PAEDODONTICS

BLANKS

▪ 1. In most dentition the maxillary and mandibular primary seconds molars are in ( cusp to cusp)
occlusion.

▪ 2. The presence or absence of teeth will affect the way in which the ( jaw bones ) and ( facial
muscles) develop.

▪ 3.The use of the rubber dam prevents ( foreign objects) from coming into contact with oral
structures.

▪ 4. Lack of spacing of primary incisors are signs that permanent incisors will probably be
(crowded) when they erupt.
▪ 5. One of the major functions of primary teeth is to hold an appropriate space that facilitate the
proper (alignment) of adult teeth and also promote (jaw development)

▪ 6. When filling material, debris, or medicaments are dropped into the mouth, (salivary flow) is
stimulated

▪ 7. A rubber dam prevents the small child in a reclining position from (swallowing )foreign
objects

▪ 8. chewing function of teeth help to exercise the (facial muscles )and facilitate the development
of the( jaw bones)

▪ 9. The anthropoid spaces in the primary teeth are in the (canine regions)
▪ 10.As the permanent canines erupt, they displace the roots of lateral incisors mesially this force is
transmitted to the central incisors and their roots are also displaced (mesially). Thus, the resultant
force causes the (distal divergence) of the crown in an opposite direction.

▪ 11. Attrition :- A (physiological process) characterized by wearing of a tooth during tooth - to -

tooth contact as in mastication. The surfaces involved are (incisal ), (occlusal) and (proximal).

▪ 12. Accessory canals extend from floor of the (pulpal chamber) to( interradicular) area.

▪ 13. Unerupted permanent teeth may become ankylosed by (inostosis of enamel)

▪ 13. A considerable movements are required to bring the teeth to the (occlusal plane) and then
into (functional occlusion)

▪ 14. The ankylosed tooth will have a( solid sound ), whereas the normal tooth will have
a (cushioned sound)

▪ 15. In the labial aspect of upper A ,the cervico-incisal height is (shorter) than The mesiodistal
diameter of the crown , The mesial contact area is near the mesio-incisal angle and the distal
contact area is in the(incisal third)
▪ 16. (Epstein pearls)grayish-white lesion result from remnants of epithelial tissue
▪ 17. (Bohn nodules)grayish-white lesion result from remnants of salivary gland tissue
▪ 18. In gingival fibromatosis the dense fibrous tissue often causes (displacement of the teeth) and
(malocclusion),also it may prevent (eruption) of teeth and treatment usually is (gingivectomy).

▪ 19.(Dental lamina cysts) are found on the crests of the maxillary and mandibular dental ridges are
apparently originated from remnants of the dental lamina

▪ 20.Dentine and enamel layers in decideous teeth are (thinner ),and enamel rod in (gingival third)
extend to occlusal

▪ 21. Premature loss of teeth associated with systemic disease usually results from some change in the
immune system or connective tissue. The most common of these conditions appears to be
(hypophosphatasia) and (early-onset periodontitis).
▪ 22.Bovine milk, milk formulas and human breast milk have all been implicated in (nursing caries)
because of their (lactose content).
▪ 23. The characteristic sharp lingual inclination occlusal to the facial surfaces results in the
formation of a distinct (facio-gingival ridge) that ends abruptly at the( cemento-enamel
junction).

▪ 24.The term dental caries is used to describe the signs and symptoms of a localized
demineralization of the mineral portion of these tissues followed by the disintegration of their
organic material
▪ 25. In class II cavity preparation ,The cavity design should have greater buccal and lingual
extension at the cervical area of the preparation to clear contact with the adjacent tooth. This
divergent pattern is necessary because of the broad, flat contact areas contact areas of the
primary molars and because of the distinct buccal bulge in the gingival third.

▪ 26.the medium sized punch hole generally is used for the premolars and primary molars.

▪ 27. Proximal caries progress more rapidly than occlusal caries and cause higher percentage of
pulp exposure.
▪ 28.In caries vaccine the development of a method of immunization specifically targeted at
neutralizing MS has been a major thrust of caries vaccine research.
▪ 29.use of a passive lingual arch appliance is often indicated when the primary canines have been
lost prematurely or when the sequence of eruption is undesirable.
▪ 30. The gingival seat and proximal walls should break contact with the adjacent tooth
▪ 31.According to amalgam the angle formed by the axial wall and the buccal and lingual walls of
the proximal box should approach a right angle.
▪ 32.the smallest hole is adequate for the primary incisors and lower permanent incisors.

▪ 33.The maxillary and mandibular permanent incisors are not highly susceptible to caries attack
except in children with rampant caries (RC).

▪ 34.Irreversible ectopic molars that remain locked, if untreated, can lead to premature loss of the
primary second molar
▪ 35. rubber dam also prevents the small child in a reclining position from swallowing or aspirating
foreign objects and materials.
▪ 36.The route of administration of the vaccine is usually mucosal absorption by intraoral or
intranasal tissues.
▪ 37.The sharp constriction at the neck of the primary molar necessitates special care in the
formation of the gingival floor during class II cavity preparation.
▪ 38.The axio-pulpal line angle should be beveled or grooved to reduce the concentration of
stresses and to provide greater bulk of material in this area, which is vulnerable to fracture
▪ 39.Nursing bottle can effectively block the salivary access to the tooth surface, thereby increasing
the cariogenicity of oral flora
▪ 40.Permanent molars often have incompletely coalesced pits and fissures with or without
hypoplasia that allows the dental plaque material to be retained at the base of the defect.
MENTIONS
▪ Mention two systemic diseases when patient has normal teeth
1.Hypopituitarism
2.Congenital Hypothyroidism (Cretinism)
▪ Mention two systemic diseases when patient has large tongue size
1. Congenital Hypothyroidism (Cretinism)
2.Down Syndrome
▪ Mention two systemic diseases when patient has nose depressed
1. Down Syndrome
2.Achondroplastic Dwarfism
▪ Mention two systemic diseases when patient has large fontanels open
1.Achondroplastic Dwarfism
2.Cleidocranial Dysplasia
▪ It is the system where there is possible verbal communication?
-International numbering system
▪ It is the system where there is no anatomic reference
-Universal numbering system
▪ Interglobular dentin occurs when there is disturbance in ?
-Calcification process
▪ Dens evaginatus occurs when there is disturbance in?
-Morphodifferentiation
▪ Mention only two points of Rubber Dam safety benefits
1.prevents foreign objects from coming into contact with oral structures
2.prevents the small child in a reclining position from swallowing or aspirating foreign objects
and materials
AGREE or DISAGREE
▪ 1. In the upper D the occlusal outline is scalloped with definite cusp form, While the distal outline is straight
and the mesial outline is convex.
-The first sentence is DISAGREE because upper D the occlusal outline is scalloped with no definite cusp form.
The second sentence is DISAGREE because the distal outline is convex and the mesial outline is straight .
▪ 2. Apposition :- appositional growth is the result of a layer-like deposition of a vital extracellular secretion in
the form of a tissue matrix
-DISAGREE , nonvital
▪ 3. Eccentric movement :- one part of the tooth germ remains fixed while the rest continues to grow causing a
shift in the center of the tooth germ
-AGREE
▪ 4. - The roots begin after enamel and dentin formation has reached the future DEJ
-DISAGREE, CEJ
▪ 5. Post eruptive tooth movement :- it occurs primarily to maintain the position of the erupted tooth while
the jaw continues to grow and to compensate for the occlusal and proximal wear. This movement occur in
axial direction.
-AGREE
▪ 6. In the buccal aspect of lower E, there are nearly equal size mesio and distobuccal cusps and distal cusp,
While on the root base the crown mesially tilted.

▪ -The first sentence is AGREE, The second sentence is DISAGREE, tilted distally
▪ 7.In the buccal aspect of upper E, two well define buccal cusps are shown from buccal view, While from
contact areas there is cervically converge of the mesial and distal outline.

-The first sentence is AGREE

-The second sentence is AGREE

▪ 8.As in pronunciation of some sounds, the tongue touches the upper incisors. It touches near the top of the
incisors for the “t” sound and near the bottom for the “th” sound.
-AGREE
▪ 9.Bodily movement :- it occurs continuously as the jaw grows by which the movement of the entire tooth germ
cause bone resorption at the direction of tooth movement and bone resorption behind it
-DISAGREE, apposition behind it

▪ 10. 1.The Vascular Pressure theory supposes that a local increase in tissue fluid or blood pressure in the periapical region
is sufficient to move the tooth

-AGREE
▪ 11. In the buccal aspect of lower D, the distobuccal cusp is the largest and longest cusp. While the mesial outline is nearly
straight whereas the distal outline is convex.

-The first sentence is DISAGREE, mesiobuccal

-The second sentence is AGREE

▪ 12. In the lingual(Palatal) aspect of upper A ,the cingulum and marginal ridges are well developed and lingual fossa is in the
incisal third of the lingual surface

-AGREE

▪ 13.The Vascular Pressure theory supposes that a local increase in tissue fluid or blood pressure in the periapical region is
sufficient to move the tooth

-AGREE

▪ 14. In vascular theory the hydrostatic pressure on top of the tooth is less .While hydrostatic pressure underneath the tooth is
more

-The first sentence is AGREE

-The second sentence is DISAGREE, hydrostatic pressure on top of the tooth is less than hydrostatic pressure underneath
the tooth
MCQs
▪ 1. Features that is frequently seen in primary dentition and considered to be normal :-
a- Development of facial muscles.
b- Mesial step second molar relationship.

c - Place holder ( space maintainer)

d- Speech production and development

▪ 2. In class IV cavity preparation

a- Enameloplasty of the affected proximal surface to open the proximal contact.

b- If caries affected tooth: structure remains after establishing preparation outline, it should be removed.

c- Includes a proximal reduction through the incisal angle and the caries lesion, and ends at the
established cervical seat.
d - The proximal restoration may be combined with the application of an occlusal sealant (with or without
enameloplasty ).
▪ 3.In Insta-dam as one of recent rubber dam modification :-
a-It is a type of quick dam for anterior teeth.

b -It is recommended for achieving an isolated field.

c- This system has silicone hose that connects easily to high volume ports.
d. Use of X-ray is more simplified with this type of dam.

▪ 4. In Saliva controls when using rubber dam :-

a -It can create the feeling that the dentist has complete control of the situation
b - Small pulp exposures may be more easily detected when the tooth is well isolated

c - The time spent in placing the rubber dam is negligible as long as the dentist works
d- We maintenance a clean operating field during placement of the restorative material
▪ 5.In eating and nutrition function of primary teeth :-
a- Children should practice an adult-guided oral care routine each day.
b. Children with malformed or severely decayed primary teeth are more likely to experience dietary
deficiencies

c - Taking good care of primary teeth can reduce the risk of bad breath and promote positive interaction.
d- Teeth and chewing facilitate jaw bones development.

▪ 6.In modified class Ill cavity preparation ;-

a. A lingual lock is normally considered for the maxillary canine, whereas a labial lock may 'be prepared
on the mandibular teeth.

b. Beveling the enamel margins slightly before etching to further improve the marginal bonding of the
restoration
c. İf the occlusal surface is sound and not caries susceptible,then a minimal occlusal dovetail is still often needed
to enhance cavity retention.

d. The angle formed by the axial wall and the buccal and lingual walls of the proximal box should approach a
right angle
▪ 7. In Optra dam as one of recent rubber dam modification :-
a -It can either has a rectangle or circle pattern.

b - It is minimal time consumption in placement.

c. The exposed area between the teeth is sealed with agent like Oraseal.
d- This system helps to retract the tongue

▪ 8. In protection provides when using the rubber dam :-

a - A thorough efforts has been made to provide the highest type of service
b- It can prevent small child in a reclining position from swallowing materials.

c - The operating time can be appreciably reduced, when the dentist has routinely used it.

d - The rubber dam aids the dentist in evaluating teeth that are being considered for vital pulp therapy.
▪ 9. In aids management when using rubber dam :
a -It can prevent foreign objects from coming into contact with oral structures.

b - The margin of error is reduced when a avity is prepared in a primary tooth with extensive caries involvement.

c - The rubber dam aids the dentist in evaluating teeth that are being considered for vital pulp therapy.
d- The rubber dam efficiently controls patient's tongue and lip, and the dentist complete operative
procedure with freedom.

▪ 10-In class Il cavity preparation :-

a-A properly placed matrix at the cervical seat aids in placing composite during the curing process.

b- Any disease-free pit and grooves may be sealed as part of the bonded restoration.

c-Labial and lingual locks are prepared in the cervical third of the tooth.
d. More conservative cavity preparation have been advocated, since the bonded restorations have
improved, especially those capable of fluoride release,.
▪ 11. In function of primary incisors :-
a - Proper chewing motion are acquired over time and with extensive practice.
b-Teeth if untreated can drop out completely and causing health problems

c. The presence of absence of teeth will affect the way of jaw bones develop
d. The teeth help to guide the jaw when closing the mouth.

▪ 12.In Isolite system as one of recent rubber dam modification :-

a - It can be fixed directly without use of any anterior clamps.

b-It has pre-attached frame.

c. It is designed to provide intraoral illumination

d- It is ease of application.
▪ 13. Maxillary second primary molar
-two canals with a narrow connecting isthmus of dentin islands

▪ 14.theory suggested the presence of the cushion hammock ligament at the base of the socket that
transmits the force to cause eruption

-Root formation
▪ 15. About juvenile hypothyrodism
-delayed exfoliation of the primary teeth and delayed eruption of the permanent teeth are
characteristic
1
▪ 16.Children with malformed or severely decayed primary teeth are more likely to experience dietary
deficiencies associated with

-Eating and nutrition

▪ 17. Bhon nodules are
▪ -formed along the buccal and lingual aspects of the dental ridges
▪ 18. The original nidus increases in size by the addition of concentric laminations. There is an eventual
approximation and fusion of these individual calcospherites takes place in

- calcification
▪ 19.In the diagnosis of the child patient with - Down syndrome some of dental feature can be recognised
such as

a. The development of dentition is delayed and the primary dentition may complete at age of 15 years
b. The eruption often follows an abnormal sequence, and some of primary teeth may be retained until
the age of 14 to 15 years.
c. Delayed resorption of the deciduous teeth and delayed eruption of the permanent teeth.

d. Presence of supernumerary teeth

▪ 20.In the diagnosis of child patient with - Cleidocranial dysplasia some of general feature can be
recognised such as

a. The nose bridge is more depressed than normal.

b. The orbits are small and eyes slopes upward

c .The external ear is characterised by outstanding lap with flat or absent helix.

d. The fontanels are large with open sutures that appear in head radiograph
▪ 20. In the diagnosis of child patient with congenital hypothyroidism some of general features can be seen
such as
a. The head is disproportionality large, though the trunk shows less deviation from the normal.

b.Growth of extremities is limited.

c. Deficient growth in the cranial base is evident in many.

d. Obesity is evident to a lesser degree

▪ 21.In the diagnosis of child patient with - Achondroplastic Dwarfism some of general feature can be
recognised such as

a.Well-proportioned individual but resemble a child of considerably lower chronologic age.

b.The obesity is evident to a lesser degree.

c.The upper face is under-developed and the bridge of the nose is depressed.
d.Some cognitive disability is invariably associated with cretinism.
▪ 22. In the diagnosis of child patient with - hypopituitarism some of dental feature can be recognised such
as
a. Delayed exfoliation of the primary teeth and delayed eruption of permanent.
b.A chronic gingivitis is usually present
c.The maxilla may be small, with resultant crowding of teeth and a tendency for open bite.
d.The primary teeth do not undergo resorption but instead may be retained throughout the life of the
person.

23. A child with chronological age of 14 years old may have a dentition in a stage of development comparable with
child of 9 or 10 years of age ,diagnosis of patient with
juvenile hypothyroidism
24.What is the diagnosis of systemic disease were the child showed limited growth of extremities?
Achondroplastic dwarfisim

25. A theory supposes that a local increase in tissue fluid or blood pressure in the periapical region is
sufficient to move the tooth

Ans.Vascular Pressure theory

26.The inner enamel epithelium is arranged so that the boundary between it and the odontoblasts outlines
the future dentinoenamel junction
Ans.Morphodifferentiation
▪ 27. the ECM is principally of use on occlusal surfaces. ECM is technique-sensitive. Of particular relevance
to pediatric dentistry
Ans. is not reliable on immature teeth.

28. Fibre-Optic Trans-illumination (FOTI)?

different between stain and caries

29.A shallow invagination appears on the deep surface of the bud. The peripheral cells of the cap later form the
outer and inner enamel epithelium
Proliferation (cup stage)
30.This frequently involves surfaces of teeth that do not usually experience dental caries.
Rampant caries

31.Small pulp exposures may be more easily detected when the tooth is well isolated
Control saliva
▪ 32.The epithelium continues to invaginate and deepen until the enamel organ takes on the shape of
a bell
Histodifferentiation
33.In severe cases the primary teeth do not undergo resorption but instead may be retained
throughout the life of the person
Hypopituitarism
34.One of the important distinguishing characteristics is the presence of supernumerary teeth
Cleidocranial Dysplasia
35.large enough and demineralized enough to be detected radiographically
Hidden caries
36.from Occlusal aspect the Buccal developmental groove divides two buccal cusps and extends from
between the buccal cusps to the central pit.
mandibular first molar
▪ 37.One particular use of FOTI is to
Help differentiate between staining and caries on the occlusal surface.
▪ 38.The placement of an orthodontic separator for about three to four days to
move the teeth apart
Allows direct visual access to a surface for diagnosis.
Explain why
 1. Explain why, the upper incisors are most vulnerable to ECC than mandibular incisors?

Ans:
Because the mandibular incisors are protected by the tongue and saliva from submandibular and sublingual
glands.
2.Explain why the first primary molars in both the mandibular and maxillary arches are less susceptible to
caries than the second primary molars, though the first primary molars erupt earlier than the second?

Ans;
Due to differences in morphology of occlusal surfaces as the pits and fissures in second primary molars are
deeper, and less completely coalesced.
3.Explain why the rubber should not punched too far apart?

Ans;
Because the dam will not readily fit between the contact areas. In addition, the greater bulk of material between
the teeth will greatly increase the possibility that the rubber will become a barrier to proximal surface
preparation.
4.Explain why the rubber should not punched too close together?

Ans;
salivary leakage will contaminate the operating field
 5. The temporary tooth separator have more advantage over bitewing radiograph,but it has disadvantages too

Ans;
the patient may experience some discomfort while the separator is in place, and this discomfort
is likely to be greater if all contacts are separated.
6. Why the control of saliva very important for primary teeth ?
Ans;
Small pulp exposures may be more easily detected when the tooth is well isolated. It is equally important to
observe the true extent of the exposure and the degree and type of hemorrhage from the pulp tissue.
7. Explain why, the children who sleep with bottle in their mouths are most likely to get ECC?

Ans;
The liquid becomes pooled around the teeth (the lower anterior teeth tend to be protected by the tongue).
The carbo-hydrate-containing liquid provides an excellent ,culture medium for acidogenic
microorganisms.
8. fevers that cause skin rashes can affect the coincidental dental hard-tissue formation?
Ans;
Because enamel and skin share a common ectodermal origin) all can affect the coincidental dental hard-
tissue formation
9. The free ends of the floss are allowed to remain

Ans;
Because they may aid in further retraction of the gingival tissue or the patient’s lip during the
operative procedure.
10. Any patient with a salivary deficiency, from any cause, is at a higher risk for caries activity

Ans;
A reduction in the salivary flow may be temporary or permanent. A pronounced reduction or complete
absence of saliva, however, results in an acidic environment with rampant caries.

11.Explain why, rampant caries can be more observed in emotionally disturb children?

Ans;
An emotional disturbance may initiate an unusual craving for sweets or the habit of snacking, which in turn
might influence the incidence of dental caries.
12. The temporary tooth separator have more advantage over bitewing radiography

Ans;
The avoidance of exposure to ionizing radiation.
The ability to detect whether the surface is cavitated.
PEDODONTICS
2nd SEMESTER
Q1/Full the following
blanks (Answer with
no more than three
words - extra mean
zero).
1. A severe toothache at night calls for more than conservative pulp therapy

2. In Direct Pulp Capping the blood clot that formed after cessation of the bleeding, impedes the
pulpal healing.

3. In Internal Resorption the inflammation may be limited to the exposure site, or it may be diffused
throughout the coronal portion of the pulp.

4. In seriously ill children, extraction of the involved tooth after proper premedication with
antibiotics, rather than pulp therapy, should be the treatment of choice.

5. In the advantages of ART ,it is combined preventives and curative treatment that can be done
in one appointment

6. Momentary pain that disappears on removal of the stimulus indicates that the pathosis is
limited to the coronal pulp.
7. The stainless steel crown is indicated on the first permanent molar is frequently used as a semi-
permanent restoration for certain period in adolescent patient

8. A severe toothache at night usually signals extensive degeneration of the pulp

9. Children with conditions that render them susceptible to subacute bacterial endocarditis,
should not be subjected to the possibility of an acute infection resulting from failed pulp
therapy.

10. In Direct Pulp Capping care must be taken not to allow clot formation, as it will not allow
the capping material to contact the pulp tissue directly

11. In the Advantages of ART, it is easily available inexpensive hand instruments that used
rather than the expensive electrically driven dental equipment.

12. Internal Resorption may progress slowly or rapidly and occasionally, secondary repair of
the resorbed dentinal area occurs.
13. Persistent pain from thermal stimuli indicates wide spread inflammation of the pulp, that
extending into the radicular filaments.

14. Stainless steel crown is indicated in fracture of permanent and primary incisors where the
fracture is close to the gingival margin and likely to be subjected to occlusal stresses the
strength of the stainless steel crown is a great advantage

15. A severe toothache at night indicates irreversible pulpitis of pulpal damage

16. In Direct Pulp Capping, the clot material itself could breakdown, producing degradation
products that act as substrate to the bacteria.

17. In Internal Resorption,the condition may exist at the time of pulp therapy and only
indication would be the clinical evidence of a hyperemic pulp.

18. In Advantages of ART, it is involves the removal of only decalcified tooth tissues, which
results in relatively small cavities
19. Pulp therapy for a tooth of a chronically ill child may be justified, but only after
careful consideration is given to the prognosis of the child's general condition and the
prognosis of the endodontic therapy

20. Stainless Steel Crown is indicated in linear hypoplastic defects can undermine the occlusal
surface of primary molars if the systemic disturbances occur at natal and prenatal stage.

21. A toothache coincident with or immediately after a meal may not indicate extensive pulpal
inflammation

22. When calcium hydroxide is applied directly to pulp tissue there is necrosis of adjacent pulp tissue and
an inflammation of contiguous tissue. Dentinal bridge formation occurs at the junction of necrotic tissue
and vital inflamed tissue.

23. Composite combining dimethacrylates (epoxy resin and methacrylic acid) with silanized quartz
powder
24. In cavity design for bonded amalgam there is reduced the need for removal of sound tooth tissue
to create mechanical retention

25- The use of bonded restorations in posterior teeth has been shown to reduce cuspal flexure
and increase the structural integrity of the tooth

26. The stainless steel crown on the first permanent molar is frequently used as a semi-permanent
restoration for certain period in adolescent patient. When adequate secondary dentine has formed then it
is replaced by more permanent restoration like, porcelain.

27. Sound tooth tissue need not be cut for retention of filling material. The retention is obtained by
the chemical adhesion of glass ionomer restorative material with cavity walls.

28. Pain during caries removal and instrumentation may be an indication of faulty anesthetic
technique. More often,it indicates pulpal hyperemia and inflammation
29. In pulpotomy technique for primary teeth , thick paste is placed over the pulp stumps later on
the tooth should restored with a stainless steel crown.

30. In clinical technique of gross caries removal a radiopaque biocompatible base material (CaOH2)
should be placed over the remaining thin layer of caries at the base of the cavity

31. In clinical technique of gross caries removal the walls of the cavity should be extended to
sound tooth structure because the presence of carious enamel and dentin at the margins of the
cavity will prevent the establishment of an adequate seal

32. The original proteinate zone is still present. However, against this zone is a new area of coarse
fibrous tissue likened to a primitive type of bone.

33. Formation of calcium hydroxide, which dissociates to release Ca ions, to promotes cellular
attachment and proliferation.

34. The most common area of trauma is the lower lip and to a lesser extent the tongue, followed
by the upper lip.

35. periodontal injection should be avoided in primary teeth with a developing permanent tooth bud
as there have been reports of enamel hypoplasia in permanent teeth following PDL injection.
36. Transient loss of sensation in a circumscribed area of the body caused by a depression of
excitation in nerve endings or an inhibition of the conduction process in peripheral nerves

37. In management of diphtheria Use of antitoxin in combination with antibiotics.

38. In requirement of space maintainer Easily cleansable without enhancing dental caries or
soft-tissue pathology.

39. Patients with a sulfa allergy should not receive articaine

Q2/Answer on the
following questions
by selecting the most
appropriate choice
Q2/Answer on the following questions by selecting the most appropriate choice:-

1- Apexogenesis is indicated in :-
a - A tooth previously planned for pulpotomy that show uncontrolled pulpal hemorrhage.
b - A tooth that have adequate periodontal and bony support.
c- Biomechanically cleans and obturate the root canals and maintain the tooth free of infection.
d- Maintenance the integrity of radicular pulp tissue to allow for continued root growth.

2. In diagnostic aids for selection of teeth for vital pulp therapy, the history of pain can show:-
a- Degeneration of primary pulp even to the point of abscess formation without child recalling
discomfort is common
b - Excessive extrusion of the pulpally involved tooth resulting from the absence of opposing teeth.
c - The permanent teeth that may have incompletely formed root, giving an impression of periapical
radiolucency.
d - The sensitivity to percussion or pressure may be a clinical sign of other dental problem.
3. In Hybrid composite, we can notice :-
a- Excellent polishing and texturing properties, abrasion and wear very similar to that of teeth
structures.
b - Greater ease in achieving a good contact point and better reproduction of occlusal anatomy.
c - Indicate in cervical wear processes and minimal occlusal restorations or as liner materials.
d - The percentage of inorganic filler is lower.

4. In metal modified glass ionomer cement :-

a- Excessive opacity and problems in mixing and handling.
b - Poor tensile strength and brittle.
c - The possibility of use as temporary restoration.
d - Their use should be confined to low stress-bearing cavity preparation.

5. Indirect pulp capping is indicated in :-

a- Deep caries in which the pulpal inflammation has been judge minimal and complete removal of
caries would probably cause pulpal exposure.
b - Lack of bleeding at the exposure site where the bleeding amount considered norm the absence of a
hyperemic.
c - Tooth with history of spontaneous, provoked toothache and tenderness to percuss
d - Vital pulp treatment to create new dentin in the area of the exposure and subsequence healing of the
pulp.
6. Pulpotomy technique for permanent teeth is indicated in ;-
a - Mechanical or carious exposures less than 1mm, in an asymptomatic vital young permanent tooth.
b - preserving the inner remineralizable layer of dentin that is reversibly denatured.
c- pulp exposure resulting from crown fracture when the trauma has also produced root fracture.
d - Reducing the continued demineralization of deeper dentin layers from bacterial to

6
7. In diagnostic aids for selection of teeth for vital pulp therapy, the clinical signs and symptoms can
show :-
a - Presence of complex root canal system in primary molars, fine, accessory, lateral, and anastomoses canals.
b - The advisability of performing the pulp therapy and restoring the tooth must be weighed against
extraction and space management.
c - The caries activity of the patient, the stage of dental development, and overall prognosis of oral
rehabilitation.
d-Tooth with deep carious lesion may have problem caused by pulpal disease and possibly by
inflammatory involvement of the periodontal ligament..
8. In flowable composites, we can notice :-
a-Ability to form layers of minimum thickness, so improving or eliminating air inclusion or
entrapment..
b - Ability to mimic the dental structure and less curing shrinkage.
c - Composite resins with a high percentage of filler.
d - Universal formulas for both the anterior and posterior sector

9. In resin modified glass ionomer cement, we can notice :-

a - Less curing shrinkage and low water absorption.
b- Sensitive application technique, and costly material.
c-There is addition of small quantity of resin in the liquid..
d- They are made up of polymer groups reinforced by an inorganic phase.

10- Partial pulpectomy technique is indicated in :-

a-Communication between the roof of the pulp chamber and the region of furcation.
b-Lack of undue sensitivity or pain with ability of pulp to maintain the progressive degeneration.
c - Pulp exposure that occurred by mechanical or bacterial means and remaining radicular tissue is judged
vital.
d-Tooth that may not have a history of painful pulpitis, but the contents of the root canal show
evidence of suppuration
11- Pulpotomy is indicated in :-
a - Large carious lesion with non-restorable.
b-Hemorrhage from exposure sites bright red and can be controlled.
c - Wide spread inflammation or evidence of periapical pathosis. d - Removing the infected dentin and
leaving intact dentin to remineralize and act as a barrier above the healthy pulp.

12. Regenerative Endodontic procedure is indicated to :-

a-Provide a biological alternative to induce continuous root development and reduce the
risk of fracture..
b- Stimulating the process of root end development, which was interrupted by pulpal necrosis,
so that it continuous to the point of apical closure.
c - Tooth whereas the root closure is not complete to preserve vitality of radicular pulp and allow
for normal root closure.
d - Tooth with normal radiographic appearance and no history of spontaneous pain

13. Complete pulpectomy is indicated to :-

a - Permit continued growth of the root and closure of the open apex.
b - Remove of the entire pulp and subsequent filling of the canals of the primary teeth with a suitable
resorbable material.
c - Teeth with no radiographic evidence of a thickened periodontal ligament or of radicular disease.
d - Traumatized or pulpally involved vital permanent tooth with incomplete formation of the root apex.
14. Direct pulp capping is indicated in :-
a- Asymptomatic vital young permanent teeth with possible exception of discomfort caused by food
intake.
b-Present of at least 2/3rd of root length to ensure reasonable functional life.
c - Profuse hemorrhage from the exposure site.
d - Teeth showing a large carious lesion, but free of radicular disease.

15. In condensable composite, we can notice :-

a - Different degrees of opaqueness and translucency in different tones and fluorescence.
b- Different degrees of opaqueness and translucency in different tones and fluorescence.
c-Difficulties in adaptation between one composite layer and another, and poor esthetics in anterior
teeth..
d - Similar thermal expansion coefficient to that of teeth.

16. In packable glass ionomer cement, we can notice :-

a - Favorable physical properties similar to those of resin composite.
b-Rapid setting and very low solubility in oral fluids.
c-The possibility of use as restoration that extend onto the root surface.
d - While application the operatory should be well ventilated.
17. In diagnostic aids for selection of teeth for vital pulp therapy, the radiographic interpretation
can show :-
a - A toothache coincident after a meal could be due to an accumulation of food within a carious lesion.
b- The degree of difficulty anticipated in adequate performance of the pulp therapy ( instrumentation) in
the particular case.
c-The intact barrier of secondary dentin protecting the pulp may actually be a perforated mass of
carious material.
d-The occasional positive response to the test in a tooth with a necrotic pulp if the content of the canals
is liquid

18. Pulpotomy technique for primary teeth, is indicated in :-

a-Coronal pulp tissue and the tissue entering the pulps canals are vital but show clinical
evidence of hyperemia.
b - Excavating the last portions of deep dentinal caries and create new dentin.
c - Removal of inflamed coronal pulp at the site of exposure and preserving the vitality
of the radicular pulp.
d - Sealing the carious lesion to allow the pulp to regenerate reparative dentin.
Enumerate
1) Enumerate one similarity and one different between condensable and hybrid composite

Similarity: Both condensable and hybrid composites are types of dental restorative
materials used for fillings.

Difference: Condensable composites - High filler content for better contact point

Hybrid composites - Wider range of colors and better aesthetics

2. Enumerate one similar and two difference between bonded Amalgam and conventional
Amalgam??

- The use of bonded restorations in posterior teeth has been shown to reduce cuspal flexure and
increase the structural integrity of the tooth when compared to conventional restorations. Bonded
amalgams require considerable extra effort and expense to place compared with conventional
amalgam restorations.
With no more than
One Line Mention
One Similarity and
One Difference each
between:
1. Capsules glass ionomer cement and Paste-Paste dispensing system.

Similarity: Both capsules and paste-paste systems are for delivery of glass ionomer cement.

Difference:
Capsules - Pre-measured glass ionomer powder and liquid

Paste-paste - Ultra-fine glass powder

2. Metal modified glass ionomer and Resin modified glass ionomer.

Similarity: Both are modifications of glass ionomer cement to improve properties.

Difference:
Metal modified - uses metal powders/fibers

Resin modified - uses small quantity of a resin in the liquid.

Only name the treatment
procedures for following
conditions. Three Words
Max.
1. Procedure that recommended in treatment of permanent teeth with carious pulp exposure and
there is pathological pulpal change at the exposure site ?

Pulpotomy technique for permanent teeth

2. Procedure that removing the infected dentin and leaving the intact affect that will act as
barrier above the healthy pulp ?

Indirect pulp treatment

3. Procedure that permit continued root growth in vital pulp permanent tooth ?

Apexogenesis

4. Procedure that recommended when there is lack of bleeding at the exposure site and if
present it will consider normal in the absence of a hyperemic or an inflammation ?

Vital pulp exposure /direct pulp capping

5. Procedure when there is bright red haemorrhage at the exposure site that can be easily controlled by
dry cotton pellet with minimal pressure ?

Vital pulp exposure/ direct pulp capping

6. Procedure that maintain the integrity of the radicular pulp tissue to allow apical closure of a
vital pulp permanent tooth ?

Apexogenesis

7. Procedure of placement a medicament or dressing over the remaining pulp stump and
promote healing and vitality of remaining part of radicular pulp ?

Pulpotomy

8. Procedure when there is deep caries and the pulpal inflammation has been judged minimal
and complete removal of caries would probably cause exposure?

Indirect pulp treatment

In the following ,
the disagree is?
And its agree?
1. It is unwise to maintain untreated infected primary teeth in the mouth. They may be opened
for drainage and often remain symptomatic for an indefinite period

asymptomatic

2. In reaction of the pulp to ferric sulfate, is used as pulpotomy agent as a substitute for
formocresol ,its effect is hemostatic and fixative

But not bactericidal or fixative

3. The regenerative endodontic procedure reduce the risk of fracture associated with traditional
treatments of mature teeth with necrotic pulps

Immature
4. In apexification, when the calcific "plug" is observed in the coronal portion, routine endodontic
procedures may be completed

Disagree, apical portion

5. in reaction of the pulp to calcium hydroxide , against original proteinate zone there is a
new area of coarse fibrous tissue and On the periphery of the new fibrous tissue cells
resembling odontoclasts appear to be lining up.

Disagree, odontoblasts
6. partial pulpectomy is indicated in primary teeth when the tooth may or may not have a
history of painful pulpits, and the contents of the root canals should be show no evidence of
necrosis

disagree, show evidence

7. in alveolar abscess a fistulous opening may be present, which indicates the chronic condition
and the primary teeth that show evidence of an alveolar abscess should be endodontically
treated

Disagree, removed
8. The roots of the primary teeth undergoing even normal physiologic resorption often present a
misleading picture or one suggestive of pathologic change.

AGREE

9. The proximity of caries lesions to the pulp can always be determined accurately in the xray film.
What often appears to be an intact barrier of secondary dentin protecting the pulp may actually be a
perforated mass of irregularly calcified and carious material.

DISAGREE, cannot

10. Mature first primary molar canals are often so small that they are accessible even to the smallest
barbed broach.

Disagree inaccessible

11. In reaction of pulp to MTA, it has an antibacterial effect on some facultative bacteria but no effect on
strict aerobic bacteria. This limited antibacterial effect is less than that demonstrated by calcium
hydroxide pastes

Disagree, anaerobic
12. In internal resorption The inflammation may be limited to the exposure site, or it may be diffused
throughout the radicular portion of the pulp.

Disagree, coronal portion

13. Regenerative Endodontic Procedures ( REPs ) :- are defined as biologically based procedures
designed to replace damaged structures, which include dentin, root structures, and cells of the
enamel-dentin complex.

Disagree, Pulp-dentin complex

14. The morphology of the root canals in primary teeth makes endodontic treatment difficult and
often practical.

Disagree, impractical
 15. In reaction of pulp to preparation Contain Formalin, there is clinical success experienced
in the treatment of primary pulps with these materials is due to the drug's germicidal action
and haemostatic qualities than to its ability to promote healing.

Disagree, fixation

16. Partial Pulpectomy is indicated in primary teeth when Coronal pulp tissue and the tissue
entering the pulp canals are non vital but show clinical evidence of hyperemia.

Disagree, vital

17. The Internal resorption is a destructive process generally caused by odontoclastic activity, and
it may progress slowly or rapidly.

Agree