1.Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by:___________?

A. Polyhedral epithelial cells

B. Tubular / duct like cells
C. Stellate shaped cells
D. Stratified squamous epithelial cells

2. The Pathogenesis of Periapical Cyst is___________?

A. Increased pressure within the cyst

B. Immune mediated bone destruction
C. Proliferation of epithelium
D. None of the above

3. A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior
mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?

A. Reassure the patient without any treatment

B. Excise the lesion
C. Marsupialization
D. Surgical Excision

4. Multiple bilateral dentigerous cysts are seen in:___________?

A. Down’s syndrome
B. Maroteaux lamy syndrome
C. Teacher collin syndrome
D. Gorlin Goltz syndrome

5. COC is now called as:___________?

A. Odontogenic ghost cell tumor

B. Dentinogenic ghost cell tumor
C. Keratcysticodontogenic tumour
D. A & C

6. Facial nerve paralysis is common with:___________?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Epidermoid carcinoma
C. Warthin’s stumour
D. Lymphoepithelial carcinoma

7. The most aggressive and destructive cyst is:_____________?

A. Periapical cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Globulomaxillary cyst
D. Nasopalatine cyst

8. Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:

A. Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone

B. Enbloc resection
C. Enucleation
D. Enucleation with cauterization

9. The most common odontogenic cyst is:____________?

A. Primordial cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Mucocele

10. Cyst arising from dental lamina:___________________?

A. Radicular cyst
B. Paradental cyst
C. Eruption cyst
D. Glandular odontogenic cyst
11. Pindborg tumor arises from:_________?

A. Basal layer of cells

B. Stratum intermedium
C. Stratum corneum
D. Dental lamina
E. Both B & D

12. A 36 year old man with an asymptomatic swelling in the body of the mandible
with radiographic features of radiolucency with radiopaque flecks in suffering
from:

A. Odontogenic keratocyst
B. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor (CEOT)
C. Ameloblastoma
D. None of the above

13. Multiple periapical radiolucencies are seen in:_________?

A. Jawcyst basal cell Nevus Syndrome

B. Odontogenic keratocyst
C. Cherubism
D. thyroid disorders

14. Clear cells are commonly seen in which of the following lesions?

A. Pleomorphic
B. Warthins tumor
C. Mucoepidermoid
D. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

15. The epithelium of a dentigerous cyst is:___________?

A. 15-20 cell thick

B. 6-10 cell thick
C. 2-4 cell thick
D. 1-2 cell thick

16. Dentigerous cyst is associated with the following

A. Impacted 3rd molar

B. Impacted supernumerary tooth
C. Odontome
D. All of the above

17. A patient with ameloblastoma of the jaw can best be treated by:_____________?

A. Irradiation
B. Excision
C. Enucleation
D. Surgical removal followed by cauterization

18. After entering radiolucent lesion in a 30 years old man hollow cavity without
epithelial lining is seen, the most probable diagnosis is:__________?

A. Aneurysmal bone cyst

B. Static bone cavity
C. Memorrhagic bone cyst
D. Ameloblastoma

19. Dentigerous cyst is suspected if the follicular space is more than:

A. 2-3 mm
B. 3-4 mm
C. 1-2 mm
D. >5 mm

20. Compound odontoma shows:______________?

A. Mixed tissue of dental origin with no resemblance to tooth structure

B. Numerous tooth like structure with denticles commonly found in maxillary lateral
incisors
C. Haphazardly arranged calcified mass
D. All of the above

21. Destructively invasive locally malignant with rare metastasis, the lesion is:

A. Fibroma
B. Ameloblastoma
C. Papilloma
D. None of the above

22. Lesions associated with vital tooth?

A. condensing osteitis
B. cementoma
C. Periapical abscess
D. None of the above

23. Treatment for cementoma?

A. No treatment
B. Pulpectomy
C. Resection of jaw
D. None of the above

24. A 25 year old male patient reports with bony expansile swelling of the right
body of the mandible & mild paresthesia of the right IDN. OPG shows a multi locular
radiolucency without root resorption. What would be your choice of next
investigation?

A. Excision biopsy
B. Aspiration Cytology
C. CT Scan
D. Pet Bone scan

25. Ghost (shadow) cells are seen in:___________?

A. Amebloblastic fibroodontoma
B. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
C. Compound odontoma
D. All of the above

26. Adamantinoma is:_____________?

A. A tumour from embrynomal cells of developing teeth

B. Also known as Amebloblastoma
C. is a complication of dentigerous cyst
D. All of the above

27. Adenomatold odontogenic tumour is most commonly found in:

A. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior maxilla
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Ramus of mandible

28. Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:____________?

A. Gardner’s syndrome
B. Gorlin-Goltz syndrome
C. Goldenhar’s syndrome
D. Grinspan syndrome

29. Which histopathological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more

invasive & has a greater tendency for recurrence ?

A. Orthokeratinised
B. Parakeratinised
C. Non-Keratinised
D. Diskeratinised

30. A 40 year old woman has meloblastoma, the histomorphologic features will
be:___________?

A. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with central loose stellate reticulum

B. Peripheral palisading with central stromal retraction artefact
C. Peripheral palisading cellular strand with peripheral loose stellate reticulum
D. Central loose stellate reticulum shows marked nuclear atypia and numerous
mitotic

31. Which of the following is wrong about keratocyst:

A. Haw low recurrence rate

B. Has low protein content
C. High recurrence rate
D. B and C

32. Each of the following cyst is associated with an impacted tooth

except:___________?

A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Clacifying epithelial odontogenic cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Primordial cyst
33. Keratocyst has all of the following features except:___________?

A. It is more common in mandible

B. May be filled with thin straw coloured fluid
C. Low recurrence rate
D. Expansion of bone clinically seen

34. A multilocular cyst of the jaw is more likely:__________?

A. Dental cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Keratocyst
D. Simple bone cyst

35. The cyst with highest recurrence rate is:_____________?

A. Keratocyst
B. Periapical cyst
C. Nasoalveolar cyst
D. Globulamaxilary cyst

36. The most ideal expianation for recurrence of odontogenic keratocyst

is:____________?

A. Increased mitotic activity of the epithelial lining

B. Friability of the epithelial lining
C. Presence of satellite cysts or daughter cysts
D. Continued proliferation of rests of dental lamina

37. Unicentric, non-functional, anatomically benign, clinically persistent tumor

is:___________?

A. CEOT
B. Enameloma
C. Odontoma
D. Ameloblastoma

38. Radiographic finding in pindborg tumour is:___________?

A. Sun-burst appearance
B. Onion – peel appearance
C. Driven-snow appearance
D. Cherry -blossom appearance

39. Robinson’s classification of ameloblastoma does not include:___________?

A. Multicentric
B. Non-Functional
C. Anatomically benign
D. clinically persistent

40. Primordial cyst develops:______________?

A. In place of missing teeth

B. In teeth in which crown development is completed
C. In periapical region
D. In mandibular body

41. Odontogenic keratocyst has the following feature:____________?

A. Occurs due to infection periapically
B. Is developmental in origin
C. Can be treated by aspiration
D. Has low recurrence rate

42. Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia?

A. Ameloblastoma
B. Adeno carcinoma
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. All of the above

43. One of them is not a true cyst:__________?

A. Nemorrhagic cyst
B. Median palatal
C. Globulomaxillary
D. Nasolabial

44. Which of the following is the most common lesion of the mandible?

A. Adamantinoma
B. Osteogenic sarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Osteoclastoma

45. Basal layer in primordial cyst is arranged in the form of:_________?

A. Tennis racket
B. Picket fence
C. Linear
D. Irregular

46. Nodular growth of alveolus is seen in:___________?

A. Paget’s disease
B. Osteomas
C. Cementifying fibroma
D. All of these

47. Which of the following shows the presence of cholesterol crystals:___________?

A. Keratocyst
B. Periodontal cyst
C. Aneurysmal cyst
D. Hemorrhagic cyst

48. The most common odontogenic tumour which occurs in relationto an unerupted
tooth in the anterior maxilla:____________?

A. Odontogenic adenomatoid tumour

B. Odontoma
C. Myxoma
D. Cementifying fibroma

49. Which of the following is an odontogenic tumor?

A. Arrhenoblastoma
B. Astrocytoma
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Granular cell tumor

50. Leisegang rings are found in:___________?

A. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic cyst

B. Primordial cyst
C. Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumor
D. Odontoma

51. Ameloblastoma most frequently occurs in:___________?

A. Mandibular moral region

B. Maxillary molar region
C. Mandibular premolar region
D. Maxillary premolar region

52. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws multiple basal cell nevi
and flax cerebri calcification are found in:_____________?

A. Basal cell nevus syndrome

B. Sturge weber syndrome
C. Horner syndrome
D. Hereditary internal polyposis

53. All of the following lesions may be classified as Odontogenic Tumours EXCEPT:

A. Acanthomatous ameloblastoma
B. Branchial cleft cyst
C. Myxoma
D. Simple ameloblastoma

54. Fish Net pattern is pemphigus vulgaris is seen in which of the following tests?

A. Direct immunofluorescence
B. Tzanck smear
C. FNAC
D. Histopathology

55. All of the following are inherited disorders of connective tissue EXCEPT:

A. Alport syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. McArdle’s disease

56. Xeroderma pigmentosum is characterized by:___________?

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

B. Inability to repair sunlight induced damage to DNA
C. Irregular accemulation of melanin in the basal cell layer
D. Acanthosis of epithelium with elongation of rete ridges

57. Eruption cyst:______________?

A. Transforms into dentigerous cyst

B. Regresses after eruption of the tooth
C. Is found in the place of the missing tooth
D. Is a type of dentigerous cyst

58. Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:___________?

A. Lateral periodontal cyst

B. Apical periodontal cyst
C. Gingival cyst of new born
D. Gingival cysts of adult

59. Which of the following is a true neoplasm of functional cementoblasts:

A. Periapical cemental dysplasia

B. Familial cemental dysplasia
C. Benign cementoblastoma
D. Hypercementosis

60. Compound odontoma shows on a radiograph as:____________?

A. Supernumerary teeth
B. Radiolucent and radiopaque areas
C. Masses of calcified areas
D. Distinguishable tooth – like structures

61. Subepithelial vesicles are characteristic all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Bullous pemphigoid
B. Cicatricial pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus
D. Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

62. In Cicatrial pemphigoid, which antigen is bound by IgG on the epidermal side of
the salt split skin technique:___________?

A. XVII collagen
B. Epiligrin
C. Laminin 5
D. BP antigen 1 & 2

63. Psoralane Ultraviolet A (PUVA) therapy is advised in__________?

A. Pemphigus vulgaris
B. Apthous ulcers
C. Carcinoma in situ
D. ANUG

64. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:___________?

A. Leukoplakia
B. Lichen planus
C. Aphthous ulcer
D. Oral submucous fibrosis

65. Oral lesion associated with ulcerative colitis?

A. Lichen planus
B. pyostomatitis vegentanus
C. sarcoidosis
D. Dermatitis herpetiformis
66. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is__________?

A. Autosomal Dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked Dominant
D. X-Linked recessive

67. Cafe au lait macules are seen in:___________?

A. Von Reklinghausen’s neurofibromatosis

B. Albright’s syndrome and Bloom’s syndrome
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

68. Butterfly rash is typically seen in:____________?

A. Herpes simplex
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Scleroderma
D. None of the above

69. Hydropic degeneration of the basal cell of the straturn germinativum is a

feature of___________?

A. Leukoplakia
B. Lichen planus
C. Syphilis
D. Pemphigus

70. All are diseases of skin except:

A. Erythema multiforme
B. Keratosis follicularis
C. Erythema migrans
D. Psoriasis form lesion

71. Histological clefts in lichen planus are____________?

A. Civatte bodies
B. Wickham’s Striae
C. Max – Joseph spaces
D. Auspitz’s sign

72. Which sites are characteristically affected in Stevens-Johnson syndrome?

A. Liver, spleen, pancreas

B. Conjunctive, genitalia, oral mucosa
C. Oral mucosa, lacrimal apparatus, ears
D. Parotid gland, palate, conjunctive

73. The primary cause of acantholysis in pemphigus vulgaris is___________?

A. auto immunity
B. Intercellular oedema
C. intra epithelial oedema
D. chronic alcoholism

74. A 3-year old patient has extensive vesicles on lip, tongue, oral mucous
membrane, After 2-4 days vesicles rupture at followed by pseudomembrane formation
and also some dermal lesions seen what will be the diagnosis?

A. Herpetic stomatitis
B. EM
C. ANUG
D. Steven-Johnson syndrome

75. Which is a degeneration disorder characterized by atrophic changes of the

deeper structures (e.g fat, muscle, cartilage & bone) involving one side of the
face:

A. Scleroderma
B. Parry Romberg syndrome
C. Miescher’s syndrome
D. peutz-Jeghers syndrome

76. Multiple pulp stones are seen in:_____________?

A. Down’s syndrome
B. Ehler’s Danlos syndrome
C. Marfan syndrome
D. Apert’s syndrome

77. joint erosions are not a feature of:____________?

A. Rhematoid arthritis
B. Psoriasis
C. Multicentric reticulohisticytosis
D. Systemis lupus eythematosus

78. Pathologic calcification is seen in:__________?

A. Scleroderma
B. Lichen planus
C. Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa
D. Lupus erythematosus

79. Ectodermal dysplasia is:___________?

A. Autosomal recessive
B. Autosomal dominant
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive

80. The swollen degenerating epithelial cell due to acantholysis is:__________?

A. Anitschow cell
B. Tzanck cell
C. Ghost cell
D. Prickle cell

81. Lupus erythematosus is:____________?

A. Reactive lesion
B. Degenerative condition
C. Autoimmune disorder
D. Neoplastic condition

82. Bullae formation after striking an intact skin/mucosal surface is known

as:__________?

A. Tinel’s sign
B. Bablnski’s sign
C. Nikolsky’s sign
D. Chovstek’s sign

83. Primary lesion in lichen planus is:___________?

A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Vesicle
D. Bulla

84. Oral diagnostic features of scleroderma include all of the following,

except:__________?

A. A hard and a rigid tongue

B. Widening of the oral aperture
C. Pseudo ankylosis of the T.M joint
D. Difficulty in swallowing

85. White radiating lines can be observed in case of lesions of:___________?

A. Lichen planus
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus
D. Leukoplakia

86. In which of the following disorders a circulating antibody directed to

intercellular cementing substance of stratified squamous epithelium is
observed:_________?

A. Lichen planus
B. Verrucous vulgaris
C. Bullous pemphigoid
D. Pemphigus vulgari

87. Steven-Johnson syndrome involves:____________?

A. Type I hypersensitivity reactions

B. Type II hypersensitivity reactions
C. Type III hypersensitivity reactions
D. Type IV hypersensitivity reactions

88. Mucocutaneous lesions associated with neoplasia____________?

A. pemphigus vegentans
B. Parapemphigus
C. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
D. familial benign pemphigus

89. Formation of multiple pinpoint bleeding spots on scratching the skin is

characteristic of:__________?

A. pemphigus vulgaris
B. Lupus erythematosus
C. Psoriasis
D. Herpangina
90. Psoriasis is associated with:____________?

A. Geographic tongue
B. Benign median rhomboid glossitis
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. lupus vulgaris

91. Fine Needle aspiration biopsy is indicated to diagnose:_____________?

A. Traumatic ulcer
B. Pemphigus
C. Necrotic pulp
D. Chronic gingivitis

92. Target lesions are observed in case of:___________?

A. Erythema multiforme
B. Lichenplanus
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Psoriasis

93. A 60 year old has got severe bulla and target lesion Which erythema around halo
and genital lesions:_____________?

A. Stevens Jhonson syndrome

B. Herpes zoster
C. Herpes simplex
D. Herpangina

94. Erosive lichen planus resembles which of the following:

A. Monilial gingivitis
B. Desquamative gingivitis
C. Herpetic gingivitis
D. Acute ulcerative gingivitis

95. Wickham’s striae are seen in:__________?

A. Lichen planus
B. Leukoplakia
C. Leukoedema
D. Erythema multiformae

96. Oral ocular and genital lesions are seen in:__________?

A. Erythema multiforma
B. Steven Johnson syndrome
C. SLE
D. None of the above

97. Oral lesions are not seen in:_________?

A. Psoriasis
B. Pemphigoid
C. Stevens Johnson syndrome
D. Candidiasis

98. Lichen planus:____________?

A. Can undergo malignant change
B. Treated only by medication
C. Must be excised
D. Is a idiosyncrasy reaction

99. Intra-epithelial bulla are found in:__________?

A. pemphigus
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Bullous lichen planus
D. Pemphigoid

100. Which of the following are seen in ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Hyperpyrexia
B. Protuberant lips and frontal bossing
C. Defective or absence of sweat glands
D. Any of the above

101. Immunoflourescence is seen at basement membrane as patchy distribution

in:___________?

A. Lichen planus
B. Pemphigus
C. Pemphigoid
D. Lupus erythematosus

102. Immunoflourescence test is positive in:____________?

A. Psoriasis
B. pemphigus vulgaris
C. Lupus erythematosus
D. Scleroderma
E. Both B & C

103. A 40 year old woman report with the complaint of burning sensation in the
mouth. Clinical examination reveals lesions consisting of radiating white
striations in a retiform arrangement affecting buccal mucosa, tongue, lips &
gingiva bilaterally. An incisional biopsy is suggestive of lichen planus. The
following are different clinical forms of lichen planus except:

A. Atrophic lichen planus

B. Hypertrophic lichen planus
C. bullous lichen planus
D. Verrucous lichen planus

104. Intraepithelial vacuolation with formation of vesicle or bulla

intraepithelially above the basal layer is characteristically seen in:___________?

A. Candida albicans
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus
D. Lichen planus

105. Lichenoid reactions are mainly due to:____________?

A. intake of certain drugs

B. betel nut chewing
C. cigarette smoking
D. intake of alcohol

106. L.E Cell phenomenon in peripheral blood is seen in:__________?

A. Rheumatic heart disease

B. Infective endocarditis
C. Ischemic heart disease
D. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

107. Which of the following is inherited as a autosomal dominant triat?

A. Lichen planus
B. Bullous pemphigoid
C. Pemphigus yulgaris
D. White sponge nevus

108. Histopathological study of lichen planus shows:___________?

A. Mixed cellular inflammatory infiltrate

B. Presence of T-lymphocytes predominantly
C. Antiepithelial antibodies
D. Scattered infiltrate with ill-defined lower border

109. Pemphigus is characterized by:____________?

A. Acanthosis
B. Acantholysis
C. Hyperorthokeratosis
D. Hyperparakeratosis

110. In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected

except:___________?

A. Hair
B. Nails
C. Teeth
D. Salivary glands

111. Scleroderma involves:__________?

A. Tightening of oral mucosa and periodontal involvement

B. Multiple palmar keratosis
C. Raynaud’s phenomenon
D. All of the above

112. Erythema multiformae is:___________?

A. An acute self limiting disease, of skin and oral mucous membrane

B. painless vesicular self limiting disease
C. A viral disease
D. Bacterial infection

113. Darier’s disease is associated with:____________?

A. Pernicious anaemia
B. Rickets with involvement of teeth and bones
C. Vitamin A deficiency and involvement of oral epithelium and skin
D. Diffuse tender ulceration on the palate predominantly
114. Koebner’s phenomenon is seen with_____________?

A. Erythema multiforme
B. Pemphigoid
C. Psoriasis
D. Impetigo

115. Tzancks smear test is used in the diagnosis of___________?

A. pemphigus
B. ANUG
C. Apthous disease
D. Lichen planus

116. Unusual extensibility of the tongue is a characteristic feature of:__________?

A. Epidermolysis bullose
B. Syphilis
C. Darier-White disease
D. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

117. Which of the following is not a type of lichen planus?

A. Atrophic
B. Hypertrophic
C. Verrucous
D. Erosive

118. A fluid filled elevated lesion of skin is called___________?

A. Bulla
B. Macule
C. Papule
D. Nodule

119. Grinspan syndrome is associated with:_________?

A. Hypertension, diabetes, lichen planus

B. Oral, ocular, genital lesions
C. Hypertension with oral lesions
D. lemphigus, CHF, diabetes

120. In lichen planus the basal cells which are shrunken with an eosinophilic
cytoplasm and with a pyknotic and fragmented nuclei are called__________?

A. Tzanck cells
B. Civatte bodies
C. Donovan bodies
D. Rushton bodies

121. MONRO’s abscess are seen in:____________?

A. Pemphigus
B. Lichen planus
C. Leukoplakia
D. Psoriasis

122. Nikolsky’s sign in positive in:_____________?

A. bullous pemphigus
B. eipdermolysis bullosa
C. herpes simplex
D. erythema multiforme

123. Which of the following is absent in Crest syndrome

A. calcinosis cutis
B. Raynaud’s phenomenon
C. Telagietasis
D. Endocrine disorders

124. Which of the following diseases of the skin is the most likely to be
associated with partial anodontia?

A. erythema multiformae
B. hereditary actodermal dysplasia
C. Keratosis follicularils
D. lichen planus

125. Antinuclear antibodies are seen in:___________?

A. SLE
B. Systemic sclerosis
C. Morphea
D. All of the above

126. Which of the following is an oral manifestation of lichen planus?

A. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
B. Fordyce spots
C. White, chalky enamel surface
D. White radiating lines on the buccal mucosa

127. A twenty-one-year-old woman complains that regular, gentle brushing of her

teeth is painful besides causing profuse bleeding. Oral examination reveals the
loss of epithelium from the attached gingival of both arches. Which of the
following dermatological problems is this patient most likely to have?

A. Benign mucous membrane pemphigiod

B. Chronic discoid lupus erythematosus
C. Pemphigus
D. Psoriasis

128. A flat, cricumscribed discolouration of skin or mucosa that may vary in size
and shape is referred to as:____________?

A. Epulits
B. Macule
C. Nodule
D. papule

129. True about caries, all except:

A. Infectious and transmissible

B. Not due to microorganisms
C. Can develop in the absence of sucrose
D. Microorganisms play the most essential role
130. Plaque microflora can-split carbohydrates. What does it means?

A. Sacchrolytic
B. Saprophytic
C. Virulant
D. Avirulant

131. Which of the following represents soluble polysaccharide found in dental

plaque and is formed from the fructose moiety of sucrose?

A. Levan
B. Dextran
C. Amlyopecting
D. Hyaluronic acid

132. Progression of dental caries caries on pit and fissure occurs from:

A. Apex of the pit and fissure

B. Wide and of the pit and fissure
C. Lateral surface of the pit and fissure
D. Bottom of the pit and fissure

133. Which of the following is cariostatic?

A. Selenium
B. Magnesium
C. Cadmium
D. Molybdenum

134. Liquefaction foci of Miller is a histopathological observation in:

A. Cemental caries
B. Early enamel caries
C. Advanced enamel caries
D. Advanced dentinal caries

135. Streptococcus mutans produces an adhesive polymer from sucrose, known

as:__________?

A. Levans
B. Lectins
C. Glucans
D. Polyfructans

136. The gelatinous deposit adherent on the tooth surface is called as:__________?

A. Materia alba
B. Plaque
C. Calculus
D. All of the above

137. Most demineralised zone in enamel caries:____________?

A. Translucent zone
B. Body of lession
C. Dark zone
D. Surface zone
138. Most used selective medium for streptococcus mutans is:____________?

A. Mac conkey medium

B. Mitus salivarius bacitracin agar
C. Nutrient agar
D. Tellurite medium

139. The cells most frequently found in a granuloma are:___________?

A. Mast cells
B. Giant cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophilis

140. Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodied, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in

reaction found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:___________?

A. Civattle bodies
B. Russell bodies
C. Guarneri bodies
D. rushton bodies

141. Low grade infection which leads to localized periosteal reaction

is:____________?

A. Garre’s osteomyelitis
B. Acute osteomyelitis
C. Condensing osteitis
D. Local alveolar osteitis

142. Cyst arising from rests of malassez is:___________?

A. Dental cyst
B. Dentigerous cyst
C. Radicular cyst
D. Karato cyst

143. The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
is:___________?

A. Maxillary second molar

B. Maxillary third molar
C. Maxillary first molar
D. Mandibular first molar

144. Three stages in progression of acute odontogenic infection are:___________?

A. Periapical osteitis, cellulitis, abscess

B. Abscess, cellulitis, osteitis, Periapical
C. cellulitis, Abscess, Periapical, osteitis
D. Periapical osteitis, abscess, cellulitis,

145. The fascial spaces involved in ludwig’s angina are___________?

A. Unilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces

B. Bilateral – submandibular & sublingual spaces
C. Unilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
D. Bilateral – submandibular sublingual & submental spaces
146. The chronic osteomyelitis of the jaw consists of:_____________?

A. condensing osteitis
B. Sclerotic cemental mass
C. chronic diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis
D. All of the above

147. Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis:__________?

A. Maxilla
B. zygoma
C. palatine bone
D. mandible

148. Chronic periostitis in children is known as__________?

A. Cherubism
B. Garre’s osteomyelitis
C. Histiocytosis X
D. Tuberculous osteomyelitis

149. A diffuse spreading inflammatory lesion is due to bacterial enzyme

A. Coagulase
B. Hyaluronidase
C. Peroxidase
D. Bradykinin

150. Best way to differentiate a periapical cyst and a perapical granuloma

is:__________?

A. Radiographically
B. Histologically
C. Clinically
D. None of the above

151. Which is not true of Ludwig’s angina?

A. Usually arises from an infected molar

B. involves submandibular space
C. May need emergency tracheostomy
D. None of the above

152. Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because

of:__________?

A. Vacular strangulation
B. Reduced host resistance
C. Invasion of microorganisms
D. An increase in microbial virulence

153. Pain due to acute irreversible pulpitis is:____________?

A. Spontaneous
B. Sharp- shock like
C. Lasting for short time
D. Continuous

154. A person experiences throbbing pain at night. It is due to:__________?

A. Acute Pulpal degeneration
B. Acute periodontal abscess
C. Chronic pulpitis
D. Cellulitis

155. An asymptomatic tooth has deep has deep caries on occlusal surface. Radiograph
shows radiopaque mass at apex of the tooth: this mass is most likely to
be:____________?

A. Cementoma
B. Condensing Osteitis
C. Chronic apical periodontitis
D. Acute apical periodontitis

156. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following

microorganisms?

A. Gonococcus
B. Enterococcus
C. Streptococcus
D. Staphylococcus

157. Which of the following differentiates between condensing osteitis and benign
cementoblastoma?

A. Condensing osteitis is associated with vital teeth where as cementoblastoma is

associated with non-vital teeth
B. In condensing osteitis radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in
cementoblastoma it is not
C. Cementoblastoma is associated with vital tooth where as condensing osteitis is
associated with non-vital tooth
158. D. In cementoblastoma radiopacity is attached to tooth where as in condensing
osteitis it is not

Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst

A. An impacted tooth
B. A missing both
C. A non-vital tooth
D. An anomalous tooth

159. The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:__________?

A. Incremental lines of retzius

B. Perikymata
C. Imbrication lines of pickerill
D. Wickham’s striae

160. Odontogenic epithelium responsible for the formation of dental cyst

is:___________?

A. Cell rests of seirre

B. Enamel organ
C. Reduced enamel epithelium
D. Cell rests of malassez

A. Necrotizing
B. Suppurative lesion
C. proliferation of a chronically inflamed pulp
D. Also called as phoenix abscess

170. A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquid were
in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was
completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end.
The condition is:__________?

A. Acute partial pulpits

B. Acute total pulpits
C. Suppurative pulpitis
D. Strangulation of pulp

171. All of the following statements about the typical features of a periapical
granuloma are true EXCEPT:

A. It consists of proliferating granulation tissue

B. It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed
C. It shows evidence of local antibody production
D. It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage

172. The recurrence of pleomorphic adenoma is attributed to____________?

A. Presence of an incomplete capsule

B. Mixed origin
C. Absence of capsule
D. Perineural spread

173. Sjorgen’s syndrome includes all except____________?

A. Xerostomia
B. Keratoconjunctivitis
C. Arthritis
D. Lymphoma

174. Organism involved in cellulitis is:___________?

A. Strept. mutans
B. Strept. pyogenes
C. Pneumococci
D. klebsiella

175. Abscess formation is particularly characteristic of infections with which of

the following microorganisms:_____________?

A. Viruses
B. Rickettsiae
C. Streptococci
D. Staphylococci

176. Garre’s chronic non suppurative sclerosing osteomyelitis is characterized

clinically by:____________?

A. Endosteal bone formation

B. Periosteal bone formation
C. Resorption of medullary bone
D. Resorption of cortical bone

177. The earliest response of pulpitis is:__________?

A. Cyst formation
B. Calcification
C. Hyalinization
D. Formation of dental granuloma

178. Dental cyst:_______________?

A.Occurs from the reduced enamel epithelium

B. Replaces the tooth to which it it attached
C. Is frequently seen with a missing tooth on the X-ray
D. Cystic lining of stratified squamous epithelium

179. Most common cyst in oral region is:__________?

A. Medial cyst
B. Radicular cyst
C. Follicular cyst
D. Naso labial cyst

180. Phelogmon is a:__________?

A. Se*ually transmitted disease

B. Type of cellulites
C. Type of osteomyelitis
D. Venereal disease

181. Sialography is used to detect anomaly of_______________?

A. Salivary duct only

B. Salivary gland
C. Salivary gland & duct
D. Salivary gland tumours

182. Which of the following is of salivary gland origin ?

A. Acinic cell carcinoma

B. Granular cell myoblastoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. All of the above

183. A condition of the mouth with increase the caries activity in the oral cavity
is_________________?

A. Xerostomia
B. Malignancy
C. Hairy tongue
D. Watery saliva

184. Most common tumor of parotid gland is______________?

A. Plemorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Cylindroma
D. Epidermoud carcinoma

185. Bimanual palpation technique is carried out for____________________?

A. Submandibular gland
B. Sublingual gland
C. Ranula
D. Cervical lymph nodes when they are enlarged due to inflammation

186. The most common salivary gland malignant neoplasm in bones______________?

A. Plemorphic adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Muceopidermoid carcinoma
D. Adenolymphoma

187. Which tumour does not occur in minor salivary gland ?

A. Pleomorphic adenoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
D. Warthin’s tumour

188. Sialolith in the excretory duct, will result in______________?

A. Chronic sialadenitis
B. Mucous retention cyst
C. Pleomorphic adenoma
D. rupture of the duct

189. The most common complication of mumps is______________?

A. myocarditis
B. Orchitis
C. Uveitis
D. Conjunctivits

190. A cyst occurs under the tongue, caused by obstruction of a salivary gland.
Such a cyst is called_______________?

A. Mucocele
B. Ranula
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Dentigerous cyst

191. All of the following is the extraglandular manifestation of primary sjogren’s

syndrome except________________?

A. Raynaud’s phenomena
B. Arthritis
C. Lymphadenopathy
D. Thrombocytopenia

192. “Xerostomia” is seen in all of the following EXCEPT in_______________?

A. Anticholinergic drugs
B. Dehydration
C. Sjogren’s syndrome
D. Oral sepsis

193. Commonest salivary gland tumour in children______________?

A. Lymphoma
B. Pleomorphic adenoma
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

194. Spindle cell carinoma is a variant of_____________?

A. Pleomorphic Adenoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma

195. Commonest site for ectopic salivary gland tumour is_______________?

A. Tongue
B. Cheek
C. Palate
D. Neck

196. Chemical mumps’ is synonymous with_____________?

A. Epidemic parotitis
B. Iodine mumps
C. Nutritional mumps
D. Nonspecific mumps

197. Warthins tumor is_____________?

A. An adenolymphoma of the parotid gland

B. A pleomorphic adenoma of parotid gland
C. Carcinoma of the parotid gland
D. None of the above

198. The common site for narcotizing sialometaplasia____________?

A. cheeks
B. dorsum of tongue
C. palate
D. gingival

199. In the clinical evaluation, the most significant, finding of the parotid mass
may be accompanying_____________?

A. Rapid progressive painless enlargement

B. Nodular consistency
C. Supramental and preauricular lymphadenopathy
D. Facial paralysis

200. Salivary gland aplasia is seen in_________________?

A. Hemifacial microstomia
B. LADD syndrome
C. Mandibulo-facial dysostosis (Treacher Collins)
D. All of the above