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Boeing 737-700W
Checkride Study Guide
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Aircraft Safety Inspection

What are the Maximum Weights for?

Taxi 155000 Lbs

Takeoff 154500 Lbs

Zero Fuel Weight 120500 Lbs

Landing 128000 Lbs

What Buses are powered with the BATT switch off?

Hot Battery Bus

Systems available: Fueling Panel

Fire Protection to the APU, Engines and Cargo Compartment

Fire Detection (lights, APU Fire Horn) is not available

Max. Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component

10 Knots

Maximum Operating Altitude

FL 410

List the required cockpit equipment

Life vests: 3 or 4 of ‘em depending on jumpseat capacity

Emergency Medical Kit
Escape ropes (2)
QRH (2)
Gear Pins (3)
Fire Extinguisher
PBE (1)
Crash Axe
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List the systems on the A Hydraulic System:

Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator, Elevator Feel
Flight Spoilers (2 on each wing)
Ground Spoilers
Alternate Brakes
No. 1 Thrust Reverser
AutoPilot A
Normal Nosewheel gear steering
Landing Gear

List the systems on the B Hydraulic System:

Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator, Elevator Feel
Flight Spoilers (2 on each wing)
Leading edge flaps
Leading edge slats
Trailing edge flaps
Normal Brakes
No. 2 Thrust Reverser
Autopilot B
Alternate nose wheel steering
Yaw Damper

What systems are lost with a complete System A Hydraulic Failure (Fluid and Pressure loss)?
Ground Spoilers
Landing Gear Retraction
Normal nosewheel steering
Half of the flight spoilers
Alternate Brakes
Autopilot A and Autoland capability

What systems are lost with a complete System B Hydraulic Failure (Fluid and Pressure loss)?
Normal Brakes
Half of the flight spoilers
Alternate Nosewheel steering
Autopilot B and Autoland capability
Yaw Damper

Do you have anti-skid protection with the alternate brakes?

Yes, to wheel pairs, not individual wheels

What prevents a total fluid loss of System A if a leak develops in the engine-driven pump or
its related lines?
A Standpipe in the reservoir. It will allow enough fluid to operate the Electric Hydraulic Pump
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What prevents a total fluid loss of System B if a leak develops in the engine-driven pump or
its related lines?
System B will leak out!

What components will remain on the STBY Hydraulic system given a failure of both A and B
systems?
Leading Edge Flaps
Leading Edge Slats
Rudder
Standby Yaw damper
Thrust Reversers

Which Hydraulic system operates the Landing Gear?

Hydraulic System A

How can the gear be lowered?

Hydraulically (System A) and manually, by releasing the up locks from the cockpit handles

The gear cannot be raised after takeoff normally. What causes this, and how can the gear be
raised?
Either the ground sensor or the Gear Lever Latch has failed. The Ground/Air Sensor can be
overridden by pulling a “trigger” on the gear handle shaft, then raising the gear (QRH)

What is powered with the Battery switch off?

The Hot Battery Bus
The Fueling Panel
Fire Protection but not detection

What is powered with only the BATT SW on?

Hot Battery Bus
Battery Bus
Switched Battery Bus
DC Standby Bus
Standby Inverter – AC Standby bus

Under flight on Battery, what air conditioning systems are available?

Manual control of both packs
Overheat Pack Protection
Manual Pressurization

Under flight on Battery, what Hydraulic systems are available?

Engine-driven pumps are available
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Under flight on Battery, what Nav/Com is available?

NAV 1
PA
Flight Interphone
VHF 1

Which areas of the aircraft have fire protection?

Engines
APU
Cargo Compartments
Lavatories

Describe the lavatory fire detection/protection system

Overhead smoke detection – no indication in cockpit
Fire extinguisher located in trash bin
Discharge nozzle turns grey when discharged

What part of the electrical system must be powered to test the engine and APU FIRE/OVHT
detection system?
Battery Bus (DC Power)

What is being tested with the FAULT/INOP – OVHT/FIRE switch placed in the FAULT/INOP
position?
The fault monitoring circuitry of the APU and the Engine Fire Detection System

What are the indications of a successful FAULT/INOP test?

2 Master Caution
OVHT indication on the “recall”
FAULT light
APU DET INOP light

How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine? How many around the APU?
ENGINES – Dual loops
APU – Single loop

How many engine fire detection loops must detect a fire before the engine fire switch will
illuminate and trigger a fire warning condition?
Both loops, unless the OVHT DET switch is not in the NORMAL position

What happens if a single engine fire detection loop fails?

If one loop fails with the OVHT DET switch in NORMAL, that loop is automatically deselected
and the remaining loop functions as a single loop detector.
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What is cockpit indication that a single engine fire detection loop has failed?
There is no flight deck indication

What happens if both fire detection loops on the same engine fail?
The fire protection FAULT light illuminates
The Master Caution/System Annunciator does not illuminate

When the FAULT/INOP- OVHT/FIRE switch is placed in the OVHT/FIRE position, what is being
tested?
The engine and APU fire detection loops

Which systems are affected by pulling the Engine Fire Switch?

Arms the fire extinguishing bottle squib
Trips Generator control breaker
Closes Hydraulic shutoff valve and disarms the hydraulic LOW PRESS light
Closes Engine and Spar fuel shut-off valves
Closes Engine Bleed valve
Disables Thrust Reverser

Which systems are affected by pulling the APU fire switch?

Arms the fire extinguishing bottle squib
Trips Generator Control Relay
Closes APU fuel shutoff valve
Closes APU Bleed Air Valve
Closes APU inlet door

What system must be powered to discharge an extinguisher bottle

Hot battery Bus

What is required to test the wheel well fire detection system?

AC Power

Electrical power to start the APU comes from

Number 1 AC Transfer Bus
Airplane main battery (DC power)

Why should the APU not be started or stopped during fuelling operations?
Power interruption during start sequence may interrupt power to the fueling panel
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What does BAT DISCHARGE light indicate?

Excessive discharge rate of the battery
It is normal during a battery start of the APU

What will cause the APU to auto-abort/auto shutdown?

Low Oil Pressure
FAULT
Overspeed
Fire

How can the crew shut down the APU?

Turn APU switch off (2-minute sequence)
Turn battery switch off
Pull APU Fire Handle

Once the APU in on line, placing the APU GEN SW on while ground power is supplying power
to the electrical system:
The APU will automatically disconnect ground power from the tie bus,
Powering both Transfer buses

Will the SOURCE OFF light illuminate?

The right SOURCE OFF light will illuminate until the right APU GEN switch is placed ON

After the APU is started, and the right APU GEN switch is placed ON, is the entire electrical
system powered?
Yes, it is entirely powered by the APU GEN

What is the maximum flap extension altitude?

FL200

Can you hold in icing conditions with the flaps extended?

NO

What is the position of the LE flaps when the TE flaps are 5 degrees?
LE flaps extended
Slats extended

When will the LE SLATS move to FULL EXTEND?

With flaps settings greater than 5 degrees

What is MMO/VMO
M0.82/340 KTS
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What will cause the REVERSER lights to illuminate?

Auto-Stow activation
Translating sleeve not in commanded position
Isolation valve, control valve disagreement
Synchronization Shaft Lock circuitry malfunction

What will cause the REVERSER light to illuminate during normal ops?
The light will illuminate when the TR is commanded closed
It will extinguish after the isolation valve closes

What will occur if the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 sec.?
The MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator lights will illuminate

Which engine parameters are protected by the EECs?

N1 OVERSPEED
N2 OVERSPEED

What type of abnormal start alerting and protection is provided by the EEC?
HOT STARTS impending and exceedances on GROUND ONLY
WET STARTS

What is the primary power source for the EECs?

Magnetos!

Prior to engine start, what engine indications are displayed on the DU by the EEC
N1 N2 Oil Quantity and Engine Vibration

What is ground idle?

Ground minimum idle, used for ground ops

What is flight idle?

Flight minimum idle, used for all flight operations except approach idle

What is approach idle?

N2 percent idle higher than flight minimum idle
Improves engine acceleration for go-around
Supplements higher bleed requirements during TAI use

What conditions will place the engines in approach idle?

Flaps in landing configuration (15-40 degrees)
Engine TAI ON
EEC loses inputs from FSEU and TAI, and aircraft is below 15000 feet
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What is the SOFT ALTN mode of the EEC?

A degraded mode of the EEC
Occurs when the normal inputs to EEC are lost (DEU, engine parameters, etc)

What is the HARD ALTN mode of the EEC?

A degraded mode of the EEC
Placing either thrust lever to idle while in SOFT ALTN, sets EEC to HARD ALTN
May be set manually by pressing the EEC switch to HARD ALTN mode
Thrust available will always be equal or greater than in the normal mode

ENGINE CONTROL lights

What will cause the ENGINE CONTROL light to illuminate?
Engine faults
Illuminated on the ground only while engine is running

PASS OXYGEN SWITCH

Oxygen masks deploy:
Manually from switch in the cockpit
Automatically, when the cabin altitude exceeds 14000 ft.

What type of Oxygen is available for the crew?

An O2 bottle located in the E/E compartment

What is the O2 pressure requirement for the cockpit crew?

1850 PSI: the bottle is full
900 PSI: 4 guys
700 PSI: 3 guys
500 PSI: 2 guys

What type of oxygen is available for the passengers?

Each PSU has 1 oxygen generator with 4 masks

What does the illuminated PAX OXY ON light indicate?

The passenger oxygen system has been activated and the masks dropped

If the GPS light illuminates when RECALL is pressed, what is the status of the GPS system?
A single GPS receiver has failed

If the GPS light illuminates without RECALL being pressed, what is the status of the GPS?
A dual GPS receiver failure
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What information is provided by the IRUs (Inertial Reference Units)?

Speed
Altitude
Position

Do the IRUs use conventional navigation aids to complete alignment?

No, they use Pilot input or GPS

What will cause the ALIGN lights to flash on the mode selector unit?
Position has not been entered in a timely fashion
Position of the airplane differs from the last shutdown position
Position of the airplane is changed while the IRUs are aligning

What causes the ON DC light to illuminate during alignment?

A DC power test

What are the possible ways to enter present position during alignment?
The CDU
The ISDU

What are the allowable entries for the SET IRS POSITION fields on POS INIT page?
GPS position
Gate position
LAT/LONG
Last position
Reference airport

During a normal alignment, the IRU sense their position based on which 3 values:
Position
Sensed position
Last IRS position computed before IRS are shutdown

What will occur if during the alignment process, an internal test fails?
The ALIGN lights will flash

Can you re-enter the same LAT/LONG into the FMC while the ALIGN lights flash?
Yes, if two consecutive entries of the same position are entered and accepted during the IRS
comparison test
If the IRS does not accept the position, the FAULT lights will illuminate
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During IRS alignment, what does the VERIFY POSITION message on the MCDU indicate?
LAT/LONG position differs from Origin Airport by more than 4 NM

What does an illuminated IRS FAULT light indicate?

There is a fault in the respective IRU

What does an illuminated IRS “ON DC” light indicate?

A loss of normal system AC power to the IRS has been detected and the IRU is being powered
directly from the battery

How long will the F/O ADIRU operate on battery power?

5 Minutitos

How long will the CAPT ADIRU operate on battery power?

It will operate for the life of the battery

What will occur when the IRS “ON DC” light illuminates while on the ground?
A horn in the nose wheel well will sound

What does the “INSTR SWITCH” message that appears on the PFD indicate?
One IRU is supplying data to both the CAPT and FO displays

What does the “OVERWING EXIT” annunciation on the overhead panel indicate?
A related over-wing exit is not closed and locked
A related flight lock failed to engage when commanded locked

When will the over-wing emergency exit latches lock?

Either engine running
Airplane is airborne
Both thrust levers advanced
3 or 4 entry doors closed

Where are the emergency exit lights located?

Lower inboard corner of stowage bins
Over the entry/service doors
Over-wing exits
Ceiling
Photo-luminescent aisle path lighting on the floor

What is the source of the emergency lighting

Individual battery packs
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What interior lighting is available with emergency power

Overhead bin
Floor (track)
Exits and arrow signs
Ceiling lighting near exits

What exterior lighting is available with emergency power?

Slides
Entry doors
Service doors
Over-wing and ground lighting

What will cause the auto-illumination of the emergency lighting with the switch in the
ARMED position?
Loss of all AC

What is the normal hydraulic pressure ?

3000 PSI

What does RF indicate on the Hydraulic Quantity indicator?

Hydraulic quantity is low and needs servicing

How is the hydraulic fluid cooled?

Heat exchangers in the main fuel tanks
System A in Left Main Tank
System B in Right Main Tank

What is indicated by an illuminated Hydraulic OVERHEAT light?

The electrical hydraulic pump is overheated
The fluid used to cool the pump is overheated

How are the hydraulic reservoirs kept under positive pressure?

By engine bleed air

What is the electrical power source for SYSTEM A electric-motor-driven pump?

No. 2 AC TRANSFER BUS

What is the electrical power source for SYSTEM B electric-motor-driven pump?

No. 1 AC TRANSFER BUS

What systems does the Power Transfer Unit operate?

Auto Slats
LE Flaps and Slats
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What will cause the PTU to engage?

The PTU control valve will open when:
Aircraft is in flight
No. 2 engine-driven pump output pressure is low
Flaps between 1 and 15

What will cause the Landing Gear Transfer Unit (LGTU) to operate?
Airborne
No. 1 RPM drops below a limit value
Landing gear lever UP
Either MAIN landing gear not up

Why is the LGTU necessary after failure of the No. 1 Engine?

The LGTU retracts the gear rapidly and aids in single-engine climb performance

What are the indications of a SYSTEM A hydraulic failure

Both Master Caution Lights Illuminate
FLT CONT and HYD annunciators
SYS A hydraulic pump LOW PRESSURE light illuminates
Flight control LOW PRESSURE light illuminates
FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates

What items are on the Standby Hydraulic System?

Thrust reversers
Rudder
Leading Edge Slats and Kreuger Flaps (extend only)
Standby yaw damper

Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD accomplishes what?

Activates the standby electric motor-driven pump
Shuts off the related hydraulic system pressure to flight controls by closing the flight control
shutoff valve
Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
Deactivates the related FLT CONTROL low pressure light when the standby rudder valve opens
Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
Illuminates STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights

How can the standby pump be turned on manually?

Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD
Arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM
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How can the standby pump be turned on automatically?

Loss of system A or B pressure
Flaps extended
Airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60 knots
FLT CONTROL switch A or B switch ON (normal position)
FFM trips

When activated automatically, what happens with the standby hydraulic system?
Activates the standby electric-motor-driven pump
Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
Allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers
Illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights

What is the minimum quantity should the hydraulic systems leak?

SYSTEM A: Standpipe in the reservoir stops the leak at 20%
SYSTEM B: Enough fluid remains to power the PTU (1 gal.)
STANDBY: LOW QUANTITY indicates tank is half full

When must the APU valve be closed?

With ground air connected and ISOL valve OPEN
Engine No. 1 bleed valve OPEN and engine is operating
Isolation valve OPEN and engine no. 2 valve OPEN with engine operating

What are the altitude limits for APU use?

Air and Electrical use: 10000 feet
Air only 17000 feet
Electrical only: 41000 feet

Where does the bleed air pressure measure the pressure?

Upstream of the PACK

Under what conditions is it permissible to operate both packs from one source?
On the ground, from the APU bleed air

Explain the positions of the ISOL VALVE:

Open: Opens the ISOL valve and connects the left and right pneumatic systems
Closed: Isolates the left from the right system
AUTO: Isolation valve is OPEN when a pack or engine bleed air switch is OFF
Isolation valve is CLOSED with engine bleed switches ON, and pack sw. AUTO or HIGH

What precautions should be taken when using external pneumatic air?

Battery switch should be on to power the overheat protective system
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What is the minimum O2 pressure for dispatch?

FULL: 1850 PSI
2 J/S 900 PSI
1 J/S 700 PSI
CREW ONLY 500 PSI

When will the Passenger Oxygen Masks auto-deploy?

When the cabin altitude reaches 14000 ft.

Placing the “A” FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD accomplishes:

Turns on the standby pump
Logic change for the “A” system LOW PRESS light (OFF indicateds STBY RUD valve open)
Arms the standby pump LOW PRESS light
Restores hydraulic pressure to the left thrust reverser
Pressurizes the standby rudder PCU

Placing the “B” FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD accomplishes:

Turns on the standby pump
Logic change for the “A” system LOW PRESS light (OFF indicateds STBY RUD valve open)
Arms the standby pump LOW PRESS light
Restores hydraulic pressure to the right thrust reverser
Restores hydraulic pressure to the leading edge devices
Pressurizes the standby rudder PCU

Placing the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch to ARM:

Arms the alternate flaps position switch
Turns on the standby pump
Closes the trailing edge flaps bypass valve
Arms the standby pump LOW PRESS light

Is there flap load relief with alternate flap extension?

No, only with normal flaps

Can the LE DEVICES be retracted with the ALTERNATE FLAP EXTENSION ?

No, they are only fully extended once, and that’s it!

What is the required cooling period for using ALTERNATE FLAPS?

0-15 degrees: 5 minutes
15-40 degrees: 25 minutes
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When will the standby hydraulic pump automatically operate?

Force Fight Monitor activates it
Loss of system A or B pressure
Flaps not UP
Airborne
Speed greater than 60 kts.

What is the function of the FFM (Force Fight Monitor)?

Monitors the A and B control rod inputs to the Rudder Control Valve. If there is a
disagreement, the FFM shuts off the inputs from both the A and B systems and automatically
allows the STBY RUD to pressurize the standby PCU to control the rudder

How many spoilers on each wing?

2 Ground spoilers (Hydraulic system A)
4 Flight spoilers (Hydraulic system A and B)

Which hydraulic system is utilized by the elevator feel system?

Whichever system is higher, A or B

What does an illuminated MACH TRIM FAIL light indicate?

Failure of the mach trim system
On RECALL – single FCC channel failure

What is the function of the Mach Trim System?

FCC use Mach information from ADC/ADIRU to compute a Mach trim actuator position which
positions the elevator feel and centering unit
Moves the control column (moves the ELEVATOR)
Moves with or without autopilot engaged
Armed above Mach .615

What does an illuminated AUTO SLAT FAIL light indicate?

Failure of the Auto Slat system (DUAL CHANNEL) or single-channel failure if the light illuminates
only when RECALL button is pushed

What is the function of the SPEED TRIM system?

Speed stability system designed to improve flight characteristics during operations with
Low gross weight
Aft center of gravity
High thrust
The SPEED TRIM SYSTEM returns the airplane to a trimmed speed by commanding the stabilizer
in a direction opposite the speed change
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When is the STS (Speed Trim System) activated?

10 seconds after liftoff
5 seconds after trim switches are released
Airspeed between 100 kts and M .68
N1 above 60%
Autopilot not engaged

How does the AUTO SLAT SYSTEM function?

If B engine pump pressure is low, PTU provides alternate pressure for auto slats by using A
system pressure to move B system fluid
Slats go from extend to full extend providing additional lift at high angles of attack near stall
Retract from full extend to extend when AOA is reduced to normal
Amber LE FLAPS light inhibited with auto slat extend

What are the conditions for AUTO SLAT operation?

Airborne
Flaps 1-5
Dual channel system

What will cause the amber SPEED BRAKES EXTENDED light to illuminate in flight?
Flaps beyond 10 degrees with the speed brakes beyond the ARMED detent
Speed brake is beyond the ARMED detent below 800 ft AGL
Speed brake lever is stowed, but a spoiler panel is not fully stowed

What is required for the speed brakes to “auto-deploy” on landing?

Speedbrake lever in the ARMED position
Thrust levers at IDLE
Main gear spin +60 Kts
Main gear strut compression:
Right strut for Ground Spoilers
Left strut compression for flight spoilers only

What is required for auto speed brakes to “auto-deploy” after a rejected takeoff?
Main gear spin +60kts.
Reverse thrust lever out of idle detent

What will cause the roll spoilers to deploy?

10 degrees of control wheel input

How many speeds are there available with the Stab Trim motor?
4 speeds:
2 speeds with autopilot engaged: HIGH- flaps extended, LOW- flaps retracted
2 speeds with autopilot disengaged: HIGH- flaps extended, LOW- flaps retracted
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What are the memory items for a RUNAWAY TRIM condition?

CONTROL COLUMN HOLD FIRMLY
AUTOPILOT DISENGAGE
If runaway continues
STABILIZER TRIM SWITCHES CUTOUT
If runaway continues
STABILIZER TRIM WHEEL GRASP AND HOLD

When will flap load relief initiate? (-700)

Flaps positioned to either 30 or 40 and airspeed in excess of 165 or 156 knots respectively

What indications in the cockpit alert the crew to flap asymmetry?

Flaps indicator will show a skewed indication
LE FLAPS TRANSIT light if leading edge flaps disagree with corresponding TE FLAPS

If an aileron control cable becomes jammed, is roll control possible?

Yes, FO controls spoilers
CA controls ailerons

Can the rudders be moved if the rudder pedals jam?

No

If the YAW DAMPER light is extinguished, and the switch is ON, can the YAW DAMPER be
OFF?
Yes, if there is a SYS B failure and the FLT CONTROL switch is not in the OFF or STBY RUD
position

If a DEU fails before the second engine is started, what are the cockpit indications?
CDS FAULT
Hydraulic pressure indicator on the “failed side” is blank

If a DEU fails in flight, what are the indications in the cockpit?

DISPLAY SOURCE displayed above the altimeters on the DU
Both EECs revert to the “soft alternate” mode
The failed side hydraulic pressure indicator is blank

What does the CDS MAINT message indicate?

A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
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Which DEU (Display Electronic Unit) controls what?

DEU 1: CA outboard DU (Standby DC)
CA inboard DU (DC BUS 1)
CA upper DU (Standby DC)
DEU 2: FO outboard DU (DC BUS 2)
FO inboard DU (DC BUS 2)
Lower DU (DC BUS 2)

If the captain’s EFIS control panel fails, what are the cockpit indications?
DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL will be displayed on the lower right corner of the PFD
Altimeter will “flag”

What are the maximum fuel quantities in the fuel tanks?

Main tanks: 8600 lbs each
Center tank: 28800 lbs.
TOTAL : 46000 lbs.

How many AC fuel pumps are there?

6 pumps, 2 in each tank: engine 1 is fed by the left main tank and the left center pump

How many fuel shut-off valves are there?

2 per engine
Spar fuel SOV, controlled electrically by the start lever
Eng. fuel SOV, controlled by EEC signals via the start lever or the fire switch position

What will cause the ENG VALVE or SPAR VALVE CLOSED light to illuminate bright?
Valves are in transit, or out of their commanded position

What is the maximum fuel temperature?

49 degrees

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

-43 degrees, or 3 degrees above the fuel’s freezing point

What is the maximum random fuel imbalance between main tanks?

1000 pounds

What is a requirement if there is more than 1000 lbs of fuel in the center tank?
Both main tanks must be full

Can the engines suction-feed fuel from the fuel tanks?

May suction-feed from the main tanks only
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How does the LOW PRESSURE light differ in activation with regard to the main tanks vs. the
center tank?
MAIN TANKS: light is armed whether the pump switches are off or on
CENTER TANK: light is armed only when the pump switches are ON

With only the no. 1 IDG supplying power and TR2 failed, what is powering DC BUS 2?
TR-3

What controls the BUS TRANSFER relays?

The BUS TRANSFER switch can be used to isolate the left and right AC TRANSFER BUSES

Placing the BUS TRANSFER SWITCH to OFF accomplishes what?

Bus tie breaker 1 and 2 will open
DC Cross Bus Tie Relay will open

How is DC power supplied to the airplane?

Normal power: via transformer/rectifiers off the AC Transfer Buses and Main Battery
Standby power: via Main Battery and Aux Battery

What does an illuminated ELEC light indicate?

Fault in the DC or STANDBY power system
Only works on the ground

What does an illuminated SOURCE OFF light indicate?

No source has been selected to power the related transfer bus
Manually-selected source has been disconnected

What will open the DC Cross-Tie Relay?

G/S capture during an ILS approach with the APPR mode of the AFDS engaged
Placing the Bus Transfer switch to the OPEN position

What is accomplished by placing the Standby power switch to BAT?

The standby power system (5 buses) are powered directly from the battery
These are the Hot Batt. Bus, Batt.Bus, Switched Batt.Bus, DC standby Bus, and AC standby Bus.

What would happen if we took off with the buses powered by the APU and then shut off the
APU?
The IDGs would automatically come on line. This would happen only once

What position must the Standby Power switch be in for the Standby buses to be
automatically powered by the batteries?
AUTO
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After starting engine 1, you place the GEN switch ON. What happens to the TIE BUS?
Placing the No. 1 generator online opens the no. 1 bus tie breaker, and the Tie Bus remains
powered by the APU

How can you power the standby buses directly from the battery?
Dual generator failure, battery bus is powered by standby DC/standby inverter/standby AC
Placing the standby power switch to BAT, and BUS TRANSFER SW to OFF

What does an illuminated GEN OFF BUS light indicate?

The IDG is not powering its respective Transfer Bus

How is the APU turned off?

Turning off the APU switch (1 minute shutdown sequence)
Turning off the BAT switch (APU shuts down immediately)
Pulling a fire switch (APU shuts down immediately)

From which areas does the EXHAUST fan collect air?

The supply duct supplies cool air to the flight deck displays , the overhead and aft electronic
panels, circuit breaker panels in the flight deck, and electronic equipment in the E/E bay

Where is the EXHAUST air discarded?

On the ground air is vented overboard by the overboard exhaust valve
In the air, air is diffused to the lining of the cargo compartment

What is the indication of an equipment overheat condition on the ground?

The crew call horn will sound

When will the FASTEN BELTS sign come on when selected to AUTO?
When the flaps or the gear are extended

Which cockpit windows are heated electrically?

1, 2, 4, and 5

How is the temperature controlled to the forward window heating elements?

Through automatic temperature controllers

What will cause the window heat ON lights to illuminate?

Window heat is being applied to the selected windows

How long before takeoff should the window heat switches be placed ON?
At least 10 minutes
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What happens to the window heat in an overheat condition?

OVERHEAT lights illuminate. The temperature controllers will stop providing heat

What does the OVERHEAT TEST do?

It simulates an overheat condition

What does the POWER TEST do?

It provides a confidence test by sending full power to the windows and bypasses the normal
temperature controller
Must have at least one green power light OFF before test can be accomplished

Which pitot-static systems are electrically heated under flight on battery conditions?
Capt. Pitot heat only

Placing the left and right Engine Anti-Ice switches ON will:

Open both COWL anti-ice valves
EEC commands approach idle
EEC commands selected engine ignition ON
Stall warning logic adjusts stick shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on A/S indicator

Placing the WING ANTI- ICE switch ON will:

Open both anti-ice valves
Stall warning logic adjust stick-shaker and minimum maneuver speed bars on A/S indicator

Can the WING ANTI-ICE be used for ground ops after application of TYPE IV fluid?
No, the TYPE IV fluid qualities will be degraded if it is heated

Which surfaces are heated with bleed air?

Cowl lips
Leading edge slats (except outermost slat)

Which aircraft surfaces are heated electrically?

Pitot Probes
Alpha Vanes
Windshields
TAT probe

When can icing conditions be anticipated?

OAT less than 10 degrees
Visible moisture
Taxiing in surface snow, ice, standing water or slush
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What does the illuminated COWL VALVE OPEN light indicate?

BRIGHT: valve is in transit, or valve in disagreement with the switch position
DIM: indicates that the respective cowl valve is open

Which wing surfaces are not anti-iced?

Inboard LE Kreuger Flaps
Outermost slat on each wing

What will cause the WING ANTI ICE VALVES to automatically close when using A/I on the
ground?
Throttle is moved beyond the takeoff power setting
There is and overtemperature condition
(Both left and right VALVE OPEN would illuminate bright)

When must engine anti-ice be used?

When icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise below -40 SAT
Engine anti ice must be on during descents, even when SAT is – 40

What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?

9.1 PSI will cause the pressure relief valves to open

Where does the engine bleed air come from?

From the 5th and 9th stages of the compressor section. When the 5th stage low pressure bleed
air is insufficient for bleed air system requirements, the HIGH STAGE VALVE modulates open to
maintain adequate bleed air pressure

Which aircraft systems utilize bleed air?

Air conditioning
Pressurization
Potable water tank
Wing/engine anti-ice
Hydraulic reservoir
Engine Start Valve

The ON position of the Engine Bleed Air Valve switch:

Allows engine bleed air to open the engine bleed air valve (electrically controlled/air operated)
Allows the bleed air valve to act as a PRSOV

How could a bleeds-off takeoff be accomplished?

Engine bleed switches OFF
APU air ON
Pack switches to AUTO
Isolation valve OFF
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How would you configure the Air Conditioning panel following a no-bleed takeoff?
No. 2 Engine bleed switch ON
APU bleed switch OFF
No. 1 Engine bleed switch ON
Left pack to AUTO
ISOL valve AUTO
Right pack to AUTO

What are the causes of a BLEED TRIP?

Temperature and/or pressure of the bleed air from the engine is too high

What happens to the engine bleed air valve when the BLEED TRIP light illuminates?
The engine bleed air valve automatically closes

What action should you take after a BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates?
Consult the QRH
Press the TRIP RESET button

What happens when you press the reset button?

The BLEED TRIP OFF light extinguishes
Engine Bleed Valve will open, considering pressure and temperature limits

What if the BLEED TRIP OFF light remains illuminated after TRIP RESET is pushed?
The engine bleed valve will remain closed, possibly because the temperature and pressure
values are still not within acceptable limits

What other system, besides air conditioning, depends on the engine bleed valve?
The wing anti-ice system will be unavailable unless the ISOL VALVE is opened and bleed air is
selected from another source

What does an illuminated WING BODY OVERHEAT light indicate?

L WING-BODY OVERHEAT: Left eng. strut, outboard wing leading edge, Air conditioning bay,
keel beam, and APU bleed ductwork
R WING-BODY OVERHEAT: Right eng. strut, outboard wing leading edge, Air conditioning bay

How is normal pressurization controlled?

Pressurization is controlled by 2 digital pressurization controllers and a outflow valve

How is over-pressurization controlled?

Above 9.1 PSI, two safety relief valves open to relieve pressure

How is negative pressure controlled?

A single negative pressure relief valve
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How does the pressurization controller begin to pressurize the aircraft?

The cabin begins to pressurize on the ground at higher power settings during T/O roll

What does the AUTO FAIL light indicate?

Loss of DC power to the pressure controller
Pressure controller fault
Outflow valve control fault
Excess diff. pressure (greater than 8.75 psi)
Excessive rate of cabin pressure change (greater than 2000 fpm)
High cabin altitude (above 15800 ft.)
A dual pressure controller failure

What do the AUTO FAIL and ALTN lights illuminating together indicate?
A single pressurization controller failure

What occurs when the ignition switch is placed in the GRD position
The respective engine bleed valve closes
Arms the EEC to allow ignition from the selected igniter
Start valve s opened and START VALVE OPEN light illuminates

What occurs when an ignition switch is placed in the FLT position?

The selected igniters in each engine are turned on

What occurs when an engine ignition switch is placed in the CONT position?
High energy ignition is supplied to the selected igniters provided the Engine Start Lever is in the
IDLE position

What does the AUTO position of the ENGINE START switch provide?
Below FL180, if the flaps are extended, the selected igniters are commanded ON
If the Engine Anti Ice switches are ON, the selected igniters are energized

What does placing the Engine Start Lever to IDLE provide?

Energizes the Ignition System
Electrically opens the SPAR FUEL SHUTOFF VALVE
Provides electrical signal to allow the EEC to open the engine fuel SOV

What is the starter duty cycle limit

2 minutes ON, 90 seconds OFF

When MUST engine ignition be used?

During operations in heavy rain
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What is the electrical power source for Left Ignition?

No. 1 AC Transfer Bus

What is the electrical power source for Right Ignition?

No. 2 AC Transfer Bus

Define LNAV engagement criteria

If more than 3nm from and active route, you must be on an intercept heading of less than 90
degrees and the intercept point must be PRIOR to the active waypoint
If less than 3nm from the active route, LNAV will intercept the course on any heading

What will occur if the autopilot is engaged with no roll or pitch mode selected?
The AFDS will engage (default) to control wheel steering (CWS-P or CWS-R)

If HDG SEL is engaged and the HDG selector is turned 270 to the right, which way will the
airplane turn?
She will turn to follow the movement of the heading bug
If HDG SEL is engaged AFTER the HDG selector is turned, she will find the shortest direction

Pressing the Altitude Intervention switch will:

Resume a climb or descent in VNAV ALT
Delete an altitude crossing restriction
Allow the aircraft to enter a CRZ climb
Place the aircraft in early descent logic

After takeoff, what will cause the aircraft to exit TOGA?

Select a new pitch mode
Reaching the thrust reduction altitude set in the FMC
Engaging the autopilot

Releasing the flight controls while in CWS-R will

Roll the wings level if bank angle is less than 6 degrees
Keep the existing angle of bank if bank angle is greater than 6 degrees

If the airplane is in approach mode, how do you get out of it?

Re-tuning the VHF receivers
Turning off the autopilots and flight directors
Pressing TOGA

What does a steady RED A/P light indicate during a dual-channel A/P approach below 800’ RA
Stab out of trim
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What does the flashing RED A/T light indicate?

Auto-throttles are engaged and unable to maintain selected speed +/- 15 kts

What is the minimum altitude for engaging the autopilot?

500 ft. AGL
For single-channel operations, and when flying an ILS, when MUST the autopilot be
disengaged?
No lower than 50 ft AGL

May the aileron trim be used with the autopilot engaged?

No, the limitation prohibits its use

What are the minimum wind speeds associated when landing minimums require use of
Autoland?
Headwind 25 knots
Crosswind 20 knots (15 knots if operating below CAT-I)
Tailwind 10 knots

What is provided by the anti-skid system?

Skid protection
Lock-wheel protection
Hydroplaning protection
Touch-down skid protection

What is displayed on the Brake Pressure indicator?

B System Brake Pressure
The accumulator charge on the “B” system brake line if no “B” system pressure in the system
and no trapped pressure in the B system

Is accumulator pressure available for the “A” system alternate brake system?
No, you’re SOL

If the Brake Pressure gauge reads “0”, is that a definite indication a failure of the B system?
No, because the accumulator has accumulated, insh’Allah (God Willing)!

What type of anti-skid protection is available for the normal and alternate brake systems?
Normal brakes have anti-skid protection to each individual wheel
Alternate brakes have anti-skid protection to each wheel pair

Are auto-brakes available with failure of the B hydraulic system?

NO
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How are the autobrakes armed?

Airplane on the ground
Wheel spin-up
Thrust levers at idle

How is the RTO feature of the autobrakes armed?

Wheel spin-up 90 knots
Thrust levers reduced to idle
Hang on!

How are autobrakes disengaged after having been engaged?

Move thrust levers forward
Turn the Autobrake selector off
Stow the speed brake lever
Pilot-applied brake application greater than selected with Autobrake selector

What is the limitation on the use of brakes after landing?

Brakes must not be applied until after touchdown

What is the limitation on the use of GPWS for navigation?

Do not use the Terrain function for navigation
Not approved for navigation within 15 nm for takeoff, approach and landing

What is the limitation on the use of speedbrakes?

Do not extend beyond the flight detent in flight
Do not fly with speedbrakes extended below 1000 AGL
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B737 MEMORY ACTION ITEMS

CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING HORN/DEPRESSURIZATION
Oxygen Masks ON, 100%
Crew Communication Establish
----------------------------------------- (Below are for Boeing Memory Items) ----------------------------------------------------------
Pressurization Mode Selector MAN
Outflow VALVE Switch Close

ALL ENGINE FLAMEOUT

ENGINE START SWITCHES FLT
Engine Start Levers Confirm-CUTOFF
EGT decreasing
Engine Start Levers Idle Detent
If EGT reaches 950C or no indication of EGT
Engine Start Levers Confirm-CUTOFF-then IDLE DETENT
If EGT reaches 950C or no indication of EGT REPEAT

APU FIRE
APU Fire Warning Switch Pull, Rotate and Hold
Rotate to the stop and hold for one second
APU Switch OFF

ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL
Autothrottles Disengage
Allows thrust levers to remain where manually positioned
Thrust Lever Retard
Retard until indications remain within appropriate limits or the thrust lever is closed

RUNAWAY STABILIZER
Control Column Hold Firmly
Autopilot Disengage
Do not re-engage the autopilot
Control pitch attitude manually with control
Column and main electric trim as required
IF Runaway continues
Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switches CUTOUT
If Runway Continues:
Stabilizer Trim Wheel GRASP AND HOLD

EGPWS WARNING
Thrust MAX
Pitch 20 degrees UP
Speedbrakes RETRACT (if extended)

SMOKE, FIRE OR FUMES

Oxygen Masks ON, 100%
Communications Establish

WARNING HORN – CABIN ALTITUDE OR CONFIGURATION

INFLIGHT
Oxygen Masks and Regulators ON, 100%
Crew Communications Establish
QRH: CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING or RAPID DEPRESSURIZATION
If an intermittent horn sounds on the ground:
Assure proper airplane takeoff configuration
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