Legal Aspects vs HRM

1. As per Section 172 if a company contravenes any of the

provisions and for which no specific punishment is
provided therein, the company and every officer of the
company who is in default shall be punishable with fine
which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees but
which may extend to how many Rupees?
धारा 172 के अनुसार यदि कोई कंपनी ककसी भी प्रावधान का
उल्लंघन करती है और जिसके ललए कोई ववशेष िं ड प्रिान नह ं ककया
िाता है , तो कंपनी और कंपनी का प्रत्येक अधधकार िो चक ू करता
है , वह िुर्ााने से िं डनीय होगा िो पचास हिार रुपये से कर् नह ं
होगा, लेककन उसे ककतने रुपये तक बढ़ िा सकता है ?
A. Seventy Five Thousand Rupees
B. One Lakh Rupees
C. Five Lakh Rupees
D. Ten Lakh Rupees
Ans. C.
As per Section 172 ( Punishment) If a company contravenes
any of the provisions and for which no specific punishment
is provided therein, the company and every officer of the
company who is in default shall be punishable with fine
which shall not be less than fifty thousand rupees but
which may extend to five lakh rupees.
Thus, Option C is correct.
2. What is the procedure for the removal of an auditor
before the expiry of the term?
A. Ordinary Resolution by the Board of Directors
B. Special Resolution by the Board of Directors
C. Ordinary Resolution by the shareholders of the
Company
D. Special Resolution with the approval by the Central
Government
अवधध की सर्ाजतत से पहले ककसी लेखा पर क्षक को हटाने की
प्रकिया क्या है ?
A. ननिे शक र्ंडल द्वारा साधारण संकल्प
B. ननिे शक र्ंडल द्वारा ववशेष संकल्प
C. कंपनी के शेयरधारकों द्वारा साधारण संकल्प
D. केंद्र सरकार के अनुर्ोिन से ववशेष संकल्प
Ans. D.
The auditor appointed under section 139 may be removed
from his office before the expiry of his term only by a
special resolution of the company, after obtaining the
previous approval of the Central Government in that
behalf in the prescribed manner provided that before
taking any action the auditor concerned shall be given a
reasonable opportunity of being heard.
Thus, Option D is correct.
3. Statement I: The RTI Act 2005 replaced the former
Freedom of Information Act, 2002
Statement II: The RTI Bill was passed by Parliament of India
on 12 October 2005
Choose the correct option from those below:
कथन I: RTI अधधननयर् 2005 ने पहले के सूचना की स्वतंत्रता
अधधननयर्, 2002 की िगह ल ।
कथन II: RTI ववधेयक भारतीय संसि द्वारा 12 अक्टूबर 2005 को
पाररत ककया गया था।
नीचे दिए गए ववकल्पों र्ें से सह ववकल्प चन
ु ें:
A. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect.
B. Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct.
C. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
D. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Ans. A.
• The Right to Information (RTI) is an act of the Parliament
of India which sets out the rules and procedures regarding
citizens' right to information. It replaced the former
Freedom of Information Act, 2002.
• The RTI Bill was passed by Parliament of India on 15 June
2005 and came into force with effect from 12 October
2005.
Thus, Option A is correct.
4. Which of the following is not an implied condition in a
contract of sale?
A. Condition as to quality or fitness
B. Condition as to merchantable quality
C. Condition as to wholesomeness
D. Condition as to free from encumbrances
वविय की संवविा र्ें ननम्नललखखत र्ें से क्या एक ननदहत शता
नह ं है ?
A. गणु वत्ता या उत्तर् जस्थनत के रूप र्ें शता
B. व्यापार योग्य गुणवत्ता के रूप र्ें शता
C. संपूणत ा ा के रूप र्ें शता
D. ववलंगन से र्क् ु त के रूप र्ें शता
Ans. D.
implied condition includes
* Implied condition as to title.
* Implied condition in sale by description.
* Implied condition in sale by sample as well as
description.
* Implied condition as to quality or fitness
* Implied condition of merchantable quality
* Conditions implied by trade usage.
* Implied condition in a sale by sample.

Thus, option D is correct.

5. Statement-Ⅰ: The registered dealer does self invoicing for
the purchases made in case of a composition levy scheme.
Statement-Ⅱ: In a supply chain, only the final consumer
bears the GST charged by the last supplier with set-off
benefits at all the previous stages of production.
Choose the correct option from those below:
कथन-I: कंपोिीशन लेवी स्कीर् के र्ार्ले र्ें पंिीकृत डीलर की गई
खर ि के ललए स्वयं चालान बनाता है ।
कथन-II: एक आपूनता श्ख ं ृ ला र्ें , उत्पािन के सभी वपछले चरणों र्ें
सेट-ऑफ लाभों के साथ अंनतर् आपूनताकताा द्वारा लगाए गए
िीएसट को केवल अंनतर् उपभोक्ता वहन करता है ।
नीचे दिए गए ववकल्पों र्ें से सह ववकल्प चनु नए:
A. Statement-Ⅰ is correct, Statement-Ⅱ is incorrect.
B. Statement-Ⅰ is incorrect, Statement-Ⅱ is correct.
C. Both statement-Ⅰ and statement-Ⅱ are correct.
D. Both statement-Ⅰ and statement-Ⅱ are incorrect.
Ans. B.
● The registered dealer does self invoicing for the
purchases made, in case of a reverse charge.
● The final consumer bears the GST charged by the last
supplier with set-off benefits at all the previous stages of
production.
Thus, Option B is correct.
6. Match List-I with List-II
सच
ू ी-I का सच
ू ी-II से लर्लान करें

Choose the correct code:

सह कूट चन
ु ें:
A. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-I B. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
C. a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii D. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
Ans. C.
a) The Essential Commodities Act was enacted in 1955.
b) The Indian Contract Act was enacted in 1872.
c) The Sales of Goods Act was enacted in 1930.
d) The Foreign Exchange Management Act was enacted in
1999.
Thus, Option C is correct.
7. Which of the following is defined under the Indian
Contract Act, 1872 as "Every promise or every set of
promises forming consideration for each other"?
A. Offer
B. Proposal
C. Agreement
D. Contract
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से कौन भारतीय अनब ु ंध अधधननयर्, 1872 के
तहत "प्रत्येक वचन या प्रनतज्ञा के प्रत्येक संग्रह को एक-िस
ू रे के
ललए ववचार करने" के रूप र्ें पररभावषत ककया गया है ?
A. सझ ु ाव
B. प्रस्ताव
C. सर्झौता
D. अनुबंध
Ans. C.
The term 'agreement' given in Section 2(e) of the Indian
Contract Act 1872 is defined as-"Every promise or every set
of promises forming consideration for each other". An
agreement is the result of the proposal made by one party
to the other party and that other party gives his
acceptance thereto for mutual consideration.
Thus, Option C is correct.
8. Which Section of the Competition act creates an
overriding effect on other legislations?
A. Section 58
B. Section 60
C. Section 64
D. Section 62
प्रनतयोधगता अधधननयर् की कौन सी धारा अन्य ववधानों पर
अधधभावी प्रभाव उत्पन्न करती है ?
A. धारा 58
B. धारा 60
C. धारा 64
D. धारा 62
Ans. B.
As per Section 60 of the Competition Act 2002, “The
provisions of this act shall have effect notwithstanding
anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law
for the time being enforced.”
Thus, Option B is correct.
9. Which of the following rights is not exclusively enjoyed
by the promoters of the company?
A. Right to remuneration
B. Right to receive preliminary expenses
C. Freedom to abstain from disclosing his services rendered
in prospectus
D. Right to receive a proportionate amount from the co-
promoters
कंपनी के प्रोत्साहकों द्वारा ननम्नललखखत र्ें से ककस आनंि का
लाभ उठाया नह ं िा सकता है
A. आय का अधधकार
B. प्रारं लभक खचा प्रातत करने का अधधकार
C. ग्राहकों को ि िाने वाल अपनी सेवाओं का खुलासा करने र्ें
स्वतंत्रता
D. सह-साझेिारों से उधचत धनरालश प्रातत करने का अधधकार
Ans. C.
A promoter of a company exclusively enjoys following
three rights only, viz:
• Right to remuneration
• Right to receive preliminary expenses
• Right to receive a proportionate amount from co-
promoters
Apart from these three no other exclusive right is enjoyed
by him.
Thus, Option C is correct.
10. Which of the following statements is/are correct with
reference to LLP’s
i) Formation of LLP’s is similar to that of companies.
ii) The maximum number of partners required is twenty
while the minimum is two.
iii) There exists no such board of directors, nor the minutes
are recorded.
iv) Liability is limited to the extent of the contribution to
the LLP.
v) A Limited Liability Partnership can be formed for
charitable purposes as well.
Choose the correct option/code from the following:
A. i,iii,iv B. iii
C. i,iii,iv,v D. None of the above
LLP के संिभा र्ें ननम्नललखखत र्ें से कौन से कथन सत्य हैं?
i. LLP का गठन कंपननयों के गठन के सर्ान है ।
ii. आवश्यक अधधकतर् साझेिारों की संख्या 20 है और न्यूनतर्
साझेिारों की संख्या 2 है ।
iii. इसर्ें ननिे शक बोडा के र्ौिि
ू होने की आवश्यकता नह ं है , और
न ह ककसी बैठक कायावाह को ििा करने की आवश्यकता है ।
iv. िे यता LLP के योगिान के ववस्तार तक सीलर्त होती है ।
v. िानाथा उद्िे श्यों के ललए भी एक सीलर्त िे यता साझेिार कंपनी
का गठन ककया िा सकता है ।
नीचे दिए गए कूटों का प्रयोग करके सह ववकल्प चनु नए:
A. I, iii, iv
B. Iii
C. I, iii, iv, v
D. उपरोक्त र्ें से कोई नह ं
Ans. A.
• In order to incorporate an LLP, compulsory registration is
required with the Registrar of Companies.
• The minimum number of partners required is 2 while No
limit on the maximum number of partners.
• There exists no such board of directors, nor the minutes
are recorded.
• Liability is limited to the extent of the contribution to the
LLP.
• A Limited Liability Partnership cannot be formed for
charitable or non-profit purposes.
Thus, Option A is correct.
11. These goods are bought infrequently, which are used
repeatedly and which involve a reasonably high level of
consumer risk:
A. Impulse goods
B. Luxury goods
C. Non-durable goods
D. Durable goods
इन सार्ानों को बार-बार खर िा िाता है , इन्हें बार-बार इस्तेर्ाल
ककया िाता है और इनर्ें उपभोक्ता िोखखर् का एक उच्च स्तर
शालर्ल होता है :
A. प्रोत्साहन वस्तए
ु ँ
B. ववलासी वस्तुएँ
C. गैर-दटकाऊ वस्तए ु ँ
D. दटकाऊ वस्तुएँ
Ans. B.
There are different types of goods -
● Impulse goods - These goods are bought by consumers
without any thought process.
● Luxury goods- These goods are bought infrequently,
which are used repeatedly and which involve a reasonably
high level of consumer risk.
● Non-durable goods- These are the tangible goods
normally consumed in one or a few uses and are purchased
frequently.
● Durable goods- These are tangible goods that can be
used for a long period of time and these goods require
more personal selling.
Thus, Option D is correct.
12. In which of the following cases, an agreement without
consideration will not be held valid?
A. Compensation for past non-voluntary service
B. Promise to pay a time-barred debt
C. Agency
D. Bailment
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से ककन जस्थनतयों र्ें , बबना सोच-ववचार ककए एक
सर्झौते को कानूनी स्वीकाया नह ं र्ाना िाएगा?
A. पव
ू ा गैर-एजच्छक सेवाएं के ललए भगु तान
B. टाइर्-बारा ड डेब्ट का भुगतान करने का वािा
C. एिेंसी
D. बेलर्ें ट
Ans. A.
Agreement without consideration is valid in case of:
● Compensation for past voluntary service
● Promise to pay a time-barred debt
● Agency
● Bailment
● Charity
● Natural love and affection
Thus, Option A is correct.
13. If a promissory note has been dishonoured by _____, the
holder of the instrument can make the dishonour noted by a
notary public.
a) Non-acceptance
b) Bank holiday
c) Non-payment
Codes:
A. a and b B. b and c
C. c and a D. All of the above
यदि एक वचन पत्र _____ द्वारा अनािर ककया गया है , तो साधन का
धारक एक नोटर पजब्लक द्वारा अनािर को ििा करवा सकता है ।
a) अप्रनतग्रहण
b) बैंक अवकाश
c) गैर-अिायगी
A. a और b B. b और c
C. c और a D. उपरोक्त सभी
Ans. C.
● When a bill of exchange or promissory notes is
dishonoured by non-acceptance or non-payments, it leaves
the holder an option of noting.
● Noting means recording of the dishonour (date of
dishonour, the reason for express dishonour if applicable,
notary charges) by the holder by a notary public.
● Bank holiday is not a reasonable reason to treat a
negotiable instrument dishonoured.
● The notary certifies the noting which certificate is known
as a protest.
Thus, Option C is correct.
14. The National Anti-Profiteering Authority has been
established under which of the following acts?
A. RBI Act
B. SEBI Act
C. GST Act
D. Autonomous body by GO (Government Order)
राष्ट्र य र्न
ु ाफाखोर -रोधी प्राधधकरण ननम्नललखखत र्ें से ककस
अधधननयर् के तहत स्थावपत ककया गया है ?
A. RBI अधधननयर्
B. SEBI अधधननयर्
C. GST अधधननयर्
D. सरकार आिे श के तहत स्वायत्त ननकाय
Ans. C.
● National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA) is formed
under Section 171 of the Central Goods and Services Tax
Act, 2017.
● The authority ensures the profiteering by business and
makes sure the tax reduction benefit is enjoyed by the
consumer only.
Thus, Option C is correct.
15. A citizen who desires to seek some information from a
public authority is required to send, along with the
application, a demand draft or a bankers cheque or an
Indian Postal Order of ?
A. Rs. 5
B. Rs 100
C. Rs 10
D. Rs 50
एक नागररक िो ककसी लोक प्राधधकरण से कुछ िानकार प्रातत
करना चाहता है , उसे आवेिन-पत्र के साथ ककतने रुपये का डडर्ांड
ड्राफ्ट या बैंकसा चेक या भारतीय पोस्टल ऑडार भेिने की
आवश्यकता है ?
A. 5 रुपये
B. 100 रुपये
C. 10 रुपये
D. 50 रुपये
Ans. C.
A citizen who desires to seek some information from a
public authority is required to send, along with the
application, a demand draft or a bankers cheque or an
Indian Postal Order of Rs. 10/- (Rupees ten), payable to the
Accounts Officer of the public authority as fee prescribed
for seeking information
Thus, Option C is correct.
16. The first directors of a company are usually named in:
A. Articles of Association
B. Memorandum of association
C. Prospectus
D. None of the above
ककसी कंपनी के पहले ननिे शकों को आर्तौर पर शालर्ल ककया
िाता है :
A. संस्था के अंतननायर्
B. संघ का ज्ञापन
C. प्रॉस्पेक्टस
D. उपरोक्त र्ें से कोई नह ं
Ans. A.
First directors of a firm are appointed by the original
investors (members or subscribers) usually from among
themselves, and are named in the articles of association.
Thus, Option A is correct.
17. Assertion - (A) : No business runs itself, even on momentum
....... Every business needs repeated stimulus.
Reasoning - (R): The management is the dynamic, life giving
element in every business, without its leadership, the resources of
production remain as resources and never become production.
अलभकथन (A) : कोइा भी व्यवसाय स्वयं नह ं चल सकता, चाहे वह संवेग
की जस्थनत र्ें क्यों न हो ......... उसके ललये इसे ननयलर्त उद्ि पन की
आवश्यकता पड़ती है ।
तका (R) : प्रबंध प्रत्येक व्यवसाय का गनतशील एवं िीवनिायक तत्व है ।
उसके नेतत्ृ व के अभाव र्ें उत्पािन के साधन केवल साधन र्ात्र ह रह
िाते हैं, कभी उत्पािक नह ं बन पाते।
A. Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R), both are correct, and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
B. Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R), both are correct, but (R) is not
the correct explanation
C. Assertion (A) is correct, but Reasoning (R) is incorrect.
D. Reasoning (R) is correct, but Assertion (A) is incorrect.
Ans. A.
According to Prof. Robinson No business runs itself, even
on momentum..... Every business needs repeated stimulus.
Because management is the dynamic, life-giving element in
every business, without its leadership, the resources of
production remain as resources and never become
production as suggested by Peter F. Drucker.
Thus, Option A is correct.
18. Which one of the following is a traditional method for
selection of personnel ?
A. Interview
B. Selection Test
C. Phrenology
D. Aptitude Test
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से कालर्ाकों के चयन की पारम्पररक ववधध है :
A. साक्षात्कार
B. चयन पर क्षण
C. कपाल ववज्ञान
D. अलभरुधच पर क्षण
Ans. C.
The nineteenth century saw the growth of some ‘pseudo-
scientific’ methods like phrenology, physiognomy, and
graphology for personnel selection.
● Phrenology: It is concerned with identification of mental
faculties supposed to be located in various parts of the skull and
investigable by feeling the bumps on the outside of the head.
Based on these bumps, the mental faculties and propensities of
a person like combativeness, sentiment, perception, conduct,
character, etc. were used to be judged.
● Physiognomy: It is the art of judging character from
appearance, especially the face.
● Graphology: It is the art of estimating a person’s character,
etc. from his handwriting. It was used by the Chinese in the
eleventh century to predict personality characteristics based on
handwriting.
Thus, Option C is correct.
19. Assertion (A) : Management is mainly associated with
economic affairs.
Reasoning (R) : Big business houses are the result of
effective financial management.
अलभकथन (A) : प्रबंधन र्ुख्यतया आधथा र्ार्लों से सम्बद्ध है ।
तका (R) : बड़े व्यावसानयक घराने प्रभावी ववत्तीय प्रबंधन का ह
प्रनतफल हैं।
Codes :
A. (A) is correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the right
explanation of (A).
C. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct in isolation.
D. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
Ans. C.
• Management is essentially concerned, with the effective
use of resources. It is not only associated with economic
affairs, it includes financial, human resource etc too.
• Big business houses are the result of effective financial
management. Finance is the lifeblood of business.
Thus, option C is correct.
20. Matching essential managers and essential positions is
a step in the process of :
A. Career Cycle
B. Succession Planning
C. Career Planning
D. Career Stages
अननवाया प्रबंधक और अननवाया पिों र्ें सर्
ु ेल ककस प्रकिया का
एक चरण है ?
A. केररयर चि
B. अनुिलर्क ननयोिन
C. केररयर ननयोिन
D. केररयर पडाव
Ans. B.
• The career cycle helps students align to meet the needs
in the selection process. It then provides ongoing
professional development to help new and current
employees build a most valued customer relationship with
their manager. The process of career cycle :-
1. Exploration
2. Establishment
3. Mid-career
4. Late career
5. Decline.
• Succession planning is a process and strategy for
replacement planning or passing on leadership roles.
1. Identify key roles
2. Develop competency for key roles
3. Identify succession management options and matching
4. Assess development needs
5. Create and implement needs
6. Identify gaps
7. Evaluate progress.
• Career planning is a process for identifying what is good
for the career and its process includes:
1. Self assessment
2. Career exploration
3. Career identification and
4. Action plan
• Career development stages include
1. Exploration stage
2. Mid-career stage
3. Late career stage
4. Decline stage
Thus, option B is correct.
21. Which of the following is the internal conflict or anxiety
that occurs when people receive information incompatible
with their value systems, prior decisions and knowledge?
(a) Polarisation
(b) Cognitive dissonance
(c) Premature evaluation
(d) Projection
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से कौन आंतररक संघषा एवं धचंता है िो तब घदटत
होती है िब एक व्यजक्त ऐसी सच ू ना प्रातत करता है िो उसके र्ल्
ू य
व्यवस्थाओं, पूवा ननणायों एवं ज्ञान से र्ेल नह ं खाता है ?
(a) धु ु्रवीकरण (b) बोधगम्य असंगनत
(c) अपररपक्व र्ल्
ू यांकन (d) प्रक्षेपण
Codes :
A. (a) and (b) B. Only (b)
C. Only (d) D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Ans. B.
● Cognitive dissonance is a psychological phenomenon that
occurs when a person's beliefs and actions don't line up.
● Cognitive dissonance is the state of discomfort resulting
from conflicting ideals, beliefs, attitudes or behaviors
● Leon Festinger was the first to introduce this phenomenon
of cognitive dissonance. Cognitive dissonance can be mainly
caused by forced compliance, decision making, and new
information.
● There is often a discrepancy between attitude and behavior
● It is the internal conflict or anxiety that occurs when people
receive information incompatible with their value systems,
prior decisions and knowledge.
Thus, Option B is correct.
22. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and select the
correct code:
सूची-I की र्िों को सूची-II के साथ लर्लान कीजिए एवं उधचत कूट बताइये :

Codes:
A. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
C. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Ans. B.
• Pension scheme are the type of long-term savings plan
which gives income in later life when the work capacity
would have decreased. The best example is provident
fund.
• Personal security example is health care for family.
• Severance pay is the compensation and benefits an
employer provides to an employee after employment is
over. It is the financial assistance given to the employees.
• Allowance is the amount of something that is permitted,
especially within a set of regulations. Transport allowance
is a type of allowance given to travel by the employees.
Thus, option B is correct.
23. Which of the following is the most serious problem
that might arise due to excessive reliance on internal
recruitment?
A. reduced job performance
B. high labour turnover
C. lack of motivation
D. internal resistance
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से वह कौन-सी गंभीर सर्स्या है िो आंतररक
भती पर अनत बल िे ने से खड़ी हो सकती है ?
A. काया ननष्ट्पािन र्ें कर्ी
B. उच्च श्र् आवता
C. अलभप्रेरणा की कर्ी
D. आन्तररक प्रनतरोध
Ans. D.
Internal recruitment is the process of filling up open positions
within the organization from its current workforce. Instead of
releasing the positions into the job market, the HR department
chooses to advertise the vacancy internally for the current
employees to apply for it.
* This leads to internal resistance as employees who have been
considered for a promotion for a certain role could feel resentful
if an external candidate or their own colleague is hired for that
role eventually.
* Also, managers are reluctant to give away their star
performers as losing them would impact the entire team’s
performance.
* In fact, certain managers would also go the extent of hindering
the process of transfer or promotion and this can lead to
hostility at work.
Thus, Option D is correct.
24. According to Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership,
favourableness of situation depends on which combination of
the following ?
(a) Leader-member relationship
(b) Member-member relationship
(c) Leader’s position power
(d) Degree of task structure
(e) Degree of training
फील्डर के नेतत्ृ व के आकजस्र्क प्रनतरूप के अनुसार जस्थनत का
अनक ु ू लन ननम्नललखखत के ककस संयोिन पर ननभार करता है ?
(a) नेता-सिस्य संबंध (b) सिस्य-सिस्य संबंध
(c) नेता की जस्थनत की शजक्त (d) काया ढाँचे की र्ात्रा
(e) प्रलशक्षण की र्ात्रा
Codes :
A. (a), (b) and (c) B. (a), (c) and (d)
C. (c), (d) and (e) D. (a), (b) and (e)
Ans. B.
* The Fiedler contingency Model was created in the mid-
1960s by Fred Fiedler, a scientist who states that there is
no one best style of leadership.
* It states that group effectiveness depends on an
appropriate match between a leader’s style and the
demands of the situation.
* This model is comprised of 3 elements i.e. Leadership
styles, situational variables and the relationship between
styles and situation. It includes leader-member
relationship, leader’s position power and degree of task
structure.
Thus, option B is correct.
25. Which of the following approaches is adopted for the
valuation of human resource according to economic
concept ?
A. Replacement cost approach
B. Opportunity cost approach
C. Historical cost approach
D. None of the above
आधथाक अवधारणा के अनस ु ार र्ानव संसाधन के र्ल्
ू यांकन हे तु
ननम्नललखखत र्ें से ककस अलभगर् को अपनाया िाता है ?
A. प्रनतस्थापन लागत अलभगर्
B. अवसर लागत अलभगर्
C. ऐनतहालसक लागत अलभगर्
D. उपयक् ुा त र्ें से ककसी को नह ं
Ans. B.
* Replacement Cost approach is used to measure the
monetary costs involved in replacing an existing employee
at workplace. This method was introduced by Rensis Likert
and Eric G. Flamholtz.
* Historical Cost approach in human resource is used to
measure previously incurred costs in hiring of employees
at workplace.
* Opportunity Cost approach measures the monetary
worth of an employee by finding what other companies
might pay the same employee. It is based on the economic
concept.
Thus, Option B is correct.
26. Choose the correct sequence of steps of job analysis :
(a) Review relevant background information such as organization
charts and process charts.
(b) Develop a job description and job specification.
(c) Select representative positions.
(d) Decide how the information is to be used.
(e) Actually analyse the job.
(f) Verify the job analysis information
काया ववश्लेषण के चरणों के सह िर् का चयन कीजिए:
(a) संगठन चाटा और प्रकिया चाटा िैसे प्रासंधगक पष्ट्ृ ठभलू र् संबंधी सच ू ना
की सर्ीक्षा करना।
(b) काया वववरण और कायाननिे शन ववकलसत करना।
(c) प्रनतननधधक पिों का चयन करना।
(d) यह ननणाय लेना कक सच ू ना का उपयोग कैसे ककया िाएगा।
(e) काया का वास्तववक ववश्लेषण करना
(f) काया ववश्लेषण सच ू ना का सत्यापन करना
A. (b), (a), (e), (f), (c) and (d) B. (c), (b), (e), (a), (d) and (f)
C. (d), (a), (c), (e), (f) and (b) D. (a), (b), (f), (d), (e) and (c)
Ans. C.
The steps of job analysis includes:
• Decide how the information is to be used
• Review relevant background information such as
organization charts and process charts
• Select representative positions.
• Actually analyse the job
• Verify the job analysis information
• Develop a job description and job specification
Thus, option C is correct.
27. Match the items of List – I with the items of List – II :

Codes :
A. (a)→(iii), (b)→(ii), (c)→(i), (d)→(iv)
B. (a)→(iii), (b)→(i), (c)→(ii), (d)→(iv)
C. (a)→(i), (b)→(ii), (c)→(iii), (d)→(iv)
D. (a)→(ii), (b)→(iv), (c)→(i), (d)→(iii)
सूची-I की र्िों के साथ सूची-II की र्िों को सुर्ेललत कीजिए:

कूट:
A. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
B. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
C. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
D. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
Ans. B.
● Line authority : The authority exerted by directing the
activities of the people in his own department
● Staff authority : Authority which gives the manager the
right to advise other managers or employees.
● Implied authority : The authority exerted by the manager
by virtue of other’s knowledge that he has access to top
management
● Functional authority : The authority exerted by a
manager as coordinator of activities.
Thus, Option B is correct.
28. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
about scalar chain principle as given by Fayol?
(a) Each communication, going up or down, must flow
through each position in the line authority.
(b) Chain of communication cannot be broken under any
circumstances.
फेयोल द्वारा प्रनतपादित पिाधधकार सम्पका श्ंख ृ ला लसद्धांत के
संबंध र्ें ननम्नललखखत र्ें से कौन-सा कथन सह है ?
(a) ऊपर या नीचे िाने वाला प्रत्येक संप्रेषण रे खीय प्राधधकार र्ें
प्रत्येक जस्थनत के र्ाध्यर् से प्रवादहत होना चादहए।
(b) ककसी भी पररजस्थनत र्ें संप्रेषण की श्ंख ृ ला नह ं तोड़ी िा
सकती है ।
A. Only (a) is correct.
B. Only (b) is correct.
C. Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
D. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
Ans. A.
• As per the scalar chain of principle given by Henry Fayol
are:
1. Each communication, going up or down, must flow
through each position in the line authority.
2. Chain of communication must not be broken in normal
circumstances. But in case necessary action to be taken
chain of communication can be broken. This can be done
by gang plank
Thus, Option A is correct.
29. Channel conflicts can be
(1) Vertical
(2) Horizontal
(3) Diagonal
(4) Circular
(5) Triangular
र्ाध्यर् टकराव चैनल कनाजफ्लक्ट) हो सकता है :
(1) उध्वााधर
(2) क्षैनति
(3) ववकणी
(4) चिीय
(5) बत्रकोणात्र्क
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
A. (1) and (3) only B. (2) and (3) only
C. (1) and (2) only D. (1), (2) and (3) only
Ans. C.
● Channel conflicts happen when any channel member’s
actions prevent the system from achieving the objectives.
● There are four types of channel conflicts- a) Vertical level
conflict, b) Horizontal level conflict, c) Inter type channel
conflict and d) Multi channel level conflict.

Thus, Option C is correct.

30. Arrange the following legal enactments in India in the
chronological sequence from the first to the last.
(1) The Mines Act
(2) The Minimum Wages Act
(3) The Payment of Gratuity Act
(4) The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act
(5) The Apprentices Act
ननम्नांककत भारतीय कानूनों को कालिर्ानुसार (प्रथर् से अंत)
व्यवजस्थत कीजिए :
(1) खान अधधननयर्
(2) न्यूनतर् र्ििरू अधधननयर्
(3) ग्रेच्युट संिाय अधधननयर्
(4) बाल श्र् (प्रनतषेध और ववननयर्न) अधधननयर्
(5) प्रलशक्षु अधधननयर्
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A. (2), (4), (3), (1), (5) B. (2), (1), (5), (3), (4)
C. (1), (5), (2), (3), (4) D. (5), (2), (1), (3), (4)
Ans. B.
* The Minimum Wages Act – 1948
* The Mines Act – 1952
* The Apprentices Act – 1961
* The payment of gratuity Act – 1972
* The Child Labour (prohibition and Regulation Act) – 1986

Thus, Option B is correct.