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BIRDEYE 1.0
JEE MAINS PAPERS
2020 – JANUARY
WITH DETAILED SOLUTIONS
 JEE MAIN 2020
(Held on 07-01-2020 Morning Shift)

PHYSICS
1. A litre of dry air at STP expands adiabatically to a volume 5. Consider a circular coil of wire carrying constant current
of 3 litres. If g = 1.40, the work done by air is: (31.4 = I, forming a magnetic dipole. The magnetic flux
4.6555) [Take air to be an ideal gas] through an infinite plane that contains the circular coil
(1) 60.7 J (2) 90.5 J and excluding the circular coil area is given by fi
(3) 100.8 J (4) 48 J .The magnetic flux through the area of the circular
2. A 60 HP electric motor lifts an elevator having a maximum coil area is given by f 0 . Which of the following option
total load capacity of 2000 kg. If the frictional force on the is correct?
elevator is 4000 N, the speed of the elevator at full load is (1) f i = f 0 (2) f i > f 0
close to: (1 HP = 746 W, g = 10 ms–2) (3) f i < f 0 (4) f i = – f 0
(1) 1.7 ms–1 (2) 1.9 ms–1 6. A polarizer - analyser set is adjusted such that the intensity
(3) 1.5 ms–1 (4) 2.0 ms–1 of light coming out of the analyser is just 10% of the
3. As shown in the figure, a bob of mass m is tied by a original intensity. Assuming that the polarizer - analyser set
massless string whose other end portion is wound on a fly does not absorb any light, the angle by which the analyser
wheel (disc) of radius r and mass m. When released from need to be rotated further to reduce the output intensity to
rest the bob starts falling vertically. When it has covered a be zero, is:
distance of h, the angular speed of the wheel will be: (1) 71.6° (2) 18.4°
(3) 90° (4) 45°
m 7. A LCR circuit behaves like a damped harmonic oscillator.
r
Comparing it with a physical spring-mass damped oscillator
having damping constant ‘b’, the correct equivalence
m would be:
(1) L ´ m, C ´ k, R ´ b
1 4gh 3
(1) (2) r 1 1 1
r 3 2gh (2) L ´ ,C´ , R´
b m k
1 2gh 3 (3) L ´ k, C ´ b, R ´ m
(3) (4) r
r 3 4gh
1
4. Which of the following gives a reversible operation? (4) L ´ m, C ´ ,R´ b
k
(1) 8. A satellite of mass m is launched vertically upwards with
an initial speed u from the surface of the earth. After it
reaches height R (R = radius of the earth), it
(2)
m
ejects a rocket of mass so that subsequently the
10
(3) satellite moves in a circular orbit. The kinetic energy
of the rocket is (G is the gravitational constant; M is the
(4) mass of the earth):
2 JEE Main 2020

m  2 113 GM  (1) 1.6 ¥ 1014 (2) 7.8 ¥ 1014

(1) u +  (3) 6.2 ¥ 1015 (4) 5.6 ¥ 1012
20  200 R 
14. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A separated by
 119 GM 
(2) 5m  u 2−
 200 R  distance ‘d’ between them. It is filled with a dielectric which

2
has a dielectric constant that varies as k(x) = K(1 + ax)
(3) 3m  u + 5GM  where ‘x’ is the distance measured from one of the plates. If
8  6R 
(ad) << l, the total capacitance of the system is best given
2 by the expression:
 
(4) m u − 2GM

20  3R 
9. A long solenoid of radius R carries a time (t) - dependent
current I(t) = I0t(l – t). A ring of radius 2R is placed
coaxially near its middle. During the time interval 0 £ t £
1, the induced current (IR) and the induced EMF(VR) in the
ring change as:
(1) Direction of IR remains unchanged and VR is maximum AK 0  d 
(1) 1+ 2 
at t = 0.5 d  
(2) At t = 0.25 direction of IR reverses and VR is maximum
A0 K   d 2 
(3) Direction of IR remains unchanged and VR is zero at (2) 1+  
d  2 
t = 0.25  
(4) At t = 0.5 direction of IR reverses and VR is zero 2
A 0 K   2d
10. Speed of a transverse wave on a straight wire (mass 6.0 g, (3) 1+ 
d  2 
length 60 cm and area of cross-section 1.0 mm2) is 90  
ms–1. If the Young’s modulus of wire is 16 ¥ l011 Nm–2 AK 0
(4) (1+ d )
the extension of wire over its natural length is: d
(1) 0.03 mm (2) 0.02 mm
15. The current I1 (in A) flowing through 1 W resistor in the
(3) 0.04 mm (4) 0.01 mm
following circuit is:
Cp 5
11. Two moles of an ideal gas with = are mixed with 3 I1 1W
CV 3 2W
Cp 4 Cp 1W
moles of another ideal gas with = . The value of
CV 3 CV
for the mixture is:
2W
(1) 1. 45 (2) 1.50
(3) 1.47 (4) 1.42
1V
12. If we need a magnification of 375 from a compound
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5
microscope of tube length 150 mm and an objective of
(3) 0.2 (4) 0.25
focal length 5 mm, the focal length of the eye-piece, should
16. Visible light of wavelength 6000 ¥ 10–8 cm falls normally
be close to:
on a single slit and produces a diffraction pattern. It is
(1) 22 mm (2) 12 mm
(3) 2 mm (4) 33 mm found that the second diffraction minimum is at 60° from

13. The time period of revolution of electron in its ground the central maximum. If the first minimum is produced at
state orbit in a hydrogen atom is 1.6 ¥ 10–16 s. The q1, then ql is close to:
frequency of revolution of the electron in its first excited (1) 20° (2) 30°
state (in s–1) is: (3) 25° (4) 45°
07-01-2020 (Morning Shift) 3

17. Three point particles of masses 1.0 kg, 1.5 kg and 2.5 kg
(1) 1 l (2) 1 l
are placed at three corners of a right angle triangle of sides 4 8
4.0 cm, 3.0 cm and 5.0 cm as shown in the figure. The
center of mass of the system is at a point: 7 3
(3) l (4) l
2.5 kg 48 8

21. A Carnot engine operates between two reservoirs of

4 cm 5 cm temperatures 900 K and 300 K. The engine performs 1200
J of work per cycle. The heat energy (in J) delivered by
1.0 kg 1.5 kg
the engine to the low temperature reservoir, in a cycle, is
3 cm
(1) 0.6 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass ææææ.
(2) 1.5 cm right and 1.2 cm above 1 kg mass 22. A non-isotropic solid metal cube has coefficients of linear
(3) 2.0 cm right and 0.9 cm above 1 kg mass expansion as: 5 ¥ l0–5/°C along the x-axis and 5 ¥ 10–
(4) 0.9 cm right and 2.0 cm above 1 kg mass 6/°C along the y and the z-axis. If the coefficient of
18. Two infinite planes each with uniform surface charge volume expansion of the solid is C ¥ 10–6/°C then the value
density + s are kept in such a way that the angle between of C is æ æ æ .
them is 30°. The electric field in the region shown between
23. A loop ABCDEFA of straight edges has six corner points
them is given by:
A(0, 0, 0), B{5, 0, 0), C(5, 5, 0), D(0, 5, 0), E(0, 5, 5) and
+s
y F(0, 0, 5). The magnetic field in this region is
ˆ The quantity of flux through the loop
B = ( 3i ˆ+ 4k )T.
30°
+s x
ABCDEFA (in Wb) is æ æ æ .

(1) È(1Í+ 3) yˆ- ˘

s xˆ 24. A particle (m = l kg) slides down a frictionless track
2 Œ0 Î 2 ˙˚
(AOC) starting from rest at a point A (height 2 m). After
s ÈÊ 3 ˆ xˆ˘ reaching C, the particle continues to move freely in air as
(2) ÍÁ 1+ ˜yˆ+ ˙
Œ0 ÍÎË 2 ¯ 2 ˙˚ a projectile. When it reaching its highest point P (height 1
m), the kinetic energy of the particle (in J) is: (Figure
s È xˆ˘
(3) (
2 Œ0 ÍÎ
)
1+ 3 yˆ+
2 ˙˚
drawn is schematic and not to scale; take g = 10 ms–2)
æææ .
s ÈÊ 3 ˆ xˆ˘
(4) ÍÁ 1- yˆ-
˜ ˙ Height
2 Œ0 ÍË
Î 2 ¯ 2 ˙˚ A
P

19. If the magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is

2m C
given by B = 3 ¥ 10–8 sin (l.6 ¥ 10 3x + 48 ¥ 10 t)10j T, ˆ
then what will be expression for electric field?

(1) E = (60 sin (1.6 ¥ l03x + 48 ¥ l010t)kˆv/m) O

(2) E = (9 sin (1.6 ¥ l0 x3 + 48 ¥ l0 t)10k ˆv/m)

25. A beam of electromagnetic radiation of intensity
(3) E = (3 ¥ l0–8 sin (l.6 ¥ l03x + 48 ¥ l010t) ˆjv/m) 6.4 ¥ 10 –5 W/cm2 is comprised of wavelength,
l = 310 nm. It falls normally on a metal (work function
–8 (l.6 ¥ l0 x +
(4) E = (3 ¥ l0 sin 3 48 ¥ l0 t) 10 ˆ
i v/m)
j = 2eV) of surface area of 1 cm2 . If one in 103 photons
20. The radius of gyration of a uniform rod of length l, about ejects an electron, total number of electrons ejected in
l
an axis passing through a point away from the centre of 1 s is 10x. (hc = 1240 eVnm, l eV = 1.6 ¥ 10–19 J), then
4 x is æ æ æ .
the rod, and perpendicular to it, is:
4 JEE Main 2020

CHEMISTRY

26. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers layer was labelled as fraction C. Fractions A, B and C,
1 contain respectively:
n = 5, ms= + is:
2 (1) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chloroaniline and
(1) 11 (2) 25 m-chlorophenol
(3) 50 (4) 15 (2) m-chlorobenzoic acid, m-chlorophenol and
27. Given that the standard potentials (E0) of Cu2+ /Cu and Cu + / m-chloroaniline
Cu are 0.34 V and 0.522 V respectively, the E0 of Cu2 + / (3) m-chlorophenol, m-chlorobenzoic acid and
Cu + is: m-chloroaniline
(1) + 0.182 V (2) + 0.158 V (4) m-chloroaniline, m-chlorobenzoic acid and
(3) – 0.182 V (4) – 0.158 V m-chlorophenol
28. In comparison to the zeolite process for the removal of 32. What is the product of following reaction?
permanent hardness, the synthetic resins method is: Hex-3-ynal
(1) less efficient as it exchanges only anions (i) ⎯⎯NaB⎯H4⎯→?
(2) more efficient as it can exchange both cations as well
(ii) PBr3
as anions
(3) less efficient as the resins cannot be regenerated (iii) Mg/ether
(4) more efficient as it can exchange only cations +
(iv) CO2/H
3 O
28. Match the following:
(i) Riboflavin (a) Beriberi (1) COOH
(ii) Thiamine (b) Scurvy
(2) COOH
(iii) Pyridoxine (c) Cheilosis
(3) COOH
(iv) Ascorbic acid (d) Convulsions
(1) (i) – (a), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (c), (iv) – (b) (4) COOH
(2) (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b) 33. Amongst the following statements, that which was not
(3) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b) proposed by Dalton was:
(4) (i) – (d), (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c) (1) Chemical reactions involve reorganization of atoms.
30. At 35 °C, the vapour pressure of CS2 is 512 mm Hg and that These are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical
of acetone is 344 mm Hg. A solution of CS2 in acetone has reaction.
a total vapour pressure of 600 mm Hg. The false statement (2) All the atoms of a given element have identical
amongst the following is: properties including identical mass. Atoms of different
(1) Raoult’s law is not obeyed by this system elements differ in mass.
(2) a mixture of 100 mL CS2 and 100 mL acetone has a (3) When gases combine or reproduced in a chemical
volume < 200 mL reaction they do so in a simple ratio by volume
(3) CS2 and acetone are less attracted to each other than to provided all gases are at the same T & P.
themselves (4) Matter consists of indivisible atoms.
(4) heat must be absorbed in order to produce the solution
34. The dipole moments of CCl4, CHCl3 and CH4 are in the
at 35 °C
order:
31. A solution of m-chloroaniline, m-chlorophenol and (1) CHCl <
3 CH =4 CCl 4
m-chlorobenzoic acid in ethyl acetate was extracted
(2) CCl4 < CH4 < CHCl3
initially with a saturated solution of NaHCO to give
3
fraction A. The left over organic phase was extracted with (3) CH4 < CCl4 < CHCl3
dilute NaOH solution to give fraction B. The final organic (4) CH4 = CCl4 < CHCl3
07-01-2020 (Morning Shift) 5

35. The IUPAC name of the complex [Pt (NH3)2Cl(NH2CH3)] 40. Oxidation number of potassium in K2O, K2O2 and KO2,
Cl is: respectively, is:
(1) Diamminechlorido (methanamine) platinum (II) 1
(1) +2, +1 and +
chloride 2
(2) Diammine (methanamine) chlorido platinum (II)
(2) +1, +1 and +1
chloride
(3) +1, +4 and +2
(3) Diamminechlorido (aminomethane) platinum (II)
(4) +1, +2 and +4
chloride
41. Consider the following reaction:
(4) Bisammine (methanamine) chlorido platinum (II)
chloride CH3
N + Na SO3 N2 Cl
36. The purest form of commercial iron is: CH3
(1) pig iron
OH–
(2) wrought iron ‘X’
(3) cast iron The product ‘X’ is used:
(4) scrap iron and pig iron (1) in protein estimation as an alternative to ninhydrin
37. The electron gain enthalpy (in kj/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, (2) in acid base titration as an indicator
bromine and iodine, respectively, are: (3) as food grade colourant
(1) –296, –325, –333 and –349 (4) in laboratory test for phenols
(2) –349, –333, –325 and –296 42. The atomic radius of Ag is closest to:
(3) –333, –349, –325 and –296
(1) Au (2) Ni
(4) –333, –325, –349 and –296
(3) Cu (4) Hg
38. 1-methyl ethylene oxide when treated with an excess of
43. The theory that can completely/properly explain the nature
HBr produces:
Br of bonding in [Ni(CO)4] is:
(1) erner(’1s)thWeory
CH3
(2) Molecular orbital theory
Br
(2) Br (3) Crystal field theory
alenc(e4b) oVndtheory
CH3
44. Consider the following reactions:
(3) Br CH3
c on c.H SO
Br (a) (CH3)3CCH(OH)CH3 ⎯⎯⎯ ⎯2 ⎯4→
(4)
Br
⎯ a lc. KO H
39. The increasing order of pK for
b the following compounds
(b) (CH3)2CHCH(Br)CH3 ⎯⎯ ⎯→
will be:
NH2– CH = NH, (CH ) O−K
(c) (CH )3 CHCH(Br)CH
2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3
3 3

(A)

N (d) (CH3)2C – CH2–CHO ⎯⎯→
N NH, OH
Which of these reaction(s) will not produce Saytzeff
(B) product?
(1) (a), (c) and (d)
CH3NHCH 3
(2) (d) only
(C)
(3) (c) only
(1) (B) < (C) < (A) (2) (A) < (B) < (C)
(4) (b) and (d)
(3) (C) < (A) < (B) (4) (B) < (A) < (C)
6 JEE Main 2020

45. The relative strength of interionic/ intermolecular forces in
decreasing order is:
(1) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion
(2) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole
(3) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion
(4) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole
46. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and
produces compounds (X) and (Y). Compound (X) gives
white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The
average bond order between Cl and O atoms in (Y) is
æææ.
47. The number of chiral carbons in chloramphenicol is
æææ.
48. During the nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr
with half life of 6.93 years. If 1 mg of 90Sr was absorbed in
the bones of a newly born baby in place of Ca, how much
time, in years, is required to reduce it by 90% if it is not lost
metabolically æ æ æ .
49. For the reaction ;
A(l) Æ 2B(g)
DU = 2.1 kcal, DS = 20 cal K–1 at 300 K.
Hence DG in kcal is æ æ æ .
50. Two solutions, A and B, each of 100 L was made by
dissolving 4g of NaOH and 9.8 g of H2SO4 in water,
respectively. The pH of the resultant solution obtained
from mixing 40 L of solution A and 10 L of solution. B is
æææ.

MATHEMATICS

 tan  + cot   1  3  55. A vector a= a iˆ + 2 ˆj + b kˆ (a, b ŒR) lies in the plane of

51. If y() = 2  + 2 ,    ,  ,
2
 1+ tan   sin   4  ˆ c = i – ˆj + 4ˆ k . Ifˆ a bisects the
the vectors, b = iˆ+ j and
dy 5p angle between b and c ,then:
then at a = is:
da 6
(1) a· iˆ + 3 = 0 (2) a· iˆ + 1 = 0
4
(1) 4 (2)
3 (3) a · kˆ + 2 = 0 (4) a · kˆ + 4 = 0
1
(3) –4 (4) - 1

56. Let xk + yk = ak, (a, k > 0) and + Ê Áˆ ˜= 0, then k is:

4 dy y 3
dx Ëx ¯
52. Five numbers are in A.P., whose sum is 25 and product is
1 3 4
2520. If one of these five numbers is - , then the greatest (1) (2)
2 2 3
number amongst them is:
2 1
(1) 27 (2) 7 (3) (4)
3 3
21
(3) (4) 16
2 57. Let a and b be two real roots of the equation

2 10x + 5,then f Ê5 ˆ
2 x – 1 and (gof) (x) = 4x –
(k +1) tan2x – 2 . ltan x = (1 – k), where k(π –1) and
53. If g(x) = x + ÁË4˜¯
l are real numbers. If tan2 (a + b) = 50, then a value of l is:
is equal to: (1) 10 2 (2) 10
3 1 (3) 5 (4) 5 2
(1) (2) -
2 2 58. If f (a + b + 1 – x) = f(x), for all x, where a and b are fixed
1 3 positive real numbers,
(3) (4) -
2 2
1 b
a + b a
54. Total number of 6-digit numbers in which only and all the then x(f(x) + f(x + l))dx is equal to:
five digits 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 appear, is:
b+1 b−1
a+1 f (x)dx a−1 f (x)dx
1 (1) (2)
(1) (6!) (2) 6!
2
b−1 b+1
(3) 5 6 (4) 5 (6!) (3) a−1 f (x +1)dx (4) a+1 f (x +1)dx
2
07-01-2020 (Morning Shift) 7

59. The area of the region, enclosed by the circle x2 + y2 = 2 Then the expected value of X, is:
which is not common to the region bounded by the parabola
(1) 3 (2) 1
y2 = x and the straight line y = x, is: 16 8
1 3 1
(1) (24p – 1) (3) - (4) -
6 16 8
1
(2) (6p – 1) 65. If y = mx + 4 is a tangent to both the parabolas, y2 =4x and
3
x2 = 2by, then b is equal to:
1
(3) (12p – 1) (1) –32 (2) –64
3
(3) –128 (4) 128
(4) 1 (12p – 1)
6 66. The greatest positive integer k, for which 49k + 1 is a factor
of the sum 49125 + 49124 + ... + 492 + 49 + l, is:
60. If the system of linear equations
2x + 2ay + az = 0 (1) 32 (2) 63
(3) 60 (4) 65
2x + 3by + bz = 0

67. If Re Ê Á ˆ =˜ 1, where z = x + iy, then the point (x, y)

2x + 4cy + cz = 0, z -1
where a, b, c ŒR are non-zero and distinct; has a non- Ë2z + i ¯
zero solution, then: lies on a:

1 3ˆ
(1)
11 1
, , are in A.P. (1) circle whose centre is at ÊÁ
- ,- ˜ .
ab c Ë 2 2¯

(2) a, b, c are in G.P.

(2) straight line whose slope is - 2 .
(3) a + b + c = 0 3
(4) a, b, c are in A.P.
3
61. Let P be a plane passing through the points (2, 1, 0), (4, 1, (3) straight line whose slope is .
2
1) and (5, 0, 1) and R be any point (2, 1, 6). Then the
image of R in the plane P is: 5
(4) circle whose diameter is .
2
(1) (6, 5, 2) (2) (6, 5, –2)
68. Let  be a root of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0
(3) (4, 3, 2) (4) (3, 4, –2)
È1 1 1˘
62. The logical statement
and the matrix A = 1 Í1 a a 2 ˙˙ ,
(p fi q) ^ (q fi ~p) is equivalent to: 3 Í
Í 2 ˙
Î1 a a 4˚
(1) p (2) q
(3) ~P (4) ~q then the matrix A31 is equal to:

63. If the distance between the foci of an ellipse is 6 and the (1) A (2) I3

distance between its directrices is 12, then the length of its (3) A2 (4) A3

latus rectum is: 69. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation,

(1) 3 (2) 3 2 Êdy -1 ˆ = ex such that y(0) = 0, then y(l) is equal to:
ey Á
Ëdx ˜¯
3
(3) (4) 2 3
2 (1) l + loge 2
64. An unbiased coin is tossed 5 times. Suppose that a variable (2) 2 + loge 2
X is assigned the value k when k consecutive heads are (3) 2e
obtained for k = 3, 4, 5, otherwise X takes the value –1. (4) loge 2
8 JEE Main 2020

70. Let the function, f: [–7, 0] Æ R be continuous on [ –7, 0] 73. Let S be the set of points where the function,
and differentiable on (–7, 0). If f(–7) = –3 and f  (x) ≤ 2, f(x) = |2 – |x – 3||, xŒR, is not differentiable.
for all xŒ(–7, 0), then for all such functions f, f (–1) + f(0) Then  f(f(x)) is equal to æ æ æ .
lies in the interval: xŒS

(1) (– • , 20] 74. If the variance of the first n natural numbers is 10 and the
(2) [–3, 11] variance of the first m even natural numbers is 16, then m
(3) (– • , 11] + n is equal to æ æ æ .
(4) [–6, 20]
75. Let A(l, 0), B(6, 2) and C ÊÁ ,6ˆ ˜ be the vertices of a triangle
x 3- x
3
3 + 3 -1 2 Ë2 ¯
71. lim - x/2 is equal to æ æ æ .
xÆ2 3 - 31- x ABC. If P is a point inside the triangle ABC such that the
triangles APC, APB and BPC have equal areas, then the
72. If the sum of the coefficients of all even powers of x in the
length of the line segment
product
(1 + x + x2 + ... + x2n) (1 – x + x2 – x3 + ... + x2n) is 61, then PQ, where Q is the point Ê
7 1ˆ
ÁË- , - 3˜¯, is æ æ æ .
n is equal to æ æ æ . 6
 JEE MAIN 2020
(Held on 07-01-2020 Evening Shift)

PHYSICS
1. A mass of 10 kg is suspended by a rope of length 4 m, from 6. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is
the ceiling. A force F is applied horizontally at the mid-point given by
of the rope such that the top half of the rope makes an angle
iˆ + ˆj
of 45° with the vertical. Then F equals: (Take g = 10 ms–2 E = E0 cos(kz +t)
2
and the rope to be massless)
At t = 0, a positively charged particle is at the point
(1) 100 N (2) 90 N
0, 0, ˆ˜ . If its instantaneous velocity at (t = 0)
p
(3) 70 N (4) 75 N (x, y, z) = ÊÁ
Ë k¯
2. A particle of mass m and charge q has an initial velocity
is v kˆ, the force acting on it due to the wave is:
0
v = v0 j . If an electric field E = E0i and magnetic field
iˆ + ˆj
ˆ on the particle, its speed will double after a
B = B0i act (1) parallel to
2
time:
(2) zero
2mv0 3mv0
(1) (2) iˆ + ˆj
qE0 qE0 (3) antiparallel to
2
3mv0 2mv0
(3)
qE0
(4)
qE0 (4) parallel to kˆ
7. An elevator in a building can carry a maximum of 10
3. In a building there are 15 bulbs of 45 W, 15 bulbs of 100 W,
persons, with the average mass of each person being 68 kg.
15 small fans of 10 W and 2 heaters of 1 kW. The voltage of
The mass of the elevator itself is 920 kg and it moves with
electric main is 220 V. The minimum fuse capacity (rated
a constant speed of 3 m/s. The frictional force opposing the
value) of the building will be:
motion is 6000 N. If the elevator is moving up with its full
(1) 10 A (2) 25 A
capacity, the power delivered by the motor to the elevator
(3) 15 A (4) 20 A
(g =10 m/s2) must be at least:
4. An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a pipe of non-
(1) 56300 W (2) 62360 W
uniform diameter. The maximum and minimum diameters
of the pipes are 6.4 cm and 4.8 cm, respectively. The ratio (3) 48000 W (4) 66000 W
of the minimum and the maximum velocities of fluid in this 8. A stationary observer receives sound from two identical
pipe is: tuning forks, one of which approaches and the other one
recedes with the same speed (much less than the speed of
(1) 9 (2)
3
16 2 sound). The observer hears 2 beats/sec. The oscillation
3 81 frequency of each tuning fork is v0 = 1400 Hz and the
(3) (4)
4 256 velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. The speed of each
tuning fork is close to:
B2
5. The dimensions of , where B is magnetic field and m0
2m 0 1
(1) m/s (2) 1m/s
is the magnetic permeability of vacuum, is: 2
(1) MLT–2 (2) ML2T–1 1 1
(3) m/s (4) m/s
(3) ML2T–2 (4) ML–1T–2 4 8
10 JEE Main 2020

9. An emf of 20 V is applied at time t = 0 to a circuit 15. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from 700 s –1 to
containing in series 10 mH inductor and 5 W resistor. The 500 s –1 in 30 minutes. Its half life is close to:
ratio of the currents at time t = • and at t = 40 s is close to: (1) 72 min (2) 62 min
(Take e2 = 7.389) (3) 66 min (4) 52 min
(1) 1.06 (2) 1.15
16. A box weighs 196 N on a spring balance at the north pole.
(3) 1.46 (4) 0.84
Its weight recorded on the same balance if it is shifted to
10. A thin lens made of glass (refractive index = 1.5) of focal
the equator is close to (Take g = 10 ms –2 at the north pole
length f = 16 cm is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
and the radius of the earth = 6400 km):
1.42. If its focal length in liquid is f l ,then the ratio f l /f is
(1) 195.66 N (2) 194.32 N
closest to the integer:
(1) 1 (2) 9 (3) 194.66 N (4) 195.32 N
(3) 5 (4) 17 17. Mass per unit area of a circular disc of radius a depends on
11. An electron (of mass m) and a photon have the same the distance r from its centre as s(r) = A + Br. The moment
energy E in the range of a few eV. The ratio of the de- of inertia of the disc about the axis, perpendicular to the
Broglie wavelength associated with the electron and the plane and passing through its centre is:
wavelength of the photon is (c = speed of light in vacuum)
Ê A aB ˆ ÊaA B ˆ
(1) 2pa 4 Á + (2) 2pa 4 Á + ˜
Ë4 5 ˜¯
1/2
1 Ê2E ˆ Ë4 5 ¯
(1) Á ˜ (2) c(2mE)1/2
c Ëm ¯
ÊA aB ˆ
(4) 2pa 4 ÊÁ+ ˆ ˜
A B
1/2 1/2 (3) pa 4 Á +
1 ÊE ˆ
(3) Á ˜
ÊE ˆ
(4) Á ˜ Ë4 5 ˜¯ Ë4 5 ¯
c Ë2m ¯ Ë2m ¯
18. (T) B
12. A planar loop of wire rotates in a uniform magnetic field.
Initially, at t = 0, the plane of the loop is perpendicular to 2.0

the magnetic field. If it rotates with a period of 10 s about

an axis in its plane then the magnitude of induced emf will 1.0

be maximum and minimum, respectively at: –150 –50

(2) 2.5 s and 5.0 s H
(1) 2.5 s and 7.5 s 50 150 A/m
(3) 5.0 s and 7.5 s (4) 5.0 s and 10.0 s
–1.0
13. In the figure, potential difference between A and B is:
10 kW
A
–2.0

The figure gives experimentally measured B vs. H variation

30 V 10 kW 10 kW
in a ferromagnetic material. The retentivity, co-ercivity and
saturation, respectively, of the material are:
B
(1) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T
(1) 10 V (2) 5 V (2) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T
(3) 15 V (4) zero (3) 150 A/m, 1.0 T and 1.5 T
14. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between (4) 1.0 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T
the slits is 0.15 mm. In the experiment, a source of light 19. Under an adiabatic process, the volume of an ideal gas gets
of wavelength 589 nm is used and the interference pattern doubled. Consequently the mean collision time between
is observed on a screen kept 1.5 m away. The separation Cp
between the successive bright fringes on the screen is: the gas molecule changes from t 1 to t 2 . If = g for this
Cv
(1) 6.9 mm (2) 3.9 mm t
gas then a good estimate for 2 is given by:
(3) 5.9 mm (4) 4.9 mm t1
07-01-2020 (Evening Shift) 11

1 electrostatic energy that is lost in this process by the

(1) 2 (2) time the charge is redistributed between them is (in nJ)
2
g+1 23. F
g
Ê1 ˆ Ê1 ˆ 2
(3) Á ˜ (4) Á ˜
Ë2 ¯ Ë2 ¯
20. Two ideal Carnot engines operate in cascade (all heat
given up by one engine is used by the other engine to
produce work) between temperatures, T1 and T2. The Consider a uniform cubical box of side a on a rough floor that
temperature of the hot reservoir of the first engine is T1 is to be moved by applying minimum possible force F at a
and the temperature of the cold reservoir of the second point b above its centre of mass (see figure). If the coefficient
engine is T 2. T is temperature of the sink of first engine of friction is m= 0.4, the maximum possible value of 100 ¥
which is also the source for the second engine. How is b
for box not to topple before moving is .
T related to T1 and T2, if both the engines perform equal a
amount of work ? 24. The balancing length for a cell is 560 cm in a potentiometer
2T1T2 T1 + T2 experiment. When an external resistance of 10 W is
(1) T = (2) T =
T1 + T2 2 connected in parallel to the cell, the balancing length
changes by 60 cm. If the internal resistance of the cell is
(3) T = TT1 2 (4) T = 0
N
W,where N is an integer then value of N is .
21. The sum of two forces P and Q is R such that 10

| R | = | P | . The angle q (in degrees) that the resultant of 2 25. M grams of steam at 100°C is mixed with 200 g of ice at
its melting point in a thermally insulated container. If it
P and Q will make with Q is .
produces liquid water at 40°C [heat of vaporization of
22. A 60 pF capacitor is fully charged by a 20 V supply. It
water is 540 cal/ g and heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g], the
is then disconnected from the supply and is connected
value of M is .
to another uncharged 60 pF capacitor in parallel. The

CHEMISTRY
26. The redox reaction among the following is: 28. In the following reactions, products (A) and (B),
(1) formation of ozone from atmospheric oxygen in the respectively, are:
presence of sunlight NaOH + Cl2 Æ (A) + side products (hot and conc.)
(2) reaction of [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 with AgNO3 Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 Æ (B) + side products (dry)
(3) reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH (1) NaClO3, and Ca(OCl)2
(4) combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen at 2000 K (2) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3)2
27. Among statements (A)-(D), the correct ones are: (3) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2
(A) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide gives dioxygen. (4) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3)2
(B) Like hydrogen peroxide, compounds, such as KClO3, 29. For the following reactions
Pb(NO3)2 and NaNO3 when heated liberate dioxygen. CH3CH2CH2Z + Br
(C) 2-Ethylanthraquinone is useful for the industrial
preparation of hydrogen peroxide. CH3CH2CH2Br + Z
(D) Hydrogen peroxide is used for the manufacture of
CH3CH = CH2 + HZ + Br
sodium perborate. where
CH3
(1) (A) (B), (C) and (D)
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only Z = CH3CH2O (A) or H3C C O (B),
(3) (A), (C) and (D) only CH3
(4) (A) and (C) only
12 JEE Main 2020

ks and ke, are, respectively, the rate constants for (D) If the D0 for an octahedral complex of Co(III) is 18,000
ks cm–1, the Dt for its tetrahedral complex with the same
substitution and elimination, and m= , the correct
ke ligand will be 16,000 cm–1.
option is .
(1) (A) and (D) only
(2) (C) and (D) only
(1) mB > mA and ke(A) > ke(B)
(3) (A) and (B) only
(2) mA > mB and ke(B) > ke(A) (4) (B) and (C) only
(3) mB > mA and ke(B) > ke(A) 34. Consider the following reactions:
(A) anhyd. AlCl3
(4) mA > mB and ke(A) > ke(B)
+ Cl
30. The correct order of stability for the following alkoxides is:
O– O– O–
O2 N
NO2 NO2
(A) (B) (C)
(B) anhyd. AlCl3
+ Cl2(excess)
dark
(1) (B) > (A) > (C)
(2) (C) > (B) > (A)
Cl Cl
(3) (C) > (A) > (B)
(4) (B) > (C) > (A) Cl Cl
31. The number of possible optical isomers for the complexes
MA2B2 with sp3 and dsp2 hybridized metal atom, Cl Cl
respectively, is: (C) anhyd.
+ CH2= CH – Cl
AlCl3
Note: A and B are unidentate neutral and unidentate
monoanionic ligands, respectively.
(1) 0 and 2 (2) 2 and 2 CH = CH2
(3) 0 and 0 (4) 0 and 1
32. A chromatography column, packed with silica gel as (D) anhyd.
stationary phase, was used to separate a mixture of + CH2 = CH – CH2Cl
AlCl3
compounds consisting of (A) benzanilide (B) aniline and
(C) acetophenone. When the column is eluted with a
CH2 – CH = CH2
mixture of solvents, hexane: ethyl acetate (20:80), the
sequence of obtained compounds is:
Which of these reactions are possible ?
(1) (B), (C) and (A) (1) (A) and (B)
(2) (B), (A) and (C) (2) (A) and (D)
(3) (C), (A) and (B) (3) (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B) and (D)
33. Among the statements (A)-(D), the incorrect ones are: 35. The equation that is incorrect is:
(A) Octahedral Co(III) complexes with strong field ligands
have very high magnetic moments.
(1) (L 0
)
m NaBr ( ) = (L ) - (L )
- L 0m
NaCl
0
m KBr
0
m KCl

(B) When D0 < P, the d-electron configuration of Co(III)in (2) (L 0

)
m KCl - (L ) = (L ) - (L )
0
m NaCl
0
m KBr
0
m NaBr
4 2
an octahedral complex is t 2geg .
(3) (L 0
)
m HO = (L ) + (L )
0
m HCl - (L ) 0
m NaOH
0
m NaCl
(C) Wavelength of light absorbed by [Co(en) ]3+ is
3 lower 2

than that of [CoF6 ]3–. (4) (L 0

)
m NaBr - (L ) = (L ) - (L )
0
m Nal
0
m KBr
0
m NaBr
07-01-2020 (Evening Shift) 13

36. In the following reaction sequence, structures of A and B, A

B
respectively will be: C
O no. of
HBr Na
A (Intramolecular Product) B molecules
D Ether

CH2Br
speed
(1) Br CH2Br
Root mean square speed (Vrms); most probable speed
OH (Vmp); average speed (Vav)
&
O – V (1) A mp; B – Vrms; C – Vav
CH2Br
– V (2) A av; B – Vrms; C – Vmp
(2) OH OH
– V (3) A rms; B – Vmp; C – Vav

Br – V (4) A mp ; B – Vav ; C – Vrms

&
39. The refining method used when the metal and the impurities
CH2Br
have low and high melting temperatures, respectively, is:
(3) OH OH (1) liquation (2) vapour phase refining
Br (3) zone refining (4) distillation
&
40. The ammonia (NH ) 3released on quantitative reaction of
CH2Br
0.6 g urea (NH2CONH2) with sodium hydroxide (NaOH)
(4) Br Br can be neutralized by:
OH (1) 200 mL of 0.4 N HCl
& O (2) 200 mL of 0.2 N HCl
CH2Br (3) 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl
37. In the following reaction sequence, (4) 100 mL of 0.1 N HCl

NH2 41. Within each pair of elements F & Cl, S & Se, and Li & Na,
respectively, the elements that release more energy upon an
Ac2O Br2 electron gain are:
A B
AcOH
(1) Cl, Se and Na (2) Cl, S and Li
, S an(d3)LiF (4) F, Se and Na
CH3
42. The bond order and the magnetic characteristics of CN– are:
the major product B is: 1
(1) 2 , diamagnetic
(1) NHCOCH3 (2) NHCOCH3 2
Br Br (2) 3, diamagnetic
(3) 3, paramagnetic
1
(4) 2 , paramagnetic
2
CH3 CH2Br
43. For the reaction
(3) NHCOCH3 (4) NHCOCH3 2H2(g) + 2NO(g) Æ N2(g) + 2H2O(g) the observed rate
COCH3 expression is, rate = kf[NO]2 [H2]. The rate expression for
the reverse reaction is:
Br (1) kb[N2][H2O]2
CH3 CH3 (2) kb[N2][H2O]2/[NO]
(3) kb[N2][H2O]
38. Identify the correct labels of A, B and C in the following
graph from the options given below: (4) kb[N2][H2O]2/[H2]
14 JEE Main 2020

44. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Gluconic acid can form cyclic (acetal/hemiacetal)
structure
(2) Gluconic acid is a dicarboxylic acid
(3) Gluconic acid is a partial oxidation product of glucose
(4) Gluconic acid is obtained by oxidation of glucose with
HNO3
45. Two open beakers one containing a solvent and the other
containing a mixture of that solvent with a non volatile
solute are together sealed in a container. Over time:
(1) the volume of the solution increases and the volume of
the solvent decreases
(2) the volume of the solution decreases and the volume of
the solvent increases
(3) the volume of the solution and the solvent does not
change
(4) the volume of the solution does not change and the
volume of the solvent decreases
46. Consider the following reactions:
NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 Æ (A) + Side products (Conc.)
(A) + NaOH Æ (B) + Side products
(B) + H2SO4 + H2O2Æ (C) + Side products (dilute)
The sum of the total number of atoms in one molecule each
of (A), (B) and (C) is .
47. The number of sp2 hybridised carbons present in
“Aspartame” is .
48. The standard heat of formation ( D H0 ) off 298
ethane
(in kJ/mol), if the heat of combustion of ethane, hydrogen
and graphite are –1560, –393.5 and –286 kJ/mol,
respectively is .
49. The flocculation value of HCl for arsenic sulphide sol. is
30 m mol L–1. If H2SO4 is used for the flocculation of
arsenic sulphide, the amount, in grams, of H2SO4 in 250
mL required for the above purpose is .
(molecular mass of H2SO4 = 98 g/mol)
50. 3 g of acetic acid is added to 250 mL of 0.1 M HCI and
the solution made up to 500 mL. To 20 mL of this solution
1 mL of 5 M NaOH is added. The pH of the solution
2
is .
[Given: pKa of acetic acid = 4.75, molar mass of acetic
acid = 60 g/mol, log 3 = 0.4771]
Neglect any changes in volume.

MATHEMATICS

51. Let a , b and c be three unit vectors such (1) –513 (2) –171

that a + b + c = 0. if 511
(3) 171 (4)
3
 = a b + b  c + c  a and
54. The value of c in the Lagrange’s mean value theorem for
d = a  b + b  c + c  a, then
the function f(x) = x3 – 4x2 + 8x + 11, when x Œ[0,1] is:
( )
the ordered pair, , d is equal to:
4- 5 4- 7
(1) (2)
(1)  ,3a  c  (2)  − ,3c  b 
3 3 3 3
2   2  2 7- 2
(3) (4)
(3)  , 3b  c   (4)  − , 3a  b 
3 3 3 3
2   2  7 10
55. The coefficient of x in the expression (1 + x) + x(l + x)
9

52. The locus of the mid-points of the perpendiculars drawn + x2(l + x)8 + ... + x10 is:
from points on the line, x = 2y to the line x = y is: (1) 210 (2) 330
(1) 2x – 3y = 0 (3) 120 (4) 420
(2) 5x – 7y = 0 56. The area (in sq. units) of the region
(3) 3x – 2y = 0 {(x, y) ŒR2|4x2 £ y £ 8x + 12} is:
(4) 7x – 5y = 0 125 128
(1) (2)
53. Let a1, a2, a3, ... be a G. P. such that a1 < 0, a1 + a2 = 4 and 3 3
9 124 127
a3 + a 4 = 16. If  ai = 4l, then l is equal to: (3) (4)
i=1 3 3
07-01-2020 (Evening Shift) 15

57. In a workshop, there are five machines and the probability (1) If A Õ C, then A Õ B and B Õ D
1 (2) If A Õ C, then B Ã A or D Ã B
of any one of them to be out of service on a day is . If the
4 (3) If A Õ C, then A Õ B and B Õ D
probability that at most two machines will be out of service
(4) If A Õ C, then A Õ B or B Õ D
3
Ê3 ˆ 63. Let the tangents drawn from the origin to the circle, x2 + y2
on the same day is Á ˜ k, then k is equal to:
Ë4 ¯
– 8x – 4y + 16 = 0 touch it at the points A and B. The (AB)2
17 17 is equal to:
(1) (2)
8 4 52 56
(1) (2)
17 5 5
(3) (4) 4
2 64 32
(3) (4)
58. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 5 such that x = ±1 are 5 5

Ê f (x) ˆ 64. Let a and b be the roots of the equation x2 – x – l = 0. If pk

its critical points. If lim Á2 + 3 ˜ = 4, then which one of
xÆ 0 Ë x ¯ = (a) +k (b) , kk ≥ l, then which one of the following
the following is not true ? statements is not true ?
(1) f is an odd function. (1) p3 = p5 – p4
(2) f(l) – 4f(–l) = 4. (2) P5 = 11
(3) x = 1 is a point of maxima and x = –1 is a point of (3) (p1 + p2 + p3 + p4 + p5) = 26
minima of f. (4) p5 = p2 ◊p3
(4) x = 1 is a point of minima and x = –1 is a point of 2

maxima of f. 65. The value of a for which 4a Úe -a|x|dx = 5 , is :

-1
y2x2
59. If 3x + 4y = 12 2 is a tangent to the ellipse + =1 3ˆ
a2 9 (1) log 2e (2) log Ê
eÁË2˜¯
for some a ŒR, then the distance between the foci of the
ellipse is: 4ˆ
(3) loge 2 (4) log Ê
eÁË3˜¯
(1) 2 7 (2) 4
(3) 2 5 (4) 2 2 66. The number of ordered pairs (r, k) for which 6.35Cr = (k2 –
3).36Cr + 1, where k is an integer, is:
3 + i sin q
60. If ,q Œ[0, 2p], is a real number, then an argument (1) 3 (2) 2
4 - i cosq
of sinq + icosq is: (3) 6 (4) 4
67. If the sum of the first 40 terms of the series, 3 + 4 + 8 + 9 +
(1) p - tan -1 ÊÁˆ˜ (2) p - tan -1 ÊÁˆ˜
4 3
Ë3 ¯ Ë4 ¯ 13 + 14 + 18 +19 + ... is (102)m, then m is equal to:
(1) 20 (2) 25
Ê3 ˆ Ê4 ˆ
(3) - tan -1 Á ˜ (4) tan -1 Á ˜ (3) 5 (4) 10
Ë 4¯ Ë 3¯
68. Let y = y(x) be a function of x satisfying
61. Let y = y(x) be the solution curve of the differential
y 1 - x2 = k – x 1 - y2 where k is a constant and
dy
equation, (
y2 - x )
dx
= 1, satisfying y(0) = 1. This curve Ê1 ˆ 1
y Á ˜ = - .Then
dy 1
at x = , is equal to:
Ë2 ¯ 4 dx 2
intersects the x-axis at a point whose abscissa is:
(1) 2 – e (2) – e 5 5
(1) - (2) -
4 2
(3) 2 (4) 2 + e
2 5
62. Let A, B, C and D be four non-empty sets. The contrapositive (3) (4)
5 2
statement of “If A Õ B and B Õ D, then A Õ C ” is:
16 JEE Main 2020

69. If q1 and q2 be respectively the smallest and the largest 73. Let X = {n ŒN: l £ n £ 50}.If
values of q in (0,2p) – {p} which satisfy the equation, A = {n ŒX: n is a multiple of 2} and
2
5 B = {n ΠX: n is a multiple of 7}, then the number of
2cot 2 − + 4 = 0 , then  cos 23q dq is equalto:
sin  elements in the smallest subset of X containing both A and
1
2p B is .
p
(1) (2)
3 3 74. If the system of linear equations,
p 1 p x+y+z=6
(3) + (4)
3 6 9
x + 2y + 3z = 10
70. Let A = [aij] and B = [bij] be two 3 ¥ 3 real matrices such
3x + 2y + l z = m
that bij = (3)(i + j – 2) aij, where i, j = 1, 2, 3. If the determinant
has more than two solutions, then m– l is equal2 to .
of B is 81, then the determinant of A is:
(1) 1/3 (2) 3
(3) 1/81 (4) 1/9
75. If the function f defined on Ê-Á , ˆ˜ by
1 1
71. If the mean and variance of eight numbers 3, 7, 9, 12, 13, Ë 3 3¯
20, x and y be 10 and 25 respectively, then x ◊y is equal to
log Ê1+ ˆ , when x π 0
Ï1 3x
. f(x) = ÌÔx e ÁË1 - 2x ˜¯ is continuous, then k is
Ô , when x = 0
72. If the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point Ók
(1, 0, 3) on a line passing through (a, 7, 1) is ÊÁ , , ˆ˜ ,
5 7 17 equal to .
Ë3 3 3 ¯
then  is equal to .
28 JEE Main 2020

25. An asteroid is moving directly towards the centre of the

C1 C2 C3 T
earth. When at a distance of 10 R (R is the radius of the
1l 2l -- 60°C
earth) from the earths centre, it has a speed of 12 km/s.
– 1l 2l 30°C Neglecting the effect of earths atmosphere, what will be
2l -- 1l 60°C the speed of the asteroid when it hits the surface of the
1l 1l 1l q earth (escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/ s)? Give
The value of q (in °C to the nearest integer) is . your answer to the nearest integer in kilometer/s .

CHEMISTRY

26. The major product in the following reaction is: 29. Forthe followingAssertion and Reason, the correct optionis:
O Assertion: For hydrogenation reactions, the catalytic
activity increases from Group 5 to Group 11 metals with
+ H3O
maximum activity shown by Group 7-9 elements.
CH3 Reason: The reactants are most strongly adsorbed on
group 7-9 elements.
(1) O
(1) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(2) Both assertion and reason are false.
CH3 (3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the
HO
correct explanation for the assertion.
(2) OH OH
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not
the correct explanation for the assertion.
CH3 30. Two monomers in maltose are:
(3) O (1) a-D-glucose and b-D-glucose
(2) a-D-glucose and a-D-galactose
OH (3) a-D-glucose and a-D-fructose
CH3
(4) a-D-glucose and a-D-glucose
(4) OH
31. Preparation of Bakelite proceeds via reactions:
(1) Electrophilic addition and dehydration
CH3 (2) Condensation and elimination

27. Among the reactions (a) - (d), the reaction(s) that does/do (3) Electrophilic substitution and dehydration
not occur in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron (4) Nucleophilic addition and dehydration
is/are: 32. The radius of the second Bohr orbit, in terms of the Bohr
(a) CaO + SiO2 Æ CaSiO3 radius, a0, in Li2+ is:
(b) 3Fe2O3 + CO Æ 2Fe3O4 + CO2 2a0 4a0
(1) (2)
3 9
(c) FeO + SiO2 Æ FeSiO3
4a0 2a0
1 (3) (4)
(d) FeO Æ Fe + O 2 3 9
2
(1) (a) (2) (a) and (d)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (d) 33. A metal (A) on heating in nitrogen gas gives compound B.
B on treatment with H2O gives a colourless gas which
28. Hydrogen has three isotopes (A), (B) and (C). If the number
when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a dark blue-
of neutron(s) in (A), (B) and (C) respectively, are (x), (y)
violet coloured solution. A and B respectively, are:
and (z), the sum of (x), (y) and (z) is:
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) Na and NaNO3 (2) Na and Na3N
(3) 4 (4) 1 (3) Mg and Mg3N2 (4) Mg and Mg (NO3)2
Another random document with
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The Project Gutenberg eBook of The conquest of
cancer
This ebook is for the use of anyone anywhere in the United States
and most other parts of the world at no cost and with almost no
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Title: The conquest of cancer

Author: H. W. S. Wright

Author of introduction, etc.: F. G. Crookshank

Release date: October 25, 2023 [eBook #71960]

Language: English

Original publication: London: Kegan Paul, Trench, Trubner & Co,

1925

Credits: Tim Lindell, Donald Cummings and the Online Distributed

Proofreading Team at https://www.pgdp.net (This book was
produced from images made available by the HathiTrust
Digital Library.)

*** START OF THE PROJECT GUTENBERG EBOOK THE

CONQUEST OF CANCER ***
THE CONQUEST OF CANCER
TO-DAY AND TO-MORROW
A List of the Contents of
this Series will be found
at the end of this volume
 THE
CONQUEST OF CANCER
BY

H. W. S. WRIGHT, M.S., F.R.C.S.

With an Introduction by

F. G. CROOKSHANK, M.D., F.R.C.P.

“Malum immedicabile cancer.” (Ovid, Met. x, 127)

London
KEGAN PAUL, TRENCH, TRUBNER & CO., LTD.
New York: E. P. DUTTON & CO.
1925
 Printed in Great Britain by
F. Robinson & Co., at The Library Press, Lowestoft
 THE CONQUEST OF CANCER

INTRODUCTION
The phrase “Conquest of Cancer”, though perhaps emotive rather
than scientific, nevertheless implies the existence of a very real and
important problem. And this problem, it may be confidently affirmed,
is one that will never be solved, in action, by the efforts of the
medical profession alone. Whatever be the future, and as yet
reserved, revelations of Science, and whatever the further
developments of Art, cancer will not cease to exact its toll unless
medical science and art obtain the intelligent co-operation of an
instructed public. It is for this reason that it has been thought useful
to place before the public this little book, written by a practical
surgeon who has given special attention to the problems of the
laboratory. The book itself, which not only states in simple language
the essential points that should be comprehended by the public, but
puts forward a plan for concerted action, is based upon one of a
series of University Extension lectures given during the winter of
1922–23, at the Shantung Christian University, Tsinan, China, where
Mr Wright is actively engaged in the Surgical Department of the
School of Medicine.

The task of prefacing this essay by some words of introduction has

devolved upon the present writer, not because he either has, or
desires to present, any claim to speak with special authority
concerning Cancer, but by reason of a close personal and
professional friendship that has led him to appreciate very warmly
the knowledge, the sincerity, and the disinterestedness that
characterize Mr Wright’s thought and work. And he is confident that
we may accept what has been said about Cancer at Shantung as an
honest and candid attempt to instruct and to construct, in
detachment from the pribbles and prabbles that have sometimes
confused discussion nearer home.
Now, although the public has the undoubted right to demand
information on this subject, and although, as has been suggested,
without admission of the public to the arena of discussion little can
be done to diminish the present mortality from Cancer, yet is there
real difficulty in communicating knowledge, without engendering
unnecessary fear and alarm and sending the hypochondriac to those
quacks and charlatans who diagnose non-existent disease in order
that they may reap reward by announcing its cure.
Some weaker minds there will always be: so, whenever attention
is directed towards some public danger, there are those who adopt
the possible contingency as a peg on which to hang some ragged
vestment of distracted emotion or thought. Thirty years ago, the
insane feared the telephone: during the Boer War, many thought that
the “scouts were after them”; now-a-days lunatics babble of
persecution by wireless, by Bolsheviks, or even by psycho-analysts.
So, in Victorian times, the malades imaginaires who then thronged
consulting rooms spoke with bated breath of Bright’s disease: to-day,
the hysterical secretly hope to hear the blessed word “Colitis”, and
the hypochondriac as secretly dread the verdict of “Cancer”!
The task of the medical profession is to enlighten the laymen, that
their help may be enlisted, and yet to avoid alike exaggeration and
smooth sayings, false hopes and false fears. Macaulay, in a familiar
passage, once said that there is nothing more ridiculous than the
British public in one of its periodical fits of morality. At present, the
British Public is less concerned than formerly with questions of
morality, but is very much concerned with questions of health.
Perhaps it is not so much health that is sought and desired as
absence of pain and avoidance of death—which is not quite the
same thing. But, though there is nothing intrinsically ridiculous in
seeking the “advancement of morality” or the “conquest of disease”,
the one, no less than the other, may be pursued in a ridiculous and
dangerous manner.
 The adoption of ill-conceived measures, designed to improve
morals or to abolish disease, may, and often does entail
consequences that are even less desirable than the evils it is hoped
to combat. While the prohibition of the consumption or sale of
alcoholic drinks may diminish certain ills, it has yet to be shewn that
the casting out of devils in the name of Beelzebub may not be
followed by possession with others yet more violent. A few years ago
we were adjured to boil all milk, lest we became poisoned by certain
microbes: we are now told that, if all milk be boiled, we are as if
deprived of vitamines, and must suffer accordingly. Instances might
be multiplied; but it should be obvious that moral and physical health
must be considered, not as physical objects, but as relations, or
states of equilibrium. Like all states of adjustment or equilibrium, they
are the result of accommodation: of poise and counterpoise. They
are not always and everywhere to be secured by the throwing of a
certain weight into one or other scalepan, or by the cutting-off so
many inches from the table-leg that seems the longest. So much, at
least, should be recognised by a seriously disturbed public told by
the daily press that so many more people than formerly now die of
cancer; that science has not yet discovered the “cause of cancer”;
but that all may be well if only we live on Nebuchadnezzar food
washed down by paraffin.
Mr Wright’s essay, combining as it does a well-balanced and
sufficient statement of what is known, with the outline of a
constructive proposition that merits careful consideration, and at
least indicates to the public the kind of way in which relative safety
may be obtained under present conditions, seems one that is
eminently suitable for what may be called general reading. The
problem is fairly and lucidly presented: the resources of surgery are
quietly and reasonably demonstrated: and the advantages are
shown of exhibiting that kind of prudence which leads the business
man to seek auditing of his accounts and the sportsman to enquire
how his score stands. But some words may perhaps be added from
the standpoint of one who is a physician, and no surgeon.
 Cancer is a class name given to certain kinds of growths,
otherwise spoken of as tumours (or swellings) and ulcers, which are,
as we say, characterised by malignancy. A growth, tumour, or ulcer
which is not malignant is not called a cancer. By malignancy we
mean a tendency to spread, by local and direct extension (as
spreads a fire), or by convection, as when sparks fly from a
locomotive to a haystack. Malignant tumours or ulcers tend to recur
when removed, and, in the long run, to destroy life.
These general features are associated with certain microscopical
characters found in the tumours or ulcers, so that the nature of any
growth—whether malignant or otherwise—can be sometimes
determined by the surgeon or physician, and sometimes by the
pathologist or microscopist alone, but, as a rule, is most certainly
settled by the physician or surgeon acting in conjunction with the
microscopist. Yet, and this is important, not every cancer does
actually destroy life. Surgeons of the greatest experience, such as
the late Sir Alfred Pearce-Gould, have affirmed that undoubted
cancers do occasionally undergo spontaneous cure, or at least
arrest of growth, even in the absence of any treatment. Again, if
excision is practised early, and sufficiently extensively, recurrence
does not happen, in a certain proportion of cases. Finally, pain is no
necessary or inevitable concomitant of cancer. In many cases pain is
absent, or almost so; death may be due to mechanical
consequences entailed by the growth rather than to destruction of
any vital or sensitive part.
Now, medical men are in the habit of splitting up the group or class
of malignant growths (or “cancers”) into two subsidiary groups or
classes. One of these is named Sarcoma; the other Carcinoma.
Sarcoma is the name given to a group of malignant growths taking
origin in the structures and tissues developed from the “middle layer”
of the embryo: the growths themselves—sarcomata—partake the
nature of the tissues formed from this middle layer. The other group,
of carcinomata, consists of growths taking origin in, and partaking
the nature of one or other of the two remaining embryonic layers and
the structures developed from them.
These two layers form respectively:
 (1) The skin and related structures, and
(2) The lining of the tube passing through the body; its backwaters,
out-growths and appendages.
It is these two layers which, as Mr Wright so aptly remarks, are in
direct contact with the outer world. Now, while the carcinomata
(which constitute the class of cancers chiefly discussed in this book)
in general affect people who have passed the midpoint of life—those
for whom, as Rabelais says, it is midi passé—the sarcomata, which
are less common than the carcinomata, are rather more frequently,
yet not exclusively, found in young people; in those indeed, who
have not reached life’s apogee. It is important that these facts should
be borne in mind, for generalisations founded upon the study of
carcinomata alone cannot be necessarily true in respect of all
Cancer, unless the use of the term cancer be restricted to the class
technically known as carcinoma. To say that Cancer can be
prevented if constipation is avoided is clearly misleading, when we
remember that quite young children, nay, infants, may be the subject
of sarcoma; unless of course we define cancer, as some would do,
as the kind of growth that, ex hypothesi, is prevented when
constipation is avoided. It is confusion of this sort, bred by slovenly
expression out of loose thinking, that is in great part responsible for
the present bewilderment of the public.
Another fertile source of confusion is the obscurity that attends
both the popular and the professional use of the words “cause”,
“causation”, and the like. The public demands that “the” cause of
cancer be discovered, and is prepared to pay generously that this
discovery be made. Unfortunately neither the public, nor men of
science, care overmuch to discuss what they mean by cause and
causation. This is no place in which to trench upon a province
unsuccessfully explored by Locke, by Hume, and by Kant. Yet it is of
vital importance that all doctors, scientists, and laymen should
recognise two different uses of these words.
When we speak about “the” cause of a “disease”, in a generalised
or conceptual sense, as when we say that Koch’s bacillus is “the
cause of tuberculosis”, we are really defining our concept of the
disease in terms of one correlative. We are saying that tuberculosis
is a disease in which Koch’s bacillus is invariably present. A circulus
in definiendo is only just escaped because we happen to know that,
if Koch’s bacillus is injected into certain animals, the “disease” as we
say, develops. Koch’s bacillus is the one constant correlative found
in all cases of the kind that we agree to call tuberculous, by reason
of certain clinical and pathological signs that we find. Possibly even
this statement is not to be taken as absolutely true; though it
represents what we find it convenient to say. But, when we thus
declare Koch’s bacillus to be “the” cause of tuberculosis, we have by
no means exhausted the study of all the correlations that may be
called causal in respect of particular cases. Of ten cases of
tuberculosis, each one exhibiting Koch’s bacillus, we may say that
for each particular case “the” cause of the illness is different.
Thus:
A. is tuberculous because he was gassed in France;
B. is tuberculous because he was infected by his sick wife;
C. is tuberculous because he drank tuberculous milk;
D. is tuberculous because he worked in an ill-ventilated factory;
E. because he was exposed to wet and cold; and
F. because he drank and was dirty.
The difference between a medical cause in the generalised sense,
(where cause means a defining correlative for a concept), and a
medical cause in the particular sense (when we seek to find out or
state the antecedent without which this man would not be as he is
here and now) is one of enormous importance, and one that should
be constantly borne in mind when discussion is commenced. It is
true that it involves the oldest of logical and metaphysical problems
in respect of scientific thought—the question of universals and
particulars; but that does not make it any the more easily shirked. Its
relevance to the question of cancer is this: that the proof of the
production of cancer in men or in animals under one set of
circumstances does not warrant us in saying that that set of
circumstances as known to us involves all the factors without which
cancer cannot occur. And, even if research work demonstrated that,
in every case now called cancer, some parasite or growth-form,
some irritating factor that can be isolated, does actually obtain,
unless it could be shewn that this parasite or factor is never found
except where there is cancer as we now define it, we should have to
proceed to investigate why and how cancer does not always occur
when this factor is present. Just so are we at present seeking to
explain why and how, of so many persons exposed to infection by
Koch’s bacillus, only certain ones do become diseased. If we find
that only those persons who possess a character that we may call
“X” become infected, we shall then have to say that, not Koch’s
bacillus, but the character “X” is “the” cause of tuberculosis. It is thus
that science progresses: not by making the absolute and positive
discoveries that the public is taught to expect, but by arranging and
rearranging our experiential knowledge, as such grows, in terms of
so-called laws and generalisations, that are found progressively
convenient. But such laws and generalisations are not necessarily
the one more “true” than the other, except in relation to the
knowledge that they summarize. If such considerations as these
were more frequently borne in mind, there would be less
unconscious deception, less disappointment, and greater economy
in work and thought.
Explanations of the causation of cancer have been sought in many
directions; and three chief theories have been set out. The most
important, and the most interesting from the point of view of the
practising physician, is that which considers cancer as provoked by
long continued irritation under certain circumstances. This doctrine
seems more “true” in respect of the Carcinomata—the cancers of the
adult and the old, and of tissues in contact with the extra-personal
world—than it is in respect of the Sarcomata—the cancers of the
young, and of those inner parts not exposed to irritation by contact
with the world. Yet sarcomata in real life do often seem to follow
injury, and the tissues in which they form may be obnoxious to
injurious influences of which we know nothing.
Another view is that cancer may be due to a parasite of some kind
or another. Certainly, so far as some lower animals are concerned,
this is true, for certain rat and mice cancers are now known definitely
to be associated with parasites. But then we may say, and properly,
that in such cases the parasites are merely acting as do other
irritants, and are not “specific” causes of cancer.
The third doctrine, or set of doctrines, regards cancers as arising
when parts of the body (or rather, elements in the tissues of certain
parts) no longer act in due subordination to the needs of the whole
organism, but comport themselves “anti-socially”: developing
irregularly; propagating themselves illegitimately; and so becoming
parasitic to the commonwealth of the body. Those who hold this will
admit that, in many cases, this revolutionary tendency is one
provoked by irritation and the like: that sometimes it is a mere
manifestation of irregular decay; and that, when it occurs in young
subjects, it is because some islets of tissue have become misplaced,
tucked away, ill-formed, and hampered in development, and so liable
to provoke trouble later under stress of greater or less urgency. Such
a view has much plausibility; there are flaws in a steel girder; there
are tucked-in edges in even the best bound book, and there are
developmental errors in most of us.
Moreover, there is Dr Creighton’s doctrine of physiological
resistance. A part not put to its proper use is more apt than another
to become cancerous. Certainly, unmarried women are more liable
than are married to suffer cancer of the breast or ovary. Yet married
women are more apt than unmarried to suffer cancer of the womb.
Are we to say that in these latter there has been physiological
misuse, or irritation produced by unhealthy child-bearing? So far is
the problem removed from simplicity!
On the other hand, it is certainly as true as ever, that the gods still
cancel a sense misused, and, if we leave out of account for the
moment the cases in which cancer seems due to developmental
error—and who can say whether even then a child does not suffer
vicariously for some physiological transgression by its parents?—the
doctrine that cancer is due to irritation, whether produced by a clay
pipe, hot drinks, constipation, or crude paraffin, does not really tell us
much more than that. The difficulty is this: How to walk in the way of
physiological righteousness, and how to preach it, without falling into
a dogmatism as stupid as unbelief? Mr Wright tells us how, in
medieval times, the Church declared cancer of the tongue to be
sometimes a judgment on sinners for their blasphemy. Well, I for
one, am not prepared to limit the “misuse” that entails physical
disease and suffering to misuse in the material, or physiological
sense. Organs, through the nerves of the “sympathetic”, are directly
connected with the play of emotions and of feeling-states. I am not
sure that investigation would not shew a correlation—sometimes—
between certain persistent and voluntary mental states (morbid
mental states, that is) and the development of cancer in certain
organs. The “argument” that cancer is infrequent in lunatic asylums,
where the majority are mindless rather than wrongly thoughtful,
evades the question.
The quest for a single causal factor, whose “discovery” will lead us
to “abolish cancer”, is then, it would seem, just one more hunt for the
philosopher’s stone. Yet, to use the formula of “right living” does not
seem to be merely a verbal solution of the difficulty.
If we agree that to live rightly is the best insurance we can make
against cancer, we are probably stating, as compendiously as
possible, all we do and shall ever know, in respect of the causation
of cancer. It is then our duty to ascertain how to live rightly in every
sense of the word, and we may so come to realise that almost every
one of what we call the blessings of civilisation has been purchased
at the expense, in some respect, of right living. For this, heavy
interest has to be paid, and even the efforts of science to put matters
right seem too often not more than the borrowing of fresh capital to
pay off old debts. It is right to call attention to the fact that certain
“uncivilised” races, who live healthily and naturally in respect of food,
drink, and sexual activity, do not suffer from cancer. But it is wrong to
suggest that therefore we should adopt either their dietetic or their
sexual customs. What is one man’s meat is another man’s poison.
Adjustment to our surroundings, right living here and now is what we
need. Though Papuans and Sikhs may be very properly adjusted in
their contexts, it is not their adjustments that may best suit our
cases.
 This problem—that of right living—is the problem of prevention of
cancer put upon the broadest basis. But, until or unless we work this
out, we have to consider how best to avail ourselves of the
knowledge already in our possession. Herein is one merit of Mr
Wright’s plan. He tells people what, in his judgment, they can best
do, here and now. It is a plan to be discussed; but, let it be clearly
understood, it is one submitted by the author for individual
consideration and action. Supposing it to be found, on analysis and
trial, of real value, a cry might at once be raised for its putting into
execution by central or local provision of the necessary facilities: at
first for voluntary acceptance, then for compulsory adoption. Nothing
could be a greater error. In matters of health what is advantageous
for the individual is often not so, or even grossly disadvantageous,
for the State.
Let every member of the State have the opportunity to avail
himself or herself of what Science and Art can do for him: let none
who has the will suffer because he has not the means. But the too
easy provision of means for the avoidance of consequences of
neglect does, very seriously, put a premium on neglect and penalise
those who themselves make effort in the right direction. Again: hard
on individuals though it would seem, there is a very real racial
advantage in the elimination—natural and inevitable, unless we
interfere—of those who will not take advantage of opportunities
offered them. We are not automata: we exercise choice; when the
opportunity of choosing rightly is offered us, if then we choose
wrongly, we have no right to demand escape from the
consequences, at the expense of others.
At any rate, if the facts relating to Cancer are plainly stated, every
man has but himself to blame if he shrink from obtaining such
diagnosis and treatment, as is now available, at the earliest moment.
It were better still that he avoid from the beginning all what we know
to be predisposing causes of cancer: all the errors of omission and
commission in respect of the physiological and spiritual—or physical
and psychical—functions and relations of his Self.
It is the principle, the pursuit of the unattainable ideal, that really
counts. The simple injunction to eat greens and take paraffin is the
physiological counterpart of seeking to make people moral by act of
Parliament, religious by church-going, and intelligent by attendance
at evening lectures. But even if we make all possible effort, we
cannot all hope to escape, and the necessity for seeking early
diagnosis when things go not well is as imperative as is true the
maxim that “A stitch in time saves nine”.
There is perhaps one more question that may be touched upon:
that of the so-called increase of cancer. It is commonly stated that
cancer is increasing: it is as commonly asked if this is really so. As a
matter of fact, the question (which we are usually told can be only
answered by statisticians) is one that statisticians can only answer
when we have agreed what they are to understand by it. And that is
not so easy as may be at first thought.
It is certainly true that, in the British Isles, the number of deaths
certified each year as due to cancer of one form or another is
gradually and steadily increasing, both absolutely and relatively to
the population. But then we have in the first place, to consider
whether cancer is not diagnosed more frequently in ratio to the
cases seen than was formerly the case, and, in the second, to
remember that cancer is, on the whole, a disease suffered during the
second half of life. Now, our population is an older one than it was:
the birth-rate is falling: so many youths who would now be vigorous
men of thirty-five to forty lost their lives in the war; and lives are, on
the whole, longer than they were, owing to a diminishing liability to
suffer from certain ailments other than Cancer.
Supposing that children ceased to be born, at the same time that
the Ministry of Health succeeded in “abolishing” all diseases except
cancer, and the Home Office and Police reduced the probability of
death from accident, from homicide, and from suicide, to vanishing
point. Would we not then all die from either “old age” or from
“cancer”? If so; should we be justified in declaring that cancer had
“enormously increased” since the successful institution of control of
our own deaths and other peoples’ births?
We are, indeed, again confronted with the old problem of the one
and the many, under one of its numberless aspects. From the point