board
(b) loose density fibre board
(c) less density fibre board
(d) none of these
285. Circuit board is made by which type of laminates.

(a) particle laminates
(b) hylum laminates
(c) industrial laminates
(d) none of these
286. Full form of AAC………………..

(a) Auto claved agitation concrete
(b) Auto claved aerated concrete
(c) Automatic claved aerated concrete
(d) none of these
287. Maximum percentage of water absorbed by Good building stone are:

(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 5%
(d) 10%
288. What is the other Name of Toughened?

(a) tampered glass
(b) chromatic glass
(c) special class
(d) float glass
289. Glass is used in ICU is a type of.

(a) tampered glass
(b) chromatic glass
(c) special class
(d) float glass
290. Mechanical strength of fly ash brick is compared than traditional clay brick.
(a) more than
(b) less than
(c) equal to
(d) none of these
291. Reduction of water cement ratio by vacuum in concrete increases compressive strength
up to how much percentage?
(a) 2%
(b) negligible effect
(c) 10-50%
(d) up to 90%
292. Full form of OLWR……………………………

(a) Open line works revenue
(b) Old line works revenue
(c) Open land works revenue
(d) Open line works record
293. For new lines construction plan head is……….

(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d)16
294. For other specified works plan head comes under……………

(a) 35
(b) 61
(c) 15
(d) 64
295. For doubling works plan head comes under………………

(a) 35
(b) 61
(c) 15
(d) 64
296. When should the preliminary works programme for the upcoming year be submitted by
the railway board?
(a) last week of September
(b) First week of April
(c) First week of march
(d) First week of September
297. Works once introduced through a works programme and taken up after the estimates
have been sanctioned by the competent authority. Till when it should continue to be included
they are finally completed.
(a) every year
(b) up to three year
(c) up to five year
(d) none of these
Surveying
298. What is the size of plane table?

a. 600mmX600mm
b. 600mmX900mm
c. 750mmX600mm
d. 750mmX750mm
299. What do we call the distance between two consecutive contours?

a. Contour Interval
b. Contour lines
c. Contour difference
d. Contour clearance
300. What should be the RB If WCB of a line is 270 degree?

a. N90E
b. N90W
c. S90E
d. None
301. Different grades are joined together by a

a. Compound curve
b. Transition curve
c. Reverse curve
d. Vertical curve
302. The line of collimation method of reduction of levels, does not provide a check on
a. Intermediate sights
b. Fore sights
c. Back sights
d. Reduced levels
303. The chord of a curve less than peg interval, is known as

a. Small chord
b. Sub-chord
c. Normal chord
d. Short chord
304. If the reduced bearing of a line AB is N60°W and length is 100 m, then the latitude and
departure respectively of the line AB will be
a. +50 m, +86.6 m
b. +86.6 m, -50 m
c. +50 m, -86.6 m
d. +70.7 m, -50 m
305. Contour interval is

a. Inversely proportional to the scale of the map
b. Directly proportional to the flatness of ground
c. Larger for accurate works
d. Larger if the time available is more
306. Check lines (or proof lines) in Chain Surveying, are essentially required
a. To plot the chain lines
b. To plot the offsets
c. To indicate the accuracy of the survey work
d. To increase the out-turn
307. There are two stations A and B. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The fore bearing of AB is AB
b. The back bearing of AB is BA
c. The fore and back bearings of AB differ by 180°
d. All the above
308. The Random errors tend to accumulate proportionally to

a. Numbers of operations involved
b. Reciprocal of operations involved
c. Square root of the number of operation involved
d. Cube root of the number of operation involved
309. For the construction of highway (or railway)

a. Longitudinal sections are required
b. Cross sections are required
c. Both longitudinal and cross sections are required
d. None of these
310. Detailed plotting is generally done by

a. Radiation
b. Traversing
c. Resection
d. All of the above
311. The line normal to the plumb line is known as

a. Horizontal line
b. Level line
c. Datum line
d. Vertical line
312. In levelling operation

a. When the instrument is being shifted, the staff must not be moved
b. When the staff is being carried forward, the instrument must remain stationary
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. Neither (a) nor (b)
313. If i is the stadia distance, f is the focal length and d is the distance between the objective
and vertical axis of the techeometer, the multiplying constant, is
a. f/i
b. i/f
c. (f + d)
d. f/d
314. In levelling operation

a. If second reading is more than first, it represents a rise
b. If first reading is more than second, it represents a rise
c. If first reading is less than second, it represents a fall
d. Both (b) and (c)
315. Over-turning of vehicles on a curve can be avoided by using

a. Compound curve
b. Vertical curve
c. Reverse curve
d. Transition curve
316. Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of

a. Large water bodies
b. Heavenly bodies
c. Mountainous region
d. Canal system
317. Bowditch rule is applied to

a. An open traverse for graphical adjustment
b. A closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
c. Determine the effect of local attraction
318. Straight, parallel and widely spaced contours represent

a. A steep surface
b. A flat surface
c. An inclined plane surface
d. Curved surface
319. For a tachometer the additive and multiplying constants are respectively
a. 0 and 100
b. 100 and 0
c. 0 and 0
d. 100 and 100
320. The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours, is called
a. Horizontal interval
b. Horizontal equivalent
c. Vertical equivalent
d. Contour interval
321. The sensitivity of a bubble tube can be increased by
a. Increasing the diameter of the tube
b. Decreasing the length of bubble
c. Increasing the viscosity of liquid
d. Decreasing the radius of curvature of tube
322. In chain surveying field work is limited to

a. Linear measurements only
b. Angular measurements only
c. Both linear and angular measurements
d. All the above
323. The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having their centres on the opposite
side of the curve, is known
a. A simple curve
b. A compound curve
c. A reverse curve
d. A vertical curve
324. The angle of intersection of a curve is the angle between

a. Back tangent and forward tangent
b. Prolongation of back tangent and forward tangent
c. Forward tangent and long chord
d. Back tangent and long chord
325. In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved, if

a. Curvature of the earth surface is ignored
b. Curvature of the earth surface is taken into account
c. Angles between the curved lines are treated as plane angles
d. None of these
326. The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68° 30'. The included angle ABC is
a. 102°
b. 78°
c. 45°
d. None of these
327. Diurnal variation of magnetic declination is

a. Greater at equator than nearer the poles
b. Less at equator than nearer the poles
c. Less in summer than in winter
d. Same at all latitudes and during different months
328. Rankine's deflection angle in minutes is obtained by multiplying the length of the chord
by
a. Degree of the curve
b. Square of the degree of the curve
c. Inverse of the degree of the curve
d. None of these
329. Refraction correction

a. Completely eliminates curvature correction
b. Partially eliminates curvature correction
c. Adds to the curvature correction
d. Has no effect on curvature correction
330. The number of horizontal cross wires in a stadia diaphragm is

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
331. An angle of deflection right, may be directly obtained by setting the instrument to read
a. Zero on back station
b. 180° on back station
c. 90°
d. 270° on back station
332. Setting out a curve by two theodolite method, involves

a. Linear measurements only
b. Angular measurements only
c. Both linear and angular measurements
d. None of these
333. Reduced bearing of a line is an angle between
a. North line and given line measured clockwise
b. North line and given line measured anticlockwise
c. East or west and the given line
d. Given line and the part of the meridian whether N end or S end, lying adjacent to it
334. With the rise of temperature, the sensitivity of a bubble tube

a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains unaffected
335. The imaginary line passing through the intersection of cross hairs and the optical centre
of the objective, is known as
a. Line of sight
b. Line of collimation
c. Axis of the telescope
d. None of these
336. During levelling if back sight is more than foresight

a. The forward staff is at lower point
b. The back staff is at lower point
c. The difference in level, cannot be ascertained
d. None of these
337. Closed contours, with higher value inwards, represent a

a. Depression
b. Hillock
c. Plain surface
338. If h is the difference in height between end points of a chain of length , the required
slope correction is
a. h²/2l
b. h/2l
c. h²/l
d. 2h²/2l
339. An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of the earth,
represents
a. Contour surface
b. Contour gradient
c. Contour line
d. Level line
340. Back bearing of a line is equal to

a. Fore bearing ± 90°
b. Fore bearing ± 180°
c. Fore bearing ± 360°
d. Fore bearing ± 270°
341. The type of surveying which requires least office work is

a. Tachometry
b. Trigonometrical levelling
c. Plane table surveying
d. Theodolite surveying
342. The operation of making the algebraic sum of latitudes and departures of a closed
traverse, each equal to zero, is known
a. Balancing the sights
b. Balancing the departures
c. Balancing the latitudes
d. Balancing the traverse
343. Dumpy level is most suitable when

a. The instrument is to be shifted frequently
b. Fly levelling is being done over long distance
c. Many readings are to be taken from a single setting of the instrument
d. All of the above
344. When the bubble of the level tube of a level, remains central
a. Line of sight is horizontal
b. Axis of the telescope is horizontal
c. Line of collimation is horizontal
d. Geometrical axis of the telescope is horizontal
345. The reduced level of a floor is 99.995 m, the staff reading on the floor is 1.505 m. If the
inverted staff reading against the roof is 1.795 m, the floor level below the slab, is
a. 3.290 m
b. 3.300 m
c. 3.275 m
d. 2.790 m
346. The bearing of C from A is N 30° E and from B, 50 metres east of A, is N 60° W. The
departure of C from A is
a. 150 m
b. 50 m
c. 25 m
d. 100 m
347. Ranging is an operation of

a. Reconnaissance
b. Judging the distance
c. Determination of slope
d. Establishing intermediate points between terminals
348. ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land whose angle BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the
line AB is 30°, the bearing of CD, is
a. 90°
b. 120°
c. 210°
d. 270°
349. The reduced bearing of a line is N 87° W. Its whole circle bearing is
a. 87°
b. 273°
c. 93°
d. 3°
350. The back staff reading on a B.M. of R.L. 500.000 m is 2.685 m. If foresight reading on a
point is 1.345 m, the reduced level of the point, is
a. 502.685 m
b. 501.345 m
c. 501.340 m
d. 504.030 m
351. Staff readings on pegs x and y from X station are 1.755 m and 2.850 m, and from station
Y on staff head at Y and X are 0.655 m and 1.560 m. If reduced level of X is 105.5 m, the reduced
level of Y is
a. 104.0 m
b. 104.5 m
c. 105.0 m
d. 105.5 m
352. The bearing of AB is 190° and that of CB is 260° 30'. The included angle ABC, is
a. 80° 30'
b. 99° 30'
c. 70° 30'
d. None of these
353. Determining the difference in elevation between two points on the surface of the earth,
is known as
a. Levelling
b. Simple levelling
c. Differential levelling
d. Longitudinal leveling
354. The bearing of line AB is 152° 30' and angle ABC measured clockwise is 124° 28'. The
bearing of BC is
a. 27° 52'
b. 96° 58'
c. 148° 08'
d. 186° 58'
355. A relatively fixed point of known elevation above datum, is called

a. Bench mark
b. Datum point
c. Reduced level
d. Reference point
356. A theodolite is said to be in perfect adjustment if

a. Rotation axis is vertical to the transit axis
b. Transit axis is perpendicular to line of collimation
c. Line of collimation sweeps out a vertical plane while the telescope is elevated or
depressed
d. All the above
357. In chain surveying, perpendiculars to the chain line are set out by
a. A theodolite
b. A prismatic compass
c. A level
d. An optical square
358. The main principle of surveying is to work

a. From part to the whole
b. From whole to the part
c. From higher level to the lower level
d. From lower level to higher level
359. The rise and fall method of reduction of levels, provides a check on
a. Back sights
b. Fore sights
c. Intermediate sights
d. All of these
360. The diaphragm of a stadia theodolite is fitted with two additional

a. Horizontal hairs
b. Vertical hairs
c. Horizontal and two vertical hairs
d. None of these
361. Cross hairs in surveying telescopes, are fitted

a. In the objective glass
b. At the centre of the telescope
c. At the optical centre of the eye piece
d. In front of the eye piece
362. For high sensivity of the bubble tube

a. A liquid of low viscosity is used
b. A liquid of low surface tension is used
c. The bubble space should be long
d. All the above
363. The construction of optical square is based, on the principle of optical

a. Reflection
b. Refraction Double refraction
c. Double reflection
364. The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is

a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°
365. Profile levelling is usually done for determining

a. Contours of an area
b. Capacity of a reservoir
c. Elevations along a straight line
d. Boundaries of property
366. The first reading from a level station is

a. Foresight
b. Intermediate sight
c. Back-sight
d. Any sight
367. If S is the length of a sub-chord and R is the radius of simple curve, the angle of
deflection between its tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to
a. 573 S/R
b. 573 R/S
c. 1718.9 R/S
d. 1718.9 S/R
368. Cross-staff is used for

a. Setting out right angles
b. Measuring contour gradient
c. Taking levels
d. Measuring distances
369. ABCD is a rectangular plot of land. If the bearing of the side AB is 75°, the bearing of DC
is
a. 75°
b. 255°
c. 105°
d. 285°
370. Ranging in chain survey means

a. Looking at an isolated point not on the line
b. Establishing an intermediate point on the line
c. Determining the distance between end points
d. Determining the offset distance
371. A well conditioned triangle has no angle less than

a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 45°
d. 60°
372. Geodetic surveying is undertaken

a. For production of accurate maps of wide areas
b. For developing the science of geodesy
c. Making use of most accurate instruments and methods of observation
d. All the above
373. A back sight

a. Is always taken on a point of known elevation or can be computed
b. Is added to the known level to obtain the instrument height
c. Taken on an inverted staff is treated as negative
d. All the above
374. The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line, is

a. 30°
b. 45°
c. 60°
d. 90°
375. Designation of a curve is made by:

a. Angle subtended by a chord of any length
b. Angle subtended by an arc of specified length
c. Radius of the curve
d. Curvature of the curve
376. The total change in level along the line is equal to total back sights
a. Minus total fore sights
b. The total rises minus total falls
c. The reduced level of last point minus reduced level of the first point
d. All the above
377. The magnetic bearing of a line is 32° and the magnetic declination is 10° 15' W. The true
bearing is
a. 21° 45'
b. 42° 15'
c. 42° 15' W
d. 21° 45' W
378. The method of finding out the difference in elevation between two points for
eliminating the effect of curvature and refraction, is
a. Reciprocal levelling
b. Precise levelling
c. Differential levelling
d. Flying levelling
379. Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre, represent
a. A hill
b. A depression
c. A saddle or pass
d. A river bed
380. If whole circle bearing of a line is 120°, its reduced bearing is

a. S 20° E
b. S 60° E
c. N 120° E
d. N 60° E
381. The whole circle bearing of a line is 290°. Its reduced bearing is
a. N 20° E
b. N 20° W
c. N 70° W
d. S 70° E
382. The horizontal angle between true meridian and magnetic meridian, is known
a. Bearing
b. Magnetic declination
c. Dip
d. Convergence
383. One of the tacheometric constants is additive, the other constant, is

a. Subtractive constant
b. Multiplying constant
c. Dividing constant
d. Indicative constant
Soil Mechanics
384. Plate load test is carried out to know the

a. BEARING CAPACITY OF SOIL
b. SHEAR STRENGTH OF SOIL
c. COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH OF SOIL
d. NONE
385. .What do we call the numerical difference between liquid limit and plastic limit?
a. LIQUIDITY LIMIT
b. SHRINKAGE LIMIT
c. PLASTICITY INDEX
d. NONE
386. Sheep foot roller is suitable for

a. COHESIONLESS SOIL
b. HARD SOIL
c. COHESIVE SOIL
d. BLACK COTTON SOIL
387. What do we call the ability of the soil to support the load of the structural foundation
without the failure or deformation?
a. SHEARING CAPACITY
b. FLEXURE STRENGTHs
c. COMPRESSION CAPACITY
d. BEARING CAPACITY
388. OMC stands for

a. ORIGINAL MOISTURE CONTENT
b. OPTIMUM MOISTURE CAPACITY
c. OPTIMUM MOIST CONTENT
d. OPTIMUM MOISTURE CONTENT
389. MDD stands for

a. MINIMUM DRY DENSITY
b. MAXIMUM DEFORMATION DENSITY
c. MAXIMUM DRY DENSITY
d. NONE
390. Generally what should be the thickness of blanketing material layer?
a. 100
b. 150
c. 200
d. 300
391. Which test is preferred in Laboratory to determine the Max. Dry density as per RDSO
guidelines
a. SAND REPLACEMENT METHOD
b. CORE CUTTER METHOD
c. WATER DISPLACEMENT METHOD
d. NONE
392. What percentage is the ration Field dry density to MDD obtained in Laboratory?
a. 95%
b. 90%
c. 100%
d. 98%
393. For proper drainage cross slope for formation top shall be
a. 1 IN 40
b. 1 IN 30
c. 1 IN 20
d. NONE
394. Earthwork in embankment for railway with manual compaction should be done in layers
not exceeding--------------
a) 15 centimeter
b) 20 centimeters
c) 25 centimeters
d) 30 centimeters
395. To provide inverted filter to improve the bearing capacity of soil the liquid limit of
blanketing material should not be greater than
a) 5
b) 20
c) 27
d) 35
396. To provide inverted filter to improve the hearing capacity of soil the plasticity index of
blanketing material should not be greater than
a) 15
b) 20
c) 27
d) 35
397. The bottom of side drains should be below the formation level by at least------------
a) 45 cm
b )30 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 60 cm
398. Cross slope of the formation to have good drainage of Ballast section is
a) 1 in 40
b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 30
d) 1 in 20
399. The side slope of formation in embankment is

a) 2 : 1
b) 1: 1
c) 1:5
d) 1:3
400. The side slope of formation in embankment /cutting depends on

a) Shearing strength of soil and its angle of repose
b) Angle of repose
c) Bearing capacity of the soil
d) Optimum moisture content of the soil
401. The recommended width of Double line cutting formation for B G is

a) 10210 mm
b) 10 975 mm
c) 11555 mm
d) 13160 mm
402. The recommended width of Single line formation cutting for BG excluding drain is
a) 6250 mm
b) 6850mm
c) 7850mm
d) 6100mm
403. The catch water drains are provided in the

a) Formation in the embankment
b) Formation in cutting
c) Zero fills formation
d) Steep gradient
404. Cross sectional area of catch water drain should not be more than
a) 0 .75 square meter
b) 0. 90 square meter
c) 0. 80 square meter
d). 50 square meter
405. Density of each compacted layer should be ascertained by taking soil samples on either
side of Central Line at
a) 5 meter interval
b) 10 meter interval
c) 12 meter interval
d) 15 meter internal
406. For laying a Railway track the prepared surface ready to receive the ballast is called
a) Sub ballast
b) Formation
c) Blanket
d) Cushion
407. The height of formation depends upon the

a) Ground contours and the gradient adopted
b) Ground contour only
c) Gradient adopted only
d) Rainfall intensity over the year
408. The dry density of soil is

a) Always greater than the saturated density
b) Weight of soil solids per unit of total volume prior to drying
c) Total weight of soil solids per unit of its total volume
d) Total weight of soil mass per unit of its total volume
409. The ratio of volume of water present in a given soil sample to the total volume of voids
in it is known as
a) Percentage of air voids
b) Degree of saturation
c) Void ratio
d) Porosity
410. The ratio of volume of air voids to the volume of voids is known as
a) Percentage of air voids
b) Porosity
c) Degree of saturation
d) Air content
411. At the liquid limit

a) The soil just begins to crumble when rolled into a thread
b) The shearing strength against flowing is negligible
c) The shearing strength against flowing is a small but definite
d) The soil will not get fully saturated
412. The property of soil which allows it to be deformed rapidly, without rupture, without
elastic rebound and without volume change is known as
a) Porosity
b) Plasticity
c) Stiffness
d) Plastic limit
413. The minimum water content in soil at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled
into threads 3 mm in diameter is known as
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit
c) Consistency limit
d) Shrinkage limit
414. The minimum water content at which a reduction in water content will not cause a
decrease in the volume of a soil mass is known as
a) Plastic limit
b) Shrinkage limit
c) Liquid limit
d) Consistency limit
415. The numerical difference between the liquid limit and plastic limit of a soil is known as
a) Liquidity index
b) Plasticity index
c) Shrinkage index
d) Consistency index
416. In India soils are classified by
a) MIT classification
b) Unified soil classification system
c) International classification system
d) Particle size classification
417. The consistency index of soil is

a) (Natural water content - liquid limit) / plasticity index
b) (Natural water content - liquid limit )/ liquidity index
c) (Liquid limit - natural water content)/ consistency index
d) (Liquid limit - natural water content)/plasticity index
418. The property of a soil due to which water percolates through it is known as
a) Porosity
b) Permeability
c) Moisture content
d) Capillarity
419. Permeability of soil varies
a) Inversely as square of grain size
b) Inversely as grain size
c) Directly as grain size
d) Square of grain size
420. Quicksand is
a) Moist sand containing a small percentage of clay
b) Is a condition which generally occurs in coarse sands
c) Is a condition in which cohesive properties of soil increase rapidly
d) Is a condition in which a cohesion less soil loses its strength because of upward flow of water
421. Piping in a soil mass is

a) Erosion of subsoil by the high velocities of flow of water through it when such velocities
exceed a certain limit
b) Caused due to very low exit gradient
c) Due to continuous passage of water through a series of well connected pores
d) Due to loss of the strength of cohesion less soil because of upward flow of of water
422. The maximum dry density to which a soil may be compacted to depends upon
a) Soil water content
b) The process of compaction
c) The voids ratio
d) Is independent of the type of soil
423. A saturated clay is to be tested for shearing strength. Which test should be
recommended?
a) Direct shear test
b) Triaxial shear test
c) Vane shear test
d) Unconfined compression
424. A temporary enclosure in a river or Lake built around a working area for the purpose of
excluding water during construction is known
a) Caisson
b) Augur
c) Cofferdam
d) Sheet pile wall
425. The maximum pressure which the soil can carry safely without the risk of shear failure is
called
a) Safe bearing capacity
b) Ultimate bearing capacity
c) Allowable bearing capacity
d) Shear bearing capacity
426. Black cotton soils are

a) Heavy clay soils varying from clay to Loam, with clay content of 40 to 50% formed by
decomposition of rocks by long continued weathering
b) Compacted and laminated clays
c) Soils containing carbon of coal underneath
d) Dark brown earthy materials formed due to partial or complete decomposition of vegetable
matter
427. The high density of soil placed in a fill is desired in order to

a) Increase its shear resistance
b) Reduce its shear resistance
c) Promote future settlements
d) Decrease percolation through the fill.
428. Plasticity index represents the range of water content between

a) Liquid and plastic limit
b) Plastic limit and semi solid limit
c) Semisolid Limit and liquid limit
d) Liquid limit and solid limit.
429. For yard drainage Pucca drains should be designed for the velocity of
a) 0.5 to 1 meter per second
b) 1 to 1.5 meter per second
c) 1.0 to 2.0 meter per second
d) 2 to 2.5 meter per second
430. Formation prepared by depositing Soil over the existing ground level is known as
a) Formation in cutting
b) Formation in embankment
c) Zero fills formation
d) Natural formation
Estimates & Contracts
431. The contractor shall not employ children below what age as labourers?
a. 18
b. 21
c. 18
d. 14
432. Full form of GCC

a. GENERAL CONDITIONS OF CONTRACT
b. GENERAL CRITERIA OF CONTRACT
c. GENERAL CONTRACT CONDITIONS
d. NONE
433. What do we call An agreement enforceable by Law ?
a. TENDER
b. CONTRACT
c. ACT
d. LAW
434. What do we call The tenders which are receive after opening of tenders?
a. DELAYED TENDERS
b. REJECTED TENDERS
c. LATE TENDERS
d. NONE
435. Full form of EMD

a. EARLY MONEY DEPOSIT
b. EASY MONEY DEPOSIT
c. EARNEST MONEY DEPOSIT
d. EARNED MONED DEPOSIT
436. In stores what do we call that contracts where quantity is not specified?
a. PETTY CONTRACT
b. ZONAL CONTRACT
c. RATE CONTRACT
d. NONE
437. Which deposits are to be paid by contractors is taken for the due fulfilment of contract?
a. EAREST
b. SECURITY
c. PERFORMANCE
d. ADVANCE
438. The amount of Earnest Money to be deposited with tender is what percentage of tender
value of work upto 1 Cr?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 3%
d. 2%
439. When the period of Zonal contract start each year.

a. 1ST JANUARY TO 31ST DECEMBER
b. 1ST APRIL TO 31ST MARCH
c. 1ST OCTOBER TO 30TH SEPTEMBER
d. 1ST JULY TO 30TH JUNE
440. What do we call when disputes are Resolved by non-judicial means?

a. ARBITRATION
b. APPELATE
c. QUASI JUDICIAL
d. NONE
441. In case of Limited tender, the tenders are invited from the number of contractors borne
on the approved list for the particular type of work should not be less than------.
a. 3
b. 10
c. 5
d. 20
442. Power of calling of open tender upto Rs. 4 crore lies with ---------.
a. GM
b. DRM
c. Sr.DEN/C
d. DEN
443. Numbers of tenderers from whom special limited tender is to be invited should
preferably with ------------.
a. more than six but not less than four
b. more than four but not less than two
c. more than five but not less than three
d. more than eight but not less than five
444. In case of Two packet tendering system,--------- are opened at the first instance and
evaluated by a committee.
a. Technical bids
b. Financial bids
c. both technical & financial bids
d. none of these.
445. For tenders valuing more than Rs.10 Crore, “Two packet system” shall mandatorily be
followed, except in cases where it is decided not do so by Accepting Authority (not below SAG)
----------- finance concurrence.
a. without finance concurrence
b. with finance concurrence
c. both
d. none.
446. JAG/SG & SS officers (Independent charge) can invite quotation for works directly related
to safe running of trains up to and including Rs.------- per case without finance concurrence
subject to annual ceiling limit of Rs---------.
a. 5 lakhs, 20 lakhs
b. 5 lakhs, 50 lakhs
c. 2 lakhs, 10 lakhs
d. 2 lakhs, 50 lakhs
447. Quotations should normally be invited from at least ------- well experienced contractors/
agencies not necessarily borne on the approved list.
a. Five
b. Three
c. Four
d. Ten
448. Most commonly used type of contracting format in Railways is -------- contract.
a. Lump sumps
b. Piece works
c. Schedule
d. Quotations
449. The zonal contracts adopted on the Railways fall under the category of ------contract.
a. Lump sumps
b. Piece works
c. Schedule
d. Quotations
450. Maximum value of one work order is Rs ------- lacks.

a. 3 lacks
b. 5 lacks
c. 2 lacks
d. 10 lacks
451. The---------- Contract is a contract under which the contractor engages to carry out a
work or effect supply as specified and within a given period for a fixed total sum.
a. Lump sumps
b. Piece works
c. Schedule
d. Quotations
452. In case of any conflict between provisions of GCC and SCC, the provisions of ----prevail.
a. GCC
b. SCC
c. Sometimes SCC sometimes GCC
d. None
453. e-Tender Forms shall be issued free of cost to all tenderers. It is -------- statement.
a. true
b. false
c. partial true
d. none
454. For works in remote locations or of specialize nature or amount higher than Rs. 50 crore,
tender notice period should not less than ------days.
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
455. Accepting Authority nominates Tender Committee as per delegation of power.

a. true
b. false
c. partial true
d. none
456. Direct Acceptance by Acceptance Authority without Tender Committee for Open tender
Upto Rs.------ invited through e-tendering.
a. 10 lacks
b. 20 lacks
c. 50 lacks
d. 100 lacks
457. when there are multiple Lowest bidder, tender may be awarded
a. as per higher bid capacity,
b. to tenderer having done more value of similar work in last 3 pervious financial year and
current financial year .
c. to tenderer having done more value of similar work in last 3 pervious financial year and
current financial year If Bid capacity is same.
d. None.
458. As per GCC,ENGINEER means

a. DEN,
b. ADEN,
c. SSE,
d. none of these.
459. Earnest money is taken as ----------------% of the estimated tender value for works costing
up to Rs one crore.
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 5%
460. The Contract Agreement shall be executed only after submission of--------- Document.
a. valid Performance Guarantee
b. Security deposit
c. Earnest money Deposit
d. None
461. Security Deposit is the amount taken by railway-------

a. to safe guard against withdrawing or altering offer by tenderer [Bid Security ]
b. For the due and faithful fulfillment of the contract (all the contract conditions) by the
contractor
c. both a & b above
d. none of these.
462. The amount of security deposit to be deposited by the contractor @ -------% of the
contract value.
a. 2%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 15%
463. Security Deposit Shall be returned to the Contractor after

a. Final Payment of the Contract
b. Execution of Final Supplementary Agreement or Certification by Engineer that Railway
has No Claim on Contractor
c. Issue of Maintenance Certificate, issued on expiry of the maintenance period, in case
applicable
d. all of the above
464. Performance Guarantee to be deposited within ------ days of issue of LOA and before
signing of agreement.
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
465. Extension to the time of submission of PG beyond 21days can be given by the authority
competent to sign the agreement upto ------- days.
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
d. 75 days
466. PG to be deposited by the contractor @--------%of contract value in acceptable Forms.

a. 2%
b. 10%
c. 5%
d. 15%
467. PG amount would not change for a variation of contract value upto-------%.
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 75%
468. The tenderer who has offered lower total cost as compared to tender value by more
than 10 %, shall be required to submit additional Performance Guarantee of value equal to
-----------the percentage of tender value by which offer is lower than 10%
a. Half
b. full
c. 1/3rd
d. 2/3rd
469. If performance prevented or delayed by reason of any war, hostility, acts of public
enemy, civil commotion, sabotage, serious loss or damage by fire, explosions, epidemics, strikes,
lockouts or acts of God (events)for a period exceeding 120 days, either party may terminate the
contract by giving notice to the other party.
a. 60 days
b. 90 days
c. 120 days
d. 180 days
470. If contractor fails to complete the works within the specified time due to his own fault,
the Railway may allow the contractor for further extension of time ------ imposition of liquidated
damage(LD).
a. with
b. without
c. none of these
471. The Contractor shall commence the works within ------- days of receipt of an order in
writing from the Engineer.
a. 3 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 28 days
472. Work Approved By Engineer’s Representative Can Be Disapproved / Rejected By

Engineer.
a. true
b. false
c. partial true
d. none
473. when cost of work to be executed is Rs. 2 Cr and above,the contractor should deploy
Qualified-------- Engineer at work site.
a. graduate engineer
b. diploma engineer
c. both
d. none
474. A final termination notice should be issued if the Contractor does not proceed to make
good his default after expiry ---------- notice.
a. 7 days’ notice,
b. 48 hours’ notice,
c. 15 days’ notice,
d. none of these
475. In case Termination of Work as a Whole

a. SD to be forfeited.
b. PG to be en-cashed.
c. Balance work shall be got done independently without risk & cost of original contractor
d. All of these.
476. Obtaining tenders by direct invitation to a limited number of firms/contractors is termed
as..
a. Limited tenders
b. Open tenders
c. single tenders
d. none of these.
477. Limited tenders may be invited for works costing up to Rs. -----------Crores .
a. 2 crores
b. 5 crores
c. 7.5 crores
d. 10 crores
478. Technical Eligibility Criteria for tenderer is that the tenderer must have successfully
completed during last 07 (seven) years, ending last day of month previous to the one in which
tender is invited:
a. Three similar works each costing not less than the amount equal to 30% of advertised
value of the tender,
b. Two similar works each costing not less than the amount equal to 40% of advertised
value of the tender,
c. One similar work each costing not less than the amount equal to 60% of advertised
value of the tender.
d. any of the above
479. Financial Eligibility Criteria for tenderer is that the tenderer must have received
contractual payments in the previous three financial years and the current financial year up to
the date of inviting of tender, at least ------------% of the advertised value of the tender.
a. 100%
b. 125%
c. 150%
d. 200%
480. No Technical and Financial credentials are required for tenders having value up to Rs
-----.
a. 10 lacks
b. 20 lacks
c. 50 lacks
d. 100 lacks
481. Reasons for Discharge of tender

a. Exceptionally high rates
b. Ring/ cartel formation
c. Insufficient response
d. any of the above
482. Earnest money for works costing more than Rs one crore is ----------- subject to a maximum
of Rs.1crore.
a. Rs 2 lakh plus ½ % (half percent) of amount excess ofRs 1 crore
b. Rs 1.5 lakh plus 1 % (half percent) of amount excess of Rs 1 crore
c. Rs 1.0 lakh plus 1.5 % (half percent) of amount excess of Rs 1 crore
d. none
483. If the tender value is 100 crores and the contract value is 80 crores. The additional
a. performance guarantees to be paid by the contractor is -------
(a) 4.5 crore
(b) 5 crore
(c) 3 crore
(d) none of these.
484. If the contractor fails to deploy qualified graduate engineer at site as per condition of
the contract, he is liable to pay LD of --------.
(a) Rs. 40,000 per month,
(b) Rs. 25,000 per month,
(c) Rs. 50,000 per month,
(d) none of these.
485. All the Government contracts are made in the name of ------
(a) Pr. Chief Engineer,
(b) General manager,
(c)President of India,
(d) none of these.
486. IREPS stands for

(a) Indian Railways Engineering Procurement System
(b) Indian Railways E-Procurement System
(c) Indian Railways Engineering Production System
(d) none of these.
487. Minimum authority to signing contract agreement up to Rs.4 crores

(a) DEN,
(b) Sr.DEN/C,
(c) CTE
(d) none of these
488. Tender validity period for two packet system of tendering is -----
(a) 60 days,
(b) 45 days,
(c) 120 days
(d) none of these.
489. The rate of an item of work depends on

a. Specifications of works
b. Specifications of materials
c. Proportion of mortar
d. All the above
490. The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is
a. Quantity of the materials
b. Availability of materials
c. Transportation of materials
d. All the above
491. The plinth area of a building not includes

a. Area of the walls at the floor level
b. Internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
c. Lift and wall including landing
d. Area of cantilevered porch
492. The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of

a. One or more than one brick wall
b. Brick work in arches
c. Reinforced brick work
d. Half brick wall
493. According to Indian Standards Institute, the actual size of modular bricks is
a. 23 cm × 11.5 cm × 7.5 cm
b. 25 cm × 13 cm × 7.5 cm
c. 19 cm × 9 cm × 9 cm
d. 20 cm × 10 cm × 10 cm
494. The following item of earth work is not measured separately.

a. Setting out of works
b. Site clearance
c. Steps in deep excavation
d. All the above
495. The measurement is made in square metre in case of

a. Cement concrete in foundation
b. R.C.C. structure
c. Hollow concrete block wall
d. None of these
496. Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings
a. Water closets
b. Flushing pipes
c. Lavatory basins
d. All the above
497. In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre to
centre distance between the walls and
a. Breadth of the wall
b. Half breadth of wall on each side
c. One fourth breadth of wall on each side
d. None of these
498. The area is measured correct to the nearest

a. 0.01 sqm
b. 0.02 sqm
c. 0.03 sqm
d. 0.04 sqm

a. The bent up bars at a support resist the negative bending moment
b. The bent up bars at a support resist the sharing force
c. The bending of bars near supports is generally at 45°
d. All the above
500. The most reliable estimate is

a. Detailed estimate
b. Preliminary estimate
c. Plinth area estimate
d. Cube rate estimate
501. According to ISI method of measurement, the order of the sequence is

a. Length, breadth, height
b. Breadth, length, height
c. Height, length, breadth
d. None of these
502. The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45° in case of a beam of
effective length L, is
a. L + 0.42 d
b. L + (2 × 0.42 d)
c. L - (0.42 d)
d. L - (2 × 0.4 d)
503. Carpet area does not include the area of

a. The walls along with doors and other openings
b. Bath room and lavatory
c. Kitchen and pantry
d. All the above
504. The inspection pit or chamber is a manhole provided in a base drainage system
a. At every change of direction
b. At every change of gradient
c. At every 30 m intervals
d. All the above
505. The 'centre line method' is specially adopted for estimating

a. Circular buildings
b. Hexagonal buildings
c. Octagonal buildings
d. All the above
506. The order of booking dimensions is
a. Length, breadth, height
b. Breadth, length, height
c. Height, breadth, length
d. None of these
507. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
a. Wall thickness
b. Room area
c. W.C. area
d. Courtyard area
508. The minimum width of a septic tank is taken

a. 70 cm
b. 75 cm
c. 80 cm
d. 90 cm
509. The brick work is measured in sq metre, in case of

a. Honey comb brick work
b. Brick flat soling
c. Half brick walls or the partition
d. All the above
510. The height of the sink of wash basin above floor level is kept
a. 60 cm
b. 70 cm
c. 75 cm to 80 cm
d. 80 cm
511. The damp proof course (D.P.C.) is measured in

a. Cub. m
b. Sq. m
c. Metres
d. None of these
512. The volume is measured correct to the nearest

a. 0.01 cum
b. 0.02 cum
c. 0.03 cum
d. 0.04 cum
513. Size, capacity and materials need be specified for

a. Bib-cocks
b. Stop-cocks
c. Ball valves
d. All the above
514. The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to

a. 100 %
b. 75 %
c. 50 %
d. 25 %
Concrete Technology
515. Bulking of sand is maximum if moisture content is about

a. 2%
b. 4%
c. 6%
d. 10 %
516. Diagonal tension in a beam
a. Is maximum at neutral axis
b. Decreases below the neutral axis and increases above the neutral axis
c. Increases below the neutral axis and decreases above the neutral axis
d. Remains same
517. According to IS: 456, 2000 the column or the strut is the member whose effective length
is greater than
a. The least lateral dimension
b. 2 times the least lateral dimension
c. 3 times the least lateral dimension
d. 4 times the least lateral dimension
518. When shear stress exceeds the permissible limit in a slab, then it is reduced by
a. Increasing the depth
b. Providing shear reinforcement
c. Using high strength steel
d. Using thinner bars but more in number
519. The diameter of ties in a column should be
a. More than or equal to one fourth of diameter of main bar
b. More than or equal to 5 mm
c. More than 5 mm but less than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
d. More than 5 mm and also more than one-fourth of diameter of main bar
520. In counterfort retaining walls, the main reinforcement in the stem at support is
a. Not provided
b. Provided only on inner face
c. Provided only on front face
d. Provided both on inner and front faces
521. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported beam having reinforcement only at
bottom tends to
a. Deflect downward
b. Deflect upward
c. Deflect downward or upward
522. The purpose of reinforcement in pre-stressed concrete is
a. To provide adequate bond stress
b. To resist tensile stresses
c. To impart initial compressive stress in concrete
d. All of the above
523. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a spirally reinforced column
a. Capacity of column is decreased
b. Ductility of column reduces
c. Capacity of column is decreased but ductility of column increases
d. Both the capacity of column and ductility of column increase
524. For concreting of heavily reinforced sections without vibration, the workability of
concrete expressed as compacting factor should be
a. 0.75 - 0.80
b. 0.80 - 0.85
c. 0.85 - 0.92
d. Above 0.92
525. Workability of concrete is directly proportional to
a. Aggregate cement ratio
b. Time of transit
c. Grading of the aggregate
d. All of above
526. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Minimum cross sectional area of longitudinal reinforcement in a column is 0.8%
b. Spacing of longitudinal bars measured along the periphery of column should not exceed
300 mm
(C) Reinforcing bars in a column should not be less than 12 mm in diameter
(D) The number of longitudinal bars provided in a circular column should not be less than
four
527. Critical section for shear in case of flat slabs is at a distance of
a. Effective depth of slab from periphery of column/drop panel
b. d/2 from periphery of column/capital/ drop panel
c. At the drop panel of slab
d. At the periphery of column
528. For road pavements, the cement generally used, is
a. Ordinary Portland cement
b. Rapid hardening cement
c. Low heat cement
d. Blast furnace slag cement
529. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes
a. Decrease in early strength
b. Reduction in chemical action with sulphates
c. Increase in shrinkage
d. All the above
a. The maximum size of a coarse aggregate, is 75 mm and minimum 4.75 mm
b. The maximum size of the fine aggregate, is 4.75 mm and minimum 0.075 mm
c. The material having particles of size varying from 0.06 mm to 0.002 mm, is known as silt
d. All the above
531. Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by
a. Membrane method
b. Ponding method
c. Covering surface with bags
d. Sprinkling water method
a. Construction joints are necessarily planned for their locations
b. Expansion joints are provided to accommodate thermal expansion
c. Construction joints are provided to control shrinkage cracks
d. All the above
533. The main object of compaction of concrete, is:
a. To eliminate air holes
b. To achieve maximum density
c. To provide intimate contact between the concrete and embedded materials
d. All the above
534. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
a. The degree of grinding of cement, is called fineness
b. The process of changing cement paste into hard mass, is known as setting of cement
c. The phenomenon by virtue of which cement does not allow transmission of sound, is
known as soundness of cement
(D) The heat generated during chemical reaction of cement with water, is known as heat of
hydration
535. Concrete gains strength due to
a. Chemical reaction of cement with sand and coarse aggregates
b. Evaporation of water from concrete
c. Hydration of cement
d. All the above
536. To determine the modulus of rupture, the size of test specimen used is
a. 150 × 150 × 500 mm
b. 100 × 100 × 700 mm
c. 150 × 150 × 700 mm
d. 100 × 100 × 500 mm
537. Admixtures which cause early setting and hardening of concrete are called
a. Workability admixtures
b. Accelerators
c. Retarders
d. Air entraining agents
538. For a reinforced concrete section, the shape of shear stress diagram is
a. Wholly parabolic
b. Wholly rectangular
c. Parabolic above neutral axis and rectangular below neutral axis
d. Rectangular above neutral axis and parabolic below neutral axis
539. In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16
mm
diameter for
a. 20 times
b. 25 times
c. 30 times
d. 50 times
540. The individual variation between test strength of sample should not be more than
a. ±5 % of average
b. ± 10 % of average
c. ± 15 % of average
d. ±20 % of average
541. The slab is designed as one way if the ratio of long span to short span is
a. Less than 1
b. Between 1 and 1.5
c. Between 1.5 and 2
d. Greater than 2
542. For the construction of cement concrete dams, the maximum permissible size of the
aggregates, is
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 70 mm
543. The load carrying capacity of a helically reinforced column as compared to that of a tied
column is about
a. 5 % less
b. 10 % less
c. 5 % more
d. 10 % more
544. Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form
work, is:
a. 7 days for beam soffits
b. 14 days for bottom slabs of spans 4.6 m and more
c. 21 days for bottom beams over 6 m spans
d. All the above
545. The minimum cover in a slab should neither be less than the diameter of bar nor less
than
a. 10 mm
b. 15 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 13 mm
546. The average permissible stress in bond for plain bars in tension is
a. Increased by 10% for bars in compression
b. Increased by 25% for bars in compression
c. Decreased by 10% for bars in compression
d. Decreased by 25% for bars in compression
547. The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as
a. Contraction joint
b. Expansion joint
c. Construction joint
d. Both (a) and (b)
548. High carbon content in the steel causes
a. Decrease in tensile strength but increase in ductility
b. Increase in tensile strength but decrease in ductility
c. Decrease in both tensile strength and ductility
d. Increase in both tensile strength and ductility
549. Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of
a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Gravel
d. None of these
550. Ultimate strength of cold drawn high steel wires
a. Increases with increase in diameter of bar
b. Decreases with increase in diameter of bar
c. Does not depend on diameter of bar
551. The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces
a. Smaller creep and shrinkage
b. Greater density and smaller permeability
c. Improved frost resistance
d. All the above
552. The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its surface dry, is known as
a. Moist aggregates
b. Very dry aggregates
c. Dry aggregates
d. Saturated surface dry aggregate
a. Construction joints in columns are provided a few cm below the junction of beam
b. Construction joints in columns are provided at the bottom hunching
c. Construction joints in beams and slabs are provided within middle third
d. All the above
554. Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using
a. Less water
b. Fine aggregates
c. Rich mix
d. More water and coarse aggregates
a. Lime in excess, causes the cement to expand and disintegrate
b. Silica in excess, causes the cement to set slowly
c. Alumina in excess, reduces the strength of the cement
d. All the above
556. The property of fresh concrete, in which the water in the mix tends to rise to the surface
while placing and compacting, is called
a. Segregation
b. Bleeding
c. Bulking
d. Creep
557. Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are
a. Rounded aggregate
b. Irregular aggregate
c. Angular aggregate
d. Flaky aggregates
558. For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is
a. 5% by weight of aggregates plus 20% of weight of cement
b. 10% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
c. 5% by weight of aggregates plus 30% of weight of cement
d. 30% by weight of aggregates plus 10% of weight of cement
559. Finer grinding of cement
a. Affects only the early development of strength
b. Affects only the ultimate strength
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. Does not affect the strength
560. The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in
a. Building concrete is less than 45
b. Road pavement concrete is less than 30
c. Runway concrete is less than 30
d. All the above
561. For walls, columns and vertical faces of all structural members, the form work is
generally removed after
a. 24 to 48 hours
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
562. Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of
a. Alumina
b. Iron oxide
c. Silica
d. Alkalis
563. Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.
a. When one thrusts one's hand into a bag of cement, one should feel warm
b. The colour of the cement is bluish
c. By rubbing cement in between fingers, one should feed rough
d. All the above
564. Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by
a. Tensile strength test
b. Slump test
c. Compaction factor test
d. Flexural strength test
565. If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the
co-efficient of variation is
a. 10 %
b. 12.5 %
c. 15 %
d. 18.5 %
566. Select the incorrect statement
a. The loss of pre-stress is more in pre-tensioning system than in post-tensioning system.
b. Pre-tensioning system has greater certainty about its durability.
c. For heavy loads and large spans in buildings or bridges, post-tensioning system is
cheaper than pre-tensioning system
(D) None of the above
567. An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates
a. Decreases the workability
b. Increases the quantity of water and sand
c. More than 15% are not desirable
d. All the above
a. High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S cause rapid hardening
b. High percentage of C3S and low percentage of C2S make the cement less resistive to
chemical attack
(C) Low percentage of C3S and high percentage of C2S contribute to slow hardening
(D) All the above
569. The maximum amount of dust which may be permitted in aggregates is
a. 5% of the total aggregates for low workability with a coarse grading
b. 10% of the total aggregates for low workability with a fine grading
c. 20% of the total aggregates for a mix having high workability with fine grading
d. All the above
570. Bulking of sand is
a. Mixing of different sizes of sand particles
b. Mixing of lime with sand
c. Maximum water with sand
d. Swelling of sand when wetted
571. For a longitudinal reinforcing bar in a column, the minimum cover shall neither be less
than the diameter of bar nor less than
a. 15 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 40 mm
572. Workability of concrete is measured by
a. Vicat apparatus test
b. Slump test
c. Minimum void method
d. Talbot Richard test
573. The size of fine aggregates does not exceed
a. 2.75 mm
b. 3.00 mm
c. 3.75 mm
d. 4.75 mm
574. According to IS: 456,1978, the flexural strength of concrete is
a. Directly proportional to compressive strength
b. Inversely proportional to compressive strength
c. Directly proportional to square root of compressive strength
d. Inversely proportional to square root of compressive strength
575. Slump test is done for
a. Clay
b. Sand
c. Lime
d. Concrete
576. Di-calcium silicate (C2S)
a. Hydrates rapidly
b. Generates less heat of hydration
c. Hardens rapidly
d. Provides less ultimate strength to cement
577. The limits of percentage p of the longitudinal reinforcement in a column is given by
a. 0.15% to 2%
b. 0.8% to 4%
c. 0.8% to 6%
d. 0.8% to 8%
578. Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing
a. Soundness of cement
b. Hardness of cement
c. Strength of cement
d. Durability of cement
579. Construction joints are generally provided in concrete
a. Roads
b. Retaining walls
c. Lining of canals
d. All the above
580. For the design of retaining walls, the minimum factor of safety against overturning is
taken as
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
581. If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve
of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than
a. 20.5 mm
b. 30.5 mm
c. 40.5 mm
d. 50.5 mm
582. To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained
a. Granite
b. Magnetite
c. Barite
d. Volcanic scoria
583. Vicat apparatus is used for
a. Fineness test
b. Consistency test
c. Test for setting time
d. Test for tensile strength
584. Which of the following losses of pre-stress occurs only in pre-tensioning and not in post
tensioning?
a. Elastic shortening of concrete
b. Shrinkage of concrete
c. Creep of concrete
d. Loss due to friction
585. Pre-stress loss due to friction occurs
a. Only in post-tensioned beams
b. Only in pre-tensioned beams
c. In both post-tensioned and pre-tensioned beams
a. An increase in water content must be accompanied by an increase in cement content
b. Angular and rough aggregates reduce the workability of the concrete
c. The slump of the concrete mix decreases due to an increase in temperature
d. All the above
587. As compared to ordinary Portland cement, use of pozzolana cement
a. Reduces workability
b. Increases bleeding
c. Increases shrinkage
d. Increases strength
588. The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:
a. Grading of aggregates
b. Surface area of aggregates
c. Shape of aggregates
d. All the above
589. The factor of safety for
a. Steel and concrete are same
b. Steel is lower than that for concrete
c. Steel is higher than that for concrete
590. Setting time of cement increases by adding
a. Gypsum
b. Hydrogen peroxide
c. Calcium chloride
d. Sodium oxide
591. According to IS: 456,1978, the maximum reinforcement in a column is
a. 2 %
b. 4 %
c. 6 %
d. 8 %
592. According to the recommendations of IS : 456-1978, the expansion joints
a. Are provided where plane changes abruptly
b. Are provided to ensure minimum resistance
c. Do not carry reinforcement across them
d. All the above
593. While designing the pile as a column, the end conditions are nearly
a. Both ends hinged
b. Both ends fixed
c. One end fixed and other end hinged
d. One end fixed and other end free
594. Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for
a. Crushing strength
b. Impact value
c. Abrasion resistance
d. Water absorption
595. The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary
Port land Cement should not take more than
a. 30 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes
596. The strength of concrete after one year as compared to 28 days strength is about
a. 10 to 15% more
b. 15 to 20% more
c. 20 to 25% more
d. 25 to 50% more
597. Specified compressive strength of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of
a. 3 days
b. 7 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
a. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) hydrates rapidly
b. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) generates more heat of hydration
c. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) develops early strength
d. Tricalcium silicate (C3S) has more resistance to sulphate attack
599. A construction joint is provided where
a. Bending moment is small
b. Shear force is small
c. The member is supported by other member
d. All the above
600. According to IS: 456,1978, minimum slenderness ratio for a short column is
a. Less than 12
b. Less than 18
c. Between 18 and 24
d. More than 24
a. In properly graded aggregates, bulk density is more
b. In single size aggregates, bulk density is least
c. In single size aggregates, bulk density is maximum
d. None of these
602. To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is
a. 100 cm
b. 125 cm
c. 150 cm
d. 200 cm
603. For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use
a. Internal vibrator
b. Screed vibrator
c. Form vibrator
d. None of these
604. Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known
a. Bleeding
b. Creeping
c. Segregation
d. Flooding
605. High temperature
a. Increases the strength of concrete
b. Decreases the strength of concrete
c. Has no effect on the strength of concrete
d. None of these
Answer: Option B
606. Stress strain curve of high tensile steel
a. Has a definite yield point
b. Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.1% proof stress
c. Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 0.2% proof stress
d. Does not show definite yield point but yield point is defined by 2% proof stress,
607. The minimum diameter of longitudinal bars in a column is
a. 6 mm
b. 8 mm
c. 12 mm
d. 16 mm
608. Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete
a. Porous
b. Non-homogeneous
c. Reduced strength
d. All the above
609. Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is
a. Made with cement concrete
b. Thick and reinforced
c. Thin and heavily reinforced
d. Thick and heavily reinforced
610. For a cantilever of effective depth of 0.5 m, the maximum span to satisfy vertical
deflection limit is
a. 3.5 m
b. 4 m
c. 4.5 m
d. 5 m
611. How long will it take for the concrete to achieve 100% of its strength?
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 21 days
d. 28 days
612. Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known
a. Bleeding
b. Creeping
c. Segregation
d. Shrinkage
613. You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is
a. Ordinary Portland cement
b. Rapid hardening cement
c. Low heat cement
d. Blast furnace slag cement
a. Bulking of sand is caused due to formation of a thin film of surface moisture
b. Fine sand bulks more than coarse sand
c. The volume of fully saturated sand, is equal to the volume of dry and loose sand
d. All the above
615. Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using
a. Low water cement ratio
b. Less cement in the concrete
c. Proper concrete mix
d. All the above
616. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
a. 1/5th of mean dimension
b. 2/5th of mean dimension
c. 3/5th of mean dimension
d. 4/5th of mean dimension
617. Inert material of a cement concrete mix, is
a. Water
b. Cement
c. Aggregate
d. None of these
618. If a beam fails in bond, then its bond strength can be increased most economically by
a. Increasing the depth of beam
b. Using thinner bars but more in number
c. Using thicker bars but less in number
d. Providing vertical stirrups
619. The percentage of reinforcement in case of slabs, when high strength deformed bars are
used is not less than
a. 0.15
b. 0.12
c. 0.30
d. 1.00
620. Sands of zone I are:
a. Coarse
b. Medium
c. Medium to fine
d. Fine
621. If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is
a. Very low
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
622. According to IS : 382-1963, a good aggregate should be
a. Chemically inert
b. Sufficiently strong
c. Hard and durable
623. The compressive strength of 100 mm cube as compared to 150 mm cube is always
a. Less
b. More
c. Equal
624. The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from
a. 20 mm to 30 mm
b. 30 mm to 40 mm
c. 40 mm to 50 mm
d. 50 mm to 60 mm
625. Gypsum is added for
a. Colour
b. Strength
c. Controlling setting time
d. None of these
626. Modulus of elasticity of steel as per IS: 456-1978 shall be taken as
a. 20 kN/cm²
b. 200 kN/cm²
c. 200 kN/mm²
d. 2 × 106 N/cm²
627. For a good concrete
a. Aggregates should be hard and durable
b. Water should be free from organic materials
c. Cement should be sufficient to produce the required strength
d. All the above
628. design yield stress of steel according to IS: 456-1978 is:
a. 0.37 fy
b. 0.57 fy
c. 0.67 fy
d. 0.87 fy
Where fy is the characteristic yield strength of steel
629. The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known
a. Placing
b. Wetting
c. Curing
d. Compacting
630. For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is
a. 1 : 3 : 6
b. 1 : 2 : 4
c. 1 : 1½ : 3
d. 1 : 4 : 8
631. Pozzolanic properties exist in
a. Shales
b. Fly ash
c. Pumicite
d. All the above
632. A continuous beam is deemed to be a deep beam when the ratio of effective span to
overall depth(l/D) is less than
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 2.5
d. 3.0
a. The weight of ingredients of concrete mix, is taken in kilograms
b. Water and aggregates are measured in litres
c. 20 bags of cement make one tonne
d. All the above
634. If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as
a. Very fine sand
b. Fine sand
c. Medium sand
d. Coarse sand
635. The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it
a. Less liable to segregation
b. More liable to segregation
c. More liable to bleeding
d. More liable for surface scaling in frosty weather
636. Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is
a. Dry
b. Earth moist
c. Semi-plastic
d. Plastic
637. In order to obtain the best workability of concrete, the preferred shape of aggregate is
a. Rounded
b. Elongated
c. Angular
d. All of the above
638. Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with
a. Tricalcium silicate and dicalcium silicate
b. Dicalcium silicate and tricalcium aluminate
c. Tricalcium aluminate and tricalcium alumino ferrite
d. All the above
639. An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is
said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
a. 22.5 mm
b. 18.5 mm
c. 16.5 mm
d. 13.5 mm
640. Approximate value of shrinkage strain in concrete, is
a. 0.003
b. 0.0003
c. 0.00003
d. 0.03
641. For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is
a. Setting time
b. Tensile strength
c. Consistency
d. All the above
642. Strength of concrete with passage of time
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Fluctuates
d. Remains constant
643. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. Higher Vee-Bee time shows lower workability
b. Higher slump shows higher workability
c. Higher compacting factor shows higher workability
644. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary
kiln at a temperature between
a. 1100° and 1200°C
b. 1200° and 1300°C
c. 1300° and 1400°C
d. 1400° and 1500°C
645. Curing a concrete for long period ensures better
a. Volume stability
b. Strength
c. Water resistance
d. All the above
646. Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of
a. Aggregates
b. Cement
c. Water
d. All the above
647. If the depth of actual neutral axis in a beam is more than the depth of critical neutral
axis, then the beam is called
a. Balanced beam
b. Under-reinforced beam
c. Over-reinforced beam
648. Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures
a. Desired strength and workability
b. Desired durability
c. Water tightness of the structure
d. All the above
649. Air entrainment in the concrete increases
a. Workability
b. Strength
c. The effects of temperature variations
d. The unit weight
650. Construction joints are provided
a. Where B.M. and S.F. are small
b. Where the member is supported by other member
c. At 18 m apart in huge structures
d. All the above
651. Maximum distance between expansion joints in structures as per IS: 456 1978 is
a. 20 m
b. 30 m
c. 45 m
d. 60 m
652. Minimum thickness of load bearing RCC wall should be
a. 50 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 150 mm
d. 200 mm
653. Strength of concrete increases with
a. Increase in water-cement ratio
b. Increase in fineness of cement
c. Decrease in curing time
d. Decrease in size of aggregate
654. For ensuring quality of concrete, use
a. Single sized aggregates
b. Two sized aggregate
c. Graded aggregates
655. Workability improved by adding
a. Air-entraining agent
b. Foaming agent
c. Oily-agent
d. All the above
656. The most commonly used admixture which prolongs the setting and hardening time is
a. Gypsum
b. Calcium chloride
c. Sodium silicate
d. All of the above
657. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an
excess of
a. Thin particles
b. Flat particles
c. Elongated particles
d. All the above
658. The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity
of proportion, is known
a. Grading
b. Curing
c. Mixing
d. Batching
659. In case of hand mixing of concrete, the extra cement to be added is
a. 5 %
b. 10 %
c. 15 %
d. 20 %
660. The ratio of the diameter of reinforcing bars and the slab thickness is
a. 1/4
b. 1/5
c. 1/6
d. 1/8
661. Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for construction of
a. Dams
b. Massive foundations
c. R.C.C. structures
d. All the above
662. 1% of voids in a concrete mix would reduce its strength by about
a. 5 %
b. 10 %
c. 15 %
d. 20 %
663. Permissible compressive strength of M 200 concrete grade is
a. 100 kg/cm2
b. 150 kg/cm2
c. 200 kg/cm2
d. 250 kg/cm2
664. The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is
a. Smooth
b. Granular
c. Glassy
d. Honey combed and porous
665. The shrinkage of concrete
a. Is proportional to water content is the mix
b. Is proportional to cement concrete
c. Increases with age of concrete
d. All the above
666. Too wet concrete may cause
a. Weakness of concrete
b. Excessive laitance
c. Segregation
d. All the above
667. The commonly used material in the manufacture of cement is
a. Sand stone
b. Slate
c. Lime stone
d. Graphite
668. Grading of sand causes great variation in
a. Workability of concrete
b. Strength of concrete
c. Durability of concrete
d. All the above
669. The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of
F.M. 6.8 for obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is
a. 30 %
b. 40 %
c. 50 %
d. 33 %
670. Joints in concrete structures, are provided
a. To reduce the tensile stresses likely to be developed due to evaporation of water
b. To minimise the change in the dimensions of the slab
c. To minimise the necessary cracking
d. All the above
671. The final operation of finishing floors, is known as
a. Screeding
b. Floating
c. Trowelling
d. Finishing
672. Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of
a. 100 m
b. 200 m
c. 300 m
d. 400 m
673. Curing
a. Reduces the shrinkage of concrete
b. Preserves the properties of concrete
c. Prevents the loss of water by evaporation
d. All of the above
674. For concreting tunnel linings, transportation of concrete is done by
a. Pans
b. Wheel borrows
c. Containers
d. Pumps
675. The factor which affects workability, is
a. Water content and its temperature
b. Shape and size of the aggregates
c. Air entraining agents
d. All the above
676. Proper batching ensures
a. Economy
b. Durability
c. Workability
d. All the above
677. Vicat's apparatus is used for
a. Fineness test
b. Consistency test
c. Setting time test
d. Soundness test
678. The compaction of concrete, improves
a. Density
b. Strength
c. Durability
d. All the above
679. Segregation is responsible for
a. Honey-combed concrete
b. Porous layers in concrete
c. Surface scaling in concrete
d. All the above
680. If the effective working time is 7 hours and per batch time of concrete is 3 minutes, the
output of a concrete mixer of 150 litre capacity, is
a. 15,900 litres
b. 16,900 litres
c. 17,900 litres
d. 18,900 litres
681. An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue
on I.S. sieve No. 9, more than
a. 5 %
b. 10 %
c. 15 %
d. 20 %
682. The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are:
a. 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm
b. 10 cm, 30 cm, 20 cm
c. 20 cm, 10 cm, 30 cm
d. 20 cm, 30 cm, 10 cm
Building Construction
683. The form work from the slabs excluding props, can be removed only after
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
684. The platform at the end of a series of steps, is known as
a. Platform
b. Relief
c. Rest
d. Landing
685. The pile which supports the load due to friction between pile face and surrounding soil,
is generally known as
a. Bearing pile
b. Friction pile
c. Sheet pile
d. Battered pile
a. D.P.C. should be continuous
b. D.P.C. should be of good impervious material
c. D.P.C. may be horizontal or vertical
d. All the above
687. A wall constructed with stones to protect slopes of cuttings in natural ground from the
action of weathering agents, is called
a. Retaining wall
b. Breast wall
c. Buttress
d. Parapet wall
688. The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. No limit
689. To obtain good bonding in brick masonry
a. First class bricks are used
b. Vertical joints in alternate courses are kept in plumb line
c. Bats are used where necessary
d. All the above
690. The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited
to
a. 25 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 65 mm
d. 100 mm
691. The foundation which consists of a thick reinforced cement slab covering whole area to
support heavy concentrated structural loads, is known as
a. Combined footing
b. Strap footing
c. Raft footing
d. None of these
692. For each storey of a building, the depth of exploration should be
a. 1 metre
b. 2 metres
c. 3 metres
d. 4 metres
693. The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by
a. Compacting the soil
b. Draining the soil
c. Increasing the depth of foundation
d. Grouting
694. A floor constructed with the 4 to 6 mm marble chips, is known
a. Reinforced marble floor
b. Terrazzo floor
c. Marble floor
d. Chip floor
695. A wall constructed to resist the pressure of an earth filling, is called
a. Retaining wall
b. Breast wall
c. Buttress
d. Parapet wall
696. In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be
a. 90° and 0°
b. 75° and 30°
c. 60° and 10°
d. 40° and 25°
697. Raft foundation are generally preferred to when the area required for individual footing,
is more than
a. 25% to total area
b. 30% of total area
c. 40% to total area
d. 50% of total area
698. The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is
a. Raft foundation
b. Grillage foundation
c. Well foundation
d. Isolated footing
699. In clay soil
a. Swelling and shrinkage characteristics prevail
b. Consolidation continues even after several years of construction
c. Differential settlement is generally prevalent
d. All the above
700. In ordinary residential and public buildings, the damp proof course is generally provided
at
a. Ground level
b. Plinth level
c. Water table level
d. Midway ground level and water-table level
701. A covering of concrete placed on the exposed top of an external wall, is known as
a. Cornice
b. Coping
c. Frieze
d. Lintel
702. A pre-stressed concrete pile is
a. Easy to handle
b. Lighter in weight
c. Extremely durable
d. All the above
703. For effective drainage, the finished surface of flat roof should have a minimum slope of
a. 1 in 20
b. 1 to 50
c. 1 in 10
d. 1 in 5
704. The type of bond in a brick masonry containing alternate courses of stretchers and
headers, is called
a. Flemish bond
b. English bond
c. Stretcher bond
d. Header bond
705. The arrangement made to support an unsafe structure temporarily, is known as
a. Shoring
b. Scaffolding
c. Underpinning
d. Jacking
706. In case of foundations on sandy soil, maximum permissible differential settlement, is
usually limited to
a. 15 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 35 mm
d. 45 mm
707. Weep holes are provided in retaining and breast walls
a. To drain off the water from the filling
b. To ventilate the stone masonry
c. To add architectural beauty
d. To increase compaction of the earth retained
708. For the construction of flyovers in sandy soils, the type of foundation provided, is
a. Strap footing
b. Raft footing
c. Combined footing
d. Pier footing
709. The maximum bearing capacity of soil is that of
a. Black cotton soil
b. Loose fine sandy soil
c. Dry coarse sandy soil
d. Hard rocks
710. Minimum width of landing should be
a. Equal to width of stairs
b. Half the width of stairs
c. Twice the width of stairs
d. One fourth the width of stairs
711. The process of keeping concrete moist for a certain period after its finishing, is known as
a. Finishing of concrete
b. Curing of concrete
c. Placing of concrete
d. Compaction of concrete
712. The lintels are preferred to arches because
a. Arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
b. Arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
c. Arches are difficult in construction
d. All of the above
713. Cavity wall is generally provided for
a. Heat insulation
b. Sound insulation
c. Prevention of dampness
d. All the above
714. The construction joints in buildings are provided after
a. 10 m
b. 15 m
c. 20 m
d. 40 m
715. The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to
a. 25 mm
b. 25 to 40 mm
c. 40 to 65 mm
d. 65 to 100 mm
716. The stone whose crushing strength is maximum, is
a. Granite
b. Chalk
c. Slate
d. Sand stone
717. In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum?
a. Parallel to grains
b. 45° to grains
c. Perpendicular to grains
d. Same in all directions
718. The arrangement of supporting an existing structure by providing supports underneath,
is known as
a. Shoring
b. Underpinning
c. Jacking
d. Piling
719. A concrete structure is set on fire and the temperature raises to 1000°C. The strength of
concrete as compared to original strength reduces to
a. 10 %
b. 15 %
c. 20 %
d. 25 %
720. The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d. No limit
721. The depth of the ground water table may be ascertained by
a. Looking through the well in the vicinity
b. Standing on the well in the vicinity
c. Measuring the depth of water in the well
722. The ceiling height of a building is
a. Between ceiling and ground level
b. Between ceiling and floor level
c. Upto roof above ground level
d. Upto ceiling from the ground level
723. The skirting/dado in a bath roof should be upto
a. Ceiling
b. 15 cm above floor level
c. 200 cm
d. Level of the tap
724. The form Work including the props can be removed from beams, only after
a. 3 day
b. 7 days
c. 14 days
d. 21 days
725. Stability of an existing structure may be disturbed by
a. Rising of water table
b. Vibrations caused by traffic movements
c. Mining in the neighbourhood
d. All the above
726. The form work from the sides of beams can be removed only after
a. 1 day
b. 4 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
727. The maximum permissible differential settlement, in case of foundations in clayey soil, is
usually limited to
a. 10 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 40 mm
728. The black cotton soil
a. Undergoes volumetric changes
b. Swells excessively when wet
c. Shrinks excessively when dry
d. All the above
729. Pile foundation is generally provided if soil is
a. Compressible
b. Water logged
c. Made up
d. All the above
730. The form work from the underside of slabs, can be removed only after
a. 1 day
b. 4 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days
731. For heavy embankments and dams, of height h, the depth of exploration of soil should
not be less than
a. h/4
b. 1/2 h
c. h
d. 2 h
732. If height of the first storey of a building is 3.2 m and riser is 13 cm, the number of treads
required, is
a. 12
b. 18
c. 24
d. 25
733. Dado is usually provided in
a. Dining halls
b. Bath rooms
c. Living rooms
d. Verandah
734. The taper of precast concrete pile should not be more than
a. 1 cm per metre length
b. 2 cm per metre length
c. 4 cm per metre length
d. 5 cm per metre length
735. In case of multi-storeyed buildings, the forms to be removed first are
a. Sides of beams and girders
b. Column forms
c. Bottom of beams and girders
d. All the above at the same time
736. The nominal thickness of an expansion joint in brick walls, is kept more than
a. 5 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm
737. The foundation in which a cantilever beam is provided to join two footings, is known as
a. Strip footing
b. Strap footing
c. Combined footing
d. Raft footing
738. The brick laid with its length parallel to the face of a wall, is a known as
a. Header
b. Stretcher
c. Closer
d. None of these
739. Black cotton soil is unsuitable for foundations because its
a. Bearing capacity is low
b. Permeability is uncertain
c. Particles are cohesive
d. Property to undergo a volumetric change due to variation of moisture content
740. A temporary rigid structure having platforms to enable masons to work at different
stages of a building, is known as
a. Scaffolding
b. Dead shore
c. Raking shore
d. Under pinning
741. The type of bond in which every course contains both headers and stretchers, is called
a. English bond
b. Flemish bond
c. Russian band
d. Mixed bond
Engineering Indicators and Emergency Protection
742. In which colour Caution indicator board is painted?

(a)yellow and black
(b) black and yellow
(c) white and yellow
(d) white and black
743. Caution indicator shall be provided at how many meters in rear of speed
indicator and at how many Meters when the trains are required to stop.
(a)1200,800
(b) 600,1200
(c) 600,800
(d) 800,1200
744. Speed indicator board is in which shape and base colour and figure are in
which colour indicating the speed.
(a) Equilateral triangle, yellow , black
(b) circle, yellow and black
(c) rectangle, yellow and black
(d) square ,yellow and black
745. What is the Shape of stop indicator board?

(a) circular
(b) square
(c) rectangular
(d) octagonal
746. What is the Size of stop indicator in mm?

(a) 1400x200
(b) 1400x1200
(c) 400x800
(d) 1400x400
747. Full form of BSLB?

(a) Back Section Limit Board
(b) Before Section Limit Board
(c) Block Section Limit Board
(d) below Section Limit Board
748. In caution indication of two hole of 130mm diameter are meant for
showing what at night?
(a) double yellow
(b) red light
(c) double red light
(d) yellow light
749. In case of emergency protection where shall the Right hand signal?
(a) 1200m in rear of the spot
(b) 600m in rear of the spot
(c) 800m in rear of the spot
(d) 30 mtr in rear of the spot
750. Where the Flag man will take stand from the last detonator
(a)30m
(b) less than 45m
(c) Not less than 45 m
(d) 5m
751. Work when are completed by sunset of the day of commencement are
called what type of works.
(a)half day duration
(b) short duration
(c) long duration
(d) None of these.
Store and Accounts
752. When should Each stock holder should verify his stock?
a. once in a year
b. once in two years
c. once in three years
d. once in six months
753. What do we call those stocks which have not been issued to any inventor during
past 24 months but can be used in near future?
a. movable MAS store
b. movable consumable store
c. surplus store
d. movable surplus store
754. Full form of DMTR?

a. Detonator material transaction register
b. Dead material transaction register
c. Daily material transaction register
d. Duty material transaction register
755. How many railway materials have been classified in major groups and main groups.
a. 10,76
b. 10,67
c. 76,10
d. 67,10
756. Full form of PCMM…………

a. Principal Chief Mechanical Management
b. Principal Chief Modification Management
c. Principal Chief Material Manager
d. Principal Chief Material Management
757. The assistant engineer should check about how much percentage of the equipment
once a year?
a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 100%
758. According to ABC analysis item which represents 20% of total issue will be classified
as which category?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. None of these
759. Full form RMC……………….

a. Railway material consignment
b. Rail material consignment
c. Railway material consignee
d. Railway movable consignment
760. Full form MAS……………….

a. (a)Management at site
b. Manager at site
c. Material at site
d. None of these
761. What is Form no. of MAS account?

(a)S-1667
(b) E-1737
(c) S-1737
(d)none of these
762. When should the Verification of MAS store?

a. once in a year
763. When should the Verification of imprest store is done?

a. once in a year
764. When the Verification of tools and plant should is done?

a. once in a year
d. once in month
765. Who should arrange Surplus stock disposal?

a. ADEN
b. DEN
c. SSE
d. Chief Engineer
766. Transfer of store from one department to other department is carried out by
making which form?
a. DS 8
b. RE- 9B
c. RE- 9V
d. RE-9A
Tunnels
767. What shape of Railway Tunnel is suitable for Hard Rocks?

a. D Shaped
b. Horse Shoe Shaped
c. Elliptical
d. Circular
768. What shape of Railway Tunnel is suitable for Soft Rocks?

a. D Shaped
b. Horse Shoe & Modified Horse Shoe Shaped
c. Elliptical
d. Circular
769. What shape of Railway Tunnel is suitable for Soft Grounds?

a. D Shaped
b. Horse Shoe Shaped
c. Elliptical & Circular
d. Modified Horse Shoe Shape
770. Maximum distance of centre to centre of tracks in tunnels for existing lines is
a. 4265 mm
b. 4495 mm
c. 4725 mm
d. 4850 mm
771. Maximum distance of centre to centre of tracks in tunnels for new works or alteration to
existing lines is
a. 4265 mm
b. 4495 mm
c. 4725 mm
d. 4850 mm
772. Code LK3 indicates what type of defect in tunnels?

a. Minor Crack
b. Moderate Honeycomb
c. Moderate Scaling
d. Severe Leakage
773. Code CR2 indicates what type of defect in tunnels?

a. Moderate Crack
b. Minor Honeycomb
c. Moderate Scaling
d. Severe Leakage
774. In tunnels, the maximum horizontal distance from the centre of track to any structure
for height 0.0mm to 305mm above rail level shall be___________mm.
a. 1670 mm
b.1680 mm
c. 1905 mm
d. 5300 mm
775. SSE in charge should inspect all the tunnel in his juriscdiction_____________.
a. once in 3 months
b. once in 6 months
c. once a year
d. every month
776. ADEN shall inspect every tunnel in the sub-division ________________.

a. once in 6 months
b. once a year before the monsoon
c. once a year after the monsoon
d. once in 5 years
Railway Engineering
777. Heel divergence is
a. Always less than flange-way clearance
b. Equal to flange-way clearance
c. Always greater than flange-way clearance
d. Sometimes greater than flange-way clearance
778. Stretcher bar is provided
a. To permit lateral movement of the tongue rail
b. To maintain the two tongue rails at the exact distance
c. To ensure exact gauge at the toe of the switch as well as the nose of crossing
d. To prevent any vertical movement between the wing rail and nose of crossing
779. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at
a. Equilibrium speed
b. Speeds higher than equilibrium speed
c. Speeds lower than equilibrium speed
d. Booked speed
780. Composite sleeper index is the index of
a. Hardness and strength
b. Strength and toughness
c. Toughness and wear resistance
d. Wear resistance and hardness
781. Creep is the
a. Longitudinal movement of rail
b. Lateral movement of rail
c. Vertical movement of rail
d. Difference in level of two rails
782. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down and
are deflected at ends. These rails are called
a. Roaring rails
b. Hogged rails
c. Corrugated rails
d. Buckled rails
783. The main function of a fish plate is
a. To join the two rails together
b. To join rails with the sleeper
c. To allow rail to expand and contract freely
784. The purpose of providing fillet in a rail section is to
a. Increase the lateral strength
b. Increase the vertical stiffness
c. Avoid the stress concentration
d. Reduce the wear
785. Two important constituents in the composition of steel used for rail are
a. Carbon and silicon
b. Manganese and phosphorous
c. Carbon and manganese
d. Carbon and sulphur
786. adopted for modern track, is
a. Straight switch
b. Curved switch
c. Loose heel switch
d. Bent switch
787. The place where a railway line and a road cross each other at the same level, is known
as
a. Cross over
b. Railway junction
c. Road junction
d. Level crossing
788. The rails get out of their original positions due to insufficient expansion gap. This
phenomenon is known
a. Hogging
b. Buckling
c. Creeping
d. None of these
789. For even distribution of load through ballast, load dispersal is assumed as
a. 30° to the vertical
b. 45° to the vertical
c. 60° to the vertical
d. None of these
790. The rail is designated by its
a. Length
b. Weight
c. Cross-section
d. Weight per unit length
791. Main disadvantage of steel sleepers, is:
a. It gets rusted quickly
b. Its lugs sometimes get broken
c. Its lugs sometimes get split
d. All the above
792. Switch angle is the angle between
a. The gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
b. The outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
c. The gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
d. The outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail
793. The main advantage of a cement concrete sleeper, is:
a. Its heavy weight which improves the track modulus
b. Its capacity to maintain gauge
c. Its suitability for track circuiting
d. All the above
794. Staggered rail joints are generally provided
a. On curves
b. On tangents
c. On bridges
d. In tunnels
795. Coning of wheels is provided
a. To check lateral movement of wheels
b. To avoid damage to inner faces of rails
c. To avoid discomfort to passengers
d. All the above
796. The grade compensation on B.G. tracks on Indian Railways, is
a. 0.02 %
b. 0.03 %
c. 0.04 %
d. 0.05 %
797. On Indian Railways standard length of rails for B.G. track, is
a. 33 ft (10.06 m)
b. 36 ft (10.97 m)
c. 39 ft (11.89 m)
d. 42 ft (12.8 m)
798. The side slope of embankments for a railway track is generally taken as
a. 1:1
b. 1.5 : 1
c. 2:1
d. 1:2
799. Packing of ballast is done
a. Near the ends of sleepers
b. On the shoulders
c. Under sleepers
d. Between two rails
800. The angle between the gauge faces of the stock rail and tongue rail, is called
a. Switch angle
b. Angle of crossing
c. Angle of turnout
d. None of these
801. In permanent way, ballast
a. Transfers load from sleepers to the formation
b. Provides an elastic bed to the track
c. Provides a drainage of track
d. All the above
802. Anti-creep anchors are fixed to rails by
a. Wedging
b. Spring grip
c. Clamping
d. All the above
803. Advantage of automatic signalling, is:
a. Increased safety
b. Reduction in delays
c. Increase in track capacity
d. All the above
804. For points and crossings, minimum size of ballast, is
a. 50 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 30 mm
d. 25 mm
805. Gauge of a permanent way, is
a. Minimum distance between running faces of rails
b. Minimum distance between outer faces of rails
c. Distance between centres of rails
d. Width of formation
806. Vertical curves are provided where algebraic difference between grades is equal to or
a. Less than 2 mm/m
b. More than 2 mm/m
c. Less than 4 mm/m
d. More than 4mm/m
807. If G is gauge is metres, V is speed of trains in km/hour and R is radius of a curve in
metres, the equilibrium super elevation is
a. GV²/R
b. GV²/17R
c. GV²/127R
d. GV²/130R
808. Distance between inner faces of the flanges, is kept
a. Equal to the gauge distance
b. Slightly less than the gauge distance
c. Slightly more than the gauge distance
d. None of these
Bridge
809. When should be the Special Inspection of distress bridge of category-I by inspector
concerned will be done?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once in 3 months
c. Once in a month
d. Once in 2 months
810. When should be the Special Inspection of distress bridge of category-2 by inspector
concerned will be done?
a. Once in a month
b. Once in 2months
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in 6 months
811. When should be the Special Inspection of distress bridge of category-I by DEN & Sr.
DEN concerned will be done?
a. Once in a month
b. Once in 2months
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in 6 months
812. When should be the Special Inspection of distress bridge of category-2 by DEN & Sr.
813. DEN concerned will be done?
a. Once in 6 months
b. Once in a month
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in a year
814. A bridge having how much linear waterway or how much total waterway is called as
an important bridge.
a. 600 m and 500 sqm
b. 300 m and 1000 sqm
c. 300 m and 500 sqm
d. 200m and 800 sqm
815. What should be the frequency of painting of steel of steel girder bridge depending
on climate?
a. 1 to 6 years
b. 1 to 5 years
c. 1 to 3 years
d. 1 to 4 years
816. What should be the Speed restriction imposed on train moving on RH girder?
a. Stop dead and 10kmph
b. 25 to 50 kmph
c. 15 to 20 kmph
d. 30 kmph
817. What is the inspection schedule of ADEN's bridges?

a. Once in a year
b. Once in 2 years
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in 6 months
818. What do we call a Long bridge over a deep valley
a. Aquaduct
b. Through bridge
c. viaduct
d. Deck bridge
819. The bridge shall be inspected by IOW/PWI when before monsoon.

a. Once in a year
b. Once in 2 years
c. Once in 3 months
d. Once in 6 months
(The question bank contains the illustrative example of objective, short

notes as well as essay type questions, but is not complete in total.)
QUESTION BANK FOR BRIDGES
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Initial inspection for PSC girders / Welded girder bridges as per IRBM 1998
a) Within one year of installation b) Once in 3 years
d) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
2. Periodical inspection of Welded girders
a) Once in 3 years b) Once in 3 years
d) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
3 Periodical inspection of PSC & Composite girders
a) Once in 3 years b) Once in 5 years

c) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
4. The date of painting of steel work should be painted in white on the out side of the left girder
a) of the 1st span only b) first span only but on all spans for Imp. bridges
c) of the all spans d) None of the above
5. Camber in steel triangulated girder is provided to compensate for deflection
a) Under live load and dead load b) Under live load
c) Under dead load d) None of the above
6. The length of the snap head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet,
G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a) L =G +1.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof

b) b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm
c) L =G +0.5 D
7. The length of the countersunk head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet,
G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof

b) b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm
c) L =G +0.5 D
8. A bridge is generally specified as “Br. No. 180 (5x9.10m G) at km 345/5-6”. In the above 9.10m
refers to the
a) Effective Span b) Width of bridge
c) Clear Span d) Overall length of bridge
9. The strength of a bridge is termed as MBG loading of 1987. MBG refers to
a) Model Broad Gauge b) Modified Budget Grant
c) Model Budget grant d) Modified Broad Gauge
10.In a temporary signaling arrangements for a bridge work in BG section, caution board shall be placed
in advance of ……. m from start of the bridge/ work spot.
a) 30 m b) 1200 m
c) 677 m d) 1000 m
11. Free Board is the level difference between Formation Level and …………….
a) Rail Level b) HFL
c) Bed Level d) Danger Level
12. Minimum Free Board required in a bridge is
a) 1 m b) 1.20 m
c) 600 mm d) 300
13. Vertical Clearance (VC) in water way bridges is the level difference between
a)HFL and Formation level

b) Bed level and bottom of superstructure
c)HFL and bottom of superstructure
d) Rail level and Formation level
14. Depth of construction in a girder bridge means the depth from
a) RL to HFL b) RL to top of bed block
c) RL to bottom of bed block d) RL to Bed level
15. Skew of a bridge is the angle between
a) C.L. of water course to C.L. of track

b) C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course/road to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier
16. Angle of crossing of a bridge is the angle between
a) C.L. of water course/road to C.L. of track

b) C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier
17. In a single span bridge, the clear span is the distance between
a) Centres of Abutments b) Inner faces of Abutments
c) Outer faces of Abutments d) Width of Abutment
18. Sub structure of a bridge does not include
a) Abutment b) Girder/Slab
c) Piers d) Wing and Return walls
19. Super structure of a bridge includes
a) Girder/Slab b) Abutment
c) Piers d) Bed block
20. Bearings are provided in bridges to transfer the load to
a) Super structure b) Track
c) Embankment d) Sub structure
21. Wing walls and return walls are provided to retain
a) earth on approaches b) ballast
c) track on approaches d) none
22. In a temporary signaling arrangements for a bridge work in BG section, speed board shall
be placed in advance of 30 m from the
a) C.L. of the bridge b) Termination Board
c) Start of the bridge/work spot d) Caution Board
23. In shallow type girders, the rail level shall be
a) 25mm above the top flange of girder b) near the bottom of the girder
c) near the middle of the girder d) below the girder
24. The load transferred from rails to bottom flanges is in
a) deck type girder b) through type girder
c) semi-through type girder d) plate girder
25. The load transferred from rails to web of girders is in
a) deck type girder b) through type girder
c) semi-through type girder d) plate girder
26. The medium to transfer loads from superstructure to substructure is called

a) Abutment b) Bed block
c) Bearing d) Pier
27. Temporary staging for casting PSC Box Girder for a ROB over the Railway span shall be removed
a) after hardening of concrete b) before hardening of concrete
c) during concreting d) after stressing the cables.
28. The horizontal clearance of edge of foot over bridge structure from face of platform is
a) 6525 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 5330 mm d) 5300 mm
29. The vertical clearance of bottom most foot over bridge structure above rail level is
a) 6525 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 5330 mm d) 6250 mm
30. The minimum vertical clearance of foot over bridge gangway is
a) 2100 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 6525 mm d) 2710 mm
31. The horizontal clearance between guard rail and running rail in BG track is
a) 25 mm b) 250 ± 50 mm
c) 75 mm d) 200 ± 50 mm
32. The level of guard rail in bridges shall not be lower than that of running rail by more than
a) 25 mm b) 55 mm
c) 75 mm d) 65 mm
33. The guard rail is provided in bridges to
a) prevent derailment in bridges

b) prevent falling of vehicles during derailment
c) have good riding
d) guide the wheels
34. Steel channel sleepers are provided in bridges with superstructure of
a) PSC slab b) PSC girder

c) Steel girder d) RCC Box
35.Minimum earth cushion required over RCC Box is
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 0 d) 1000 mm
36.The minimum vertical clearance above R.L. to bottom of ROB near the yard shall be
a) 6525 mm b) 5870 mm
c) 2360 mm d) 6250 mm
37. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in rural area shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm d) 5500 mm
38. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in urban area shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm d) 5500 mm
39. The embankment width in approach of the bridge shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 6850 mm d) 6000 mm
40. The height gauge need to be provided in
a) ROB b) RUB
c) FOB d) Fly Over
41. The CRS sanction is required in the ROB project for construction of
a) Approach spans b) Laying road
c) Railway spans d) none
42. The temporary girders are generally required for the bridge works
a) on traffic condition b) under mega block

c) in cut and open method d) in new route
43. The diameter of hole for 20 dia rivet shall be

a) 23 mm b) 18 mm
c) 21.5 mm d) 22 mm
44. IS code for Steel structures is
a) IS 236 b) IS 226
c) IS 456 d) IS 800
45. Pipe culvert is a/an

a) major bridge b) minor bridge
c) unimportant bridge d) important bridge
46. One of the following works does not require CRS sanction
a) Regirdering/ Rebuilding b) Erection of new FOB
c) Erection of platform shelter d) Pipe line crossing
47. Facia boards of platform shelters shall have a minimum horizontal clearance of ……. from C.L. of
track at a minimum height of 4.61m above RL.
a) 2360 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 3000 mm d) 1600 m
48. At FOBs in electrified section the electrocution by live OHE wires is prevented by providing
a) smoke gaurds b) Roofing
c) Bottom lateral bracings d) protective screens
49. One of the following is a shallow foundation

a) Pile foundation b) Raft foundation
c) Under reamed pile foundation d) Well foundation
50. Minimum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge of 0-30 cumecs is
a) 300 mm b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm d) 600 mm
51. Maximum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge above 3000 cumecs
is
a) 300 mm b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm d) 600 mm
52. For end bearing piles, the minimum spacing of piles of diameter ‘d’ shall be
a) 3d b) 2d
c) 2.5d d) 5d
53. Weep holes are provided in

a) piers b) trestle piers
c) foundation d) abutments
54. The pressure on soil worked out shall be ……… the SBC of the soil.
a) more than b) equal to
c) not equal to d) less than
55. ………….. soil has the least SBC of the soil.

a) Hard moorum b) Stiff clay
c) Black cotton soil d) Soft rock
56. The minimum edge distance for rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d b) 3 x d
c) 1.5 x d d) 2.5 x d
57. The minimum pitch of rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d b) 3 x d
c) 1.75 x d d) 2.5 x d
58) Rail Cluster, as temporary arrangement can be used upto a span of
a) 3.66m b) 6.1m
c) 12.2m d) 18.3 m
59) Speed restriction required for using CC cribs as temporary arrangement is

a) 20 kmph b) 40 kmph
c) 35 kmph d) 30 kmph
60) The minimum cushion specified over an arch bridge is --
a) 0.5m b) 0.9m
c) 1.0m d) 1.2 m
61) In case of water crossing danger level in bridges

a) speed restriction be imposed
b) traffic be suspended till water recedes
c) traffic be suspended till a responsible person inspects the site and declares it safe for
running traffic
d) bridge watchman is to be posted
62) From fatigue considerations, bridges are designed for --
a) 2 million cycles b) 1 million cycle
c) 10 million cycles d) 3 million cycles
63) Structural steel for railway loading above 0oC temperature conforms to --
a) IS 2062 grade A b) IS 2062 grade B
c) IS 2062 grade C d) None of the above
64) Bearings for plate girders are --
a) roller bearing b) sliding bearings
c) centralised articulated bearings d) None of the above
65) Bentonite is used in pile driving --
a) to facilitate pile driving b) to enable proper pile concreting
c) to stabilize the bore hole walls d) None of the above
66) In a routine pile load test the test load is --
a) 1.25 times the design load b) 1.5 times the design load
c) 1.75 times the design load d) 2 times the design load
67) In the eight digit code given in the rating system the first digit is called --
a) URN b) ORN
c) CRN d) None of the above
68) An important bridge is one which has total waterway of equal to or more than
a) 1000 sq.metres. b) 800 sq. metres
c) 500 sq. metres d) 300 sq. metres

69) Well foundation may be of the following type
a) circular b) D type
c) Double D type d) Any of the above
70) Maximum tilt specified during sinking of well foundation is

a) 1 in 10 b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 100 d) 1 in 150
71) Foundation and substructure of the bridge should be inspected by SE/P.Way/Works

a) Once a year any time b) Once a year before monsoon
c) Once a year after monsoon d) Once in 3 months
72) For a major bridge, the URN would comprise of
a) single digit b) eight digits

c) six digits d) four digits
73) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group I
a) upto maximum of 15 kmph b) 25 kmph
74) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group II

a) upto maximum of 15 kmph b) 25 kmph to 50 kmph
75) Settlement of foundations or Tilted piers and abutments will be considered as distressed
bridge as
a) Group I b) Group II
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
76) Progressive loss in camber of Prestressed concrete/ steel girders will be considered as distressed
bridge as a) Group I b) Group II
77) Cracks in return walls/ wing walls or Slight tilting/ bulging of abutments are the signs of
distressed bridge under

78) In arch bridges, Cracks/ lean/ bulge in parapet walls, Bulging or separation of spandrel
from arch barrel, are the signs of distressed bridge under
79) Special inspection of distressed bridges shall be carried out by Asst. Engineer is
a) Once in three months b) Once in two months
c) Once in a month d) Once in six month
80) Special inspection of distressed bridges Group II shall be carried out by Inspector (Concerned) is
a) Once in three months b) Once in two months
c) Once in a month d) Once in six months
81) Temporary arrangements for rebuilding of Railway bridges can be executed by providing
a) Temporary girder b) Temporary diversion
c) Any of the above d) None of the above
82) Callendar Hamilton spans are normally available maximum up to
a) 60 ft. b) 100 ft.
c) 150 ft. d) 200 ft.
83) In areas where there is no severe corrosion Finishing coat will be

a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
c) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123

d) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074
84) In areas where there is severe corrosion Finishing coat will be

a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
e) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123

f) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074
85) Entire steel work of girder bridge should be painted at regular interval; known as
a) patch painting b) periodical through painting

86) When as small area of girder bridge should be painted when requiring immediate
painting; known as
a) patch painting b) periodical through painting
87) Elcometer is used to measure the ……….. a) cross level b) Gauge
c) Thickness of paint d) All the above
88) Repairing by cement pressure grouting can be adopted in case of
a) Honey comb concrete b) Hollow masonry, Dormant cracks
c) Deep leached mortar joints d) all the above
89) Cement pressure grouting is suitable for
a) Very fine crack b) weathered concrete
c) Active crack where cause of crack is known and remedial action has been taken
d) Crushed masonry
90) Epoxy pressure grouting is suitable for
a) wide and deep crack b) fine and deep crack
c) fine but not very deep crack d) None of the above
91) Admixtures is added in cement pressure grouting mainly due to
a) increase initial setting time b) improve flowability
c) prepare non shrinkable grout d) Both b) and c)
92) In cement pressure grouting, pressure is kept as
a) 2 to 4 kg./sqcm. b) 3 to 6 kg./sqcm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sqcm. d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sqcm.
93) In Epoxy pressure grouting, pressure is kept as
a) 2 to 4 kg./sqcm. b) 3 to 6 kg./sqcm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sqcm. d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sqcm.
94) In cement pressure grouting, water cement ratio is kept as

a) 0.4 to 0.5 b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35 d) 0.35 to 0.5
95) In guniting/ shotcreting , water cement ratio is kept as
a) 0.4 to 0.5 b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35 d) 0.35 to 0.5
96) In cement pressure grouting holes should be drilled at spacing in both direction at
a) 150 – 500 mm b) 450 mm
c) 500 – 750 mm d) 1000 mm
97) In cement pressure grouting G.I pipes of diameter …… and ……length, should be fixed
in drilled holes
a) 12 to 20 mm, 200 mm b) 12 to 20 mm, 300 mm
c) 12 to 25 mm, 500 mm d) 20 to 25 mm, 300 mm
98) Paint is the mixture of …….
a) Binder, Pigment & Solvent b) Binder & Pigment
c) Binder & Solvent d) None of the above
99) CC Crib stands for
a) Cement concrete b) Criss crossing
c) Christ church d) None of the above
100) While painting with red oxide paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the paint while
doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint b) lamp black
c) red paint d) green paint
101) While painting with Aluminium paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the paint while
doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint b) lamp black
c) red paint d) green paint

102) Shelf life of Paint Red Oxide Ready mixed (IS : 123)
a) 4 month b) 1 year
c) 6 month d) None of the above
103) Shelf life of Paint aluminium when paste and oil are mixed
a) One day b) 1 year
c) 6 month d) None of the above
104) The maximum time lag between surface preparation and the application of primer coat
shall not exceed
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours d) 36 hours
105) The maximum time lag between the primer coat and the Ist finishing coat shall not exceed
a) 3 days b) 7 days
c) 4 days d) 12 days
106) For railway bridges with spans in excess of 30.5m, generally provided with
a) deck type girders b) open web through girders
c) semi through girders d) shallow type girders
107) Open web through girders are provided with
a) rocker & roller bearings b) Sliding bearings
c) centralised bearings d) electrometric bearings
108) Mostly long span rail-cum road bridges are provided with
a) rocker & roller bearings b) segmental roller with oil bath
c) Sliding bearings d) centralised bearings
109) The advantages of elastomeric bearings are
a) Permits movement of the structure in all directions

b) Serves as a shock absorber due to anti-vibration properties of elestomeric
c) better dispersion of longitudinal forces to the approaches
d) All of the above
110) Dimensional Tolerances for Overall plan dimensions of electrometric bearing is

a) +3 mm b) -3 mm
c) +5 mm d) - 0, + 6 mm
111) Length of guard rails to be bent so as to be brought together at the middle of the track.(L2)
a) 3200 mm b) 4875 mm
c) 3655 mm d) None of the above
112) The size of bridge timber required for the standard spans up to 18.3 m
a) 250 x 150mm. b) 250 x 180mm.
c) 250 x 240mm d) 250 x 200mm
113) Rail joints should be avoided within ……………of a bridge abutment.
a) 6 m b) 3m
c) 4 m d) 10 m
114) In case of LWR track, full ballast section as specified in LWR Manual should be provided up to
……….. from the bridge abutment.
a) 200 m b) 50 m
c) 300 m d) 100 m
115) Clear distance between consecutive sleepers not to exceed on bridges in BG is
a) 450 mm b) 600 mm
c) 510 mm d) 500 mm
116) Length of sleepers on BG Girder bridges should not less than
a) 2440 mm. b) 3660 mm
c) 3000 mm d) 2600 mm
117) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs for
water way is > 6.10 < 12.2 m
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 450 mm d) 500 mm
118) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs for
water way is > 12.20 < 30.5 m
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 500 mm d) 450 mm
119) For Box Culverts Danger level is to be taken as
a) at the top of slab b) one third height below bottom of slab
c) at the bottom of top slab d) None of the above
120) The danger level should be marked with a bright red band …… wide centrally over a white band
…… wide for a length of………
a) 5 cm, 10 cm, 60 cms b) 10 cm, 20 cm, 60 cm
c) 15 cm, 30 mm, 60 cm d) None of the above
121) Renewal of slack rivets should be taken up in steel girder bridges:
a) All rivets which are hand loose or which have lost 50% of their head by corrosion.
b) All hammer loose rivets where corrosion has set in between the head and the plate.
c) In end stiffeners when the percentage of hammer loose rivets is >30%
d) All the above
122) In flange splices when the number of hammer and hand loose rivets is 30% or more of the total
rivets on any side of the splice location,
a) Need no be renewed b) wait for 100% loose rivets
c) all the rivets should be renewed. d) None of the above
123) Corrosion in Steel girder bridges may be prevented by :
a) Protective coatings by painting b) Metallising
c) Use of epoxy based paints d) All the above
124) Surface preparation for Metallising the abrasives used for final cleaning is
a) Chilled iron grit G.24, as defined in BS : 2451

b) Washed salt free angular silica sand of mesh size 12 to 30 with a minimum of 40% retained
on a 20 mesh
c) either (a) or (b) d) neither (a) or (b)
125) Minimum length of steel channel sleeper in BG
a) 2500mm b) 2440mm c) 2400mm d) 2600mm

126) Length of bridge timber in BG
a) outer to outer of girder plus 305mm

b) 2440mm
c) whichever is more in a) & b)
d) whichever is less in a) & b)
127) Periodicity of Under water inspection
a) Once in a year
b) Once in two years
c) Whenever high flood occurs
d) Along with detailed inspection of SE/Br
128) Definition of major bridge
a) Single span of 12m & above

b) Total linear water way more than 18m
c) Both a) & b)
129) Definition of minor bridge
e) Single span less than 12m

f) Total linear water way less than 18m
g) Both a) & b)
h) None of the above
130) Permitted wind velocity for running of trains on the bridge
a) 72 km/h
b) 58 km/h
c) 64 km/h
d) No limits
131) Periodicity of recording of camber in PSC girders
a) Once in a year
b) Once in two years
c) Once in three years
d) During the detailed inspection of SE/Br.
132) Weight of steel crib 75x75x10mm angles
a) 200kg
b) 187.2kg
c) 210kg
d) 185kg
133) Conventional method of camber recording
a) Piano wire with counter weight

b) By using leveling instrument
c) Offset method
134) Flood level gauge to be marked in
a) All important bridges
b) All major bridges
c) All minor & major bridges
d) All bridges
135) Velocity of water can be measured by
a) Anemo meter
b) Elco meter
c) Current meter
d) Thermo meter
136) Flood level gauge to be marked
a) commencing from bed level to top

b) commencing from bottom of girder towards bed level
c) commencing from Rail level
d) commencing from Danger level
137) Shallow type girder can be used in
a) ROBs
b) RUBs
c) FOBs
138) Under slung girders can be used in
a) Plain section
b) Ghat section
c) Aquaduct
d) Viaduct
139) Spacing of Trolley refuges
a) Every 100m
b) If span is more than 100m, on each pier
c) Ballasted deck bridges – every 50m
d) All the above
140) Testing of welds by
a) Dye penetrant test

b) Magnetic particle inspection
c) Radiographic inspection
d) All the above
141) Rebound hammer is used for
a) To find the strength of concrete

b) To form rivet heads
c) To break the concrete structures
142) Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity test is meant for
a) Identifying the integrity of concrete

b) Finding the strength of concrete
c) To know the crack in steel structure
d) To know the flaw in rail
143) The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on BG
should not exceed
a)300mm b)400mm c)450mm d)550mm
144) The total number of bridges on I.R.is about
a)1 Lac b)1.25 Lacs c)1.50 Lacs d)2 Lacs
145) Which para of Engineering code deals with cost sharing of ROB/RUBs
a) 1716 b) 1814 c) 1816 d) 1819
146) What is the carriageway of two lane ROB on National Highway
a)10.00m b)8.5 c)9.50 d)10.50
147) The depth of 19.81 mlong service girder is about………
a)1.67 m b)1.16 m c)0.95 m d)1.52 m
148) BGML loading stands for
a)Broad gauge mineral loading b) Broad gauge modified loading
c)Broad gauge mainline loading d) None of above
149) MBG loading stands for
a)MineralBroad gauge loading b) Modified Broad gauge loading
c)MediumBroad gauge loading d) None of above
150) RBG loading stands for
a)Revised Broad gauge loading b) Rolling Broad gauge loading
c)Railway Broad gauge loading d) None of above
151) BGML loading caters for maximum axle load of…….tonnes for locomotive with trailing
load of………tonnes/metre.
a)22.9,7.67 b)22.5,7.67 c)25,7.67 d)None of above
152) RBG loading caters for maximum axle load of…….tones for locomotive with trailing
Load of…… tonnes/metre of track with maximum axle load of…….tonnes for wagons
a)22.9,7.67,25 b)22.5,7.67,22.9 c)25,7.67,22.9, d)None of above
153) Piano wire is used for measuring the-
a) Distortion b)Camber in PSC girder c)Both a & b d)None of above
154) When the railway crosses a deep vally without perinial water,it is called…….
a)Aqueduct b)Cause way c)Via-duct d)River crossing
155) What is the clear distance between two consecutive bridge Timbers or Girder bridge?
(a) 450 mm (b) 510 mm (c) 500 mm (d) 520 mm
156) What is the clear distance between two consecutive steel channel sleepers on Girder bridges?
(a) 450 mm (b) 510 mm
(c) 500 mm (d) 460 mm
157) For painting, the unit of rate is per
a) Sqm b) cum c) 10sqm d) 10cum
158) When proposed depth of construction of a bridge is more than the existing depth of construction in
a bridge work, the existing rail level requires
a) Lowering b) Lifting
c) Slewing d) None
159) Which cement should not be used for bridge slabs ro RCC frames
a) OPC b) Portland Pozzolana cement
c) Portland furnace slag cement d) Rapid hardening cement
160) Standard bag of cement in ……… kg
a) 52 kg b) 30.5kg c) 10.7kg d) 50 kg
161) The concrete under water minimum grade of cement recommended by IS code
a) M 10 b) M 15 c) M 20 d) M 25
162) What is DPC?

a) Damp proof course b) weathering course
c) Treatment the foundation d) Treatment over the roof
163) Elastomeric bearings are made of natural or synthetic rubber of shore hardness of approximately.
a) 30 to 40 b) 50 to 70
c) 40 to 50 d) 60 to 70
164) Investigation for important bridges may be carried out in which stage
a) Technical feasibility study (reconnaissance survey)

b) Techno-economic feasibility study (preliminary engineering survey)
c) Detailed survey and project report stage (final location survey)
d) All the above
165) At locations where access to the new bridge construction is available by rail, the launching of
girders upto 18.3 m which method is ideal.
a) slew in slew out method b) gantry method
c) Launching of girders with the help of a BFR:
d) Pantoon method
166) The normal procedure for promotion should be by …………..Qualified men will be entitled to
promotion by seniority within their own groups.
a) Trade test b) Interview
c) Recommendation d) Random selection
167)Payment to bridge staff on the section will be made by the pay clerk in the presence of
a) SSE/SE/JE/ P.Way b) SSE/SE/JE/ Br.
c) SSE/SE/JE/ Works d) Office clerk
168) If the SSE/SE/JE/ Br. working in the section is not readily available, another SSE/SE/JE
may be authorised by …………….. to witness payment on the section.
a) DEN b) SSE/SE/JE/
c) AEN (Bridges) d) Office clerk
169) The "Transfer of charge'' statement should be signed by both the SSE/SE/JE/ Brs. and
forwarded to the ………….
a) Assistant Engineers (Bridges) b) Divisional Engineer (Bridges)
c) a) and b) d) None of above
170) The Indian Railways Way and Works Manual was first published in the year 1954.
a) 1956 b) 1999
c) 1954 d) 1998
171) Indian Railway Bridge manual established in a) 1998 b) 1999 c)1989 d) 1954
172) While finalizing the IRBM, which of the following have been taken into account.
a) Indian RailwaysGeneral Rules 1976

b) Indian Railways Code for Engineering Department 1993
c) Bridge Rules and Substructure d) All the above
173) A bridge having super structure with “Single or duplicate girders with cross sleepers on
top flanges” is classified as
a) RSJ girder bridge b) Cross Girder
c) Deck plate girder d) Open web girder
174) For assessing the strength of concrete structure by NDT method, the equipment used is
a) Echo sounder b) Anemometer
c) Schmidt's concrete testing hammer d) Volt meter
175) For assessing the cover available to reinforcement in existing RCC structures by NDT method, the
equipment used is
a) Echo sounder b) Concrete cover meter
c) cover meter d) Volt meter
176) Stock indent is prepared in _________ number of copies.
a) 2 b) 6 c) 5
177. The accounts stock verification of P.WAY materials are conducted once in ______ years
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3.
178. DMTR is used to account of stores_______.
a. receipts only b. issues only c. both a& b
179. Reserve price is fixed to sell the scrap materials by______.
a. PCE b. COS c. FA & CAO
180. Price list classification number has ___ digits.
a) 6 b) 8 c) 10
181. RMC note is used for transporting ___ materials.
a) Rly b) Defence c) Public
182. Maximum LAP that can be accumulated by an employee is
a) 180 days b) 240 days c) 300 days.
183. Parents can be included in _______passes.
a) Privilege b) Transfer c) Duty pass
184. SF.1 issued for ________
a) Major penalty b) Minor penalty c) Suspension
185. Casual leaves eligible to open line staff
a) 8 b) 10 c) 11
186. Number of privilege passes eligible for Group C & D staff after 5 years service.
a) 1 Set b) 2 sets c) 3 Sets
187. Number of privilege ticket order eligible for railway staff
a) 4 Set b) 2 sets c) 1 Sets
188. Number of days earn leave credited per annum
a) 10 b) 15 c) 30
189. Number of days LHAP credited per annum
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30
190. Validity of single journey privilege pass

a) 3 months b) 4 months c) 5 month
191. When was the official language act formed ________
a) 1947 b) 1956 c)1963 d) 1976
192. When the official language rules were formed _________
a) 1947 b) 1956 c)1963 d) 1976
193. As per OL policy Jummu & Kishmar comes under ________ region
a) A b) B c) C d) none
194.When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year?
a) 12th Feb b) 12th April c) 14th Feb d) 14th Sept.
195. According to official language rules, TamilNadu falls under which regions.
a) Region A b) Region B c) Region C d) None
196. Which is only Union Territory classified under regions B?
a) Andaman & Nicobar b) Pondicheary
c) Chandigarh d) Daman & Diu
Fill up the blanks with suitable words.
1. Super structure including bearings of all steel Girder of span 12.20m and above is to
be inspected by …SSE./Br.…once in 5 years
2. Abbreviation of DFT ……Dry Film Thickness………
3. Metallising is the process of spraying of …Zinc.. or ..Aluminium.. on the surface
prepared girder.
4. Greasing of bearings of Steel girder bridges is done once in -…Two.. years.
5. Abbreviation of PTFE is……Poly Tetra Fluoro Ethylene ….
6. Abbreviation of NRS …Numerical Rating System…
7. Stock indent form No is … S1313…….
8. Disposal of Unserviceable materials is under Form No. S.1539…
9. Abbreviation of RL-BF is …Depth from rail level to bottom of foundation
10. Abbreviation WL is Well Foundation
11. Abbreviation of ON is …..Open Foundation
12. Abbreviation of CCN is …Cement Concrete …
13. The minimum thickness of Metallising is 115 micron
14. The average thickness of Metallising is 150micron
15. The URN of minor bridge shall be represented by its ORN
16. The abutment the weep holes should be provided one metre horizontal and one metre in
vertical in a staggered manner
17. In important bridge the total linear waterway is 300 m or the total water way is 1000 sq.m.
18. In case of underwater independency diver will be employed in depth beyond 10 m should
be medically checked
19. Normally centre to centre spacing of pile should not be more than 4d where d is the dia of
pile shaft
20. Renewal of loose rivet shall be taken up in end bearing stiffener when the % of hammer
loose rivet is 30%
21. In case of distressed bridge category II, ADEN shall inspect the bridge once in 6 months
22. Greasing of bearing shall be done with grease graphite.
23. In case of bridge is distressed category I then special restriction of 15 kmph shall be imposed
24. The form number used for preparation of indent of stock item is S1313
25. The form used for preparation of Indent on non – stock item is S 1302
26. As per GCC Engineer shall mean DEN / XEN
**********

Combined Civil MCQ

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Combined Civil MCQ

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MAINTENANCE OF TRACK IN TRACK CIRCUITED AREAS

1. Which type of liner is used in track circuited areas?

MAINTENANCE OF TRACK IN ELECTRIFIED AREAS

Q 1. The normal life of detonators is -------- years.

Q 2. Safety radius of detonator while on testing

a) 45M b) 50M c) 30M d) 25M

Q 3. Detonating signal is also called

a) Fog signal B) Danger Signal C) Stop Signal D) Permissive Signal

Q 4. The testing of detonators should be done under an ------------ propelled by an engine.

a) empty 8-wheeled wagon b) empty 4-wheeled wagon

c) loaded 8-wheeled wagon d) loaded 4-wheeled wagon

Q 5. In one tin case, how many detonators are kept?

Q 6. While testing detonator speed of the empty wagon should be

a)10Kmph b) 30Kmph c) Walking Speed d) 20Kmph

a)12 b)36 c)24 d)48

a) ten b) nine c) seven d) eight

Q 9. Warning signal is indicated by ------- during day.

a) 1200 b) 800 c) 500 d) none of these

a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 300 c) 1 in 400 d) none of these

a) 1200 b) 800 c) 500 d) none of these

a)200 b)300 c)400 d)500

a)1.5 b)1.6 c)1.65 d)2

a)200 b)270 c)140 d)600

a)Left hand b)Right hand c)Any side d) none of these

a)400M b)600M c)800M d)1200M

a)400M b)600M c)800M d)1200M

a)15M b)45M c)30M d)35M

A)15M B)45M C)30M D)35M

Q 23. How many categories of engineering works are there?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

a) Through packing b) Picking up slack c) Overhauling

a)1 day b) 30 days c) 7 days d) None of these

a) Hand signal b) Banner Flags c) Detonators d) All of these

a) Works of long duration b)Works of short duration c) Temporary works d) None

a) Hand signal b) Banner Flags c) Fog signals

d) Temporary Engineering Fixed signal

b) Longest length of goods train running in that section

c)Longest length of mix train running in that section

d)None of the above

a) Longest length of passenger train running in that section

b) Longest length of goods train running in that section

c)Longest length of mix train running in that section

d)None of the above

Q 32. Dimension of speed indicator is

a) 1-meter equilateral Triangle

b) 900 mm equilateral triangle

c) 600mm x 1000mm rectangular

d) None of the above

Q 33. Diameter of T/P & T/G board is

a)600 mm b) 900 mm c) 1000 mm d) 2000 mm

Q 34.Length of caution indicator&stop indicator board is

a)600 mm b) 1400 mm c) 1500 mm d) 2000 mm

Q 35. Thickness of the letters ‘T / P’ ‘T / G’ written on termination indicator is

Q 36. Height of the letters ‘T / P’ ‘T / G’ written on ‘T/P’ ‘T/G’ board is

a) 250 mm b) 200 mm c) 150 mm d) 100 mm

a)100 mm b) 200 mm c) 300 mm d) 400 mm

Q 38. Heightof bottom of the stop indicator from rail level is

a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm

a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm

a)1000 mm b) 1650 mm c) 2000 mm d) 2650 mm

Q 42. Width of stop indicator& caution indicator board is

a)100 mm b) 200 mm c) 300 mm d) 400 mm

Q 43. Minimum dimension of banner flag is

a)1750 mm x 180 mm b) 1500 mm x 450 mm