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    LL.M Entrance 2023

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    abdurrehman217217

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    LL.M. Entrance Test - 2023 Ger Ber. UA, Hae UxtaAT - 2023 (For the Admission in University Campus & Affiliated Aided / Self-Financed Colleges) Course/Subject: LL.M. Subjectcode : O1 Booklet No: 54 49 Booklet Series: ‘tusstio S No. of Questions: 100 Roll No. (In Figures): [> [>] | | > | ¢ 4 0 oe is (sik %) 2 p= iy Time : sections P wae: Roll No. (In Words): 10 [seat Ong Two Eight | » 100 sep (wet 4) four Zeno ROT BIE + 100 p p Name of Examination Centre: VAS (PE) (eXlope | Mecrutt Important Instructions to the candidates : Examine the Test Booklet before marking your answers that it contains all questions serially. Answer sheet may also be checked Defective Test Booklet and answer ‘sheet be changed immediately. 1. Donot open the Test Booklet unless you are asked 10 do 80. 2. Write your Rool Numer and other required details in the space provided on the title page of the Booklet and on the O.M.R. answer sheet. On the ‘OM. answer sheet, candidate must enter the ‘Subject Code and Booklet Series correctly failing which the answer sheet will not be evaluated and the sole responsiblity for this will be that of the candidate. 3. This test booklet contains 100 questions. All questions are compulsory and each question carries 1 mark. 4. The test is of Two hours duration. Time will be counted after you have been asked to open the Test Booklet. 5. If more than one answer is darkened, it wil be treated as not attempted. (Remaining instructions on last page) ref & Pre eres Pate: sweat ee ir at tac a Bs ge ah er aoa 1 ara tea Pha ae ai got be gente an ara se BRT aaa 4. dealer at a ao 7 ad wa aw SIE BT ame! 2. Ree-GRRcer & FATS Ca TOCHOIRD FR TAS Preffta wore A ater see arpa oo wtf Rereor Sifts Xi F.C. OR TA OR SATE wis ed gaa Perkin Fifa Bo a ae BO HT Pt A ooR HH Be & fore where eae Fara een site FAD TR Tw B site aH Bt AA 3. ate gfterer ye 100 mer 1 eh et Pad FET HRS EA 1 3 BIEL 4, gaa 2 ane Br Ri ref ens ‘ere wer srrer, at A were BE aor a me 5, ae wes Boats se ae Psd wed & at 5 wet a wget ar are (oh iter rr) 1 2. - 4 Tick the Incorrect statement : (A) The provision of CSR inserted in the Companies Act, 2013 (B) CSR stands for Corporate So- cial Responsibility (C) Section 226 deals with CSR (D) CSR helps in Improving Socio- economic conditions of the vul- nerable section Which one is arranged in correct or- der? (A) Promotion, Incorporation, Com- mencement of business 1(B) Incorporation, Promotion, Com- mencement of business (C) Promotion, Commencement of Business, Incorporation (D) Commencement of Business, Promotion, Incorporation. Foss v. Harbottle case deals with: (A) Prospectus (B) Majority Power ~(C) Constructive Notice (D) Memorandum of Association How many minimum directors can be there in a public company? LA) 7 (B) 3 (c) 5 ster? LL.M.\01\2023\S ore met apy fier aihiSre: (A) Profit antes sercenttzeet ast werent apart sift 2013 9 fase Tem (B) CSR avant Fafa erenfiras sercenfere a (C) GT 226 CSR @ eafert a1 (D) CSR wasie act Bt aranfSie-snftes Refs ques & aeraat ae @1 ga a ok a adm 4 cafe 8? (A) Saada, rma, SRE wT RAT (B) Para, ted, RIE OT RT (C) anedh, aorta or ares, Pane (D) omar oT ae, anes, Pere wha am eateat ae raat & (A) wReaeT (B) agra a wifes (C) srrattrs qT (D) Sra aeres amet tara be? Pres Br et e (A) 7 (8) 3 (c) 5 (D) 2 P.T.O, "The corporate mask is an Opaque and impassable as an Iron curtain” who said the above statement? A) Gower (B) Prof. L. Morris (C) Halsburry (D) Anson ‘One person company’ has defined under which section of Companies Act, 2013? (A) Section - 2(62) (B) Section - 2(63) (C) Section - 2(64) \(D) Section - 2(66) 7. Companies can be classified on vari- ous basis. Choose the Incorrect match: (A) On the basis of liability : Limited and Unlimited \_ 48) on the basis of Numbers : Private, Public and one person (C) On the basis of ownership : Chartered, Statutory and Registered (D) On the basis of Nationality : Indian and Foreign LL.M.\01\2023\S “part ar fire afte US Tes eS ages gore ote sicher ater &* ae wert foe Gel? (A) Te (B) oy. vet. Fike (Cc) eewat (D) ter oarh afaran, 2013 dt fos ont 4 wa afte oar’ at afenfie fear war 8? (A) aT 2 (62) (B) ORT 2 (63) (C) ORT 2 (64) (D) ORT 2 (66) rafal Br aga a STURT wR alge fsa SH Seba Bl Tera Fer or ae afore: (A) aifiea & arene ox - Sire stk SAR ort (B) Sea STU wR - wa, Ofer stk we waits oor (C) waftea & se WK - Tama ant, eae arent Sr she ear aar Priftrs ort (D) Weftaar & sme ox - areata otk Ret oot 8. Which Section of the Companies Act, 2013 gives power to Board to call Extra-ordinary meeting? (A) Section - 100 4o(B) Section - 96 (C) Section - 230 (D) Section - 177 9. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Debentures? (1) Debenture is a certificate of loan issued by a company to the holder of the debenture. (2) The word debenture is derived from the Latin term ‘debree’ (3) ‘Debenture includes Stock, bonds (A) All 1, 2,3 (B) Only 2 (C) Only 2 and 3 (Dy Only 1 10. Arrange the following in order and tick the correct option: (a) P. Rathinam Nagbhushan Patnaik V. Union of India (b) Gyan Kaur V. State of Punjab a marati Sripati Dubal V. State of Maharashtra (d) State V. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia (A) d,c, a,b (B) a, d ore c (D) d,a,c,b LL.M.\01\2023\S 5) 8. __—_ aor site, 2013 By Roe ener # he a SrRMOROT tes ee Bh aes Be (A) ORT 100 (B) Orr 96 (C) art 230 (D) ORT 177 Prafaas 4 8 aot 3 waPaa a aT (a) wert wal & ? (1) aor Sart SRT ae 3 aT Se fT TET ETT ETO BI (2) BARR Aa md we Bar B RAR a (3) 7am 4 wie, alge afar & (A) 1, 2,3 (B) sac 2 (C) Sar 2 aR 3 (D) saa 1 Prefer at wet oa 4 cafes aifie aie wat faaser oe Pree ard: (a) Saar aeRO Tea FA IRA wa (b) am ok eam tone UsT (c) Are Aue geet FAM FERIG ToT (d) Wor wm aaa BAR sar (A) d,c, a,b (B) a,b, c,d (C) b,a,d,¢ (D) d,a,c,b P.T.0. 11. 12. ‘Wild animals and birds’ entry was added In the constitution by 42nd Amendment- (A) as an entry In Union List (B) as an entry in State list (C) as an entry in concurrent list (D) in none of the above Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists : List-I List-11 (a) Doctrine of (1) S.R.Bomaiv. Territorial Nexus Union of India (b) Mandamus (2) Public Interest Litigation (c) Liberalisation (3) Centre-State of Locus standi Relations (d) Judicial Review of (4) Writ Art. 356 Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A)3 4 2 1 akBy 2 1 3 4 (Cc) 4 1 2 3 (D) 1 2 3 4 13. Who cannot claim the protection of Article 311? (A) Members of the Civil Services of the Union ) Abettor (2) Sec. 120-A (c) Criminal conspiracy (3) Sec. 463 (a) Forgery (4) Sec. 107 Codes : ~(A) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 (B) a-1, , d-4 (C) a-4, b-2, ¢-3, det (D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 48. Consider the following statements and tick the correct one : (1) Section 378 of IPC deals with the offence of theft - In IPC, Kidnapping is of two types (1) is correct but (2) is wrong. (B) (2) is correct but (1) is wrong (C) Both (1) and (2) are correct —(D) Both (1) and (2) are wrong (2) (A) 49. To resist and execution of any law, 50. or of any legal process is an essen- tial element of .... (A) Unlawful Assembly (B) Riot _(C) Affray (D) Assault In which of the following case the prin- ciple of ‘Public Trust’ has applied for the protection of eco-system (A) L.K. Koolwal V. State of Rajasthan (B) Kinkeri Devi V. State of Himachal Pradesh _-(C) M.C. Mehta V. Kamal Nath (D) Charan Lal Sahu V. Union of India LL.M.\01\2023\S 47. 48. 49. [16] Prafttas ar gia Aire (a) ger (1) ORT 108 (b) gRw (2) ORT 120-5 (c) sie ward (3) ORT 463 (4) ge wT (4) Rt 107 we: (A) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3 (B) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-4 (C) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (D) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 Prefered aert ox fra difare sik wet @ fafea Sse (1) acta avs dite Bt at 378 ao S waftad &1 (2) sda as aiken Herre at HER wel (A) (1) a8 & Atos (2) arent @1 (B) (2) wet & afer (1) Tera #1 (C) ai (1) site (2) war a (D) ari (1) atte (2) Tere #1 ‘Fooah fat, a1 fost da meres Pree BI MRI DAT UH Saw act e (A) faftfiee sere (8) aera (C) eer (D) rer RRS ca Bt gran & Bre Pred He Ba ae F Public Trust’ or Rega ere 7a (A) C.d.geaet @. WSR WsT (B) fewd 2a a. ferret wee xa (C) @taea a. eAerTE (D) Ror eT Mee. RA Be st 52. N 53. 54. LL.M.\01\2023\S . Name the chapter of UN charter deal- ing with Pacific settlement of disputes (A) Chapter - IV (B) Chapter - Vv (C) Chapter - VI v{D) Chapter - IT Convention on Bio-Diversity, conven- tion on climate-change and Accep- tance of the Forest Principles and Agenda 21 are the features of - (A) Earth Summit (B) Amnesty International (C) OECD (D) Montreal Protocol State Water Pollution Control Board has no power : (A) Power of receiving information (B) Power of taking sample of wa- ter (C) Power of inspecting premises (D) Power of arresting the owner of Polluting Industry The principle of ‘One Earth’ was accepted First time in- (A) Vienna Conference, 1985 (B) Stockholm Conference, 1972 (C) Brundtland Commission Report 4D) Rio Declaration 51 52. 53. 54 a7) trainee Reardl 2 Gare 8 aaa wa g-arsonrs 3 sara wr ar ware (A) sitar - 4 (8) sara - 5 (C) seara - 6 (D) sears - 2 da fafteen ater, aerarg-aRada 1 artery, ara Rear ot eather sik waist 21 faetwert & (A) sf afte (8) CR sere (Cc) stg as (0) safrgerer srcrester ase ater agar Pras ats & ore sifro ai @- (A) SIRO are oe Bt safes (B) sr aR OM Ht a (C) fet ar or Peet oe Ft afer (D) sagoraent ser & snferes ar FTE oe & afte we wat ae rar Was Tet Wig Ea (A) fat aitbe, 1985 (B) Wier Gia, 1972 (C) aegis ater Rete (D) Rat Rarer P.T.O. 55. Consider the following statements and tick the Incorrect one : (A) The Indian Forest Act was passed in 1927. (B) World Environment Day falls ev- ery year on S™ June. _~ (C) Noise Pollution has been defined Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. (D) Environment Protection Act, 1986 has 26 Sections and 4 Chapters. 56. Match the following : List-1 List - 11 (a) Convention on Biological (1) 1972 Diversity (b) Stockholm Convention (2) 1993 (c) Kyoto Protocol on (3) 1997 climate change (4) Earth summit (4) 1992 Codes : ~ (A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4 (B) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 (C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 57. BIA stands for - (A) +6) Environmental Impact Audit Environmental Impact Assess- ment (c) (0) Environmental Impact Area Environmental Impact Atmo- sphere LL.M.\01\2023\S 55 56. 57. 118) Prafaad wert ox fra diate sk rere oR Prema crmge: (A) ud am offer 1927 4 anf gm (B) faxa-cefaron fears wees Het 5 a a am él (C) ‘ea sgror arg (sagen Bt reper, athe Preto afer 1981 Reef for tran @! (D) vefaxor Harr afta, 1986 # 26 ont sik 4 seara @1 Prafeied or gitar Afi i-1 qi -ir (a) afte fafaern water (1) 1972 (b) Wee SAW (2) 1993 (c) serarg oR ox ‘aehey sicreoret (3) 1997 (d) orf aie (4) 1992 we: (A) a-2, be1, c-3, d-4 (B) a-1, b-2, ¢-3, d-4 (C) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1 (D) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 EIA & aie & - (A) vaferor mee sitsaroy (B) Teer sera sresery (C) eferor sree aa (D) wefeRor sare arareeoT 58. In the context of two statements, which one of the following option is correct - - Assertion (A) : Environment legis- lation means law for the protection of the environment. Reason (R) : The environment Laws are the only ways for protecting var- ious types of pollution. Codes : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explana- tion of (A). -{€) (A) is true but (R) is False . (D) (A) is False but (R) is true. 59. "Right to live includes the right to en- joyment of Pollution free water and air for full enjoyment of life”. In which case Supreme Court held : (A) Narmada Bachao v. Union of India (B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (C) Subhash Kumar v. State of Bihar _{D) Rural Litigation Entitlement Kendra v. State of U.P. 60. Match the following : (a) Volkegeist (1) Eugen Ehrlich (b) Social-Solidarity (2) Savigny (c) Living Law of . (3) Austin the people ~“(d) Command Theory (4) Duiguit Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (Ay2 4 1 2 AB)4 3 2 1 (C) >) ae 3 a (3 2 1 4 LL.M.\01\2023\S 58. a oer & desl # Prafatted a a ohh aT faesea wat &- saftey (A) + afer fats & areeet afaror ot eel aot a ff B21 RO (R) : Tafa fatal attra wo ge B ele aoe & fore eaves ae €1 ve: (A) at (A) site (R) ace & Ake (R) (A) or wel eo BI (B) (A) ae (R) att weer & afer (R) (A) & wa ead Ae 81 (C) (A) 8a @ Afi (R) Tera BI (D) (R) at @ afer (A) aera &1 59, “shar oH & aiftrore + vauor

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