1.

Randy has undergone kidney transplant, what assessment would prompt Nurse Katrina to
suspect organ rejection?

a. Sudden weight loss

b. Polyuria

c. Hypertension

d. Shock

2. The immediate objective of nursing care for an overweight, mildly hypertensive male
client with ureteral colic and hematuria is to decrease:

a. Pain

b. Weight

c. Hematuria

d. Hypertension

3. Matilda, with hyperthyroidism is to receive Lugol’s iodine solution before a subtotal

thyroidectomy is performed. The nurse is aware that this medication is given to:

a. Decrease the total basal metabolic rate.

b. Maintain the function of the parathyroid glands.

c. Block the formation of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.

d. Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland.

4. Ricardo, was diagnosed with type I diabetes. The nurse is aware that acute hypoglycemia
also can develop in the client who is diagnosed with:

a. Liver disease

b. Hypertension

c. Type 2 diabetes

d. Hyperthyroidism

5. Tracy is receiving combination chemotherapy for treatment of metastatic carcinoma.

Nurse Ruby should monitor the client for the systemic side effect of:
a. Ascites

b. Nystagmus

c. Leukopenia

d. Polycythemia

6. Norma, with recent colostomy expresses concern about the inability to control the
passage of gas. Nurse Oliver should suggest that the client plan to:

a. Eliminate foods high in cellulose.

b. Decrease fluid intake at meal times.

c. Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.

d. Adhere to a bland diet prior to social events.

7. Nurse Ron begins to teach a male client how to perform colostomy irrigations. The nurse
would evaluate that the instructions were understood when the client states, “I should:

a. Lie on my left side while instilling the irrigating solution.”

b. Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.”

c. Instill a minimum of 1200 ml of irrigating solution to stimulate evacuation of the bowel.”

d. Insert the irrigating catheter deeper into the stoma if cramping occurs during the procedure.”

8. Patrick is in the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis and is experiencing fluid and
electrolyte imbalances. The client is somewhat confused and complains of nausea and
muscle weakness. As part of the prescribed therapy to correct this electrolyte imbalance,
the nurse would expect to:

a. Administer Kayexalate

b. Restrict foods high in protein

c. Increase oral intake of cheese and milk.

d. Administer large amounts of normal saline via I.V.

9. Mario has burn injury. After 48 hours, the physician orders for Mario 2 liters of IV fluid to
be administered q12 h. The drop factor of the tubing is 10 gtt/ml. The nurse should set the
flow to provide:

a. 18 gtt/min

b. 28 gtt/min

c. 32 gtt/min

d. 36 gtt/min

10. Terence suffered from burn injury. Using the rule of nines, which has the largest percent
of burns?

a. Face and neck

b. Right upper arm and penis

c. Right thigh and penis

d. Upper trunk

11. Herbert, a 45 year old construction engineer is brought to the hospital unconscious after
falling from a 2-story building. When assessing the client, the nurse would be most
concerned if the assessment revealed:

a. Reactive pupils

b. A depressed fontanel

c. Bleeding from ears

d. An elevated temperature

12. Nurse Sherry is teaching male client regarding his permanent artificial pacemaker.
Which information given by the nurse shows her knowledge deficit about the artificial
cardiac pacemaker?

a. take the pulse rate once a day, in the morning upon awakening

b. May be allowed to use electrical appliances

c. Have regular follow up care

d. May engage in contact sports

13. The nurse is ware that the most relevant knowledge about oxygen administration to a
male client with COPD is

a. Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.

b. Hypoxia stimulates the central chemoreceptors in the medulla that makes the client breath.

c. Oxygen is administered best using a non-rebreathing mask

d. Blood gases are monitored using a pulse oximeter.

14. Tonny has undergoes a left thoracotomy and a partial pneumonectomy. Chest tubes are
inserted, and one-bottle water-seal drainage is instituted in the operating room. In the
postanesthesia care unit Tonny is placed in Fowler’s position on either his right side or on
his back. The nurse is aware that this position:

a. Reduce incisional pain.

b. Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.

c. Equalize pressure in the pleural space.

d. Increase venous return

15. Kristine is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. When teaching Kristine what to expect
afterward, the nurse’s highest priority of information would be:

a. Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours.

b. Warm saline gargles will be done q 2h.

c. Coughing and deep-breathing exercises will be done q2h.

d. Only ice chips and cold liquids will be allowed initially.

16. Nurse Tristan is caring for a male client in acute renal failure. The nurse should expect
hypertonic glucose, insulin infusions, and sodium bicarbonate to be used to treat:

a. hypernatremia.

b. hypokalemia.

c. hyperkalemia.
d. hypercalcemia.

17. Ms. X has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What
information is appropriate to tell this client?

a. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a
Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

b. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem
within 7 to 10 days.

c. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used
every time they have sexual intercourse.

d. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can’t be transmitted
during oral sex.

18. Maritess was recently diagnosed with a genitourinary problem and is being examined in
the emergency department. When palpating the her kidneys, the nurse should keep which
anatomical fact in mind?

a. The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one.

b. The kidneys are situated just above the adrenal glands.

c. The average kidney is approximately 5 cm (2″) long and 2 to 3 cm (¾” to 1-1/8″) wide.

d. The kidneys lie between the 10th and 12th thoracic vertebrae.

19. Jestoni with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. The nurse is
aware that the diagnostic test are consistent with CRF if the result is:

a. Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions.

b. Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and calcium.

c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/ dl.

d. Uric acid analysis 3.5 mg/dl and phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) excretion 75%.

20. Katrina has an abnormal result on a Papanicolaou test. After admitting that she read her
chart while the nurse was out of the room, Katrina asks what dysplasia means. Which
definition should the nurse provide?
a. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of
their origin.

b. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement in a tissue or an organ.

c. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by another in tissues where the second type
normally isn’t found.

d. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells.

21. During a routine checkup, Nurse Marianne assesses a male client with acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the most
common AIDS-related cancer?

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

b. Multiple myeloma

c. Leukemia

d. Kaposi’s sarcoma

22. Ricardo is scheduled for a prostatectomy, and the anesthesiologist plans to use a spinal
(subarachnoid) block during surgery. In the operating room, the nurse positions the client
according to the anesthesiologist’s instructions. Why does the client require special
positioning for this type of anesthesia?

a. To prevent confusion

b. To prevent seizures

c. To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage

d. To prevent cardiac arrhythmias

23. A male client had a nephrectomy 2 days ago and is now complaining of abdominal
pressure and nausea. The first nursing action should be to:

a. Auscultate bowel sounds.

b. Palpate the abdomen.

c. Change the client’s position.

d. Insert a rectal tube.

24. Wilfredo with a recent history of rectal bleeding is being prepared for a colonoscopy.
How should the nurse Patricia position the client for this test initially?

a. Lying on the right side with legs straight

b. Lying on the left side with knees bent

c. Prone with the torso elevated

d. Bent over with hands touching the floor

25. A male client with inflammatory bowel disease undergoes an ileostomy. On the first day
after surgery, Nurse Oliver notes that the client’s stoma appears dusky. How should the
nurse interpret this finding?

a. Blood supply to the stoma has been interrupted.

b. This is a normal finding 1 day after surgery.

c. The ostomy bag should be adjusted.

d. An intestinal obstruction has occurred.

26. Anthony suffers burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent
contractures?

a. Applying knee splints

b. Elevating the foot of the bed

c. Hyperextending the client’s palms

d. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises

27. Nurse Ron is assessing a client admitted with second- and third-degree burns on the
face, arms, and chest. Which finding indicates a potential problem?

a. Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 80 mm Hg.

b. Urine output of 20 ml/hour.

c. White pulmonary secretions.

d. Rectal temperature of 100.6° F (38° C).

28. Mr. Mendoza who has suffered a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is too weak to move on
his own. To help the client avoid pressure ulcers, Nurse Celia should:

a. Turn him frequently.

b. Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

c. Reduce the client’s fluid intake.

d. Encourage the client to use a footboard.

29. Nurse Maria plans to administer dexamethasone cream to a female client who has
dermatitis over the anterior chest. How should the nurse apply this topical agent?

a. With a circular motion, to enhance absorption.

b. With an upward motion, to increase blood supply to the affected area

c. In long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth

d. In long, even, outward, and upward strokes in the direction opposite hair growth

30. Nurse Kate is aware that one of the following classes of medication protect the ischemic
myocardium by blocking catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation is:

a. Beta -adrenergic blockers

b. Calcium channel blocker

c. Narcotics

d. Nitrates

31. A male client has jugular distention. On what position should the nurse place the head of
the bed to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention?

a. High Fowler’s

b. Raised 10 degrees

c. Raised 30 degrees

d. Supine position

32. The nurse is aware that one of the following classes of medications maximizes cardiac
performance in clients with heart failure by increasing ventricular contractility?
a. Beta-adrenergic blockers

b. Calcium channel blocker

c. Diuretics

d. Inotropic agents

33. A male client has a reduced serum high-density lipoprotein (HDL) level and an elevated
low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level. Which of the following dietary modifications is not
appropriate for this client?

a. Fiber intake of 25 to 30 g daily

b. Less than 30% of calories from fat

c. Cholesterol intake of less than 300 mg daily

d. Less than 10% of calories from saturated fat

34. A 37-year-old male client was admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) 2 days ago with
an acute myocardial infarction. Which of the following actions would breach the client
confidentiality?

a. The CCU nurse gives a verbal report to the nurse on the telemetry unit before transferring the
client to that unit

b. The CCU nurse notifies the on-call physician about a change in the client’s condition

c. The emergency department nurse calls up the latest electrocardiogram results to check the
client’s progress.

d. At the client’s request, the CCU nurse updates the client’s wife on his condition

35. A male client arriving in the emergency department is receiving cardiopulmonary

resuscitation from paramedics who are giving ventilations through an endotracheal (ET)
tube that they placed in the client’s home. During a pause in compressions, the cardiac
monitor shows narrow QRS complexes and a heart rate of beats/minute with a palpable
pulse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

a. Start an L.V. line and administer amiodarone (Cardarone), 300 mg L.V. over 10 minutes.

b. Check endotracheal tube placement.

c. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

d. Administer atropine, 1 mg L.V.

36. After cardiac surgery, a client’s blood pressure measures 126/80 mm Hg. Nurse Katrina
determines that mean arterial pressure (MAP) is which of the following?

a. 46 mm Hg

b. 80 mm Hg

c. 95 mm Hg

d. 90 mm Hg

37. A female client arrives at the emergency department with chest and stomach pain and a
report of black tarry stool for several months. Which of the following order should the nurse
Oliver anticipate?

a. Cardiac monitor, oxygen, creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels

b. Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, fibrinogen and fibrin split product values.

c. Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood, comprehensive serum
metabolic panel.

d. Electroencephalogram, alkaline phosphatase and aspartate aminotransferase levels, basic

serum metabolic panel

38. Macario had coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery 3 days ago. Which of the
following conditions is suspected by the nurse when a decrease in platelet count from
230,000 ul to 5,000 ul is noted?

a. Pancytopenia

b. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

c. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

d. Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)

39. Which of the following drugs would be ordered by the physician to improve the platelet
count in a male client with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)?

a. Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA)

b. Corticosteroids

c. Methotrezate

d. Vitamin K

40. A female client is scheduled to receive a heart valve replacement with a porcine valve.
Which of the following types of transplant is this?

a. Allogeneic

b. Autologous

c. Syngeneic

d. Xenogeneic

41. Marco falls off his bicycle and injuries his ankle. Which of the following actions shows the
initial response to the injury in the extrinsic pathway?

a. Release of Calcium

b. Release of tissue thromboplastin

c. Conversion of factors XII to factor XIIa

d. Conversion of factor VIII to factor VIIIa

42. Instructions for a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) would include
information about which of the following blood dyscrasias?

a. Dressler’s syndrome

b. Polycythemia

c. Essential thrombocytopenia

d. Von Willebrand’s disease

43. The nurse is aware that the following symptoms is most commonly an early indication of
stage 1 Hodgkin’s disease?

a. Pericarditis

b. Night sweat
c. Splenomegaly

d. Persistent hypothermia

44. Francis with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the following functions must
frequently assessed?

a. Blood pressure

b. Bowel sounds

c. Heart sounds

d. Breath sounds

45. The nurse knows that neurologic complications of multiple myeloma (MM) usually
involve which of the following body system?

a. Brain

b. Muscle spasm

c. Renal dysfunction

d. Myocardial irritability

46. Nurse Patricia is aware that the average length of time from human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV) infection to the development of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

a. Less than 5 years

b. 5 to 7 years

c. 10 years

d. More than 10 years

47. An 18-year-old male client admitted with heat stroke begins to show signs of
disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Which of the following laboratory findings is
most consistent with DIC?

a. Low platelet count

b. Elevated fibrinogen levels

c. Low levels of fibrin degradation products

d. Reduced prothrombin time

48. Mario comes to the clinic complaining of fever, drenching night sweats, and unexplained
weight loss over the past 3 months. Physical examination reveals a single enlarged
supraclavicular lymph node. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

a. Influenza

b. Sickle cell anemia

c. Leukemia

d. Hodgkin’s disease

49. A male client with a gunshot wound requires an emergency blood transfusion. His blood
type is AB negative. Which blood type would be the safest for him to receive?

a. AB Rh-positive

b. A Rh-positive

c. A Rh-negative

d. O Rh-positive

Situation: Stacy is diagnosed with acute lymphoid leukemia (ALL) and beginning chemotherapy.

50. Stacy is discharged from the hospital following her chemotherapy treatments. Which
statement of Stacy’s mother indicated that she understands when she will contact the
physician?

a. “I should contact the physician if Stacy has difficulty in sleeping”.

b. “I will call my doctor if Stacy has persistent vomiting and diarrhea”.

c. “My physician should be called if Stacy is irritable and unhappy”.

d. “Should Stacy have continued hair loss, I need to call the doctor”.

51. Stacy’s mother states to the nurse that it is hard to see Stacy with no hair. The best
response for the nurse is:

a. “Stacy looks very nice wearing a hat”.

b. “You should not worry about her hair, just be glad that she is alive”.
c. “Yes it is upsetting. But try to cover up your feelings when you are with her or else she may be
upset”.

d. “This is only temporary; Stacy will re-grow new hair in 3-6 months, but may be different in
texture”.

52. Stacy has beginning stomatitis. To promote oral hygiene and comfort, the nurse in-
charge should:

a. Provide frequent mouthwash with normal saline.

b. Apply viscous Lidocaine to oral ulcers as needed.

c. Use lemon glycerine swabs every 2 hours.

d. Rinse mouth with Hydrogen Peroxide.

53. During the administration of chemotherapy agents, Nurse Oliver observed that the IV
site is red and swollen, when the IV is touched Stacy shouts in pain. The first nursing action
to take is:

a. Notify the physician

b. Flush the IV line with saline solution

c. Immediately discontinue the infusion

d. Apply an ice pack to the site, followed by warm compress.

54. The term “blue bloater” refers to a male client which of the following conditions?

a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Asthma

c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

d. Emphysema

55. The term “pink puffer” refers to the female client with which of the following
conditions?

a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis

d. Emphysema

56. Jose is in danger of respiratory arrest following the administration of a narcotic

analgesic. An arterial blood gas value is obtained. Nurse Oliver would expect the paco2 to be
which of the following values?

a. 15 mm Hg

b. 30 mm Hg

c. 40 mm Hg

d. 80 mm Hg

57. Timothy’s arterial blood gas (ABG) results are as follows; pH 7.16; Paco2 80 mm Hg; Pao2
46 mm Hg; HCO3- 24 mEq/L; Sao2 81%. This ABG result represents which of the following
conditions?

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Respiratory acidosis

d. Respiratory alkalosis

58. Norma has started a new drug for hypertension. Thirty minutes after she takes the drug,
she develops chest tightness and becomes short of breath and tachypneic. She has a
decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate which of the following conditions?

a. Asthma attack

b. Pulmonary embolism

c. Respiratory failure

d. Rheumatoid arthritis

Situation: Mr. Gonzales was admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. To rule out
cirrhosis of the liver:

59. Which laboratory test indicates liver cirrhosis?

a. Decreased red blood cell count

b. Decreased serum acid phosphatase level

c. Elevated white blood cell count

d. Elevated serum aminotransferase

60. The biopsy of Mr. Gonzales confirms the diagnosis of cirrhosis. Mr. Gonzales is at
increased risk for excessive bleeding primarily because of:

a. Impaired clotting mechanism

b. Varix formation

c. Inadequate nutrition

d. Trauma of invasive procedure

61. Mr. Gonzales develops hepatic encephalopathy. Which clinical manifestation is most
common with this condition?

a. Increased urine output

b. Altered level of consciousness

c. Decreased tendon reflex

d. Hypotension

62. When Mr. Gonzales regained consciousness, the physician orders 50 ml of Lactulose p.o.
every 2 hours. Mr. Gonzales develops diarrhea. The nurse best action would be:

a. “I’ll see if your physician is in the hospital”.

b. “Maybe you’re reacting to the drug; I will withhold the next dose”.

c. “I’ll lower the dosage as ordered so the drug causes only 2 to 4 stools a day”.

d. “Frequently, bowel movements are needed to reduce sodium level”.

63. Which of the following groups of symptoms indicates a ruptured abdominal aortic
aneurysm?

a. Lower back pain, increased blood pressure, decreased re blood cell (RBC) count, increased
white blood (WBC) count.
b. Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increased WBC
count.

c. Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, decreased RBC
count, decreased WBC count.

d. Intermittent lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count, increased WBC
count.

64. After undergoing a cardiac catheterization, Tracy has a large puddle of blood under his
buttocks. Which of the following steps should the nurse take first?

a. Call for help.

b. Obtain vital signs

c. Ask the client to “lift up”

d. Apply gloves and assess the groin site

65. Which of the following treatment is a suitable surgical intervention for a client with
unstable angina?

a. Cardiac catheterization

b. Echocardiogram

c. Nitroglycerin

d. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

66. The nurse is aware that the following terms used to describe reduced cardiac output and
perfusion impairment due to ineffective pumping of the heart is:

a. Anaphylactic shock

b. Cardiogenic shock

c. Distributive shock

d. Myocardial infarction (MI)

67. A client with hypertension ask the nurse which factors can cause blood pressure to drop
to normal levels?
a. Kidneys’ excretion to sodium only.

b. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and water

c. Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water

d. Kidneys’ retention of sodium and excretion of water

68. Nurse Rose is aware that the statement that best explains why furosemide (Lasix) is
administered to treat hypertension is:

a. It dilates peripheral blood vessels.

b. It decreases sympathetic cardioacceleration.

c. It inhibits the angiotensin-converting enzymes

d. It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.

69. Nurse Nikki knows that laboratory results supports the diagnosis of systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE) is:

a. Elevated serum complement level

b. Thrombocytosis, elevated sedimentation rate

c. Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer

d. Leukocytosis, elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

70. Arnold, a 19-year-old client with a mild concussion is discharged from the emergency
department. Before discharge, he complains of a headache. When offered acetaminophen,
his mother tells the nurse the headache is severe and she would like her son to have
something stronger. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

a. “Your son had a mild concussion, acetaminophen is strong enough.”

b. “Aspirin is avoided because of the danger of Reye’s syndrome in children or young adults.”

c. “Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening condition.”

d. Stronger medications may lead to vomiting, which increases the intracranial pressure (ICP).”
71. When evaluating an arterial blood gas from a male client with a subdural hematoma, the
nurse notes the Paco2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes the
result?

a. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)

b. Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated

c. Normal

d. Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation

72. When prioritizing care, which of the following clients should the nurse Olivia assess first?

a. A 17-year-old clients 24-hours post appendectomy

b. A 33-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome

c. A 50-year-old client 3 days post myocardial infarction

d. A 50-year-old client with diverticulitis

73. JP has been diagnosed with gout and wants to know why colchicine is used in the
treatment of gout. Which of the following actions of colchicines explains why it’s effective
for gout?

a. Replaces estrogen

b. Decreases infection

c. Decreases inflammation

d. Decreases bone demineralization

74. Norma asks for information about osteoarthritis. Which of the following statements
about osteoarthritis is correct?

a. Osteoarthritis is rarely debilitating

b. Osteoarthritis is a rare form of arthritis

c. Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis

d. Osteoarthritis affects people over 60

75. Ruby is receiving thyroid replacement therapy develops the flu and forgets to take her
thyroid replacement medicine. The nurse understands that skipping this medication will put
the client at risk for developing which of the following life threatening complications?

a. Exophthalmos

b. Thyroid storm

c. Myxedema coma

d. Tibial myxedema

76. Nurse Sugar is assessing a client with Cushing’s syndrome. Which observation should the
nurse report to the physician immediately?

a. Pitting edema of the legs

b. An irregular apical pulse

c. Dry mucous membranes

d. Frequent urination

77. Cyrill with severe head trauma sustained in a car accident is admitted to the intensive
care unit. Thirty-six hours later, the client’s urine output suddenly rises above 200 ml/hour,
leading the nurse to suspect diabetes insipidus. Which laboratory findings support the
nurse’s suspicion of diabetes insipidus?

a. Above-normal urine and serum osmolality levels

b. Below-normal urine and serum osmolality levels

c. Above-normal urine osmolality level, below-normal serum osmolality level

d. Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level

78. Jomari is diagnosed with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) is

stabilized and prepared for discharge. When preparing the client for discharge and home
management, which of the following statements indicates that the client understands her
condition and how to control it?

a. “I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying attention to my need to
urinate, drink, or eat more than usual.”
b. “If I experience trembling, weakness, and headache, I should drink a glass of soda that contains
sugar.”

c. “I will have to monitor my blood glucose level closely and notify the physician if it’s constantly
elevated.”

d. “If I begin to feel especially hungry and thirsty, I’ll eat a snack high in carbohydrates.”

79. A 66-year-old client has been complaining of sleeping more, increased urination,
anorexia, weakness, irritability, depression, and bone pain that interferes with her going
outdoors. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse would suspect which of the
following disorders?

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Diabetes insipidus

c. Hypoparathyroidism

d. Hyperparathyroidism

80. Nurse Lourdes is teaching a client recovering from addisonian crisis about the need to
take fludrocortisone acetate and hydrocortisone at home. Which statement by the client
indicates an understanding of the instructions?

a. “I’ll take my hydrocortisone in the late afternoon, before dinner.”

b. “I’ll take all of my hydrocortisone in the morning, right after I wake up.”

c. “I’ll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late afternoon.”

d. “I’ll take the entire dose at bedtime.”

81. Which of the following laboratory test results would suggest to the nurse Len that a
client has a corticotropin-secreting pituitary adenoma?

a. High corticotropin and low cortisol levels

b. Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels

c. High corticotropin and high cortisol levels

d. Low corticotropin and low cortisol levels

82. A male client is scheduled for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy to remove a pituitary
tumor. Preoperatively, the nurse should assess for potential complications by doing which
of the following?

a. Testing for ketones in the urine

b. Testing urine specific gravity

c. Checking temperature every 4 hours

d. Performing capillary glucose testing every 4 hours

83. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a client diagnosed
with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according
to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which he
receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Mariner should expect the dose’s:

a. onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.

b. onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.

c. onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.

d. onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.

84. The physician orders laboratory tests to confirm hyperthyroidism in a female client with
classic signs and symptoms of this disorder. Which test result would confirm the diagnosis?

a. No increase in the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level after 30 minutes during the TSH
stimulation test

b. A decreased TSH level

c. An increase in the TSH level after 30 minutes during the TSH stimulation test

d. Below-normal levels of serum triiodothyronine (T3) and serum thyroxine (T4) as detected by
radioimmunoassay

85. Rico with diabetes mellitus must learn how to self-administer insulin. The physician has
prescribed 10 U of U-100 regular insulin and 35 U of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH)
to be taken before breakfast. When teaching the client how to select and rotate insulin
injection sites, the nurse should provide which instruction?

a. “Inject insulin into healthy tissue with large blood vessels and nerves.”
b. “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among different regions.”

c. “Administer insulin into areas of scar tissue or hypotrophy whenever possible.”

d. “Administer insulin into sites above muscles that you plan to exercise heavily later that day.”

86. Nurse Sarah expects to note an elevated serum glucose level in a client with
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which other laboratory finding
should the nurse anticipate?

a. Elevated serum acetone level

b. Serum ketone bodies

c. Serum alkalosis

d. Below-normal serum potassium level

87. For a client with Graves’ disease, which nursing intervention promotes comfort?

a. Restricting intake of oral fluids

b. Placing extra blankets on the client’s bed

c. Limiting intake of high-carbohydrate foods

d. Maintaining room temperature in the low-normal range

88. Patrick is treated in the emergency department for a Colles’ fracture sustained during a
fall. What is a Colles’ fracture?

a. Fracture of the distal radius

b. Fracture of the olecranon

c. Fracture of the humerus

d. Fracture of the carpal scaphoid

89. Cleo is diagnosed with osteoporosis. Which electrolytes are involved in the development
of this disorder?

a. Calcium and sodium

b. Calcium and phosphorous

c. Phosphorous and potassium

d. Potassium and sodium

90. Johnny a firefighter was involved in extinguishing a house fire and is being treated to
smoke inhalation. He develops severe hypoxia 48 hours after the incident, requiring
intubation and mechanical ventilation. He most likely has developed which of the following
conditions?

a. Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

b. Atelectasis

c. Bronchitis

d. Pneumonia

91. A 67-year-old client develops acute shortness of breath and progressive hypoxia
requiring right femur. The hypoxia was probably caused by which of the following
conditions?

a. Asthma attack

b. Atelectasis

c. Bronchitis

d. Fat embolism

92. A client with shortness of breath has decreased to absent breath sounds on the right
side, from the apex to the base. Which of the following conditions would best explain this?

a. Acute asthma

b. Chronic bronchitis

c. Pneumonia

d. Spontaneous pneumothorax

93. A 62-year-old male client was in a motor vehicle accident as an unrestrained driver. He’s
now in the emergency department complaining of difficulty of breathing and chest pain. On
auscultation of his lung field, no breath sounds are present in the upper lobe. This client
may have which of the following conditions?
a. Bronchitis

b. Pneumonia

c. Pneumothorax

d. Tuberculosis (TB)

94. If a client requires a pneumonectomy, what fills the area of the thoracic cavity?

a. The space remains filled with air only

b. The surgeon fills the space with a gel

c. Serous fluids fills the space and consolidates the region

d. The tissue from the other lung grows over to the other side

95. Hemoptysis may be present in the client with a pulmonary embolism because of which of
the following reasons?

a. Alveolar damage in the infarcted area

b. Involvement of major blood vessels in the occluded area

c. Loss of lung parenchyma

d. Loss of lung tissue

96. Alvin with a massive pulmonary embolism will have an arterial blood gas analysis
performed to determine the extent of hypoxia. The acid-base disorder that may be present
is?

a. Metabolic acidosis

b. Metabolic alkalosis

c. Respiratory acidosis

d. Respiratory alkalosis

97. After a motor vehicle accident, Armand an 22-year-old client is admitted with a
pneumothorax. The surgeon inserts a chest tube and attaches it to a chest drainage system.
Bubbling soon appears in the water seal chamber. Which of the following is the most likely
cause of the bubbling?
a. Air leak

b. Adequate suction

c. Inadequate suction

d. Kinked chest tube

98. Nurse Michelle calculates the IV flow rate for a postoperative client. The client receives
3,000 ml of Ringer’s lactate solution IV to run over 24 hours. The IV infusion set has a drop
factor of 10 drops per milliliter. The nurse should regulate the client’s IV to deliver how
many drops per minute?

a. 18

b. 21

c. 35

d. 40

99. Mickey, a 6-year-old child with a congenital heart disorder is admitted with congestive
heart failure. Digoxin (lanoxin) 0.12 mg is ordered for the child. The bottle of Lanoxin
contains .05 mg of Lanoxin in 1 ml of solution. What amount should the nurse administer to
the child?

a. 1.2 ml

b. 2.4 ml

c. 3.5 ml

d. 4.2 ml

100. Nurse Alexandra teaches a client about elastic stockings. Which of the following
statements, if made by the client, indicates to the nurse that the teaching was successful?

a. “I will wear the stockings until the physician tells me to remove them.”

b. “I should wear the stockings even when I am sleep.”

c. “Every four hours I should remove the stockings for a half hour.”

d. “I should put on the stockings before getting out of bed in the morning.”
Answers and Rationale

1. Answer: (C) Hypertension

Hypertension, along with fever, and tenderness over the grafted kidney, reflects acute rejection.

2. Answer: (A) Pain

Sharp, severe pain (renal colic) radiating toward the genitalia and thigh is caused by urethral
distention and smooth muscle spasm; relief from pain is the priority.

3. Answer: (D) Decrease the size and vascularity of the thyroid gland.

Lugol’s solution provides iodine, which aids in decreasing the vascularity of the thyroid gland,
which limits the risk of hemorrhage when surgery is performed.

4. Answer: (A) Liver Disease

The client with liver disease has a decreased ability to metabolize carbohydrates because of a
decreased ability to form glycogen (glycogenesis) and to form glucose from glycogen.

5. Answer: (C) Leukopenia

Leukopenia, a reduction in WBCs, is a systemic effect of chemotherapy as a result of

myelosuppression.

6. Answer: (C) Avoid foods that in the past caused flatus.

Foods that bothered a person preoperatively will continue to do so after a colostomy.

7. Answer: (B) Keep the irrigating container less than 18 inches above the stoma.”

This height permits the solution to flow slowly with little force so that excessive peristalsis is not
immediately precipitated.

8. Answer: (A) Administer Kayexalate

Kayexalate,a potassium exchange resin, permits sodium to be exchanged for potassium in the
intestine, reducing the serum potassium level.

9. Answer:(B) 28 gtt/min
This is the correct flow rate; multiply the amount to be infused (2000 ml) by the drop factor (10)
and divide the result by the amount of time in minutes (12 hours x 60 minutes)

10. Answer: (D) Upper trunk

The percentage designated for each burned part of the body using the rule of nines: Head and
neck 9%; Right upper extremity 9%; Left upper extremity 9%; Anterior trunk 18%; Posterior trunk
18%; Right lower extremity 18%; Left lower extremity 18%; Perineum 1%.

11. Answer: (C) Bleeding from ears

The nurse needs to perform a thorough assessment that could indicate alterations in cerebral
function, increased intracranial pressures, fractures and bleeding. Bleeding from the ears occurs
only with basal skull fractures that can easily contribute to increased intracranial pressure
and brain herniation.

12. Answer: (D) may engage in contact sports

The client should be advised by the nurse to avoid contact sports. This will prevent trauma to the
area of the pacemaker generator.

13. Answer: (A) Oxygen at 1-2L/min is given to maintain the hypoxic stimulus for breathing.

COPD causes a chronic CO2 retention that renders the medulla insensitive to the CO2 stimulation
for breathing. The hypoxic state of the client then becomes the stimulus for breathing. Giving the
client oxygen in low concentrations will maintain the client’s hypoxic drive.

14. Answer: (B) Facilitate ventilation of the left lung.

Since only a partial pneumonectomy is done, there is a need to promote expansion of this
remaining Left lung by positioning the client on the opposite unoperated side.

15. Answer: (A) Food and fluids will be withheld for at least 2 hours.

Prior to bronchoscopy, the doctors sprays the back of the throat with anesthetic to minimize the
gag reflex and thus facilitate the insertion of the bronchoscope. Giving the client food and drink
after the procedure without checking on the return of the gag reflex can cause the client to
aspirate. The gag reflex usually returns after two hours.

16. Answer: (C) hyperkalemia.

Hyperkalemia is a common complication of acute renal failure. It’s life-threatening if immediate

action isn’t taken to reverse it. The administration of glucose and regular insulin, with sodium
bicarbonate if necessary, can temporarily prevent cardiac arrest by moving potassium into the
cells and temporarily reducing serum potassium levels. Hypernatremia, hypokalemia, and
hypercalcemia don’t usually occur with acute renal failure and aren’t treated with glucose,
insulin, or sodium bicarbonate.

17. Answer: (A) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she
should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

Women with condylomata acuminata are at risk for cancer of the cervix and vulva. Yearly Pap
smears are very important for early detection. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is
no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom won’t
protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth,
oropharynx, and larynx.

18. Answer: (A) The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one.

The left kidney usually is slightly higher than the right one. An adrenal gland lies atop each kidney.
The average kidney measures approximately 11 cm (4-3/8″) long, 5 to 5.8 cm (2″ to 2¼”) wide, and
2.5 cm (1″) thick. The kidneys are located retroperitoneally, in the posterior aspect of the
abdomen, on either side of the vertebral column. They lie between the 12th thoracic and 3rd
lumbar vertebrae.

19. Answer: (C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dl and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/dl.

The normal BUN level ranges 8 to 23 mg/dl; the normal serum creatinine level ranges from 0.7 to
1.5 mg/dl. The test results in option C are abnormally elevated, reflecting CRF and the kidneys’
decreased ability to remove nonprotein nitrogen waste from the blood. CRF causes decreased pH
and increased hydrogen ions — not vice versa. CRF also increases serum levels of potassium,
magnesium, and phosphorous, and decreases serum levels of calcium. A uric acid analysis of 3.5
mg/dl falls within the normal range of 2.7 to 7.7 mg/dl; PSP excretion of 75% also falls with the
normal range of 60% to 75%.

20. Answer: (D) Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells

Dysplasia refers to an alteration in the size, shape, and organization of differentiated cells. The
presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of
their origin is called anaplasia. An increase in the number of normal cells in a normal arrangement
in a tissue or an organ is called hyperplasia. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by
another in tissues where the second type normally isn’t found is called metaplasia.
21. Answer: (D) Kaposi’s sarcoma

Kaposi’s sarcoma is the most common cancer associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma,
multiple myeloma, and leukemia may occur in anyone and aren’t associated specifically with
AIDS.

22. Answer: (C) To prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage

The client receiving a subarachnoid block requires special positioning to prevent CSF leakage and
headache and to ensure proper anesthetic distribution. Proper positioning doesn’t help prevent
confusion, seizures, or cardiac arrhythmias.

23. Answer: (A) Auscultate bowel sounds.

If abdominal distention is accompanied by nausea, the nurse must first auscultate bowel sounds.
If bowel sounds are absent, the nurse should suspect gastric or small intestine dilation and these
findings must be reported to the physician. Palpation should be avoided postoperatively with
abdominal distention. If peristalsis is absent, changing positions and inserting a rectal tube won’t
relieve the client’s discomfort.

24. Answer: (B) Lying on the left side with knees bent

For a colonoscopy, the nurse initially should position the client on the left side with knees bent.
Placing the client on the right side with legs straight, prone with the torso elevated, or bent over
with hands touching the floor wouldn’t allow proper visualization of the large intestine.

25. Answer: (A) Blood supply to the stoma has been interrupted

An ileostomy stoma forms as the ileum is brought through the abdominal wall to the surface skin,
creating an artificial opening for waste elimination. The stoma should appear cherry red,
indicating adequate arterial perfusion. A dusky stoma suggests decreased perfusion, which may
result from interruption of the stoma’s blood supply and may lead to tissue damage or necrosis. A
dusky stoma isn’t a normal finding. Adjusting the ostomy bag wouldn’t affect stoma color, which
depends on blood supply to the area. An intestinal obstruction also wouldn’t change stoma color.

26. Answer: (A) Applying knee splints

Applying knee splints prevents leg contractures by holding the joints in a position of function.
Elevating the foot of the bed can’t prevent contractures because this action doesn’t hold the
joints in a position of function. Hyperextending a body part for an extended time is
inappropriate because it can cause contractures. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises
can prevent contractures in the shoulders, but not in the legs.

27. Answer: (B) Urine output of 20 ml/hour.

A urine output of less than 40 ml/hour in a client with burns indicates a fluid volume deficit. This
client’s PaO2 value falls within the normal range (80 to 100 mm Hg). White pulmonary secretions
also are normal. The client’s rectal temperature isn’t significantly elevated and probably results
from the fluid volume deficit.

28. Answer: (A) Turn him frequently.

The most important intervention to prevent pressure ulcers is frequent position changes, which
relieve pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. If pressure isn’t relieved, capillaries become
occluded, reducing circulation and oxygenation of the tissues and resulting in cell death and ulcer
formation. During passive ROM exercises, the nurse moves each joint through its range of
movement, which improves joint mobility and circulation to the affected area but doesn’t prevent
pressure ulcers. Adequate hydration is necessary to maintain healthy skin and ensure tissue
repair. A footboard prevents plantar flexion and footdrop by maintaining the foot in a dorsiflexed
position.

29. Answer: (C) In long, even, outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair
growth

When applying a topical agent, the nurse should begin at the midline and use long, even,
outward, and downward strokes in the direction of hair growth. This application pattern reduces
the risk of follicle irritation and skin inflammation.

30. Answer: (A) Beta -adrenergic blockers

Beta-adrenergic blockers work by blocking beta receptors in the myocardium, reducing the
response to catecholamines and sympathetic nerve stimulation. They protect the myocardium,
helping to reduce the risk of another infraction by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand.
Calcium channel blockers reduce the workload of the heart by decreasing the heart rate.
Narcotics reduce myocardial oxygen demand, promote vasodilation, and decrease anxiety.
Nitrates reduce myocardial oxygen consumption but decreases left ventricular end diastolic
pressure (preload) and systemic vascular resistance (afterload).

31. Answer: (C) Raised 30 degrees

Jugular venous pressure is measured with a centimeter ruler to obtain the vertical distance
between the sternal angle and the point of highest pulsation with the head of the bed inclined
between 15 to 30 degrees. Increased pressure can’t be seen when the client is supine or when the
head of the bed is raised 10 degrees because the point that marks the pressure level is above the
jaw (therefore, not visible). In high Fowler’s position, the veins would be barely discernible above
the clavicle.

32. Answer: (D) Inotropic agents

Inotropic agents are administered to increase the force of the heart’s contractions, thereby
increasing ventricular contractility and ultimately increasing cardiac output. Beta-adrenergic
blockers and calcium channel blockers decrease the heart rate and ultimately decreased
the workload of the heart. Diuretics are administered to decrease the overall vascular volume,
also decreasing the workload of the heart.

33. Answer: (B) Less than 30% of calories from fat

A client with low serum HDL and high serum LDL levels should get less than 30% of daily calories
from fat. The other modifications are appropriate for this client.

34. Answer: (C) The emergency department nurse calls up the latest electrocardiogram
results to check the client’s progress

The emergency department nurse is no longer directly involved with the client’s care and thus
has no legal right to information about his present condition. Anyone directly involved in his care
(such as the telemetry nurse and the on-call physician) has the right to information about his
condition. Because the client requested that the nurse update his wife on his condition, doing so
doesn’t breach confidentiality.

35. Answer: (B) Check endotracheal tube placement.

ET tube placement should be confirmed as soon as the client arrives in the emergency
department. Once the airways is secured, oxygenation and ventilation should be confirmed using
an end-tidal carbon dioxide monitor and pulse oximetry. Next, the nurse should make sure L.V.
access is established. If the client experiences symptomatic bradycardia, atropine is administered
as ordered 0.5 to 1 mg every 3 to 5 minutes to a total of 3 mg. Then the nurse should try to find the
cause of the client’s arrest by obtaining an ABG sample. Amiodarone is indicated for ventricular
tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation and atrial flutter – not symptomatic bradycardia.

36. Answer: (C) 95 mm Hg

Use the following formula to calculate MAP

MAP = systolic + 2 (diastolic)

MAP=126 mm Hg + 2 (80 mm Hg)

MAP=286 mm HG

MAP=95 mm Hg

37. Answer: (C) Electrocardiogram, complete blood count, testing for occult blood,
comprehensive serum metabolic panel.

An electrocardiogram evaluates the complaints of chest pain, laboratory tests determines

anemia, and the stool test for occult blood determines blood in the stool. Cardiac monitoring,
oxygen, and creatine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase levels are appropriate for a
cardiac primary problem. A basic metabolic panel and alkaline phosphatase and aspartate
aminotransferase levels assess liver function. Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time,
fibrinogen and fibrin split products are measured to verify bleeding dyscrasias, An
electroencephalogram evaluates brain electrical activity.

38. Answer: (D) Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT)

HATT may occur after CABG surgery due to heparin use during surgery. Although DIC and ITP
cause platelet aggregation and bleeding, neither is common in a client after revascularization
surgery. Pancytopenia is a reduction in all blood cells.

39. Answer: (B) Corticosteroids

Corticosteroid therapy can decrease antibody production and phagocytosis of the antibody-
coated platelets, retaining more functioning platelets. Methotrexate can cause
thrombocytopenia. Vitamin K is used to treat an excessive anticoagulate state from warfarin
overload, and ASA decreases platelet aggregation.

40. Answer: (D) Xenogeneic

An xenogeneic transplant is between is between human and another species. A syngeneic
transplant is between identical twins, allogeneic transplant is between two humans, and
autologous is a transplant from the same individual.

41. Answer: (B) Release of tissue thromboplastin

Tissue thromboplastin is released when damaged tissue comes in contact with clotting factors.
Calcium is released to assist the conversion of factors X to Xa. Conversion of factors XII to XIIa and
VIII to VIII a are part of the intrinsic pathway.

42. Answer: (C) Essential thrombocytopenia

Essential thrombocytopenia is linked to immunologic disorders, such as SLE and human

immunodeficiency vitus. The disorder known as von Willebrand’s disease is a type of hemophilia
and isn’t linked to SLE. Moderate to severe anemia is associated with SLE, not
polycythemia. Dressler’s syndrome is pericarditis that occurs after a myocardial infarction and
isn’t linked to SLE.

43. Answer: (B) Night sweat

In stage 1, symptoms include a single enlarged lymph node (usually), unexplained fever, night
sweats, malaise, and generalized pruritus. Although splenomegaly may be present in some
clients, night sweats are generally more prevalent. Pericarditis isn’t associated with Hodgkin’s
disease, nor is hypothermia. Moreover, splenomegaly and pericarditis aren’t symptoms.
Persistent hypothermia is associated with Hodgkin’s but isn’t an early sign of the disease.

44. Answer: (D) Breath sounds

Pneumonia, both viral and fungal, is a common cause of death in clients with neutropenia, so
frequent assessment of respiratory rate and breath sounds is required. Although assessing blood
pressure, bowel sounds, and heart sounds is important, it won’t help detect pneumonia.

45. Answer: (B) Muscle spasm

Back pain or paresthesia in the lower extremities may indicate impending spinal cord
compression from a spinal tumor. This should be recognized and treated promptly as progression
of the tumor may result in paraplegia. The other options, which reflect parts of the nervous
system, aren’t usually affected by MM.

46. Answer: (C)10 years

Epidemiologic studies show the average time from initial contact with HIV to the development of
AIDS is 10 years.

47. Answer: (A) Low platelet count

In DIC, platelets and clotting factors are consumed, resulting in microthrombi and excessive
bleeding. As clots form, fibrinogen levels decrease and the prothrombin time increases. Fibrin
degradation products increase as fibrinolysis takes places.

48. Answer: (D) Hodgkin’s disease

Hodgkin’s disease typically causes fever night sweats, weight loss, and lymph node enlargement.
Influenza doesn’t last for months. Clients with sickle cell anemia manifest signs and symptoms of
chronic anemia with pallor of the mucous membrane, fatigue, and decreased tolerance for
exercise; they don’t show fever, night sweats, weight loss or lymph node enlargement. Leukemia
doesn’t cause lymph node enlargement.

49. Answer: (C) A Rh-negative

Human blood can sometimes contain an inherited D antigen. Persons with the D antigen have Rh-
positive blood type; those lacking the antigen have Rh-negative blood. It’s important that a
person with Rh-negative blood receives Rh-negative blood. If Rh-positive blood is administered to
an Rh-negative person, the recipient develops anti-Rh agglutinins, and subsequent transfusions
with Rh-positive blood may cause serious reactions with clumping and hemolysis of red blood
cells.

50. Answer: (B) “I will call my doctor if Stacy has persistent vomiting and diarrhea”.

Persistent (more than 24 hours) vomiting, anorexia, and diarrhea are signs of toxicity and the
patient should stop the medication and notify the health care provider. The other manifestations
are expected side effects of chemotherapy.

51. Answer: (D) “This is only temporary; Stacy will re-grow new hair in 3-6 months, but may
be different in texture”.

This is the appropriate response. The nurse should help the mother how to cope with her own
feelings regarding the child’s disease so as not to affect the child negatively. When the hair grows
back, it is still of the same color and texture.

52. Answer: (B) Apply viscous Lidocaine to oral ulcers as needed.

Stomatitis can cause pain and this can be relieved by applying topical anesthetics such as
lidocaine before mouth care. When the patient is already comfortable, the nurse can proceed
with providing the patient with oral rinses of saline solution mixed with equal part of water
or hydrogen peroxide mixed water in 1:3 concentrations to promote oral hygiene. Every 2-4
hours.

53. Answer: (C) Immediately discontinue the infusion

Edema or swelling at the IV site is a sign that the needle has been dislodged and the IV solution is
leaking into the tissues causing the edema. The patient feels pain as the nerves are irritated by
pressure and the IV solution. The first action of the nurse would be to discontinue the infusion
right away to prevent further edema and other complication.

54. Answer: (C) Chronic obstructive bronchitis

Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis appear bloated; they have large barrel chest and
peripheral edema, cyanotic nail beds, and at times, circumoral cyanosis. Clients with ARDS are
acutely short of breath and frequently need intubation for mechanical ventilation and
large amount of oxygen. Clients with asthma don’t exhibit characteristics of chronic disease, and
clients with emphysema appear pink and cachectic.

55. Answer: (D) Emphysema

Because of the large amount of energy it takes to breathe, clients with emphysema are usually
cachectic. They’re pink and usually breathe through pursed lips, hence the term “puffer.” Clients
with ARDS are usually acutely short of breath. Clients with asthma don’t have any particular
characteristics, and clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are bloated and cyanotic in
appearance.

56. Answer: D 80 mm Hg

A client about to go into respiratory arrest will have inefficient ventilation and will be retaining
carbon dioxide. The value expected would be around 80 mm Hg. All other values are lower than
expected.

57. Answer: (C) Respiratory acidosis

Because Paco2 is high at 80 mm Hg and the metabolic measure, HCO3- is normal, the client has
respiratory acidosis. The pH is less than 7.35, academic, which eliminates metabolic and
respiratory alkalosis as possibilities. If the HCO3- was below 22 mEq/L the client would have
metabolic acidosis.
58. Answer: (C) Respiratory failure

The client was reacting to the drug with respiratory signs of impending anaphylaxis, which could
lead to eventually respiratory failure. Although the signs are also related to an asthma attack or a
pulmonary embolism, consider the new drug first. Rheumatoid arthritis doesn’t manifest these
signs.

59. Answer: (D) Elevated serum aminotransferase

Hepatic cell death causes release of liver enzymes alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate
aminotransferase (AST) and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) into the circulation. Liver cirrhosis is a
chronic and irreversible disease of the liver characterized by generalized inflammation and
fibrosis of the liver tissues.

60. Answer: (A) Impaired clotting mechanism

Cirrhosis of the liver results in decreased Vitamin K absorption and formation of clotting factors
resulting in impaired clotting mechanism.

61. Answer: (B) Altered level of consciousness

Changes in behavior and level of consciousness are the first signs of hepatic encephalopathy.
Hepatic encephalopathy is caused by liver failure and develops when the liver is unable to
convert protein metabolic product ammonia to urea. This results in accumulation of ammonia
and other toxic in the blood that damages the cells.

62. Answer: (C) “I’ll lower the dosage as ordered so the drug causes only 2 to 4 stools a day”.

Lactulose is given to a patients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce absorption of ammonia in

the intestines by binding with ammonia and promoting more frequent bowel movements. If the
patient experience diarrhea, it indicates over dosage and the nurse must reduce the amount of
medication given to the patient. The stool will be mushy or soft. Lactulose is also very sweet and
may cause cramping and bloating.

63. Answer: (B) Severe lower back pain, decreased blood pressure, decreased RBC count,
increased WBC count.

Severe lower back pain indicates an aneurysm rupture, secondary to pressure being applied
within the abdominal cavity. When ruptured occurs, the pain is constant because it can’t be
alleviated until the aneurysm is repaired. Blood pressure decreases due to the loss of blood. After
the aneurysm ruptures, the vasculature is interrupted and blood volume is lost, so blood pressure
wouldn’t increase. For the same reason, the RBC count is decreased – not increased. The WBC
count increases as cell migrate to the site of injury.

64. Answer: (D) Apply gloves and assess the groin site

Observing standard precautions is the first priority when dealing with any blood fluid. Assessment
of the groin site is the second priority. This establishes where the blood is coming from and
determines how much blood has been lost. The goal in this situation is to stop the bleeding. The
nurse would call for help if it were warranted after the

assessment of the situation. After determining the extent of the bleeding, vital signs assessment is
important. The nurse should never move the client, in case a clot has formed. Moving can disturb
the clot and cause rebleeding.

65. Answer: (D) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

PTCA can alleviate the blockage and restore blood flow and oxygenation. An echocardiogram is a
noninvasive diagnosis test. Nitroglycerin is an oral sublingual medication. Cardiac catheterization
is a diagnostic tool – not a treatment.

66. Answer: (B) Cardiogenic shock

Cardiogenic shock is shock related to ineffective pumping of the heart. Anaphylactic shock results
from an allergic reaction. Distributive shock results from changes in the intravascular volume
distribution and is usually associated with increased cardiac output. MI isn’t a shock state, though
a severe MI can lead to shock.

67. Answer: (C) Kidneys’ excretion of sodium and water

The kidneys respond to rise in blood pressure by excreting sodium and excess water. This
response ultimately affects systolic blood pressure by regulating blood volume. Sodium or water
retention would only further increase blood pressure. Sodium and water travel together across
the membrane in the kidneys; one can’t travel without the other.

68. Answer: (D) It inhibits reabsorption of sodium and water in the loop of Henle.

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and water reabsorption in the loop Henle,
thereby causing a decrease in blood pressure. Vasodilators cause dilation of peripheral blood
vessels, directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle and decreasing blood pressure. Adrenergic
blockers decrease sympathetic cardioacceleration and decrease blood pressure. Angiotensin-
converting enzyme inhibitors decrease blood pressure due to their action on angiotensin.
69. Answer: (C) Pancytopenia, elevated antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer

Laboratory findings for clients with SLE usually show pancytopenia, elevated ANA titer, and
decreased serum complement levels. Clients may have elevated BUN and creatinine levels
from nephritis, but the increase does not indicate SLE.

70. Answer: (C) Narcotics are avoided after a head injury because they may hide a worsening
condition.

Narcotics may mask changes in the level of consciousness that indicate increased ICP and
shouldn’t acetaminophen is strong enough ignores the mother’s question and therefore isn’t
appropriate. Aspirin is contraindicated in conditions that may have bleeding, such as trauma,
and for children or young adults with viral illnesses due to the danger of Reye’s syndrome.
Stronger medications may not necessarily lead to vomiting but will sedate the client, thereby
masking changes in his level of consciousness.

71. Answer: (A) Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure
(ICP)

A normal Paco2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore, lowering

Paco2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels. Oxygenation
is evaluated through Pao2 and oxygen saturation. Alveolar hypoventilation would be reflected in
an increased Paco2.

72. Answer: (B) A 33-year-old client with a recent diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome

Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by ascending paralysis and potential respiratory failure.

The order of client assessment should follow client priorities, with disorder of airways, breathing,
and then circulation. There’s no information to suggest the postmyocardial infarction client has
an arrhythmia or other complication. There’s no evidence to suggest hemorrhage or perforation
for the remaining clients as a priority of care.

73. Answer: (C) Decreases inflammation

The action of colchicines is to decrease inflammation by reducing the migration of leukocytes to

synovial fluid. Colchicine doesn’t replace estrogen, decrease infection, or decrease bone
demineralization.

74. Answer: (C) Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis

Osteoarthritis is the most common form of arthritis and can be extremely debilitating. It can
afflict people of any age, although most are elderly.

75. Answer: (C) Myxedema coma

Myxedema coma, severe hypothyroidism, is a life-threatening condition that may develop if

thyroid replacement medication isn’t taken. Exophthalmos, protrusion of the eyeballs, is seen
with hyperthyroidism. Thyroid storm is life-threatening but is caused by severe
hyperthyroidism. Tibial myxedema, peripheral mucinous edema involving the lower leg,
is associated with hypothyroidism but isn’t life-threatening.

76. Answer: (B) An irregular apical pulse

Because Cushing’s syndrome causes aldosterone overproduction, which increases urinary

potassium loss, the disorder may lead to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should immediately
report signs and symptoms of hypokalemia, such as an irregular apical pulse, to the physician.
Edema is an expected finding because aldosterone overproduction causes sodium and fluid
retention. Dry mucous membranes and frequent urination signal dehydration, which
isn’t associated with Cushing’s syndrome.

77. Answer: (D) Below-normal urine osmolality level, above-normal serum osmolality level

In diabetes insipidus, excessive polyuria causes dilute urine, resulting in a below-normal urine
osmolality level. At the same time, polyuria depletes the body of water, causing dehydration that
leads to an above-normal serum osmolality level. For the same reasons, diabetes insipidus
doesn’t cause above-normal urine osmolality or below-normal serum osmolality levels.

78. Answer: (A) “I can avoid getting sick by not becoming dehydrated and by paying
attention to my need to urinate, drink, or eat more than usual.”

Inadequate fluid intake during hyperglycemic episodes often leads to HHNS. By recognizing the
signs of hyperglycemia (polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia) and increasing fluid intake, the
client may prevent HHNS. Drinking a glass of nondiet soda would be appropriate
for hypoglycemia. A client whose diabetes is controlled with oral antidiabetic agents usually
doesn’t need to monitor blood glucose levels. A high carbohydrate diet would exacerbate the
client’s condition, particularly if fluid intake is low.

79. Answer: (D) Hyperparathyroidism

Hyperparathyroidism is most common in older women and is characterized by bone pain and
weakness from excess parathyroid hormone (PTH). Clients also exhibit hypercalciuria-causing
polyuria. While clients with diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus also have polyuria, they
don’t have bone pain and increased sleeping. Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by urinary
frequency rather than polyuria.

80. Answer: (C) “I’ll take two-thirds of the dose when I wake up and one-third in the late
afternoon.”

Hydrocortisone, a glucocorticoid, should be administered according to a schedule that closely

reflects the body’s own secretion of this hormone; therefore, two-thirds of the dose of
hydrocortisone should be taken in the morning and one-third in the late afternoon. This
dosage schedule reduces adverse effects.

81. Answer: (C) High corticotropin and high cortisol levels

A corticotropin-secreting pituitary tumor would cause high corticotropin and high cortisol levels.
A high corticotropin level with a low cortisol level and a low corticotropin level with a low cortisol
level would be associated with hypocortisolism. Low corticotropin and high cortisol levels would
be seen if there was a primary defect in the adrenal glands.

82. Answer: (D) Performing capillary glucose testing every 4 hours

The nurse should perform capillary glucose testing every 4 hours because excess cortisol may
cause insulin resistance, placing the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Urine ketone testing isn’t
indicated because the client does secrete insulin and, therefore, isn’t at risk for ketosis. Urine
specific gravity isn’t indicated because although fluid balance can be compromised, it usually
isn’t dangerously imbalanced. Temperature regulation may be affected by excess cortisol and
isn’t an accurate indicator of infection.

83. Answer: (C) onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.

Regular insulin, which is a short-acting insulin, has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes and a peak of 2 to
4 hours. Because the nurse gave the insulin at 2 p.m., the expected onset would be from 2:15 p.m.
to 2:30 p.m. and the peak from 4 p.m. to 6 p.m.

84. Answer: (A) No increase in the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level after 30 minutes
during the TSH stimulation test

In the TSH test, failure of the TSH level to rise after 30 minutes confirms hyperthyroidism. A
decreased TSH level indicates a pituitary deficiency of this hormone. Below-normal levels of T3
and T4, as detected by radioimmunoassay, signal hypothyroidism. A below-normal T4 level also
occurs in malnutrition and liver disease and may result from administration of phenytoin and
certain other drugs.

85. Answer: (B) “Rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region, not among
different regions.”

The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection sites within the same anatomic region.
Rotating sites among different regions may cause excessive day-to-day variations in the blood
glucose level; also, insulin absorption differs from one region to the next. Insulin should be
injected only into healthy tissue lacking large blood vessels, nerves, or scar tissue or other
deviations. Injecting insulin into areas of hypertrophy may delay absorption. The client shouldn’t
inject insulin into areas of lipodystrophy (such as hypertrophy or atrophy); to prevent
lipodystrophy, the client should rotate injection sites systematically. Exercise speeds drug
absorption, so the client shouldn’t inject insulin into sites above muscles that will be exercised
heavily.

86. Answer: (D) Below-normal serum potassium level

A client with HHNS has an overall body deficit of potassium resulting from diuresis, which occurs
secondary to the hyperosmolar, hyperglycemic state caused by the relative insulin deficiency. An
elevated serum acetone level and serum ketone bodies are characteristic of diabetic
ketoacidosis. Metabolic acidosis, not serum alkalosis, may occur in HHNS.

87. Answer: (D) Maintaining room temperature in the low-normal range

Graves’ disease causes signs and symptoms of hypermetabolism, such as heat intolerance,
diaphoresis, excessive thirst and appetite, and weight loss. To reduce heat intolerance
and diaphoresis, the nurse should keep the client’s room temperature in the low-normal range.
To replace fluids lost via diaphoresis, the nurse should encourage, not restrict, intake of oral
fluids. Placing extra blankets on the bed of a client with heat intolerance would cause discomfort.
To provide needed energy and calories, the nurse should encourage the client to eat high-
carbohydrate foods.

88. Answer: (A) Fracture of the distal radius

Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius, such as from a fall on an outstretched hand. It’s
most common in women. Colles’ fracture doesn’t refer to a fracture of the olecranon, humerus, or
carpal scaphoid.

89. Answer: (B) Calcium and phosphorous

In osteoporosis, bones lose calcium and phosphate salts, becoming porous, brittle, and
abnormally vulnerable to fracture. Sodium and potassium aren’t involved in the development of
osteoporosis.

90. Answer: (A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Severe hypoxia after smoke inhalation is typically related to ARDS. The other conditions listed
aren’t typically associated with smoke inhalation and severe hypoxia.

91. Answer: (D) Fat embolism

Long bone fractures are correlated with fat emboli, which cause shortness of breath and hypoxia.
It’s unlikely the client has developed asthma or bronchitis without a previous history. He
could develop atelectasis but it typically doesn’t produce progressive hypoxia.

92. Answer: (D) Spontaneous pneumothorax

A spontaneous pneumothorax occurs when the client’s lung collapses, causing an acute
decreased in the amount of functional lung used in oxygenation. The sudden collapse was the
cause of his chest pain and shortness of breath. An asthma attack would show wheezing
breath sounds, and bronchitis would have rhonchi. Pneumonia would have bronchial breath
sounds over the area of consolidation.

93. Answer: (C) Pneumothorax

From the trauma the client experienced, it’s unlikely he has bronchitis, pneumonia, or TB; rhonchi
with bronchitis, bronchial breath sounds with TB would be heard.

94. Answer: (C) Serous fluids fills the space and consolidates the region

Serous fluid fills the space and eventually consolidates, preventing extensive mediastinal shift of
the heart and remaining lung. Air can’t be left in the space. There’s no gel that can be placed in
the pleural space. The tissue from the other lung can’t cross the mediastinum, although a
temporary mediastinal shift exits until the space is filled.

95. Answer: (A) Alveolar damage in the infarcted area

The infarcted area produces alveolar damage that can lead to the production of bloody sputum,
sometimes in massive amounts. Clot formation usually occurs in the legs. There’s a loss of lung
parenchyma and subsequent scar tissue formation.

96. Answer: (D) Respiratory alkalosis

A client with massive pulmonary embolism will have a large region and blow off large amount of
carbon dioxide, which crosses the unaffected alveolar-capillary membrane more readily than
does oxygen and results in respiratory alkalosis.

97. Answer: (A) Air leak

Bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system stems from an air leak. In
pneumothorax an air leak can occur as air is pulled from the pleural space. Bubbling doesn’t
normally occur with either adequate or inadequate suction or any preexisting bubbling in the
water seal chamber.

98. Answer: (B) 21

3000 x 10 divided by 24 x 60.

99. Answer: (B) 2.4 ml

.05 mg/ 1 ml = .12mg/ x ml, .05x = .12, x = 2.4 ml.

100. Answer: (D) “I should put on the stockings before getting out of bed in the morning.

Promote venous return by applying external pressure on veins.