Solutions Manual to End of

Chapter Problems

1
 Chapter 1

ENERGY IN THE MODERN WORLD

1. What is meant by controlling demand through Energy Efficiency and Energy

Conservation? Give an example of each approach from:
a) The home
b) Industry/commerce
c) Personal transport

Solution:

Energy efficiency is achieving the same goals and maintaining the same levels of
comfort and services but with the use of less energy

Energy conservation goes further than energy efficiency by changing the behaviour of
individuals and the way they use energy. Examples might be:

Energy efficiency Energy conservation

The home Installing a high Changing the settings of thermostats
efficiency boiler
Industry/commerce Installing variable speed Encouraging home working for some
pumps administrative staff and so avoiding
commuting
Personal transport Buying a car with high Switching to cycling for short
fuel efficiency journeys.

2. Distinguish clearly between what is meant by Reserves of Fossil Fuels and the
Resource.

Solution:

Proved reserves are “…. those quantities which geological and engineering information
indicates with reasonable certainty can be recovered in the future from known reserves
under existing economic and operating conditions”.

The fuel resource is the overall estimate of the quantity available without consideration of
the cost or technical difficulty of extracting it.

3. Write brief notes on the technologies that might be used to decarbonise the electric
power sector.

Solution:

Brief notes are required on:

• Renewables
• Nuclear generation
• Carbon Capture and Storage (CCS)

2
4. What is meant by the time preference for money? Why does choosing a high discount
rate make it difficult to justify the installation of energy efficiency measures?

Solution:

Most people and organisations have a time preference for money and they would rather
receive money today not next year and would rather pay out money next year rather than
today. This makes an energy efficiency measure that has an initial expenditure but in
which the benefits accrue only in later years more difficult to justify. The future benefits
have to be discounted, as they are less valuable than an equivalent cash cost incurred at
the present time. A high discount rate reduces the present value of future energy
savings.

5. What is Smart Metering and how can it contribute to reducing

• Greenhouse gas emissions
• The capital cost of the power system

Solution:

Traditionally electricity and gas consumption was measured using mechanical meters
that were read on a regular basis and a paper bill prepared and sent to the consumer.
Many counties are now introducing smart meters that will give much more accurate and
timely information on gas and electricity energy use. In houses, the meters may be
supplemented by an in-home display that shows the energy being used in the dwelling in
a convenient place e.g. in the kitchen. It is hoped that through the smart meters providing
better information, consumers will be encouraged to reduce their energy consumption.
The in-home display will show how much electricity and gas is being used throughout the
day and can help to identify where energy is being wasted.

Smart meters can have two distinct objectives in support of demand reduction. They can
be used to encourage consumers to reduce:
• Overall (e.g. annual) energy demand and hence GHG emissions
• Power consumption at times of maximum system load and hence cost of the
plant required to meet maximum demand.

6. List and discuss the environmental impacts of generating electricity from coal.
Distinguish clearly between local, regional and global impacts. Discuss the future use of
coal in electrical power generation.

Solution:

The consequences of burning coal can be considered at 3 scales:

• Local effects; particulate emissions and effect on air quality
• Regional effects; acid rain
• Global effects; climate change
Coal fired boilers have a significant impact at all 3 scales.

Emissions of NOx and particles can have a significant effect on local air quality. This can
be ameliorated by fitting particle filters (bag or electro-static) and solvent scrubbers on
smaller power plants. Larger units have electro-static precipitators to capture particles
and high exhaust stacks (chimneys) to disperse the pollutants.

The main regional effects are from acid rain which is caused by the emission of SO2 and
NOx. NOx emissions may be limited by controlling the temperature of combustion while

3
 SO2 can be removed from the exhaust gas by flue gas scrubbers but only with reduced
efficiency of the plant and high capital cost.

The high carbon content of coal results in emissions of around 1 kg/CO2 per kWh of
electricity generated when burnt in a conventional steam cycle plant. The only way of
reducing emissions of CO2 from coal fired generating units is by carbon capture and
storage which has yet to be demonstrated to be cost effective.

Thus many countries are moving away from generating electricity from coal and this
trend is likely to continue unless cost effective carbon capture and storage can be
demonstrated.

7. Household A uses electric heaters and the electricity consumption per year is 3000 kWh
Household B uses gas for heating and the annual gas consumption is 1000 m3
a) Convert the energy use in both houses into kWh and kg of oil equivalent
b) Compare the annual CO2 emissions in two houses

Data:
Average CO2 emission factor for electricity is 0.527 kg / kWh
CO2 generated by burning natural gas is 0.185 kg / kWh
With 100% conversion efficiency, 1 kg of oil equivalent corresponds to 11.6 kWh of
heat output
Assume that the conversion efficiency of the electrical generator is 35%.
Burning 1m3 of natural gas provides 11.2 kWh of useful heat energy

[Answer: a) 3000 kWh, 739 kgoe, 11,200 kWh, 965 kgoe; b) 1581 kgCO2, 2071 kgCO2]

Solution:

Household A:
Energy use is 3000 kWh = 3000/(11.6 x 0.35)
= 739 kg of oil equivalent
CO2 emissions = 0.527 x 3000 = 1581 kg

Household B:
Energy use = 11.2 x 1000 = 11,200 kWh
= 11,200/11.6 = 965 kg of oil equivalent
CO2 emissions = 0.185 x 11,200 = 2071 kg

8. A commercial building has 200, 15 W CFL lamps. It is proposed to replace them with
LED lamps providing an equivalent light output. The following data is given:
Cost of a LED lamp = £ 6
Average retail electricity price = 16 p/kWh
Lamps operate an average 5 hrs per day
The building is occupied 250 days/year
Calculate the simple payback period of replacement.

[Answer: 3.75 years]

Solution:

Total cost of replacement = £ 6 x 200 = £1200

To provide equivalent light output, from Table 1.3, a 7 W LED lamp is required.
Therefore the total reduction of energy consumption per year
= (15 - 7) W x 200 x 5 hrs x 250 days = 2000 kWh

4
 Avoided cost per year due to reduction of electricity purchase = 2000 x 16 /100 = £320
Simple payback period = 1200/320 = 3.75 years.
9. The tenant of the building described in Question 8 has a lease for 5 years and applies a
discount factor of 15% when evaluating energy conservation projects. What is the NPV
of replacing the lamps and will the lamp replacement project proceed?

[Answer: -£127. The lamp replacement will not proceed]

Solution:

The cost is incurred at Time 0 (the beginning of Year 1) and all revenue can be assumed
to occur at the end of each year.
£1200 Cost
Year 1

Year 2

Year 3

Year 4

Year 5
Time 0

£320 £320 £320 £320 £320 Benefits

Year n Expenditure Saving/year Discount Present Net Present

£ £ Factor value of Value at year
1 discounted n
1 + 𝑟! ! sum
0 -1200 1 -1200 -1200
1 320 0.870 278.26 -921.74
2 320 0.756 241.97 -679.77
3 320 0.658 210.41 -469.37
4 320 0.572 182.96 -286.41
5 320 0.497 159.10 -127.31

The NPV at the end of the lease is still negative and so the project would not proceed.
The LED lamps will have operated for only 6250 hours and should have a life much
longer than this but any future benefit may not accrue to the tenant.

10. Show that with exponential growth the doubling time in years may be estimated by
dividing the percentage rate of increase into 72.

Solution:

n
Using the formula for exponential growth (or decay): En = E (1 + r )
En
When the quantity is doubled: = 2.
E
Therefore
n
2 = (1 + r ) D
where
nD : years to doubling
r : rate of exponential increase

5
 Taking the natural logarithms on both side of the above equation:
ln(2) = nD × ln (1 + r )
ln(2)
∴ nD =
ln (1 + r )

Expanding the denominator using the Taylor series

r2 r3 r4
( )
ln 1+ r = r − + − ....
2 3 4

Neglecting higher order terms

r2
ln (1 + r ) ≈ r −
2
ln(2) 0.693 0.693
nD ≈ = 2
=
ln (1 + r ) r − r r ⎡1 − r ⎤
2 ⎣ 2⎦

Since r is very small 1 − r ≈1

2
0.693
nD ≈
r
Since r is normally expressed as R%,
R
r=
100
69.3
Therefore nD ≈
R
This is often approximated for ease of manual calculation as (see
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rule_of_72)
72
nD ≈
R
With an 8% discount rate this approximation gives a precise result.

11. If the carbon intensity of electricity generation in the UK is to decrease from 450 tonnes
of CO2/GWh to 50 tonnes of CO2/GWh over 20 years what is the annual rate of decrease
required assuming an exponential reduction?

[Answer: 10.4%]

Solution:

n
Using the formula for exponential growth (or decay): En = E (1 + re )
n
50 = 450 (1 − r )
50 1 n
= = (1 − r )
450 9
Taking natural logs of both sides

6
 ⎛1⎞
ln ⎜ ⎟ = n × ln (1 − r )
⎝9⎠
1 ⎛1⎞
ln (1 − r ) = ln ⎜ ⎟
n ⎝9⎠
Taking the exponential to both sides
" 1 " 1 %%
$$ ln$ '''
# n # 9 &&
1− r = e
⎛ 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞⎞ ⎛ 1 ⎛ 1 ⎞⎞
⎜ ln⎜ ⎟ ⎟ ⎜ ln⎜ ⎟ ⎟
⎝ n ⎝ 9 ⎠⎠ ⎝ 20 ⎝ 9 ⎠ ⎠
r = 1− e = 1− e = 10.4%

Check
20
En = 450 (1 − 0.104) = 50

7
 Chapter 2

WIND ENERGY

Take the density of air to be 1.25 kg/m3

1. Sketch and explain the Power Curve of a wind turbine.

Solution:

700

600

500
Output power / kW

speed
Rated wind

400
Cut- in wind

300
speed

200 Cut- out wind

speed
100

0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30
Wind speed (m/s)

2. Sketch and explain the CP / λ curve of a wind turbine rotor. Define CP and λ . What is
the Betz Limit?

Solution:

• Power extracted by the aerodynamic rotor = Cp x Power available where Cp is the

power coefficient
ωR Speeds of rotor tip
• Tip speed ratio is defined as λ = =
V Free wind speeds

• The maximum value of the power coefficient Cp is 59% and it is called the Betz Limit.

8
3. Explain using appropriate diagrams and sketches how power may be regulated in a wind
turbine by pitch regulation and stall regulation. Why is stall regulation only used for fixed
speed wind turbines?

Solution: See Section 2.6.1

Fig 2.13b

Figure 2.11

There are two ways of reducing the rotational force Fr and hence the output power of the
wind turbine, pitch and stall regulation. Consider the airfoil characteristics (Figure 2.11)
with the blade operating at an initial angle of attack of 100. Cd is very small and so can
be ignored but the Cl characteristic is a steeply rising almost straight line. With pitch
regulation the angle of incidence (α) is reduced by mechanically turning the blade about
its axis. This reduces Cl , Fr, and hence the power generated by the wind turbine.

For a fixed speed wind turbine, the angular velocity ω of the rotor is held constant by the
electrical generator, which is locked on to the 50 or 60 Hz frequency of the power
network. Considering the triangle of velocities V, U and −ω r The velocity of the blade
element ω r is constant and so an increase of the free wind speed U, will increase Φ.
Hence α increases as V swings round. Consider Figure 2.11 with an initial operating
angle of attack of 100. Once the free wind speed U has increased sufficiently for the
angle of attack to exceed around 130 the blade stalls and the lift coefficient and hence
the torque decreases. This is stall regulation that does not require any physical change
in the pitch angle of the blades.

For stall regulation it is necessary to keep the rotor speed of rotation 𝜔 constant so that
as U increases the angle of attack 𝛼 also increases and the blade goes into stall.

4. Why are large wind turbines operated at variable speed? Explain the principle of
operation of a Full Power Converter variable speed wind turbine.

Solution:

• For maximum power extraction, the turbine should operate at a particular value of λ.
In order to achieve this the generator speed should change with the wind speed.
• Under variable speed operation, the mechanical loading on the wind turbine is
reduced.
• As variable speed wind turbines often have a power electronic interface, turbines will
be able to meet the grid code requirements with less additional equipment.

9
 In variable speed wind turbines, back-to-back converters are used to extract maximum
power from wind. The following figure shows a converter system typically used to control
a large full power converter variable speed wind turbine. The generator may be
synchronous (wound rotor or permanent magnet) or an induction machine. Operation is
possible over a wide speed range.
Local
transformer

Wind turbine
Generator Network
generator
converter converter
Full power converter (FPC) variable-speed generator

5. Describe briefly what is meant by the measure-correlate-predict technique for

establishing the long-term wind resource at a wind farm site

Solution: See Section 2.9.1

The measure-correlate-predict technique takes a series of measurements of wind speed

and direction at the mast erected at the wind farm site and correlates them with
simultaneous wind speed measurements made at a local meteorological station, which
may be at a local airport. The averaging period of the site-measured data is
synchronised with that of the meteorological station data. This gives a scatter plot with
the mast measurements on one axis and the simultaneous meteorological station
measurements on the other. Linear regression is used to establish a relationship
between the measured site wind speed and the long-term meteorological wind speed
data.

The coefficients relating the two sets of measurements, sometimes known as speed-up
factors, are calculated for the twelve 300 directional sectors. Then these coefficients are
applied to transfer the long term data record of the meteorological station to the site. The
speed up factors allow the long term wind speed record held by the meteorological
station to be used as an estimate of what the wind speed at the wind farm site would
have been over that period. It is then assumed that this long term wind speed record at
the site is representative of the wind speed over the projected life of the wind farm. It is
common to use a long term record of 20 years.

The drawbacks of using the measure-correlate-predict technique include that high site
masts are necessary if large wind turbines are planned. There may not be a suitable
meteorological station nearby (within say 50 km) or with a similar exposure and wind
climate. The data obtained from the meteorological station may not always be of good
quality and may include gaps. Therefore, it may be time consuming to ensure that it is
properly correlated with the site data. Critically the technique assumes that the previous
long-term record provides a good estimate of the future wind resource over the lifetime of
the wind farm.

6. Discuss how Weibull parameters may be used to describe hourly mean wind speed data
at a site.

Solution: See Section 2.8.1

10
 It has been found from experience that either the Weibull or the simpler Raleigh
distribution (when k=2) can be used to describe the shape of the probabilities of long
term records of wind speeds.
The probability density function of a Weibull distribution is given by

k −1
k ⎛U ⎞ ⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
f (U ) = ⎜ ⎟ exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
c⎝ c ⎠ ⎣⎢ ⎝ c ⎠ ⎥⎦
where
c: scale parameter [m/s]
k: shape parameter

and the cumulative distribution function (that the wind speed will be less than or equal to
U) is given by
⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎣⎢ ⎝ c ⎠ ⎥⎦

7. A wind turbine has a rotor diameter of 33 m. At a wind speed of 13 m/s,

a) What is the power in the wind?
b) What is the power in the shaft of the turbine if the rotor has a power coefficient CP of
0.35?
c) If the speed of rotation of the shaft is 35 r.p.m. calculate the tip speed and torque on
the shaft.

[Answer: a) 1.17 MW; b) 411 kW; c) 60.5 m/s, 112 kNm]

Solution:

1 1
a) Pwind = ρ AU 3 = ×1.25 × π ×16.52 ×133 = 1174 kW
2 2

b) Pshaft = Pwind × CP = 1174 × 0.35 = 411 kW

35
c) ω = × 2π = 3.67 rad/sec
60

Vtip = ω R = 3.67 ×16.5 = 60.5 m/s

P 411
Torque = = = 112 kNm
ω 3.67

8. A wind turbine has a rotor of 55 metres in diameter, mounted at a hub height of 60

metres. The gearbox ratio is 1:28. If it operates at a tip speed ratio (λ) of 8 in a wind
speed of 10 m/s, with a power coefficient of 0.35 and a thrust coefficient of 0.55
calculate:
a) The torque on the generator shaft
b) The overturning moment at the base of the tower

[Answer: a) 6.38 kNm; b) 4.9 MNm]

11
 Solution:

ωR U λ 10 × 8
a) From λ = , ω= = = 2.91 rad/sec
U R 27.5

1
Pwind = 1 ρ AU 3 = ×1.25 × π × 27.52 ×103 = 1.485 MW
2 2

Pshaft = C p Pwind = 0.35 ×1.485 = 520 kW

P 520
Qls shaft = = = 178.7 kNm
ω 2.91
178.7
Qgen shaft = = 6.38 kNm
28

1
b) Thrust = Ct ρ AU 2 = 0.55 × 0.5 ×1.25 × π × 27.52 ×102 = 81.67 kN
2

Moment = 81.67 × 60 = 4.9 MNm

9. A large horizontal axis wind turbine has a rotor of diameter of 80 m at a hub height of 90
m. It operates at a rotational speed of 15 r.p.m. with a combined efficiency of the
gearbox and generator of 95% to produce 2 MW of electrical output power.
a) If the hub height wind speed is 12 m/s calculate C p (the Power Coefficient) of the
rotor.
b) Write down the tip speed ratio and hence C Q (the Torque Coefficient)
c) Estimate the wind speed at a 10 m high met mast adjacent to the wind turbine

[Answer: a) 0.39; b) 5.23, 0.075; c) 8.8 m/s]

Solution:

1
a) Pwind = 1 ρ AU 3 = ×1.25 × π × 402 ×123 = 5.43 MW
2 2
2
Pshaft = = 2.1 MW
0.95

Pshaft 2.1
Cp = = = 0.39
Pwind 5.43

(15 × 2π ) × 40
ωR 60
b) λ= = = 5.23
U 12

12
 Cp 0.39
CQ = = = 0.075
λ 5.23
1
7
⎛ zhub ⎞
c) U hub = U ref ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟
⎝ zref ⎠
0.1428 0.1428
⎛z ⎞ ⎛ 90 ⎞
U ref = U hub1/ ⎜ hub ⎟ = 12 / ⎜ ⎟ = 8.8 m/s
⎜ zref ⎟ ⎝ 10 ⎠
⎝ ⎠

10. A horizontal axis wind turbine has a rotor diameter of 20 m, and reaches its full load
output at the generator terminals of 150 kW at a wind speed of 13 m/s. The overall
efficiency of the gearbox and generator is 94%.

a) Calculate the power in the air passing through the rotor disk and hence the Power
Coefficient ( C p ) of the aerodynamic rotor.

b) The turbine operates at a Tip Speed Ratio (λ) of 4. Calculate the rotational speed of
the aerodynamic rotor and hence the torque on the rotor shaft.

c) The inertia of the complete rotor, gearbox and generator is 50x103 kgm2. Calculate
the speed of the rotor 0.5 seconds after the connection to the electrical power
network is broken and write down the energy that is absorbed by the brake when it
brings the rotor rapidly to rest.

[Answer: a) 431 kW, 0.37; b) 5.2 rad/sec, 30.7 kNm, c) 5.5 rad/sec, 756 kJ]

Solution:

1
a) Pwind = 1 ρ AU 3 = ×1.25 × π ×102 ×133 = 431 kW
2 2

Pshaft 150
Cp = = 0.94 = 0.37
Pwind 431

U λ 13 × 4
b) ω = = = 5.2 rad/sec
R 10

150
P 0.94 = 30.7 kNm
Qls shaft = =
ω 5.2

1 2 1
c) KE during operation = I ω = × 50, 000 × 5.22 = 676 kJ
2 2

Additional KE = = 150 × 0.5 = 79.8 kJ

0.94

Therefore energy to be dissipated in brake = 755.8 kJ

13
 Maximum speed

2KE 2 × 755.8
ω= = = 5.5 rad/sec
I 50

11. A wind turbine is rated at 400 kW at 12.5 m/s. If the annual distribution of hourly mean
wind speeds at the site may be represented by a Weibull distribution with
Scale parameter of 8.5
Shape parameter of 2.5

Calculate the annual energy production in kWh per year that the wind turbine will
produce at rated power.

[Answer: 254 MWh]

Solution:

The time that the wind speed is below 12.5 m/s is calculated from

( + ( +
* " U %k - * " 12.5 %2.5 -
F (U ) = 1− exp *− $ ' - = 1− exp *− $ '
c 8.5 & -
*) # & -, *) # -,
F (U ) = 0.927, or 8124 hours/year

Assuming that the number of hours the wind turbine operates above cut-out wind speed
is negligible, the number of hours the wind turbine operates at rated power
= 8760 – 8124 = 636 hrs
Total energy wind turbine will produce = 400 kW x 636 = 254,400 kWh

12. A wind farm consists of 10 wind turbines each with:

Hub height 50 m
Rated power 2 MW
Cut in wind speed 5 m/s
Rated wind speed 13 m/s
Cut-out wind speed 20 m/s

Long term monitoring wind speeds has been undertaken using an anemometer at 20 m
height and the site wind speeds can be represented by a Weibull distribution with:
Scale parameter 8
Shape parameter 2 (Raleigh Distribution)

Assume that the Scale parameter increases with height according to the 1/7 power law.

Calculate:
a) The number of hours each year the turbines operate
b) The annual energy production (in MWh per year) which the wind turbines will
produce when operating above rated power.

[Answer: a) 6414 hours; b) 21.5 GWh]

14
Note:

The following are likely to be useful

U ( z ) ⎛ z ⎞α
=⎜ ⎟
U (h) ⎝ h ⎠

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp⎢− ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢ ⎝c⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦
Solution:

a) When the hub height wind speed is 5 m/s, then wind speed at 20 m height
1/7
⎛ 20 ⎞
= ⎜ ⎟ × 5 = 4.3865 m/s
⎝ 50 ⎠
The time that the wind speed is below 4.3865 m/s is calculated from

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ 4.3865 ⎞2 ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢ ⎝c⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ 8.0 ⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
F (U ) = 0.26, or 2274.6 hours/year

When the hub height wind speed is 20 m/s, then wind speed at 20 m height
1/7
⎛ 20 ⎞
= ⎜ ⎟ × 20 = 17.546 m/s
⎝ 50 ⎠
The time that the wind speed is below 17.546 m/s is calculated from

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ 17.546 ⎞2 ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ = 1 − exp ⎢− ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢ ⎝c⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ 8.0 ⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
F (U ) = 0.9919, or 8688.65 hours/year
The number of hours each year the turbines operate = 8688.65 – 2274.6 = 6414 hrs

b) When the hub height wind speed is 13 m/s, then wind speed at 20 m height
1/7
⎛ 20 ⎞
= ⎜ ⎟ × 13 = 11.405 m/s
⎝ 50 ⎠
The time that the wind speed is below 11.405 m/s is calculated from

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤ ⎡ ⎛ 11.405 ⎞2 ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥ = 1 − exp ⎢ − ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢ ⎝c⎠ ⎥ ⎢ ⎝ 8.0 ⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
F (U ) = 0.869, or 7612.2 hours/year

No of hours wind turbine operates above rated speed = 8688.65 – 7612.2 = 1076.45
hrs
Total energy 10 wind turbines will produce = 10 x 2 MW x 1076.45 = 21.5 GWh

15
13. Estimate the Weibull parameters of the following set of hourly mean wind speed
measured over one year.

Wind speed (m/s) Hours

0-4 2050
4-8 4000
8-12 2200
12-16 460
16-20 50

[Answer: c 7.2, k 2]

Note: Graph Paper is provided and the following may be useful:

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp ⎢− ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝ c ⎠ ⎥⎦

Solution:

ln ⎡⎣− ln (1 − F (U ))⎤⎦ = k ln U − k ln c
Wind speed (m/s) Hours ln (U) ln(-ln(1-F(U))
0-4 2050 1.386 -1.24
4-8 4000 2.079 0.11
8-12 2200 2.485 0.99
12-16 460 2.772 1.73
16-20 50 2.995 10

Plotting ln(U) versus ln[-ln(1-F(U))] gives a graph similar to that of Figure 2.22 and so
allows estimation of c and k.
ln(-ln(1-
U Hours F(U) 1-F(U) ln(1-F(U)) ln(U) F(U)))
4 2200 0.251 0.749 -1.382 1.386 -1.241
8 3700 0.674 0.326 -0.395 2.079 0.113
12 2280 0.934 0.066 -0.069 2.485 0.999
16 550 0.997 0.003 -0.003 2.773 1.736
20 30 1.000 0.000 0.000 2.996

14. The annual distribution of hub height hourly mean wind speeds at a site may be
described by a Weibull distribution with:
Scale parameter, c, of 8.5
Shape parameter, k, of 2

Calculate the gross annual energy yield of a wind turbine with a Power Curve shown in
the Table, installed at this site.

[Answer: 2191 MWh]

16
 Wind speed m/s Output kW
0-5 0
6 50
7 120
8 280
9 440
10-25 600

The following are likely to be useful

k −1
k ⎛U ⎞ ⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
f (U ) = ⎜ ⎟ exp ⎢− ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
c⎝ c ⎠ ⎣⎢ ⎝ c ⎠ ⎦⎥

⎡ ⎛ U ⎞k ⎤
F (U ) = 1 − exp⎢− ⎜ ⎟ ⎥
⎢ ⎝c⎠ ⎥
⎣ ⎦
Solution:

8.5 2
U P f(U)/F(U) Hours/year kWh
6 50 0.101 884 44200
7 120 0.098 862 103380
8 280 0.091 800 223996
9 440 0.081 711 312969
10+ 600 0.287 2512 1507172
2191717

17
 Chapter 3

HYDRO POWER

1. Even though hydro power plants with large reservoirs do not produce CO2, they have
negative impact on environment. Discuss.

Solution:

• Schemes with large reservoirs can result in a significant loss of land with major
impacts on the environment and local populations.
• When large reservoirs are first flooded, decomposing submerged vegetation can lead
to significant emissions of methane (a powerful greenhouse gas)
• The failure of a large dam can lead to catastrophic loss of life.

2. Draw a schematic diagram of a high head hydro scheme and discuss the purpose of
each component.

Solution:

The above figure shows a simple schematic of a hydro scheme. The main components
are:
• Intake - Gates on the dam open and gravity pulls the water through the penstock.
• Penstock - A pipeline that leads to the turbine. Water builds up pressure as it flows
through this pipe
• Turbine - The water strikes the blades of the turbine and rotates the generator
connected to it.
• Generator – Converts the potential and kinetic energy in water to electrical energy
• Surge chamber – Controls over-pressure in the event of a sudden reduction in flow
through the turbine.

3. Distinguish clearly between the principle of operation of impulse and reaction hydro-
turbines. Give one example of each.

Solution:

Impulse turbines operate by extracting kinetic energy from one or more high speed jets
of water that strike a runner at atmospheric pressure. There is no pressure drop across
the runner and energy is extracted by changing the direction of the water jet. The
pressure energy in the penstock is converted into the kinetic energy of the jet at the
nozzle. Impulse turbines are used for high heads (>250m).

18
 Types of impulse turbines include: Pelton, Turgo and Cross Flow.

Reaction turbines have a runner completely immersed in the flow of water and operate
by the hydrodynamic lift forces generated on the runner. The water arriving at the runner
is still under pressure and a significant fraction of the power is generated by the pressure
drop across the turbine. The runner is located in a pressurised casing with a carefully
designed clearance between the runner and casing. Reaction turbines are used for
medium and low heads.

Types of reaction turbines include: Francis and Propeller type. The Kaplan turbine is a
development of the Propeller type with variable pitch blades.

4. A hydro scheme is proposed for a site with a gross head of 100 m and a flow rate of 5
m3/sec. What is the gross power in this hydro resource and what turbines might be
considered?

[Answer: 4.9 MW, either Francis or multi-jet Pelton turbines]

Solution:

P = ρ QgH = 1000 × 5 × 9.81×100 = 4.905 MW

Turbines selected from inspection of Fig 3.25

5. A hydro scheme with an overall efficiency of 84% and an effective head of 200 m is
required to generate 150 MW. What is the volumetric flow rate required?

[Answer: 91 m3/s]

Solution:

Pnet 150
Pgross = = = 178.6 MW
η 0.84

P 178.6 ×106
Q= = = 91 m3/s
ρ gH 1000 × 9.81× 200

6. The reservoir of the scheme described in Question 5 contains 108 m3 of useable water.
How much energy is stored and how long can it generate at 150 MW?

[Answer: 196 TJ, 305 h]

Solution:

Gross energy stored

E = ρVgh = 1000 ×108 × 9.81× 200 = 196 TJ = 54.5 GWh

Since the overall efficiency is 84%,

Hydro generation possible = 0.84 x 54.5 GWh = 45.8 GWh

At 150 MW, time of generation is

19
 45.8 ×109
t= = 305 hrs
150 ×106

Alternatively,

From Question 4, volume flow rate is 91 m3/s.

Therefore operating time is 108/(91 x 3600) = 305 hrs

7. A hydro power plant operates in the following manner:

During the months January to March and October to December, the reservoir has
adequate water to operate the hydro power plant at its full capacity.

During the months April to September, in order to maintain adequate water level in
the reservoir the hydro power plant operates at half of its capacity.

Calculate the Annual Capacity Factor (ACF).

If the generator is shut down for 15 days in the month of January, what will be the new
ACF?

[Answer: 75%, 71%]

Solution:

If the capacity of the hydro power plant is P [MW], ACF is calculated as:
P × 8760
( + P × 8760
) ( )
ACF = 2 2 2 ×100 = 75%
P × 8760
If the generator is shut for 15 days in month of January, then new ACF is given by:
P × 8760 − 15 × 24 + P × 8760
( ) ( )
ACF = 2 2 2 ×100 = 70.9%
P × 8760
8. A 5 MW turbine drives a 1200 r.p.m. generator through a 4:1 gearbox. If the head of the
scheme is 180 m, what is the specific speed?

[Answer: 32]

Solution:

Turbine speed = 1200/4 = 300 r.p.m.

1 1
nT P 2
300 × 5000 2
Ns = 5
= 5
= 32.2
H 4
180 4

9. A penstock of 0.8 m diameter, 100 m long has a friction factor of 0.03 m. The discharge
is 3 m3/s. The viscosity of water is 1.0 mPa.s.

Calculate
a) the head loss of a penstock
b) relative roughness of the penstock

20
 [Answer: a) 6.8 m; b) 0.05]

Solution:

4Q 4×3
a) v = = = 5.97 m/s
π D π × 0.82
2

υ 2 Lf 5.962 ×100 × 0.03

hloss = = = 6.8 m
2 gD 2 × 9.81× 0.8
vDρ 5.96 × 0.8 ×1000
b) Re = = −3
= 4.77 ×106
η 1.0 ×10
From Moody chart, D is 200 (please note that the Moody chart shown in Figure
ε
III.13 does not show D = 200 curve).
ε
Therefore the relative roughness = 0.005

10. A Pelton turbine has the following data:

Jet diameter 48 mm
Net Head 720 m
Effective radius of runner 0.7 m

Assuming ideal operation, calculate the:

a) Jet velocity
b) Force on the runner
c) Torque on the runner
d) Runner rotational speed (in r.p.m.)
e) Power developed

[a) 119 m/s; b) 25.5 kN; c) 17.9 kNm; d) 812 r.p.m.; e) 1.5 MW]

Solution:

1
a) From ρV 2 = ρ gH :
2
V = 2 gH = 2 × 9.81× 720 = 119 m/s

b) A = π R 2 = π × 0.0242 = 1.81×10−3 m2

From F = ρ AV 2 ,
F = 1000 ×1.81×10−3 ×1192 = 25.6 kN

c) Since Torque = Force × radius

Torque = 25.6 × 0.7 = 17.9 kNm

d) At ideal conditions

V
U= = 59.5 m/s
2
U 59.5
ω= = = 85 rad/s
R 0.7

21
 85 × 60
ω= = 811.7 r.p.m.
2π

1
e) P = ρ AV 3 = 0.5 ×1000 ×1.81×10−3 ×1193 = 1.52 MW
2
Alternatively

P = T ω = 17.9 ×103 × 85 = 1.52 MW

11. The nozzles of a two-jet Pelton wheel are located 150 m below the surface of a reservoir.
The diameter of each nozzle is 65 mm. The wheel rotates at 750 r.p.m. Ignore all losses.

Calculate
a) The diameter of the bucket
b) The shaft power
c) The torque if the operating speed is changed to use a 500 r.p.m. generator
d) The runaway speed

[Answer: a) 0.69 m; b) 530 kW; c) 8990 kNm; d) 1500 r.p.m.]

Solution:

a) The velocity of the jets will be

V = 2 gH = 2 × 9.81×150 = 54.25 m/s

For ideal operation,

54.25 2π × 750
U = 0.5V = = r× = r × 78.5 rad/s
2 60
54.25
r= = 0.345 m
2 × 78.5
Diameter = 0.69 m

b) For these ideal conditions

V ⎛ V⎞ 1
P = ρQ × × ⎜ V − ⎟ × 2 = ρ QV 2
2 ⎝ 2⎠ 2
2
π × ⎡⎣65 ×10−3 ⎤⎦
Q = A ×V = × 54.25 = 0.18 m3/s
4
1
P = ×1000 × 0.18 × 54.252
2

= 265 kW/jet

The total shaft power is then 530 kW.

22
 c) If the speed is changed to 500 r.p.m. then the torque developed per jet is

& =VVθ ρ Qr = 2(V − U ) ρQr

T =VVθ mr
⎛ 500 × 2π ⎞
T = 2 × ⎜ 54.25 − × 0.345 ⎟ ×1000 × 0.18 × 0.345
⎝ 60 ⎠
T = 2 × ( 54.25 − 18.06 ) ×1000 × 0.18 × 0.345 = 4494.8 kNm
500 × 2π
P per jet = T ω = 4494.8 × = 235.3 MW
60
Torque on the runner
2 × 235.3
T= = 8989.6 kNm
500 × 2π
60

d) The runaway speed is equal to the jet speed:

U = 54.25 m/s

U 54.25
ω= = = 157.25 rad/s
r 0.345
157.25 × 60
N= = 1501 r.p.m.
2π

12. A Francis turbine has the following data:

Volumetric flow rate 20 m3/s
Rotor height 300 mm
Inlet radius 800 mm
Runner speed 52 rad/s
Stator blade angle 70o

Calculate the output power

[Answer 30.3 MW]

Solution:

& θ 1U1
P = mV
m&= ρ Q = 1000 × 20 = 20 000 kg/s
U1 = ωr = 52 × 0.8 = 41.6 m/s

Ignoring the width of the blades

Q Q 20
Vrad 1 = = = = 13.26 m/s
Area 2π r × height 2π × 0.8 × 0.3

Vθ 1 = Vrad1 × tan 70 = 13.26 × 2.747 = 36.44 m/s

& θ 1U1 = 20 000 × 36.44 × 41.6 = 30.3 MW

P = mV

23
13. A Francis turbine of 92% efficiency produces 50 MW at a speed of 250 r.p.m. The rotor
height is 1.5 m and the inlet radius is 2.5 m. The flow enters the runner at an angle of 45o
to the radial and exits the turbine in a radial direction. Determine the volumetric flow rate.

[Answer: 140 m3/s]

Solution:

Mechanical output of turbine

Pelectrical 50
Pm = = = 54.34 MW
η 0.92

Velocity of runner at inlet

rpm × 2π 2.5 × 250 × 2π

U1 = r1 × = = 65.45 m/s
60 60

The volumetric flow rate entering the turbine is the radial velocity of the flow times the
inlet area

Q = 2π r1hV
1 rad 1 = 2π × 2.5 ×1.5 × Vrad 1 = 23.56Vrad 1

The mass flow rate is

m&= ρ 2π r1hV
1 rad 1 = 23 560Vrad 1

but from the inlet velocity triangle

Vθ 1
= tan 45
Vrad 1
Therefore
Vθ 1
m&= ρ 2π r1h1 = 23 560Vθ 1
tan 45
& 1Vθ 1 = 23 560Vθ 1 × 65.45 × Vθ 1
Pin = 54.34 ×106 = mU
2 54.34 ×106
V =
θ1 = 35.24
23 560 × 65.45

Vθ 1 = 5.94 m/s

Vrad 1 = Vθ 1 = 5.94 m/s

Q = 23.56Vrad 1 = 23.56 × 5.94 = 140 m3/s

14. A proposed site for a high head hydro scheme has a gross head of 200 m and a flow
rate of 1 m3/s. The length of the penstock is 450 m and the diameter of the available
pipes is 400 mm. Assume a friction coefficient of 0.03 m and a minor loss coefficient of
0.5. Calculate the:

24
 a) Net head
b) Power available at the turbine.

[Answer: a) 172 m; b) 1.7 MW]

Solution:

a) The velocity of the flow is

Q
v= m/s
π D2
4
which gives

0.5 × 4
v= = 3.98 m/s
π × 0.42
At this velocity the friction head loss is
v 2 Lf 3.982 × 450 × 0.03
Vh friction = = = 27.25 m
2 gD 2 × 9.81× 0.4

v2 3.982
Vhother = ∑ KL = 0.5 × = 0.4 m
2g 2 × 9.81

Therefore the net head is 200-(27.25+0.4) =172.35 m

b) Power available at the turbine is

P = ρ ghQ = 1000 × 9.81×172.35×1.0 = 1.7 MW

15. A 1 MW hydro turbine-generator operates at 90% efficiency and 1000 r.p.m. The inertia
of the combined turbine and generator is 750 kgm2.

What will be the over-speed 1 second after it loses its electrical load?

[Answer: 1126 r.p.m.]

Solution:

Pout 1000
Pin = = = 1111kW
η 0.90

The stored energy during normal operation is

2
1 1 ⎛ 1000 × 2π ⎞
KE = I ω 2 = × 750 × ⎜ ⎟ = 4.112 MJ
2 2 ⎝ 60 ⎠
H constant 4.112

25
 After 1 second

3600
KE ' = 4.112 + (1.111× ) = 5.223 MJ
3600

Hence speed after 1 second

2 × KE ' 2 × 5.223 ×106

ω= = = 118 rad/s = 1126 r.p.m.
I 750

16. Derive the expression for Specific Speed given in Equation 3.5.

Solution:

Derivation of the Specific Speed of a Hydro Turbine

This derivation follows the usual steps of the well-known technique of dimensional
analysis.

1) List all the variables that influence the Power generated by the turbine.

P = f ( ρ , ω, D, gH , Q )

2) Express each of the variables in terms of the basic dimensions (M, L, T)

Parameter Symbol Dimensions

Power P ML2T-3
Density ρ ML-3
Speed ω T-1
Runner diameter D L
Head (expressed as gH) gH L2T-2
Flow rate Q L3T-1
3) Determine the number of terms
Π

There are 3 Π terms as there are 6 variables and 3 basic dimensions.

4) Choose ρ , ω , D as the repeating variables as we wish to investigate P, gH and Q

5) Form the dimensionless Π terms

Π1 = P ρ aω b D c
a b c
(
M 1 L2T −3 ML−3 ) (T ) ( L )
−1 1
= M 0 L0T 0

Hence equating coefficients

for M , 1 + a = 0, a = −1,
for T , − 3 − b = 0, b = −3,
and for L, 2 − 3a + c = 0, c = −5

26
 Π1 = P ρ −1ω −3 D −5
P
Π1 = the Power Coefficient
ρ ω 3 D5

Π 2 = Q ρ aω b D c
a b c
M 0 L3T −1 ML−3( ) (T ) ( L )
−1 1
= M 0 L0T 0

Hence equating coefficients

for M , a = 0,
for T , − 1 − b = 0, b = −1,
and for L, 3 − 3a + c = 0, c = −3

Π 2 = Q ρ 0ω −1 D −3
Q
Π2 = the Flow Coefficient
ω D3

Π 3 = gH ρ aω b D c
a b c
M 0 L2T −2 ML−3( ) (T ) ( L )
−1 1
= M 0 L0T 0

Hence equating coefficients

for M , a = 0,
for T , − 2 − b = 0, b = −2,
and for L, 2 − 3a + c = 0, c = −2

Π 3 = gH ρ 0ω −2 D −2
gH
Π3 = the Head Coefficient
ω 2 D2

Thus the final relationship of the pi terms is

Π1 = φ ( Π 2 , Π 3 )

P⎛ Q gH ⎞
=φ⎜
3 5
3
, 2 2⎟
ρω D ⎝ω D ω D ⎠

Choosing the Power and Head coefficients, both of which are dimensionless we may
write
P
Π1 =
ρ ω 3 D5

and

27
 gH
Π3 =
ω 2 D2
Eliminating D
1 1
5 2
⎛ P ⎞ ⎛ gH ⎞
D=⎜ 3 ⎟ =⎜ 2 ⎟
⎝ ρ ω Π1 ⎠ ⎝ ω Π3 ⎠
1 1
⎛ P ⎞ 5 1
2
1
2 ⎛P ⎞ 5

⎜ ρ ⎟ ⎛ gH ⎞ 1 ⎛ gH ⎞ 1 ⎜ ρ⎟
=⎜ 2 ⎟ = ⎜ ⎟ = 3
⎜⎜ ω 3Π1 ⎟⎟ ⎝ ω Π3 ⎠ ω ⎝ Π3 ⎠ ω 5 ⎜⎜ Π1 ⎟⎟
⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
1

Π1
1
5
=
ω
2
5
( ρ)P 5

1 1
Π3 2 gH 2

Hence raising this expression to the power of 5 and considering the condition of
2
maximum efficiency

ΩS =
ω P ( ρ) 2

5
gH 4

28
 Chapter 4

THE SOLAR ENERGY RESOURCE

1. Explain the terms describing the components of the solar resource: direct (beam)
radiation, diffuse radiation and albedo. Which components are likely to dominate at a site
in a tropical desert region and on a snow covered mountain top?

Solution:

Due to the limited water vapour in the atmosphere, diffuse radiation is unlikely to be
significant in the desert although dust may act to increase this. Similarly the limited air
mass on the mountain top reduces the fraction of diffuse irradiance. On the mountain top
direct irradiance is likely to be dominant with albedo reflections off snow possibly being
significant

2. Distinguish between the terms Irradiance, Insolation and Irradiation.

Solution:

Irradiance (W/m2) is the rate at which solar radiant energy is incident on a surface (i.e.
the solar power per unit area). The symbol G is normally used.

Insolation (J/m2 or kWh/m2) is the incident energy per unit area on a surface. This is
found by integrating the irradiance over a specified time, typically a day although periods
of a month or a year are also used. The symbol H is normally used for insolation over a
day.

Some international standards use the term Irradiation to describe incident solar energy.
In this book we will use Insolation to describe incident solar energy (J/m2 or kWh/m2) to
distinguish it clearly from Irradiance or solar power (W/m2).

3. Write down a first approximation of the tilt angles and orientations of solar panels to give
maximum annual insolation in the following places:
Cairo
Lusaka
[Answer: Cairo: 300, ± 5o of South; Lusaka: 150, ± 5o of North]

Solution:

In order to capture the maximum annual energy, a good first approximation is to choose
the tilt angle of a solar panel to be equal to the latitude of its location. The latitude of
Cairo is 300 and that of Lusaka is 150. Therefore first approximation of tilt angles is 300 at
Cairo and 150 at Lusaka.

Since Cairo is in the Northern hemisphere, the orientation of the solar panel should be
within ± 5o of South.

Since Lusaka is in the Southern hemisphere, the orientation of the solar panel should be
within ± 5o of North.

4. A solar water heating system is to be located in southern England at a latitude of 50o.

The main demand for hot water is at 18:00. Estimate the angle of orientation for the
panels.

29
 [Answer: Azimuth angle -45o; Tilt angle 60o]

Solution:

To maximise the solar resource in the evening the panels should be orientated South
West (Azimuth angle -45o).

To maximise the solar resource in the Spring and Autumn the tilt angle should be
increased above the Latitude (Tilt angle 60o)

5. What should be the approximate orientation of solar panels in Cardiff to obtain maximum
annual insolation?
[Answer: around 35-40o]

Solution:

Cardiff is at latitude 51o in the northern hemisphere. Therefore the first estimate of the
orientation should be at a tilt angle of 51o facing south.

In practice a tilt angle of around 35-40o gives a greater annual energy yield. In the winter
months, when the sun is low in the sky, the air mass and in particular the water vapour in
the air leads to considerable attenuation of the irradiance. Therefore a flatter tilt angle
makes better use of the irradiance in the summer months and so a greater annual
energy yield.

6. Use a solar resource web-site to estimate the resource at your location. Complete this
Table. Choose an optimum tilt angle for maximum annual insolation. Comment on the
results.

Parameter Units Value

Annual global insolation (irradiation) on a kWh/m2.year
horizontal surface
0
Tilt angle for maximum annual insolation
Maximum annual global insolation at an kWh/m2.year
optimum tilt angle
Daily insolation in January at an optimum tilt kWh/m2.day
angle
Daily insolation in June at an optimum tilt angle kWh/m2.day
Ratio of direct/diffuse daily insolation %
Peak irradiance in January at an optimum tilt W/m2
angle
Peak irradiance in June at an optimum tilt angle W/m2

Solution:

Solution given for Cardiff using CEU PVGIS web-site:

(http://re.jrc.ec.europa.eu/pvgis/apps4/pvest.php#)

Parameter Units Value

Annual global insolation (irradiation) on a horizontal kWh/m2.year 1070
surface
0
Tilt angle for maximum annual insolation 38
Maximum annual global insolation (irradiation) at an kWh/m2.year 1250
optimum tilt angle
Daily insolation (irradiance) in January at an kWh/m2.day 1.08

30
 optimum tilt angle
Daily insolation (irradiance) in June at an optimum kWh/m2.day 5.25
tilt angle
Ratio of direct/diffuse insolation % 51
Peak irradiance in January at an optimum tilt angle W/m2 236
Peak irradiance in June at an optimum tilt angle W/m2 575

The tilt angle to give maximum annual insolation is 380, which is lower (flatter) than the
latitude of 510. This is to make the best use of the solar resource in summer.
In June about 50% of the insolation is diffuse and 50% direct. This is because of the high
latitude, water vapour in the atmosphere and clouds.
With a tilt angle of 380 and orientated due south the ratio of daily insolation between
January and June is 5

7. Calculate the Altitude of the sun at solar noon at Cardiff on 17 July. What is the Zenith
angle and hence the Air Mass?
[Answer: 30o and 1.15]

Solution:

The angle of declination is given by

⎡ 360
δ = 23.450 × sin ⎢ ( n + 284 )⎤⎥ [degrees]
⎣ 365 ⎦
n: day of the year (from Jan 1st)

On 17 July n=182+17=199.
⎡ 360
∴δ = 23.450 × sin ⎢ (199 + 284 )⎤⎥ = 21 0 [degrees]
⎣ 365 ⎦
0
β noon = 90 − L + δ
∴ β noon = 90 − 51 + 21 = 600

At solar noon the Zenith angle θ is

θ = 90 − β noon = 300
1
AM at solar noon = = 1.15
cos 300

8. How many hours of daylight are there on 25 December at Cardiff? What is the minimum
Air Mass on this day?
[Answer: 3.7]

Solution:

The angle of declination is given by

⎡ 360
δ = 23.450 × sin ⎢ ( n + 284 )⎤⎥ [degrees] (4.1)
⎣ 365 ⎦
n: day of the year (from Jan 1st)

On 25 Dec, n =335+25=360.
⎡ 360
∴δ = 23.450 × sin ⎢ (360 + 284 )⎤⎥ = −23.35 o
⎣ 365 ⎦

31
 The position of the sun as seen from earth using the angles of Figure 4.8 (stated here
but not proved) is given by
sin β = cos δ cos H cos L + sin δ sin L

When the sun rises or sets

sinβ = cosδ cosH cosL + sinδ sinL = 0
− sinδ sinL
cosH = = −tanδ tanL
cosδ cosL
=− tan ( −23.35) tan(51) = 0.431×1.235 = 0.532
H = 57.80
24 × H 24 × 57.8
t= = = 3.85 hours
360 360
Therefore there will be 7.7 hours of daylight.

The minimum air mass will occur at solar noon

β noon = 90 − 51 − 23.35 = 15.650

At solar noon the Zenith angle θ is

θ = 90 − β noon = 74.350
1
Air Mass at solar noon = = 3.7
cos 74.350

9. What is the energy of photons of light with a wavelength of 2 µ m ?

[Answer: 0.59 eV]

Solution:

hc 6.26 ×10−34 × 2.998 ×108

E= = −6
= 9.38 ×10−20 J = 0.59 eV
λ 2 ×10
By definition 1eV = 1.602x10 -19 J

10. Amorphous silicon has a bandgap of 1.7 eV. Calculate the maximum wavelength of solar
radiation that will generate power from an amorphous silicon photovoltaic cell.
[Answer: 0.69 µm]

Solution:
-19
By definition 1eV = 1.602x10 J. Therefore the energy required to excite an electron to
cross the bandgap is:
1.7 ×1.602 ×10−19 = 2.723 ×10−19 J
hc 6.26 ×10−34 × 2.998 ×108
λ= = −19
= 6.892 ×10−7 m = 0.69 µm
E 2.723 ×10

32
 Chapter 5

PHOTOVOLTAIC SYSTEMS

1. Describe the 3 generations of PV cells. Why do 1st generation cells continue to dominate
the market?

Solution:

• The 1st generation technology uses wafers of mono- or poly-crystalline silicon. These
bulk silicon devices are produced in large quantities and dominate the commercial
market for photovoltaic panels.
• The 2nd generation of thin film technologies include amorphous silicon which is
cheaper but less efficient than crystalline silicon and other thin film semiconductor
materials such as Copper Indium Gallium diSelenide (CIGS) and Cadmium Telluride
(CdTe). All of these technologies are used in the commercial production of flat plate
photovoltaic modules. In addition Gallium Arsenide (GaAs) is used for solar panels in
space craft and for concentrating terrestrial systems.
• The 3rd generation includes the emerging technologies of dye-sensitised and
organic/polymer solar cells sometimes using Perovskite materials. The principle of
operation of these devices differs slightly from 1st and 2nd generation technologies
and 3rd generation devices have yet to be produced in large quantities. They are the
subject of very active research and development particularly to improve the long term
stability of the materials.

1st generation (crystalline) PV cells continue to dominate the commercial market as:
• The modules are robust, stable in operation over time and have well-defined
operating characteristics.
• There has been considerable investment in large manufacturing plants and the cells
are produced in large numbers.
• However, they use a significant quantity of very pure silicon which is both expensive
and energy-intensive to produce.

2. Use a sketch to show the main components of a grid connected PV system. Which
component dominates the cost?

Solution:

The main components are the solar modules in an array, the maximum power point
tracker and the inverter. The solar modules themselves dominate the cost.

33
3. Use a sketch to show the main components of a stand alone PV system. Which
component dominates the reliability?

Solution:

The main components are the solar modules, the battery and the controller and low
voltage disconnect. The batteries (particularly if lead acid) dominate the reliability.
Blocking
Regulator diode LV disconnect

Fuse

Battery
Modules

5. What is the purpose of a blocking diode and a bypass diode?

Solution:

A blocking diode is connected in series with a module, or string of modules, to ensure

there is no reverse current flow when there is no sun. A blocking diode is always
connected to prevent a battery discharging into a PV array at night.

Bypass diodes are connected across strings of cells to ensure current is not forced
through a reverse biased shaded cell. Forcing current through a shaded cell can create
hot spots and damage the cell.

4. Sketch the V-I and V-P characteristics of a photovoltaic (PV) module. Show clearly the
effect of changes in irradiance and cell temperature.

Solution:

V-I Characteristics at different irradiance and temperatures

34
 T2 T1
T1

Voltage (volts)

V-P Characteristics at different temperatures

5. Use sketches of the V-I and V-P characteristics of a photovoltaic (PV) module to explain
why Maximum Power Point Trackers are used. Using sketches, discuss one common
method of Maximum Power Point tracking.

Solution:

I I °
I-V 75 C
°
I-V 50 C
I-V 1 kW/m2
°
I-V 25 C
2
I-V 0.75 kW/m

I-V 0.5 kW/m2

P-V
° °
75 C 25 C
P-V

V V
(a) irradiance characteristics (b) temperature characteristics
PV module characteristics
Fig. 24 PV module characteristics
Maximum power is obtained on the knee point of the V-I curve. This point changes with
cell temperature and irradiance. Hence active control of the module terminal voltage is
required. Commonly used techniques are:

Perturb and observe (Hill climbing)

Incremental conductance
Fraction of open circuit voltage (less effective)

In the the Hill Climbing or Perturb and Observe (P&O) method, the controller operates by
periodically increasing or decreasing by a small amount the voltage applied to the
module. If the perturbation of the voltage leads to an increase in module output power,
the subsequent perturbation will be made in the same direction. If not, the direction of
perturbation is reversed. By this principle, the maximum power point is determined. This
is shown in the following figure.

35
 Perturb and Observe MPPT.

6. Draw and explain the equivalent circuit of a photovoltaic cell.

Solution:

When a PV cell is dark, no electrons are excited from the valence to the conduction band
(into the crystal lattice) and the PV cell acts as a simple diode. When it is exposed to
light some photons have enough energy to excite electrons into the conduction band and
they are then pulled across the electric field created by the depletion region. Therefore
the equivalent circuit of a PV cell is a current source with a forward biased diode. The
bulk and contact resistances of the semiconductor adds a series resistance to the ideal
PV cell equivalent circuit. Further, partial short-circuiting near the junction introduces a
shunt resistance. Therefore the equivalent circuit of a PV cell is a current source, a
forward biased diode, a shunt resistor and a series resistor as shown in the following
figure.
I

RS

R SH V
IP

7. A photovoltaic system with a rated output of 4 kW at Standard Test Conditions is to be

installed at a site with a daily insolation of 5 kWh/m2. Estimate the electrical output of the
photovoltaic system and the Daily Capacity Factor.

[Answer: 12-16 kWh, 15%]

Solution:

Insolation of 5 kWh/m2 is equivalent to 5 Peak Sun Hours (at an irradiance of 1000

W/m2). If the reduction in output due to increased cell temperature and other losses are
ignored, the daily electrical energy output of the system is 5 x 4 = 20 kWh/day. However,
the effect of increased cell temperature and system losses reduces this to 60-80% of this
nominal value ~ 12 − 16 kWh. Assuming an output of 14 kWh the daily capacity factor is

36
 14
Daily Capacity Factor = = 15%
4 × 24
8. A solar array is formed by six modules, as shown in Figure 5.28, each having 36 cells in
series. Assume that at 1000 W/m2 irradiance each cell has a short circuit current of 3.6 A
and an open circuit voltage of 0.6 V. Sketch the V-I characteristic of the array at an
irradiance of 500 W/m2.

Figure 5.28 Solar array for Question 6

Solution:

Each cell has an open circuit voltage of 0.6 V.

36 cells in series give a module open circuit of 0.6 x 36 = 21.6 V
Two modules in series gives an open circuit voltage of 21.6 x 2 = 43.2 V

An irradiance of 1000 W/m2 gives a current of 3.6 A.

At the irradiance of 500 W/m2 the short circuit current reduces to 1.8 A.
As there are three sets of modules in parallel the total short circuit current at the
irradiance of 500 W/m2 = 1.8 x 3 = 5.4 A

Current

5.4 A

Voltage
43.2 V

9. A solar module having a rectangular V-I characteristic is connected to a resistive load of

3 Ω. Under standard conditions, the short circuit current and the open circuit voltage of
the module are 6.75 A and 21.6 V respectively. Calculate the power generated to the
load at irradiance of 500 and 800 W/m2.

[Answer: 87.5 W, 34.2 W]

Solution:

Under standard conditions, i.e. at an irradiance of 1000 W/m2, the short circuit current of
the module is 6.75 A.
At the irradiance of 800W/m2 short circuit current reduces to 5.4 A.
At the irradiance of 500W/m2 short circuit current reduces to 3.375 A.

37
 Current

6.75 A
5.4 A
3Ω
3.375 A

V1 Voltage

20.3 V
21.6 V
V2
At the irradiance of 800W/m2, power generated = 5.4xV2 = 87.5 W
[Alternatively ( I 2 R ) 5.42 x3 gives the power]

At the irradiance of 500W/m2, power generated = 3.375xV1 = 34.2 W

[Alternatively 3.3752 x3 gives the power]

10. A crystalline silicon PV module has 36 cells connected in series. Each cell is square with
sides 150 mm. Estimate the open-circuit voltage of the module, the short circuit current
and the power output at an irradiance of 800 W/m2. Assume ISC=300 A/m2 at standard
conditions and the cells have a rectangular V-I characteristic.

[Answer: 21.6 V, 5.4 A, 116 W]

Solution:

Each cell has an open circuit voltage of 0.6 V.

36 cells in series give a module open circuit of 0.6 x 36 = 21.6 V
Each cell has an area of 0.15x0.15 m2.
With a short circuit current of 300 A/m2 at an irradiance of 1000 W/m2, the current
= 300 x 0.15 x 0.15 = 6.75 A.
However the irradiance is 800 W/m2 and so this reduces to 5.4 A.
Hence the power output is the VxI =21.6 x 5.4 = 116 W

11. With reference to the solar spectrum shown in Figure 5.29:

Figure 5.29 Solar spectrum

38
 a) Explain why it is that Silicon solar cell can only utilise about 25% of the solar energy
available.
b) How can a more efficient solar cell that makes use of the full solar spectrum be
made? What are such cells called?

The band gap of Si is 1.1 eV

Solution:

a) By definition 1eV = 1.602x10 -19 J

Therefore the energy of each photon to excite an electron to cross the band-gap is
E = 1.1×1.602 ×10−19 = 1.76 ×10−19 J

Using Equation (4.5), this requires a wavelength of less than

hc 6.626 ×10−34 × 2.998 ×108
λ≤ = −19
= 1.12 ×10−6 m = 1.1 µ m
E 1.76 ×10
The cut off wavelength is ~ 1.1 µm.

As shown in the following figure the radiation in the infrared region of the
electromagnetic spectrum does not have enough energy to excite electrons from the
valence into the conduction band. Radiation at shorter wave lengths (higher
frequencies) has more energy than is required and the excess energy is then wasted.
Therefore a single crystal silicon solar cells cannot convert more than 25% of the
solar energy into electricity.

Excess energy

Does not have

enough energy

Cut-off wavelength

b) In advanced structures using compound semiconductors (GaAs, AlGaAs and InGaP)

and multiple junctions it is possible to design cells that have much higher efficiencies
by using a series of materials with different band gaps that span as much as possible
of the energetic photons in the 600 to 800 nm range. This type of cell is usually called
tandem or triple junction solar cells.

12. A 1.5 cm2 GaAs solar cell has a saturation current of 0.5 nA, and a short circuit current of
100 mA. This cell has a Fill Factor (FF) of 0.8 and current at its maximum power point of
Im= 90 mA

39
Calculate
a) the open circuit voltage VOC of the cell.
b) the value of VMP.
c) the efficiency of the cell if it is illuminated with 100 mW/cm2.

Assume that the ideality factor is unity i.e. n =1.

At room temperature:

kT
VT = = 0.026 with k being the Boltzmann’s constant, T the absolute temperature and
q
q the electronic charge.

[Answer: a) 0.495 V; b) 0.44 V; c) 26.4%]

Solution:

a) From the question we are given the following parameters I O = 5x10-10 A, ISC = 100 x
10-3 A and Pin = 100 mW/cm2

The ideal diode equation is:

⎡ qV ⎤ ⎡ VV ⎤
I = I O ⎢e -1⎥ = I O ⎢e T -1⎥
kT

⎣ ⎦ ⎣⎢ ⎥⎦

and can be rearranged

⎛ I ⎞
V = VT ln ⎜ + 1⎟
⎝ I0 ⎠
Considering the simple equivalent circuit when the cell is short circuited, the
photocurrent is equal to the short circuit current i.e. the diode has no effect when the
cell is short circuited. When the cell is open circuited all the photocurrent must flow
through the diode. Thus using the short circuit current in the diode equation gives the
open circuit voltage of the cell.

⎛I ⎞ ⎛ 100 ×10−3 ⎞
VOC = VT ln ⎜ SC + 1⎟ = 0.026 × ln ⎜ −9
+ 1⎟ = 0.497 V
⎝ I 0 ⎠ ⎝ 0.5 × 10 ⎠

b) The maximum voltage VMP is given :

I MPVMP FF × I sc × Voc 0.8 ×100 ×10−3 × 0.497

From FF = then VMP = =
I SCVOC I MP 90 ×10−3
And thus VMP = 0.44 V

c) The efficiency is given by :

I MPVMP / Area 90 × 0.44 /1.5

ξ= = ×100% = 26.4% .
Pin 100

40
13. A crystalline silicon PV module has 36 cells connected in series. Each cell is square with
sides 100 mm. At an irradiance of 600 W/m2, estimate

a) The open-circuit voltage of the module

b) The short circuit current
c) The maximum available power

Two of the above modules are connected (in parallel) to a 12 Volt battery. Estimate the
power delivered into the battery.

The battery terminal voltage is described by V=12+I where I is the current into the battery
in amps

Assume ISC=300 A/m2 at standard conditions and the cells have a rectangular V-I
characteristic (i.e. 100% fill factor).

[Answer: a) 21.6 V; b) 1.9 A; c) 39 W and 56 W]

Solution:

a) Open circuit voltage = 36x0.6=21.6 V

b) Short-circuit current = 0.1x0.1x300x0.6=1.8 A

c) Max available power with 100% fill factor is simply VxI= 39 W

Since there are two modules in parallel the short circuit current is 3.6 A.

3.6A

21.6V
Operating point is

Voltage 12+I=12+3.6=15.6 V

Current =3.6 A

Operating point: 15.6 V and 3.6 A, giving a power of 56 W

41
14. A PV module has 38 poly-crystalline silicon cells connected in series. Each cell is square
with sides 120 mm. The module is receiving irradiance at 600 W/m2 with a cell
temperature of 60 0C.

a) Calculate the open circuit voltage and short circuit current of the module.

b) Assuming a rectangular V-I characteristic (i.e.100% fill factor), calculate the

resistance the Maximum Power Point Tracker should present to the module for
maximum power output under these conditions.

c) What is the percentage power lost if this resistance is applied to the module when it
is used on a mountain top site with irradiance of 1000 W/m2 and a cell temperature of
25 0C?

Assume
ISC is 300 A/m2 and VOC is 0.6 V/cell at standard conditions of 1000 W/m2 and 250C.
δVOC is -2.5 mV/0C/cell

[Answer: a) 19.5V, 2.6A; b) 7.5 ohm; c) 30%]

Solution:

a) At STP VOC = 38 × 0.6 = 22.8 V

At 60 0C ΔV = ( 60 − 25) × 0.0025 × 38 = 3.325 V
At 60 0C VOC = 22.8 − 3.325 = 19.5 V

ISC = 0.122 × 300 × 0.6 = 2.6 A

b) R = V = 19.5 = 7.5 ohm

I 2.6

c) At STP with a rectangular V-I characteristic,

I MP = 0.122 × 300 = 4.32 A

VMP = 38 × 0.6 = 22.8 V
PMP = 22.8 × 4.32 = 98.5 W

If a resistance of 7.5 ohm is applied under these conditions the operating point will
be:

V = 22.8V
V 22.8
I= = = 3.04 A
R 7.5
P = V × I =22.8 ×3.04 =69.3 W

69.3
% output = = 70%
98.5
Therefore the percentage loss is 30%

42
15. A manufacturer’s catalogue of photovoltaic modules advertises a large assembled
module supplying a peak output power at 25 V and 12 A at standard test conditions
(1000 W/m2), but has omitted the physical dimensions.

The catalogue mentions that the cells have an efficiency of 10% when mounted within
the module and that their active area makes up 80% of the total area of the module.

Each cell has the following characteristics at standard test conditions:

Peak power point: 0.5 V, 3 A
Short circuit current: 3.5 A
Open circuit voltage: 0.6 V

a) How big is the module in square metres?

b) Calculate the number of cells in series and parallel in each module and hence sketch
the V-I characteristic of the module.

c) Using the sketch, estimate the power that could be delivered into a 1 ohm resistive
load.

[Answer: a) 3.75 m2; b) 50 in series, 3 in parallel, c) 170 W]

Solution

a) Peak Electrical Power is 12 A x 25 V=300 W.

Solar power required is 300/(0.1x0.8)=3750 W
At an irradiance of 1000 W/m2 this requires a panel of 3.75 m2.

b) For a cell the peak power point: 0.5 V, 3 A

Number of cells in series in each module = 25/0.5 = 50
Number of modules in parallel = 12/3 = 4
Therefore for the module
Short Circuit Current: 14 A
Open Circuit Voltage: 30 V
The V-I characteristic of the module can now be drawn.

Approx
14A 13A and 13 V
170W
PP: 25V,12A

II

V 30V,

43
c) A V-I characteristic of a 1 ohm resistor is also shown in the above figure. The
operating point is where the characteristics cross gives the V and I. Hence power =
13 x 13 = 170 W

44
 Chapter 6

SOLAR THERMAL ENERGY

1. Distinguish between direct, isolated and indirect solar gain of a building.

Solution:

Direct solar gain is captured when solar radiation enters the building directly (e.g.
through a window).

Isolated solar gain is achieved by adding a sunspace such as a conservatory to the

building.

Indirect solar gain uses air or another fluid to transfer heat into the building. Examples
include Trombe walls and transpired solar collectors.

2. Explain how glass windows act to heat a building. How can the temperature within a
building be controlled using windows?

Solution:

Glass windows act to heat a building by allowing the transmission of high frequency,
short wavelength irradiance from the sun and blocking the re-emission of the lower
frequency, longer wavelength radiation from the cooler surfaces within the building.
Glass windows also serve the important function of limiting the movement of air and
hence convection.

Temperature within a building can be controlled by limiting the solar irradiance entering
the building, e.g. through the use of blinds or shutters and overhangs as well as by
increasing the airflow through ventilation.

3. List and discuss the features needed for effective passive solar heating of a building.

Solution:

An effective passive solar design for a building in a temperate climate consists of five
main elements.
a) A large area of glazing transmits solar radiation into the building. This glazed area is
orientated within ± 30o of south (in the northern hemisphere) and is not shaded
during that part of the year when heating is required.
b) Internal surfaces, usually made from hard material of dark colour, that absorb the
solar radiation and increase in temperature.
c) A large thermal mass, either as part of the fabric of the building or an additional heat
store (water or a phase change material), is used to maintain an even temperature in
the building and prevent overheating.
d) A distribution system transfers heat from the warmed internal surfaces throughout the
building. This heat transfer can be a combination of convection by air movement,
conduction through the surfaces and low temperature radiation.
e) A control strategy ensures that heating is adequate when needed but the building
does not overheat in summer. The incoming irradiance can be limited actively using
blinds and external shutters or passively by window overhangs. Air flows through the
building are controlled with vents and dampers. Active devices such as blinds and
vents may be controlled automatically or manually.

45
4. Why are degree days used when monitoring the energy performance of the heating and
cooling system of a building? Sketch and explain a performance line, labelling the axes.

Solution:

The energy that is used for heating or cooling a building depends on the outdoor
temperature due to the heat transfer across the fabric and through the exchange of air.
This variation in heating or cooling requirement with outdoor temperature makes it
difficult to monitor the performance of a heating or cooling system. The concept of
degree days is used to allow the performance of building heating and cooling systems to
be evaluated in a simple manner that excludes the effects of outside temperature.

The degree day is calculated as the difference, averaged over a 24 hour period, between
the outside temperature and a reference or base temperature. The base temperature is
the outside temperature at which neither heating nor cooling of the building is required
(the balance point temperature). In the UK, a base temperature of 15.5 oC is commonly
used.

A Performance Line is created by plotting the number of heating (or cooling) degree days
in a month, against the energy consumed in that month. Data from a well-functioning
system should fall close to this line. Deviations from the performance line can be seen
more easily if the cumulative Sum of the Differences is also plotted.

5000
Heating energy per month

4000
y = 11.508x - 35.149
3000
kWh

2000

1000

0
0 100 200 300 400

Degree days per month

Performance line

5. Compare the advantages of electricity generation by solar PV and CSP.

Solution:

Advantages of PV:
No moving parts
Modular, can be of any rating from 1 kW to 50 MW.
Does not require water during operation
Can use both direct and diffuse irradiance

Advantages of CSP
Uses a conventional large rotating generator
Can store heat energy and so can have a high capacity factor
Cost effective in very good solar resource
Performance does not degrade with increased ambient temperature

46
6. The cross section of a wall is shown in Figure 6.27. The thermal resistance of each
material is given in the table.

Material Thermal resistance [m2K/W]

Brick 0.13
Air 0.18
Sheathing 0.07
Mineral wool quilt 3.50
Plaster board 0.13
a) Calculate the composite U-value for the cross section shown in Figure 6.22
b) In the wall there is a double glazed window having a U-value of 2.5 W/m2K. The
overall area of the wall is 10 m2 and within it the area of the window is 3.5 m2. If
the temperature inside the room is 20 oC and that outside is 10 oC calculate the
heat loss.

[Answer: a) 0.25 W/m2.K; b) 103.75 W]

Plaster board

Mineral wool quilt

Sheathing (timber)
Air cavity
Brick wall
Figure 6.27: The cross section of the wall

Solution:

a) The wall can be represented by the following equivalent circuit:

1 2 3 4 5

In the figure resistors 1 to 5 represents

1 Brick
2 Air
3 Sheathing
4 Mineral wool quilt
5 Plaster board

Total resistance = 0.13 + 0.18 + 0.07 + 3.50 + 0.13 = 4.01 m2K/W

Composite U value = 1/4.01 = 0.25 W/m2K

b) Heat loss through the wall = UA × ΔT = 0.25 x (10 - 3.5) x (20 - 10) = 16.25 W
Heat loss through the window = 2.5 x 3.5 x (20 - 10) = 87.5 W
Therefore the total heat loss = 16.25 + 87.5 = 103.75 W

47
7. A small rectangular room has a glass window. The following parameters are provided:
Solar gain coefficient of the window: S= 0.7
Heat transfer coefficient of the window: U=1.4 W/m2.K
Temperature different between the ambient and interior air: Δ𝑇 = 20 oC

Assume that the room is so well insulated that the heat transfer through the opaque
external walls, floor and ceiling is negligible. If the sunlight strikes the window at an angle
of 600 to the glass, calculate the irradiance required to maintain a constant temperature
within the room when the sun is shining.

[Answer: 46 W/m2]

Solution:

Solar heat gain through the window

= SGnormal Aw = 0.7 × G × cos 30o × Aw = 0.606 × G × Aw W
where Aw : area of the window
Heat loss through the window = Aw ΔT ×U = Aw × 20 ×1.4 W
Equating heat loss and gain
0.606 × AwG = Aw × 20 ×1.4
G = 46.2 W/m2

8. The ventilator of the room in Question 4 is opened to give the following conditions:
2 air changes per hour
Volume of air within the room is 50 m3
The irradiance is 300 W/m2 striking the window at an angle of 300
Specific heat of air is 1.005 kJ/kgK
Density of air is 1.25 kg/m3

Calculate the minimum area of window required to maintain a constant temperature of

200C above ambient within the room.

[Answer: 4.53 m2]

Solution:

Mass flow rate of the exchange of air with atmosphere

2
m! = ρ nV = 1.25× × 50 = 0.0347 kg/s
3600
3
! p ΔT = 0.0347 ×1.005×10 × 20 = 697.47 W
Heat loss due to exchange of air = mc

The new heat balance equation is

0.7 × 300 × cos30o × Aw = Aw × 20 ×1.4 + 697.47
181.87 Aw = 28 Aw + 697.47
Aw = 4.53 m2

9. A building has the following parameters:

The overall heat loss coefficient of the fabric, U, is 0.5 W/m2K
The surface area of the building is 1000 m2.

48
 The volume of the building is 800 m3
Air changes per hour are 0.75.
The specific heat of air is 1.005 kJ/kg.K.

The temperature inside the building is maintained at 20 °C and the mean outdoor
temperature is 10 °C. Calculate
a) the heat transfer across the fabric
b) the heat transfer by air exchange
c) the overall heat loss coefficient, 𝑈′

[Answer: a) 5 kW; b) 2.1 kW; c) 710 W/K]

Solution:

a) The heat transfer across the fabric is given by

QF = UA(Tint − Tamb )
U : 0.5 W/m2K
A : 1000 m2
QF = 0.5 ×1000 × (20 − 10) = 5 kW

b) The heat loss due to ventilation

QV = ρ nVc p (Tint − Tamb )
ρ : 1.25 kg/m3
N : 0.75 h-1
V : 800 m3
c p : 1005 J/kg.K
0.75
Qv = 1.25 × × 800 ×1005 × ( 20 − 10 ) = 2.09 kW
3600

c) The overall heat loss coefficient of the building is

U ' = (UA + ρ nVc p )
⎛ 0.75 ⎞
U ʹ = ⎜ 0.5 ×1000 + 1.25 × × 800 × 1005 ⎟ = 709.38 W/K
⎝ 3600 ⎠

10. The building in Question 6 is situated in a city where the heating degree days in each
month is given in Table 6.7. The efficiency of the heating system is 75%.
Calculate the expected energy consumption for a year.

[Answer: 41 MWh]

Month
and year
June

Sept

May
July

Aug

Nov

Dec

Mar
Feb
Jan
Oct

Apr

Degree
34 15 34 28 69 179 277 292 304 272 168 137
days

Table 6.7: Heating degree days

49
 Solution:

Energy used in the building is given by

E = U ' ∫ (Tbase − Tamb ) dt = U ' ∑ Dm
= 709.38 x (34+15+34+28+69+179+277+292+304+272+168+137) x 24/1000
= 30798.44 kWh
The energy consumed by the heating system over the year = 30798.44/0.75 = 41.06
MWh

11. A glazed flat plate solar collector to heat water has a transmissivity τ=0.85 and
absorptivity, α = 0.9. The following data are given:
Irradiance on the plate: G = 800 W/m2
Heat loss co-efficient: U = 3 W/m2.K
Ambient temperature: 𝑇!"# = 22 oC
Mean temperature of the plate: 𝑇!"#$ = 29 oC

Calculate the:
a) Thermal loss of the collector per unit area
b) Usable heat derived from the collector per unit area
c) Thermal efficiency

[Answer: a) 21 W/m2; b) 591 W/m2; c) 74%]

Solution:

a) Thermal loss, QL = AU (Tmean − Tamb ) [W ]

Thermal losses per unit area = 3 x (29 – 22) = 21 W/m2
b) The usable heat derived from the collector per unit area = 800 x 0.85 x 0.9 – 21 =
591 W/m2
c) Thermal efficiency = (591/800) x 100 = 73.9 %

12. The area of the flat plate solar collector in Example 6.4 is 1 m2, the specific heat of water
is 4185 J/kg.K and the inlet water temperature is 𝑇!" = 18 oC.
a) What is the mass flow rate of water required to maintain the outlet water temperature
at 25 oC?
b) What is the outlet water temperature if the mass flow rate of water is doubled?

[Answer: a) 0.02 kg/s; b) 21.5 oC]

Solution:

(
! p Tout − Tin
a) The usable heat QW is equal to mc )
( )
! p Tout − Tin = 591 W
mc
591 591
m&= = = 0.02 kg/s
c p (Tout − Tin ) 4185 × ( 25 − 18)
b) If the mass flow rate is doubled:
0.04 × 4185 (Tout −18) = 591 W
Tout = 21.53 oC

50
13. A solar heater with 10 m2 flat absorber plate is designed such that under the following
conditions the outlet water temperature is approximately 50 oC:
The irradiance is 700 W/m2
Ambient temperature is 22 oC
Inlet water temperature is 18 oC
Water mass flow rate is 0.03 kg/s

The following data are given:

Heat loss co-efficient: U = 3 W/m2.K
Heat removal factor: F = 0.975
Specific heat of water: c p = 4185 J/kg.K

If the transmissivity of the glass cover is τ=0.8 select a suitable plate for the absorber
plate from the following:
Plate 1: absorptivity, α = 0.35
Plate 2: absorptivity, α = 0.74
Plate 3: absorptivity, α = 0.95

[Answer: Plate 2]

Solution:

The heat removal factor is defined as:

F=
(
! p Tout − Tin
mc )
A"#G τα −U Tin − Tamb $%
( ) ( )
FA ⎡⎣G (τα ) − U (Tin − Tamb )⎤⎦
Therefore Tout = + Tin ;
&p
mc
0.975 ×10 × ⎡⎣700 (τα ) − 3 (18 − 22 )⎤⎦
Tout = + 18 = 50
0.03 × 4185

This gives
τα = 0.57
Plate 2 has τα = 0.8 x 0.74 = 0.592
Therefore Plate 2 is a good choice.

51
 Chapter 7

MARINE ENERGY

1. Distinguish clearly between tidal range, tidal stream and wave power generation.

Solution:

Tidal range generation exploits the potential energy of the difference in the height of the
water level at the edge of the oceans that is caused by the tides. A barrage is
constructed across the mouth of an estuary to create a difference in water height inside
and outside an impounded area as the height of the tide varies. Low head, reaction
hydro turbines, are placed in the barrage. Tidal lagoons are another form of tidal range
generation.

Tidal stream generation uses the kinetic energy of a tidal current to drive a submarine
turbine. The operation of a tidal stream turbine has some similarities to that of a wind
turbine although a submarine rotor for the same power output is of smaller diameter as
water is 820 times denser than air.

Wave power is a different approach to marine energy conversion in which the power of
the oceans surface waves is captured and converted into electricity.

2. What are the main difficulties of developing large tidal range power schemes?

Solution:

• The high initial capital cost and long construction period.

The high discount rates demanded for power generating projects make it very
difficult to obtain finance from commercial lenders for large tidal range schemes.
They may take 5-7 years to construct, during which time there is no revenue and
once built the civil works then last for up to 100 years. Simple Discounted Cash
Flow analysis shows that, even with a discount rate as low as 5%, any income 30
years or more in the future is of little present value.
• The anticipated environmental impact
There is often concern over the effect of the turbines on fish and marine
mammals and over the loss of inter-tidal zones at the edge of the estuary that
provide the habitat of wading birds. Once a barrage is built the water level of the
impounded area of the basin no longer changes with the tides to the same extent
as before and the area of mud flats that are alternatively dry and submerged are
reduced.
• Interference with shipping and other users of the estuary
Although ship-locks would be included in any large barrage there is likely to be
opposition to any scheme that is proposed from shipping interests and other
users of the estuary.

3. What steps should be followed when developing a tidal stream project?

Solution:

Initially a search is undertaken to identify a site with suitable tidal stream currents of high
average flow speeds during both neap and spring tides and with low turbulence. The
depth of water and seabed must be suitable for the type of tidal stream device being
considered.

52
 An initial estimate of the speed of the tidal currents should be obtained from an atlas of
the marine energy resource. A tidal stream atlas gives a useful general indication of the
resource but, as the project is developed, progressively more detailed measured data is
acquired and computer modelling undertaken.

Suitable measured data in the form of harmonic constituents may be collected from
previous studies or derived from site measurements taken using either a towed or fixed
acoustic Doppler instrument.

These site measurements of the time series should be decomposed into the harmonic
constituents that are then used to predict the long-term tidal currents.

Before construction of a scheme is finally sanctioned it is recommended that at least a 3-

month record of site data is obtained. This is used to calibrate a 2-D or 3-D numerical
model of the site.

4. A tidal barrage is to be built across the mouth of an estuary to create an impounded area
of 15 km2. The tidal range at the mouth of the estuary varies between 6 and 12 m.
Estimate the energy potential of the tides and hence the average power that might be
generated:
a) for a spring tide
b) for a neap tide

[Answer: a) 486.5 MW; b) 121.6 MW]

Solution:

The potential energy available from each tidal cycle (both ebb and flood) is

E = ρgAH2 [J ]

Therefore for a spring tide of 12 m the available energy is

E = ρgA H2 = 1025 × 9.81×15 ×106 ×122 = 21.72 [TJ ]

with an average power of

21.72 ×1012
Paverage = = 486.5 MW
24.8 × 3600
2

For a neap tide this reduces to

E = ρgA H2 = 1025 × 9.81×15 ×106 × 62 = 5.43 [TJ ]

with an average power of

5.43 ×1012
Paverage = = 121.6 MW
24.8 × 3600
2

53
5. A circular tidal lagoon that is 3 km diameter is situated in an average tidal range of 6 m.
Estimate the maximum average power if ebb only generation with the performance
shown in Figure 7.7 is used.

[Answer: 16.3 MW]

Solution:

Assuming operation as shown in Figure 7.7, the energy available each tidal day from the
2 ebb tides is

E = ρgA H2 × 0.568 [J ]
2
(
E = 1025 × 9.81× π × 1.5 ×103 ) × 62 × 0.568 = 1.45 [TJ ]

Therefore the average power per day is

1.45 ×1012
Paverage = = 16.28 MW
24.8 × 3600

6. A tidal lagoon is constructed out from one bank of an estuary with a 9.5 km long
embankment to give an impounded are of 11.5 km2. It produces 420 GWh/year from
turbines with a rated capacity of 320 MW.

Comment on the capacity factor of the scheme and the ratio of length to area of the
impounded area.

[Answer: 15%, 826]

Solution:

Annual energy produced ( MWh )

Capacity factor =
rating of generators ( MW ) × hours in the year

420 ×103
= = 15%
320 × 24 × 365

Ratio of length of barrage to impounded area is

9500
Ratio = = 826
11.5

The capacity factor is low and the ratio of the length of barrage to impounded area is
high. Thus an embankment of low cost per unit length is required for a cost-effective
installation.

7. Calculate the ratio of embankment length (in metres) to impounded area (in km2) of a
semi-circular tidal lagoon built out from the banks of an estuary? What are the
implications of this calculation?

54
 Solution:

Length of Radius of Impounded area Ratio of length of

embankment semi-circle [km2] embankment
[km] [km] [m]/impounded area [km2]
1 0.32 0.16 6280
10 3.18 15.9 628
50 15.9 398 126

The implications of this simple calculation are that the cost of the embankment per km
must be kept low and that the cost of energy from lagoons is likely to reduce with size.

8. The tidal stream rotor shown in Figure 7.12 generates 400 kW. Calculate the Power
Coefficient.

[Answer: 0.42]

Solution:

The free stream water speed at hub height is

1
⎛ 15 ⎞ 7
U15 = 2 ⎜ ⎟ = 2 × 0.906 = 1.812 m / s
⎝ 30 ⎠
P 400, 000
Cp = =
1 1
ρAU3 ×1025 × π ×102 ×1.8123
2 2
400, 000
= = 0.42
957,896

9. A 10 m diameter horizontal axis tidal stream turbine has a Thrust Coefficient CT of 0.5
and a flow velocity at hub height of 2.8 m/s. Its hub is 15 m above the sea bed. Calculate
the thrust on the rotor and hence the overturning moment of a bottom mounted support
structure.

[Answer: 157.8 kN, 2.37 MNm]

Solution:

Thrust on the rotor

1 1
Thrust = CT ρAU 2 = 0.5 × ×1025 × π × 52 × 2.82 = 157.8 kN
2 2
Overturning moment
Moment = 157.8 ×15 = 2367 kNm

10. Using suitable assumptions, compare the overturning moment of the tidal stream turbine
described in Problem 9 with a wind turbine producing a similar rated power at a wind
speed of 12 m/s. (Example 7.4 may be useful)

[Answer: Wind turbine: 1.15 MNm, Tidal stream turbine: 2.37 MNm]

55
 Solution:

Radius of tidal stream turbine is 5m.

From Example 7.4 an equivalent wind turbine will be of radius

R wind turbine = R tidal stream turbine × 3.2 = 16 m.

Check output powers

For tidal stream turbine

1 1
P = CP ρπ R 2U 3 = 0.45 × ×1025 × π × 52 × 2.83 = 398 kW
2 2
For wind turbine
1 1
P = CP ρπ R 2U 3 = 0.45 × ×1.25 × π ×162 ×123 = 391 kW
2 2
Thus output powers are similar.

Thrust on the wind turbine is

1 1
Thrust = CT ρAU 2 = 0.5 × ×1.25 × π ×162 ×122 = 36 kN
2 2
The hub height of a wind turbine is often at height of twice the radius.

Overturning moment

Moment = 36 × 32 = 1.15 MNm

Thus both the thrust force and overturning moment on the tidal stream turbine during
operation are almost twice those of the wind turbine.

Of course the wind turbine may experience higher extreme loads during particular events
such as emergency stops or when shut down in very high winds.

11. A 3 bladed, 10 m diameter, horizontal axis tidal stream turbine operates at a tip speed
ratio ( λ ) of 5 in a flow velocity of 2.8 m/s. Each blade weighs 2000 kg with a centre of
mass at 0.4 R. Calculate the rotational kinetic energy stored in the rotor. If the tidal
stream turbine is rated at 800 kW calculate its Inertia Constant ( H ) and compare that
value with the Inertia Constants commonly found in other generating plant. (See Section
10.4 for the definition of Inertia Constant.)

[Answer: 94.1 kJ, 0.12 s]

Solution:

ωR λU 5 × 2.8
λ= and so ω = = = 2.8 rad/s
U R 5

The inertia of the rotor is

2
2
I = 3 × mreffective = 3 × 2000 × (0.4 × 5) = 24 000 kg.m2

56
 The stored kinetic energy is

1 2 1
KE = Iω = × 24 000 × 2.82 = 94.1 kJ
2 2

The H constant of an electrical generator (see Section 10.4) is defined as

1 2
Iω
2 94.1×103
H= = = 0.12 s
S 800 ×103
Typical values of H for other rotating generating plant are between 2-6 s.

12. Calculate the wavelength and velocity of wave of period 10 seconds in deep water/s.

[Answer: 156 m, 15.6 m]

Solution:

L = 1.56T 2 = 156 m

c = 1.56T = 15.6 m

13. Calculate the wavelength and velocity of a wave of 10 s period in shallow water of 1 m
depth. Confirm that the shallow water approximation is appropriate.

[Answer: 31.3 m, 3.13 m/s]

Solution:

c = gD = 9.81×1 = 3.13 m / s

L = cT = 3.13 ×10 = 31.3 m

The shallow water condition of D < L , i.e. 1 < 31.3 is satisfied.

20 20

14. Find the wavelength, L, and speed, c, of a wave of period 12 s in a depth of 25 m.

[Answer: 13.8 m/s]

Solution:

224.6
In deep water, L = 1.56T 2 = 224.6 m. Using this approximation the ratio L = =9
D 25
and so the full form of Equation 7.2 is required

L gL ⎛ 2πd ⎞
c= = tanh ⎜ ⎟
T 2π ⎝ L ⎠
which can be manipulated to give

57
 gT 2 ⎛ 2πd ⎞
L= tanh ⎜ ⎟
2π ⎝ L ⎠

Forming the iterative equation

gT 2 ⎛ 2πd ⎞
Ln +1 = tanh ⎜ ⎟
2π ⎝ Ln ⎠
The wave period is considered to be constant with depth
For deep water, L = 1.56T 2 = 225 m . Assume this for the start of the iteration, L1

n Ln Ln+1

1 225 136
2 135.6303894 185
3 184.5075085 156
4 155.5583423 172
5 172.1843806 162
6 162.4089309 168
7 168.0880996 165
8 164.7635681 167
9 166.7014989 166
10 165.5689702 166

The wavelength is 166 m.

L 166
Speed c = = = 13.8 m/s
T 12

15. Calculate the power in an ideal wave front of monochromatic waves of amplitude 1.5 m
and wave period 10 s.

[Answer: 88.3 kWm-1]

Solution:

For a sine wave

H = 2a = 3 [m]

From Equation 7.7

1 1
P= ρg 2 H 2T = ×1025 × 9.812 × 32 ×10 = 88.3 ⎡⎣ kWm−1 ⎤⎦
32π 32π
Also the mean square amplitude σ2 is ( )
2
σ2 = a
2
and the RMS amplitude ( σ ) is

σ= a
2

58
Therefore the Significant Wave Height HS is
1.5
HS = 4σ = 4 × = 4.243 [m]
2
For ideal monochromatic waves Te = T
ρg 2 2 1025 × 9.812
P= HSTe = × 4.2432 ×10 = 88.3 ⎡⎣kWm−1 ⎤⎦
64π 64π

59
 Chapter 8

BIOENERGY

1. List the fundamental processes that are used to convert biomass into useful energy and
give one example of each with its product.

Solution:

Thermochemical processes
Combustion – Generation of electricity
Gasification – Production of syngas

Biochemical processes
Anaerobic digestion – Production of methane
Alcoholic fermentation – ethanol for spark ignition engines

Extraction
Transesterification – bio-diesel for compression ignition engines

2. Distinguish clearly between biogas, syngas and producer gas. Discuss how each is
formed and list their main constituent gases.

Solution:

Biogas is produced by anaerobic digestion of organic material and is approximately 50%

methane CH4 and 50% carbon dioxide CO2, with various trace gases. It is formed
through a biochemical process.

Syngas is the term commonly used to describe the gaseous product of any
thermochemical gasification process. When used precisely is describes a mixture of
carbon monoxide and hydrogen that was originally used for the synthesis of more
complex chemicals.

Producer gas is the combination of combustible carbon monoxide CO , hydrogen H 2 ,

methane CH 4 , traces of hydrocarbons and inert carbon dioxide CO2 . It is formed by the
partial oxidation of organic material.

3. Describe the different ways fuel is produced from biomass for spark and compression
ignition engines.

Solution:

Liquid fuel for spark ignition (gasoline) engines is manufactured by the alcoholic
fermentation of sugars into ethanol. This can be either from sugar cane or beet directly
or from crops rich in starch such as corn (maize) that are first converted into sugars by
enzymes. It is hoped that in future non-food lignocellulose feedstock can be used.

Fuel for compression ignition (diesel) engines is produced by mechanically extracting

vegetable oil from crops including rape and sunflower seeds. The oil is either used
directly in diesel engines or converted into biodiesel.

60
 Spark ignition engines can also be fuelled from gas, particularly the methane of biogas
and the mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen in syngas.

4. What is the difference between the upper and lower heating value of a fuel?

Solution:

The heating value is the chemical energy of the fuel and expressed as kJ/kg measured
with respect to a reference state. For the lower heating value (LHV) the reference state
of water is as a gas (i.e. the flue gases are not condensed) while for the higher heating
value (HHV) it is as condensed water.

5. Estimate the area of land that would be required to produce biomass to generate 1% of
the GB average electricity demand of 40 GW.

[Answer: 2300 km2]

Solution:

1% of average GB electricity demand is 400 MW.

Annual electrical energy required is 400x8760=3.5 TWh.
Assuming 30% efficiency of generation the annual fuel energy needed is 3.5/0.3=11.68
TWh, 11.68 x 1012 Wh
Average annual solar insolation in the UK=1 MWh/m2, 106 Wh/m2 .
Assuming efficiency of conversion from solar energy to biomass of 0.5%, the land
required is
11.67 ×1012
Land required = 6
= 2 336 km2
0.005 ×10

or 3.5% of UK arable land.

6. Estimate the electrical energy that might be generated from 1 km2 of land in England that
can produce 10 dry tonnes of biomass per hectare each year.

[Answer: 5.55 GWh or 190 kW continuous]

Solution:

Make calculation over 1 year

1 km2 is 100 hectares.
Biomass produced is 1000 tonnes or 106 kg
Biomass typically has an energy density of 20 MJ/kg. Therefore energy produced is 20 x
1012 J or 5.55 x 106 kWh.
Assuming a conversion efficiency to electricity of 30% this gives a continuous power
output of:
5.55 ×106 × 0.3
Pe = = 190 kW
8760
7. An annual energy crop requires a fossil energy input of 35 GJ/hectare for cultivation and
fertiliser. A further 8 GJ/tonne is required for harvesting and processing. If the crop yield
is 15 dry tonnes/hectare with an energy yield of 20 MJ/kg
a) Calculate the Fossil Energy Ratio.

61
 b) Calculate the improved Fossil Energy Ratio if the crop is coppiced annually over
a 3 year cycle.

[Answer: a) 1.88; b) 2.28]

Solution:

a) Base calculation on 1 hectare over 1 year:

Biomass produced = 15 x 103 kg
Energy produced = 15 x 103 x 20 x 106 = 300 x 109 J.
Energy used = 15 x 8 + 35 = 155 GJ = 155 x 109 J
Therefore the FER is 300/155 = 1.93

b) Base calculation on 1 hectare over 3 years:

Biomass produced = 45 x 103 kg
Energy produced = 45 x 103 x 20 x 106 = 900 x 109 J.
Energy used = 3 x15 x 8 + 35 = 395 GJ = 395 x 109 J
Therefore the FER is 900/395 = 2.28

8. A biomass fuel has a moisture content of 20% and an ash content of 5% on a wet basis.
Calculate its moisture content on a dry and dry and ash-free basis.

[Answer: 25%, 27%]

Solution:

Thus on a wet basis the content of 1 kg of material is:

0.75 kg dry and ash-free matter

0.2 kg water
0.05 kg ash

On a dry basis

0.2
MC = = 0.25 = 25%
0.75 + 0.05

On a dry and ash-free basis

0.2
MC = = 0.27 = 27%
0.75

9. The higher heating value (HHV) of an oven dried biomass material is 12 MJ/kg.

a) Write down the higher heating values if the material has a moisture content (on a wet
basis) of 15% or 40%.
b) Calculate the sensible energy left for combustion once all the water has been
evaporated.
c) If the biomass contains 5% hydrogen (by weight) calculate the lower heating values

[Answer: a) 10.2 MJ/kg, 7.2 MJ/kg; b) 9.8 MJ/kg, 6.3 MJ/kg; and c) 9 MJ/kg, 5.7 MJ/kg]

62
 Solution:

a) HHV @15%MW = HHVd x(1-MW) = 12x0.85 = 10 MJ/kg

HHV @40%MW = HHVd x(1-MW) = 12x0.6 = 7.2 MJ/kg

b) Qresidual = (1 − M w ) × HHVd − 2.3M w

Qresidual @15%MW = 0.85 ×12 − 2.3 × 0.15 = 9.85 MJ/kg
Qresidual @40%MW = 0.6 x 12 −2.3 × 0.4 = 6.28 MJ/kg

c) Using the Equation 8.1

LHV = (1 − M w ) ⎡⎣ HHVd − 2.3 ( M d + 9H 2 )⎤⎦
where
HHVd : higher heating value (on a dry basis)
M w : moisture content on a wet basis [%x100]
M d : moisture content on a dry basis [%x100]
2.3: energy difference between gaseous and liquid water [kJ/kg]
9: ratio of molar mass between hydrogen and water
H2: fraction of hydrogen in the biomass (by weight)

At 15% M w ,
Mw 0.15
Md = = = 17.6%
1 − M w 0.85
LHV = (1 − M w ) ⎡⎣ HHVd − 2.3 ( M d + 9H )⎤⎦
LHV = (1 − 0.15) ⎡⎣12 − 2.3 (0.176 + 9 × 0.05)⎤⎦ = 9 MJ/kg

At 40% M w ,
Mw 0.4
Md = = = 67%
1 − M w 0.6
LHV = (1 − M w ) ⎡⎣ HHVd − 2.3 ( M d + 9H )⎤⎦
LHV = (1 − 0.4) ⎡⎣12 − 2.3 (0.67 + 9 × 0.05)⎤⎦ = 5.7 MJ/kg

10. Show the stoichiometric reactions of hydrogen and sulphur in oxygen and air.

Solution:

Combustion in oxygen

2H2 + O2 → 2H2O

Air is 79% Nitrogen and 21% Oxygen by weight and as 79/21=3.762

Combustion in air

2H2 + (O2 + 3.762N2) → 2H2O + 3.762N2

63
 Combustion in oxygen

S + O2 → SO2

Combustion in air

S + (O2 + 3.762N2) → SO2 + 3.762N2

11. Write a balanced equation for the stoichiometric combustion of decane ( C10 H 22 ) in
oxygen and air, assuming that the only products are carbon dioxide, water vapour and
nitrogen.

Solution:

Combustion in oxygen

2C10H22 + 31O2 → 20CO2 + 22H2O

Combustion in air

2C10H22 + 31(O2 + 3.762N2) → 20CO2 + 22H2O + 116.622N2

12. Write a balanced equation for the combustion of methane in air, with a fuel to air
equivalence ratio of 0.8 and calculate the AFR (by mass).

[Answer: 26.8]

Solution:

Stoichiometric combustion in oxygen

CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O

Stoichiometric combustion in air

CH4 + 2(O2 + 3.762N2) → CO2 + 2H2O +7.524N2

Combustion at φ = 0.8

CH4 + 2.5(O2 + 3.762N2) → CO2 + 2H2O +9.405N2 + 0.5O2

Molecular mass of methane

CH4 → 1×12 + 4 ×1 = 16

Molecular mass of air

2.5 (O2 + 3.762N2 ) → 2.5 (32 + 3.762 × 28 ) = 343.34

AFRstoich = 343.34/16 = 21.46

AFRstoich 21.46
∴ AFR = = = 26.8
φ 0.8

64
13. 1 kg of a biomass material requires 1.25 kg of oxygen to burn at stoichiometric
conditions but is actually supplied with 6 kg of air per kg of biomass.

a) Write down the mass of air required for combustion at stoichiometric conditions.
b) Calculate the Fuel/Air Equivalence Ratio and the Excess Air

[Answer: a) 4.18 kg; b) 0.7, 43%]

Solution:

Air is 23% Oxygen and 77% Nitrogen by weight. Therefore The mass of air required
under stoichiometric conditions as

77
Mass of air = 1.25 × = 4.18 kg of air
23

The Fuel/Air Equivalence Ratio, φ is

AFRstoich 4.18
φ= = = 0.697
AFR 6
and the combustion is lean.

The Excess Air, e is

1 1
e= −1 = − 1 = 43%
φ 0.697

14. A solid biomass fuel has an ultimate analysis of: carbon 55%, hydrogen 15%, sulphur
1%, oxygen 9%, nitrogen 2%, ash 5% and moisture 13%.

Its calorific value is 1 MJ/kg (as received).

a) For complete combustion with 28% excess air, determine the mass of air required
per kg of fuel.
b) If the fuel is burnt at an equivalent thermal rate of 1 MW, calculate the rate at which
moisture will be produced assuming all the water in the exhaust is condensed as
liquid.

Atomic Masses: C=12, H=1, S=32, O=16, H=14 kg/kmol

[Answer: a) 14.3 kg; b) 355 kg/h]

65
Solution:

a) Analysis with the aid of the following table

Constituen Reaction Mass of O2 needed Mass of product per

-ts per kg fuel kg fuel
44 kgCO2
C + O2 à CO2 32 kgO2 × 0.55 = 2.02
C = 0.55 × 0.55 = 1.47 12 kg fuel
12 + 32 = 44 12 kg fuel

2H2 + O2 à 2H2O 32 kgO2 36 kgH2O

H = 0.15 × 0.15 = 1.20 × 0.15 = 1.35
4 + 32 = 36 4 kg fuel 4 kg fuel
S + O2 à SO2 32 kgO2 64 kgSO2
S = 0.01 × 0.01 = 0.01 × 0.01 = 0.02
32 + 32 = 64 32 kg fuel 32 kg fuel
O = 0.09 Less O2 supplied by fuel = -0.09 kg None
N = 0.02 0.02 kg N2
Ash = 0.05 0.05 kg ash
H 2O =
0.13 kg H2O
0.13

Total amount of O2 needed with no excess air

= 1.47 + 1.2 + 0.01 – 0.09 = 2.59 kg
Extra O2 needed for 28% excess air = 2.59 x 0.28 = 0.73 kg

Total O2 needed including excess air = 2.59 + 0.73 = 3.32 kg/kg fuel

N2 supplied with air = 3.32 x (76.8/23.2) = 10.99 kg/kg fuel

Total air needed = 3.32 + 10.99 = 14.3 kg air/kg fuel

b) From the combustion of Hydrogen

2 H 2 + O2 = 2H 2 0

Therefore mass of water produced by 1 kg of fuel is

36
× 0.15 = 1.35 kg of H2O per kg of fuel
4

Therefore total mass of water is 1.35 + 0.13 = 1.48 kg

If the system operates at 1MWth with a CV of 15 MJ/kg the fuel flow rate is

1
= 0.067 kg/s
15

The system produces 1.48 kg of water per kg of fuel

Thus the system produces 1.48 × 0.067 = 0.1 kg of water per second or 355 kg/h

66
15. A wood fuel has an ultimate analysis of

Element % dry matter (by weight)

C 50
H 6
S 0
O 40
N 1
Ash 3

Estimate the higher heating value.

[Answer: 20.3 MJ/kg]

Solution:

HHVd = 34.91X C + 117.83 X H + 10.05 X S − 10.34 X O − 1.51X N − 2.11X Ash MJ/kg

Element Fraction of dry Coefficient MJ/kg

matter
C 0.5 34.91 17.455
H 0.06 117.83 7.0698
S 0 10.05 -
O 0.4 -10.34 -4.136
N 0.01 -1.51 -0.0151
Ash 0.03 -2.11 -0.0633
Total 1 20.3

16. A biomass material has an ultimate analysis (% weight on a dry basis) of:

Element % wt
C 38
O 36
N 1
H 6
S 1
Ash 18

The fuel has a moisture content M w = 30%, on a wet basis.

a) Estimate the higher heating value

b) Calculate the lower heating value (LHV) for the fuel.
c) The biomass will be combusted with 35% excess air. How much air is needed per kg
of fuel for the combustion?

[Answer: a) 16.32 MJ/kg; b) 9.86 MJ/kg; c) 4.7 kg ]

67
Solution:

a) HHVd = 34.91X C + 117.83 X H + 10.05 X S − 10.34 X O −1.51X N − 2.11X Ash MJ/kg

HHVd = 34.91× 0.38 + 117.83 × 0.06 + 10.05 × 0.01 − 10.34 × 0.36 − 1.51× 0.01
− 2.11× 0.18
= 16.32 MJ/kg
b) LHV = HHVd (1 − M w ) − 2.3M w − 2.3 X H × 9 (1 − M w )

alternatively LHV = (1 − M w ) ⎡⎣ HHVd − 2.3( M d + 9 X H )⎤⎦

Mw 0.3
Md = = = 42.86 %
1 − M w 0.7
LHV =16.32 × (1 − 0.3) − 2.3 × 0.3 − 2.3 × 0.06 × 9 × (1 − 0.3) = 9.86 MJ/kg

alternatively
LHV = (1 − 0.3) ⎡⎣16.32 − 2.3 (0.4286 + (9 × 0.06)⎤⎦ = 9.86 MJ/kg

c)

Constituent % wt on a dry % wt as received Weight of oxygen

basis required
kg (Calculations
are given below)
Xd X w = X d (1 − M w )
C 38 26.6 0.709
O 36 25.2 -0.252
N 1 0.7 -
H 6 4.2 0.336
S 1 0.7 0.007
Ash 18 12.6 -
Total 100 70 (water 30%) 0.8

The combustion of carbon is described by the equation

C + O2 = CO2
The atomic weight of oxygen is 16 and so the molar mass of O2 is 32
The atomic weight and molar mass of carbon C is 12.
So the ratio of the mass of oxygen to carbon is 32 = 2.67
12
But carbon only makes up 26.6% of the biomass and so the amount of oxygen
needed to burn the carbon in 1 kg of biomass is

(3212) × 0.266 = 0.709 kg of oxygen.

The combustion of hydrogen is described by the equation
2 H 2 + O2 = 2 H 2O

68
The atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 and so the molar mass of H 2 is 2.
Therefore the ratio of the mass of oxygen to hydrogen is 32 =8
4
But hydrogen only constitutes 4.2% of biomass and so the amount of oxygen needed
to burn the hydrogen in 1 kg of biomass is

(32 4 ) × 0.042 = 0.336 kg

The combustion of sulphur is described by the equation
S + O2 = SO2
The atomic weight of sulphur is 32 and so the molar mass of S is also 32
So the ratio of the mass of oxygen to carbon is 32 =1
32
But sulphur only makes up 0.7% of the biomass and so the amount of oxygen
needed to burn the sulphur in 1 kg of biomass is

(1) × 0.007 = 0.007 kg of oxygen.

Oxygen makes up 25.2 % of the biomass and this does not need to be supplied to
the furnace through air. Thus 0.252 kg is deducted from the oxygen that has to be
supplied.
Total oxygen needed = 0.8 kg
35% excess air is needed for the combustion of biomass increasing the oxygen
required to:

With 35% excess oxygen = 0.8 × 1.35 = 1.08 kg

Air is 23% oxygen and 77% nitrogen by weight and so the mass of air needed is:
Mass of air = 1 + 77
( ) ×1.08 = 4.7 kg of air per kg of biomass
23

It is assumed that the nitrogen content of the fuel converts ideally into gaseous
nitrogen, which remains in the flue gases.

69
 Chapter 9

DEVELOPMENT AND APPRAISAL OF RENEWABLE ENERGY PROJECTS

1. Describe how the energy output of the following types of generating scheme can be
estimated:
A wind farm
A solar PV project
A biomass plant

Solution:

The wind resource at a wind farm is predicted using measure-correlate-predict. This is

described in detail in Section 2.9.1

For a solar PV project it is usual to rely on data bases of the solar resource based on
satellite data and/or numerical modelling.

This relies on estimating the biomass resource that depends on the environmental
conditions under which crops are grown but also on the commercial arrangements by
which the biomass is obtained.

2. List and discuss the main risks to the projects of the types listed in Q1.

Solution:

There are similar risks for all types of project:

Obtaining planning permission and public acceptance.

Predicting the renewable energy resource
Cost over-runs of the plant
Delays in constructing the plant
Delays with the grid connection
Technical problems with the equipment including degradation in performance over
time.
Excessive O&M costs

3. What is meant by a turn-key contract? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of this
type of procurement.

Solution:

A turn-key contract is a single main contract for the engineering, procurement and
construction of the entire plant with one supplier. It moves maximum risk from the
developer on to this main contractor. However, it can be more expensive than letting
individual contracts for different parts of the project.

4. What is the impact of a high discount rate on renewable energy projects?

Solution:

Renewable energy projects often require a relatively large expenditure of capital for their
construction while operating costs are low and revenue is received over the life of the
project. A high discount rate makes such projects unattractive as the initial high capital

70
 expenditure is not affected by the discounting but income received in the future is of little
present value.

5. List and discuss the main issues that should be addressed in the Environmental
Statement of a:
Small hydro scheme
Onshore wind farm
Biomass generation

Solution:

The main aspects that would need to be addressed in an Environmental Statement for a
small hydro scheme include:
Water abstraction and residual flows
Visual intrusion and noise of the power house
Effect of the scheme on Flora and Fauna (including fish)
Electrical power take off circuit
Construction
Decommissioning

And for an onshore wind farm include:

Visual intrusion and noise of the power house
Effect of the scheme on Flora and Fauna
Archeology and cultural heritage
Electrical power take off circuit
Construction
Decommissioning

For a biomass combustion plant there will be particular emphasis on:

Air quality and emissions
Impacts of traffic during both construction and operation of the plant
Disposal of solid waste
Water supply and disposal

6. A small hydro scheme with details shown in Table 9.4 is proposed

Head 40 metres
Peak flow rate 3 m3/sec
Annual capacity factor 45%
Capital cost £800,000
Annual operating cost £5,500
Revenue 4p/kWh
Lifetime 10 years
Discount rate 11%
Turbine efficiency 85%
Generator efficiency 97%

Table 9.4

a) Calculate the Simple Payback Period (in years) of this project

b) Calculate the Net Present Value of the project

[Answer: a) 5.4 years; b) £68 458]

71
 Solution:

The peak power output of the turbine generator is:

PPEAK = ρ gHQη
= 1000 × 9.81 × 40 × 3 × 0.85 × 0.97
= 970.6 kW

The annual energy production is

E = 970.6 × 0.45 × 8760 = 3826.1 MWh
4
Annual Income = 3826.1×1000 × = £153 044
100
Annual net revenue (return) is £153 044 - £5500=£147 544

The appraisal calculation is set out in Table Q6.

800000
Simple (undiscounted) payback = = 5.4 years
147544
NPV is £68 458

With the 11% discount rate the NPV is positive and so the project should proceed.

Note how the present (discounted) value of the annual income has decreased from £132
852 to £51 925 over the 10 years.

The capital cost of £824/kW is rather low for a small hydro scheme and this example
assumes that much of the civil works already existed from an earlier scheme.

Capital Cost £800,000

Annual energy 3826.1 MWh
Annual Income £147,465
Payback Period 5.4 years
Discount factor
Expenditure at Year 0 -£800,000 1
Income Year 1 £132,852 0.901
Income Year 2 £119,686 0.812
Income Year 3 £107,825 0.731
Income Year 4 £97,140 0.658
Income Year 5 £87,514 0.593
Income Year 6 £78,841 0.535
Income Year 7 £71,028 0.482
Income Year 8 £63,989 0.434
Income Year 9 £57,648 0.391
Income Year 10 £51,935 0.352
NPV £68,456

Table Q6: Discounted cash flow calculation

7. A small wind farm with details shown in the Table 9.5 is proposed
a) Calculate the Simple Payback Period (in years) of the project
b) Calculate the Net Present Value of the project. Assume the capital cost of the wind
farm is incurred when construction starts and revenue starts to flow after one year

72
c) Calculate the Internal Rate of Return
d) List and discuss the main financial risks to the project.

[Answer: a) 4.5 years; b) £32k; c) 12.3%]

Rated power of wind farm 5 MW

Annual capacity factor 28%
Capital cost £3,000,000
Annual operating cost £10,000
Revenue from energy (kWh) 5.5p/kWh
Lifetime 7 years of operation
Discount rate 12%

Table 9.5 Economic appraisal of an onshore wind farm

Solution:

Rated power of plant 5,000 kW

Capital Cost 3,000,000 £
Annual operating cost 10,000 £
Annual energy 12,264,000 kWh
Annual Income 664,520 £
Payback Period 4.5 Years

Discount rate 0.08 0.09 0.1

Expenditure at Year 0 -£3,000,000 -£3,000,000 -£3,000,000
Income Year 1 £615,296 £609,651 £604,109
Income Year 2 £569,719 £559,313 £549,190
Income Year 3 £527,517 £513,131 £499,264
Income Year 4 £488,442 £470,763 £453,876
Income Year 5 £452,261 £431,892 £412,615
Income Year 6 £418,760 £396,232 £375,104
Income Year 7 £387,741 £363,515 £341,004
NPV £459,737 £344,498 £235,162
0.08 0.09 0.1

Discount rate 0.11 0.12 0.13 0.14

Expenditure at Year -£3,000,000 -£3,000,000 -£3,000,000 -£3,000,000
Income Year £598,667 £593,321 £588,071 £582,912
Income Year £539,339 £529,751 £520,417 £511,327
Income Year £485,891 £472,992 £460,546 £448,532
Income Year £437,740 £422,314 £407,563 £393,449
Income Year £394,360 £377,066 £360,675 £345,131
Income Year £355,280 £336,667 £319,181 £302,746
Income Year £320,072 £300,595 £282,461 £265,567
NPV £131,349 £32,707 -£61,087 -£150,336
Table Q7

73
 200

150

100

50

0
11 12 13 14 15
-50

-100

-150

-200

Discount rate vs NPV

From the above diagram, the internal rate of return is 12.3%

74
 Chapter 10

ELECTRICAL ENERGY SYSTEMS

1) Compare fossil fuel with renewable energy as an energy source.

Solution:

Fossil fuels have energy densities in the range of 25 – 50 MJ/kg. They can be
transported easily by truck or pipeline and converted in devices of a small volume. Fossil
fuels can be converted into useful energy centrally such as by the generation of
electricity in large power stations or locally by the creation of heat in domestic natural
gas boilers as well as into heat and electricity in small combined heat and power units. In
contrast, renewable energy sources are significantly less dense and the resource must
be exploited where it occurs. Power density of wind and solar energy are as low as 625
W/m2 and 1000 W/m2 whereas tidal stream and wave energy are more concentrated.

A second important characteristic of fossil fuels is that they can be stored for long
periods with little degradation. Fossil fuels store energy in a dense form and this, most
useful attribute, has allowed the conventional energy system to be developed in its
present architecture where energy demand is unconstrained and energy supply arranged
always to meet it. Unless expensive energy storage is used (such as hydro reservoirs),
renewable sources have to be converted into useful energy when the resource is
available. Dry biomass has some of the attributes of fossil fuels but has a lower energy
density than most fossil fuel.

2) Why are high voltages used for transmitting large amounts of power long distances?

Solution:

The power transmitted in a circuit is

Ptransmitted = VI
where
V: voltage of the circuit
I: current through the circuit
For high power overhead transmission, it is cheaper to build high voltage rather than
high current equipment as air can be used as the insulation. Hence high voltages are
used for bulk power transmission.

3) After the connection of a large load, the frequency decreases rapidly in a power system
having a large penetration of renewables. Describe the reason for this.

Solution:

Large conventional generator sets have a large spinning mass and increase the system
inertia, H, whereas renewable energy generators normally do not contribute to H. The
power electronic interface of a variable speed wind turbine decouples the generator and
mechanical drive train from the network thus making no contribution to system inertia, H.
A PV system is static, has no spinning mass and again makes no contribution to system
df 1
inertia. Since = ( Pm − Pe ) f , the smaller the value H, the greater is the rate of
dt 2 H
change of frequency. This is the reason that rapid frequency changes occur with a large
penetration of renewables.

75
4) A transmission line has the following data:
Length: 100 km
Line resistance: 38 mΩ/km
Power flow in the line: 100 MW at unity power factor

Calculate the losses in the line, when the line voltage is (a) 132 kV and (b) 220 kV.

[Answer: a) 2.2 MW, b) 785 kW]

Solution:

100 ×106
At 132 kV, I = = 437.39 A
3 ×132 ×103
100 ×106
At 220 kV, I = = 262.43 A
3 × 220 ×103
Losses at 132 kV = 3 x 437.392 x 38 x 10-3 x 100 = 2.18 MW

Losses at 220 kV = 3 x 262.432 x 38 x 10-3 x 100 = 785 kW

5) A factory has a dedicated connection through an 11 kV line of length 4 km as shown in

Figure 10.26. The 11 kV line (AB) has an impedance of 0.25+j0.3 Ω/km. The following
equipment is connected to Busbar B:
1 MW induction motor operating at full load with a power factor of 0.9 lagging
300 kvar power factor correction capacitor bank
1 MVA, 11/0.4 kV transformer with a peak load of 500 kW at 0.85 power factor
lagging
500 kW PV array operating at unity power factor

If the peak 400 V load, full load operation of the motor and full output of the PV panel
coincide, calculate
a) the active and reactive power drawn by all the equipment connected to Busbar B
b) the power losses in line AB

[Answer: a) 1000 kW & 494.2 kvar, b) 8.3kW]

A 11 kV

4 km

1 MVA,
M 11/0.4 kV
500 kW
Induction Power factor
motor correction 400 V PV array
capacitor bank loads

Figure 10.26

76
Solution:

a) Active and reactive power drawn by the motor at full load

PFL = 1000 kW
Power factor angle at full load: φFL = cos−1 0.9 = 25.84o
QFL = 1000tan 25.84o = 484.28 kvar

Active and reactive power drawn by the 400 V loads at the peak load
PL = 500 kW
Power factor angle at full load: φL = cos−1 0.85 = 31.79o
QFL = 500 × tan31.79o = 309.9 kvar

Total active power at the load end = 1000 + 500 - 500 = 1000 kW
As the capacitor bank supply 400 kvar, total reactive power at the load end
= 484.28 + 309.9 – 300 = 494.2 kvar

b) Current drawn by the motor under full load

1×106
I FL = = 58.31 A
3 ×11×103 × 0.9

As the power factor is lagging, the full load motor current as a vector
I FL = 58.31∠ − 25.84o A

Current drawn by the capacitor

300 ×103
IC = = 15.75 A
3 ×11×103

Since the power factor angle is 90o and leading. The current drawn by the capacitor
o
as a vector I C = 15.75∠90 A

Current drawn by the 400 V load on the 11 kV side

500 ×103
IL = = 30.87 A
3 ×11×103 × 0.85

As the power factor is lagging, the peak load current as a vector

I L = 30.87∠ − 31.79o A

500 ×103
PV output current = I PV = = 26.24 A at unity power factor
3 ×11×103

Current flow in the 11 kV cable

= I FL + I C + I L − I PV
= 58.31∠ − 25.84o + 15.75∠90o + 30.87∠ − 31.79o - 26.24 A
= 52.48 − j 25.42 + 15.75 j + 26.24 − j16.26 − 26.24 A
= 52.48 − j 25.93 A
Active power losses in line AB= 3x52.482 x 0.25 x 4 = 8.3 kW

77
6) Part of a distribution network with a 2 MW biomass power plant is shown in Figure 10.27.
The 11 kV line has an impedance of 0.25+j0.3 Ω/km. The 11 kV busbar voltage varies by
±1% due to the size of the transformer tap step. A 1 MVA, 0.9 power factor load is
connected to point B. Determine the
a) losses in the line section BC when the biomass power plant produce 2 MW
(assume the voltage of busbar C is 11 kV)
b) maximum and minimum voltage of the load

11 kV
3 km 5 km

B
A C 2 MW

1 MVA at 0.9 pf
lagging
Figure 10.27

[Answer: a) 41.3 kW, b) 11.15 kV, 10.8 kV]

Solution:

2 ×106
a. Current through line BC = = = 105 A
3 ×11×103
Losses in line BC = 3 x 1052 x 0.25 x 5 = 41.3 kW

b. The maximum voltage at the load occurs when the biomass power plant is operating
at 2 MW and the 11 kV busbar is at its maximum voltage.

Per phase power flows from the load node to 11 kV grid connection
= (2000 –41.34- 900)/3 kW = 352.89 kW
As power factor is 0.9 (cos φ = 0.9; φ = 25.84o),
Q = P tanφ = 300 tan 25.84 = 145.28 kVAr
Assuming the voltage at B is 11 kV/ 3 = 6350.85 V
From equation 10.7, since P and Q are in opposite directions:
352.89 ×103 × 0.25 × 3 − 145.28 ×103 × 0.3 × 3
ΔV =
6350.85
= 21.09 V

At its maximum, busbar A voltage is 11kV+1% = 11.11kV, per phase = 6414.36 V

Therefore voltage at the load = 6414.36 + 21.09 = 6435.45 V
Line to Line voltage = 11.15 kV

The minimum voltage at the load occurs when the biomass power plant does not
operate and the 11 kV busbar is at its minimum voltage.
Per phase power flows from 11 kV grid connection to the load = 1000/3 x 0.9 = 300
kW
Q from 11 kV grid connection to the load node = 145.28 kvar

Assuming the voltage at B is 11 kV/ 3 = 6350.85 V

78
 From equation 10.7, since P and Q are in the same directions:
300 ×103 × 0.25 × 3 + 145.28 ×103 × 0.3 × 3
ΔV =
6350.85
= 56.02 V

At its minimum, busbar A voltage is 11kV-1% = 10.89kV, per phase = 6287.34 V

Therefore voltage at load bus is = 6287.34 – 56.58 = 6230.76 V
Line to Line voltage = 10.8 kV

7) A 50 MW wind farm is to be connected to the grid through a 10 km collector circuit. The

following connections are considered during the planning of the circuit:
132 kV connection through a single circuit 400 mm2 cable
33 kV connection through a double circuit 300 mm2 cable

The cable data are given in the following table:

R [Ω/km] X [Ω/km]
132 kV, 400 mm2 cable 0.05 0.12
33 kV, 300 mm2 cable 0.06 0.11

The wind farm can operate with 15 Mvar importing or exporting reactive power.

Calculate the maximum voltage rise at the wind farm as a percentage of the nominal
voltage and the losses in the cable for the two sizes of conductor considered.

[Answer: For the 132 kV connection: 0.25%, 78.2 kW; For the 33 kV connection: 2.14%,
750.7 kW]

Solution:

The maximum voltage rise occurs when the wind farm is exporting the maximum amount
of active and reactive power.

For the 132 kV connection as it is a single circuit; from equation 10.7, since P and Q are
in the same directions:
⎡ 50 ×106 15 ×106 ⎤
⎢ 3 × 0.05 × 10 + × 0.12 ×10 ⎥
3
ΔV = ⎣ 3
⎦
132 ×10
3
= 188 V (0.25%)

For the 33 kV connection as it is a double circuit

⎡ 50 ×106 0.06 15 ×106 0.11 ⎤
⎢ 3 × × 10 + × ×10 ⎥
2 3 2
ΔV = ⎣ 3
⎦
33 ×10
3
= 406.77 V (2.14%)

For the 132 kV connection

79
 0.5
⎡⎣502 + 152 ⎤⎦ ×106
I max = = 228.32 A
3 ×132 ×103
Power loss = 3 × 228.322 × 0.05 ×10 = 78.2 kW

For the 33 kV connection

0.5
⎡⎣502 + 152 ⎤⎦ ×106
I max = = 913.26 A
3 × 33 ×103
0.06
Power loss = 3 × 913.262 × ×10 = 750.7 kW
2

8) A power system with a total installed capacity of 3000 MW has an equivalent inertia
constant H of 4.5 s and operates at 50 Hz. A large generator of 350 MW is switched out
due to a fault. Calculate the rate of change of frequency. If the equivalent inertia drops to
3.5 s, due to the connection of wind generators, what is the new rate of change of
frequency?

[Answer: 0.65 Hz/s, 0.85 Hz/s]

Solution:

With H = 4.5 s
2 H df
ΔP =
f dt
350 2 × 4.5 df
= ×
3000 50 dt
df
= 0.65 Hz/s
dt

With H = 3.5 s
2 H df
ΔP =
f dt
350 2 × 3.5 df
= ×
3000 50 dt
df
= 0.85 Hz/s
dt

9) An island is supplied from two 100 MW biomass power plants and a 50 MW wind power
plant. The cost functions are:
2
CBiomass_1 = 1000 + 11PBiomass_1 + 0.03 × PBiomass_1 £/h
2
CBio-mass_2 = 1200 + 14 PBiomass_2 + 0.04 × PBiomass_2 £/h
CWind = 1140 £/h
where P is in MW.

a) If the peak demand is 200 MW, how should the generators be despatched?

80
 b) If the minimum generation of the biomass power plants is 50 MW, what is the new
economic dispatch for the same demand?
c) A demand side participation programme was introduced in the island. This resulted in
shifting 25 MW of load from peak to off-peak. What is now the economic dispatch
without considering the minimum generation limit?

[Answer: a) 42.8 MW, b) 50 MW, c) 32.15 MW]

Solution:

a) When generating 50 MW, wind is cheaper than biomass and as there is no

incremental cost for wind, out of 200 MW, 50 MW will be supplied by wind. Therefore
the load that should be supplied by the biomass power plants is 150 MW.

By equating marginal costs the following equation can be obtained:

dCBM 1 dCBM 2
= 11 + 0.06 × PBiomass_1 = = 14 + 0.08 × PBiomass_2 £/MWh
dP1 dP2
0.06 × PBiomass_1 − 0.08 × PBiomass_2 = 3
From the demand-supply balance
PBiomass_1 + PBiomass_2 = 150
Solving the above equations the most economic division of generation is
PBiomass_1 = 107.1 MW and PBiomass_2 = 42.8 MW.

b) Since minimum generation of the biomass power plants is 50 MW, PBiomass_2 ≥ 50

dCBM 2
At PBiomass_2 = 50 MW, = 14 + 0.08 x 50 = 18 £/MWh
dP2
Since Biomass plant 1 should supply 100 MW,
dC BM 1
At PBiomass_1 = 100 MW, = 11 + 0.06 x 100 = 17 £/MWh
dP2
Since operating PBiomass_1 is still cheaper, economic dispatch solution is
PBiomass_1 = 100 MW and PBiomass_2 = 50 MW.
c) The new load that should be supplied by the biomass power plants are 175-50 MW =
125 MW.

By economic dispatch:
0.06 × PBiomass_1 − 0.08 × PBiomass_2 = 3
From the demand-supply balance
PBiomass_1 + PBiomass_2 = 125
Solving the above equations the most economic division of generation is
PBiomass_1 = 92.85 MW and PBiomass_2 = 32.15 MW.

10) A power system has the following characteristics:

Peak demand: 5000 MW.
Largest generator on the system: 500 MW.
Wind generation: 500 MW.
Hourly wind predictions are used to determine the system reserve.

81
a) Using the wind energy forecast error curve shown in Figure 10.17, calculate the
reserve requirement. Assume that the uncertainty in the demand is 1%.
b) This reserve is supplied by open cycle gas turbines (OCGT). For the OCGT, the fixed
O&M cost is 50 £/kW-year, the variable O&M cost is 2.5 £/MWh and the fuel cost is
60 £/MWh. What is the total cost of providing reserve in £/h?

[Answer: a) 667.7 MW, b) 45543 £/h]

Solution:

a) PMAX = 500 MW
σ demand = 5000 x 0.01 = 50 MW

As wind forecast horizon is 1 hour, the standard deviation is 5% of the total wind
capacity.
σ renewables = 500 x 5/100 = 25 MW

From equation (10.22):

Reserve = 500 + 3 × 502 + 252 = 667.7 MW

b) Cost of producing the reserve = 50x 667.7 x103/8760 £/hr + (2.5 + 60) x 667.7 £/hr =
3811.13 + 41731.88 = 45543 £/h

82
 Tutorial I

ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

1. Why it is convenient to use phasors when analysing electric power systems?

Solution:

In the power system all the waveforms have the same angular velocity (since the
frequency is common). Hence it is convenient to represent the sinusoidal quantities by
phasors that only shows their initial position at time zero. Further, as the magnitude of
the phasor is set to the rms value of the ac waveform, it also provides a convenient
comparison of the magnitudes of voltages and currents in different parts of the power
system.

2. Compare the starting procedures of a grid connected synchronous and induction

generator.

Solution:

When a synchronous generator is started, a dc supply is connected to the field windings

that produces a magnetic flux in the rotor poles. Then the rotor is turned by a turbine.
This induces a voltage across the stator coils. The voltage induced in the stator is then
matched exactly with the voltage of the mains by adjusting the speed of the generator
and the dc current of the rotor. The generator is then connected to the network by
closing a synchronising circuit breaker.

When an induction generator is started, the rotor is first rotated by the turbine up to a
speed slightly less than the synchronous speed. At this point the rotor is not energised.
The stator terminals are then connected to the grid through a soft-starter that applies the
network voltage to the stator windings gradually.

3. For a three phase load, the phase voltage is V and the phase current is I . Compare the
phase and line currents and voltages if the load is connected as star and as delta.

Solution:

Voltage Current
Phase Line Phase Line
Star connection V 3V I I
Delta connection V V I 3I

4. A current of i = 5sin(200π t ) passes through a series connected resistor of 10 Ω and an

inductor of 20 mH. What is the rms value of the total voltage applied across both
elements? Also obtain the angle between the current and voltage.

[Answer: 56.85 V, 51.5o]

Solution:

Since i = 5sin(200π t ) and therefore ω = 200π

83
 5
Also I = ∠0o = 3.54∠0o A
2
The impedance of the circuit = Z=10 + j × 200π × 20 ×10−3 = 10 + j12.57 = 16.06∠51.5oΩ
.Since V = I( R + j X L ) = IZ ,
V = IZ=3.54∠0o ×16.06∠51.5o = 56.85∠51.5o

RMS value of the voltage is 56.85 V

Angle between the current and voltage is 51.5 o and current lags the voltage.

5. A series circuit having a resistance of 5 Ω and an inductance of 25 mH is connected to a

12V, 50 Hz supply. Calculate the current in the circuit and active and reactive power
drawn from the supply. Then construct the phasor diagram and the power triangle.

[Answer: 1.29∠ − 57.5o A, 8.32 W, 13.06 var]

Solution:

Reactance = Z=5+j × 2π × 50 × 25 ×10−3 = 5 + j 7.85 Ω

12 12
I= = = 1.29∠ − 57.5o A
5 + j 7.85 9.31∠57.5o
P = 12 ×1.29cos(57.5o) = 8.32 W
Q = 12 ×1.29sin(57.5o) = 13.06 var

Phasor diagram Power triangle

6. A 5 kW, single-phase ac motor has an efficiency of 80% when operating at full load. The
motor operates at a power factor of 0.8 lagging. The supply is 230 V, 50 Hz.
a) What is the active and reactive power drawn by the motor?
b) Determine the value of the capacitor bank that should be connected in parallel to the
motor to increase the power factor to 0.9.

[Answer: a) 6.25 kW, 4.69 kvar; b) 99.9 µF]

Solution:

a) Active power drawn by the motor = 5/0.8 = 6.25 kW

Power factor angle = cos−1 0.8 = 36.87o

84
 From power triangle Q before connecting the capacitor
= Ptanφ = 6.25 tan 36.87 o = 4.69 kvar
Power factor angle after connecting the capacitor = cos−1 0.9 = 25.84o

Qcapacitor
!
36.87

25.84!
6.25 kW
Reactive power drawn from the supply after power factor correction
= 6.25 tan 25.84o = 3.03 kVAr

b) The kvar rating of the capacitor = 4.69 – 3.03 = 1.66 kvar

For the capacitor bank Q = V2ωC
2302 x 100 x π x C = 1.66 x 103
C = 99.9 µF

7. A number of turns on the primary side of a 220/110 V transformer is 100.

a) What is the number of turns on the secondary side?
b) If the transformer secondary is connected to a load of 100 Ω resistance, what is the
current flowing on the primary side?

[Answer: a) 50 turns; b) 0.55 A]

Solution:

V1 N1
a) For the transformer: =
V2 N 2
220 100
=
110 N 2
N 2 = 50
b) Secondary current = 110/100 = 1.1 A
N2 50
Therefore the primary current = × I2 = ×1.1 = 0.55 A
N1 100
8. The primary winding of a transformer is connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The number
of turns in the primary of the transformer is twice that of secondary. A load consisting of
a resistor of 1.6 Ω in series with an inductor of 3.82 mH is connected to the secondary.
Calculate the primary and secondary currents.

[Answer: 28.75 A, 57.5 A]

Solution:

230 N1
For the transformer: = =2
V2 N 2
Therefore: V2 = 115 V
The impedance of the load = Z L =1.6 + j × 2π × 50 × 3.82 × 10−3 = 1.6 + j1.2 = 2∠36.87oΩ

85
 Magnitude of the secondary current = 115/ Z L = 115/2 = 57.5 A
Primary current = 57.5/2 = 28.75 A
9. The following loads are connected in parallel across a 230 V, 50 Hz supply.
Load 1: 10 kVA at 0.8 power factor lagging
Load 2: 8 kVA at 0.9 power factor lagging
a) Calculate the active and reactive power drawn by both loads.
b) What is the line current in the supply?

[Answer: a) 15.2 kW, 9.49 kvar; b) 77.9∠ − 31.97oA]

Solution:

a) For load 1:
Active power = 10 x 0.8 = 8 kW
Reactive power = 10 x sin(cos-1(0.8)) = 6 kvar
Magnitude of current = 10 x 103/230 = 43.48 A
Angle of current = cos-1(0.8) = 36.87 o
I1 = 43.48∠ − 36.87o = 34.78 − j 26.09 A

For load 2:
Active power = 8 x 0.9 = 7.2 kW
Reactive power = 8 x sin(cos-1(0.9)) = 3.49 kvar
Magnitude of current = 8 x 103/230 = 34.78 A
Angle of current = cos-1(0.9) = 25.84 o
I 2 = 34.78∠ − 25.84o = 31.3 − j15.16 A

Active power drawn by both loads = 8 + 7.2 = 15.2 kW

Reactive power drawn by both loads = 6 + 3.49 = 9.49 kvar

b) Current drawn by both loads

I1 + I 2 = ( 34.78 − j 26.09 ) + (31.3 − j15.16 )
= 66.08 − j 41.25 = 77.9∠ − 31.97o A

10. Three star connected impedances of Z = 20∠45o Ω are connected to a 400 V (line), 50
Hz, three phase supply. Determine the voltage across each impedance and the line
currents.

[Answer: 230.9 V, 11.55 ∠ − 45o A]

Solution:

Since the load is star connected, the voltage across each impedance
= 400 3 = 230.9 V
Line current = 230.9/ 20∠45o = 11.55 ∠ − 45o A

11. A balanced star-connected load with impedances Z = 10 + j5 Ω is connected to a three-

phase generator having an effective line voltage of 400 V. Calculate the active and
reactive power consumed by the load.

86
[Answer: 12.8 kW, 6.4 kvar]

Solution:

400 3 230.9
Load current = = = 20.65∠ − 26.57o
10 + j5 11.18∠26.57o
Active power consumed by the load = 3 × 400 × 20.65 × cos(26.57o) = 12.8 kW
Reactive power consumed by the load = 3 × 400 × 20.65 × sin(26.57o) = 6.4 kvar

Alternatively

Active power consumed by the load = 3 × 230.9 × 20.65 × cos(26.57o) = 12.8 kW

Reactive power consumed by the load = 3 × 230.9 × 20.65 × sin(26.57o) = 6.4 kvar

87
 Tutorial II

HEAT TRANSFER

1. In a heat exchanger, where a tube wall separates hot and cold fluid streams, discuss the
main modes of heat transfer. If the average temperature of hot fluid is Th and that of cold
fluid is Tc , write an equation for the heat transfer by conduction.

Solution:

In a closed heat exchanger the main modes of heat transfer are:

• from the hot fluid to the outer surface of the tube by convection
• through the wall of the tube by conduction, and
• from the inner surface of the tube to the cold fluid by convection.

Conductive heat transfer from hot fluid to cold fluid through the wall of the tube is given
by
(Th − Tc )
Q = kA [W ]
d
where
Q : heat flow by conduction [W ]
k: thermal conductivity of wall material [W/m.K ]
A : cross section area of the wall ⎡⎣m2 ⎤⎦
d : thickness of the wall [m]

2. What is a blackbody? Write an equation for the spectrum of power emission from a
blackbody.

Solution:

A blackbody is a perfect emitter or absorber of radiation. The spectrum of power

emission from a blackbody follows Planck’s distribution:
2π hc 2
E (λ, T ) =
λ 5 ⎡exp hc λ kT − 1⎤
( )
⎣ ⎦

88
 C1
= ⎡⎣ W/m2 .µm⎤⎦
λ 5 ⎡⎢exp ⎛⎜ C2 λT ⎞⎟ − 1⎤⎥
⎣ ⎝ ⎠ ⎦
where
E ( λ , T ) : spectral power density [W/m2.µm]
λ : wavelength [µm]
T: Absolute temperature [K]
k: Boltzmann’s constant, 1.38x10-23 [J/K]
c: speed of light, 2.998x108 [m/s]
h: Planck’s constant, 6.626x10-34 [J.s]
C1: 2π hc 2 , 3.74x108 [W.µm4/m2]
C2: hc ,1.44x104 [µm.K]
k

3. A glass window of 60 cm x 100 cm has 5 mm thick glass. The thermal conductivity of the
glass is 1.0 W/m.K. The inner and outer temperatures of the window on a winter’s day
are 20 oC and -5 oC. Calculate the heat loss through the glass due to conduction.

[Answer: 3 kW]

Solution:

(T
higher − Tlower )
Q = kA [W ]
d
A = 0.6 x 1 m2
( 20 + 5) = 3.0
∴ Q = 1.0 × 0.6 × kW
0.005

4. A cold store has a wall consisting of a 10 cm thick brick wall on the outside, then a 7.5
cm thick concrete wall and then 10 cm of cork. The mean temperature within the store is
maintained at -10°C and the mean temperature of the outside surface of the wall is
20°C. Calculate the heat gain through the wall per unit area. The thermal conductivities
are for brick 0.69 W/m.K, for concrete 0.76 W/m.K and for cork 0.04 W/m.K.

[Answer: 10.9 W]

Solution:

1 d 1 0.1 0.145
For the brick wall: Rb = × = × = K/W
A k A 0.69 A
1 d 1 0.075 0.099
For the concrete wall: Rc = × = × = K/W
A k A 0.76 A
1 d 1 0.1 2.5
For cork: Rco = × = × = K/W
A k A 0.04 A
0.145 + 0.099 + 2.5 2.744
The total thermal resistance = Rt = = K/W
A A
Q (Thigher − Tlower ) 20 − −10
Heat loss per unit area = = = = 10.93 W
A ARt 2.744

89
5. A double glazed window shown in Figure II.15 has two sheets of glass 60 cm x 100 cm
separated by an air space of 1 cm. The thickness of each glass sheet is 5 mm. The inner
and outer temperature of the window is 20 oC and -5 oC on a winter’s day. If the thermal
conductivity of glass is 1.0 W/m.K and that of air is 0.5 W/m.K, calculate
a) the temperature of the glass surfaces A and B
b) the heat loss through the window due to conduction.

Neglect any heat loss due to convection and radiation.

[Answer: a) TA = 15.83 oC , TB = −0.83 o C ; b) Q = 0.5 kW]

Figure II.15

Solution:

a) Area of the window = 0.6 x 1 = 0.6 m2

For the glass sheet between the room and A:
( 293 − TA )
∴ Q1 = 1.0 × 0.6 ×
0.005
For the air between surfaces A and B:
(TA − TB )
∴ Q2 = 0.5 × 0.6 ×
0.01
For the glass sheet between surface B and outside:
(TB − 268)
∴ Q3 = 1.0 × 0.6 ×
0.005
As Q1 = Q2 = Q3

1.0 × 0.6 ×
( 293 − TA ) = 0.5 × 0.6 × (TA − TB ) = 1.0 × 0.6 × (TB − 268)
0.005 0.01 0.005
5TA − TB = 4 × 293 and 5TB − TA = 4 × 268
Solving these two equations
TA = 288.83 K = 15.83 oC
TB = 272.17 K = −0.83 oC

b) The heat loss through the window is given by:

( 293 − 288.83) = 0.5
∴ Q1 = 1.0 × 0.6 × kW
0.005

90
6. The temperature inside a house is 15 oC and that outside the house is -10 oC. The house
has solid brick walls 25 cm thick and the thermal conductivity of the brick is 0.7 W/m.K.
The convective heat transfer coefficient of the wall surface inside the house is 10 W/m2.K
and that outside is 20 W/m2.K. Calculate the equivalent thermal resistance and hence
the heat transfer per unit area.

[Answer: 0.507 K/W, 49.3 W/m2]

Solution:

1 X
For convection: Rv = × [K/W ]
•A k
•k 1
Since h = , Rv = [K/W ]
X hA

Assuming a unit area:

Rv for the wall surface inside the house = 1/10 [K/W]
Rv for the wall surface outside the house = 1/20 [K/W]
d 0.25
Rc for the wall == K/W
k 0.7
1 0.25 1
R total = + + = 0.507 K/W
10 0.7 20
Heat transfer per unit area =(15+10)/0.507=49.3 W/m2

7. A 2.5 cm radius pipe carries hot water at 100 oC. If the external surface of the pipe has a
convective heat transfer coefficient of 5 W/m2.K and the surrounding temperature is 20
o
C, calculate the heat loss per unit length of the pipe.

[Answer: 62.83 W/m]

Solution:

Area for unit length = 2πx0.025x1=0.157 m2

Heat loss per unit length = 5 x 0.157 x (100 – 20) = 62.83 W/m

8. A plate 30 cm x 20 cm with a thickness of 12 mm is made from steel. Its thermal

conductivity is 15 W/m.K. The bottom side of the plate is maintained at 100 oC by an
electric heater. The convective heat transfer coefficient of the top surface with a flow of
wind is 25 W/m2.K
a) If the plate is perfectly insulated on all sides except the top surface, what is the
temperature of the top surface of the plate assuming that all heat is lost due to
convection? Assume the ambient temperature is 20 oC.
b) If the emissivity of the plate is 0.85, calculate the temperature of the top surface
of the plate assuming that heat is lost due to convection and radiation. Assume
that radiation takes place to the sky which is at an equivalent temperature -10 oC.

[Answer: a) 98.4 oC; b) 90.44 oC]

91
Solutions:

a. Top surface of the plate heated by conduction

Q = 15 × 0.3 × 0.2 ×
(373 − T ) W
0.012

This heat will be lost to atmosphere due to convection

15 × 0.3 × 0.2 ×
(373 − T ) = 25 × 0.3 × 0.2 × W
(T − 293)
0.012
T = 371.43 K = 98.4 oC

b. The new heat balance equation is

(373 − T ) = 25 × 0.3 × 0.2 ×
15 × 0.3 × 0.2 × (T − 293) + 0.85 × 5.67 ×10−8 × ⎡⎣T 4 − 2634 ⎤⎦
0.012
Tn+1 = 374.45 − 6.3 ×10−10 Tn4
For the start of the iteration assume (T ) = 373 K
1

n (T )n (T )n+1
1 373 362.26
2 362.26 363.6
3 363.6 363.44

∴Ts = 363.44 [K] = 90.44 oC

92
 Tutorial III

SIMPLE BEHAVIOUR OF FLUIDS

1. What is the difference between a laminar and a turbulent flow? Sketch the streamlines
for laminar and turbulent flow.

Solution:

In laminar flow a set of parallel streamlines can be seen. Fluid will not cross a streamline.
In turbulent flow fluid moves in an irregular pattern and the streamlines change with time.

Streamlines

Stream-tube
Turbulent flow

Laminar flow

2. What factors determine whether a flow within a pipe is laminar or turbulent? Define
Reynolds Number and discuss how Reynolds Number is used to determine whether a
flow is laminar or turbulent.

Solution:

The flow inside a pipe could be laminar or turbulent depending on the velocity of flow and
viscosity.
The Reynolds Number is defined as:
vD ρ
Re =
η
where
Re : Reynolds Number
v : velocity of flow [m/s]
d : diameter of pipe [m]
ρ : density of fluid [kg/m3]
η : viscosity [Pa.s]

When Re < 2000 the flow is a laminar and when Re > 4000 the flow is a turbulent.
When 2000 < Re < 4000 , it is not possible to say whether the flow is certainly laminar or
turbulent.

3. The diameter of the inlet of a horizontal pipe is 200 mm and the gauge pressure at the
inlet is 100 kPa. Its diameter is reduced at the outlet such that velocity at the outlet is 1.5
times that at the inlet. If the volume flow rate is 0.2 m3/s, calculate (a) diameter, (b)
velocity and (c) gauge pressure at the outlet.

[Answer: a) 163 mm; b) 9.58 m/s; c) 74.5 kPa]

93
 Solution:

a) Since the density of water is constant: vinlet Ainlet = voutlet Aoutlet

Velocity at the outlet is 1.5 times that at the inlet:
Ainlet
Aoutlet =
1.5
0.22
d2 = = 0.027
1.5
d = 0.163 m
Diameter at the outlet is 163 mm
2
⎛ 0.163 ⎞ 3
b) Volume flow rate = voutlet × π ⎜ ⎟ = 0.2 m /s
⎝ 2 ⎠
voutlet = 9.58 m/s
c) Applying Bernoulli’s equation (since z1 = z2)
p1v12 p2 v22
+ = +
ρ 2 ρ 2
2
100 × 103 ( 9.58 / 1.5 ) p 9.582
+ = 2 +
1000 2 1000 2
p2 = 74.5 kPa

4. Water flows in a pipe of diameter 5 m at a velocity of 10 m/s. It then flows down into a
smaller pipe of diameter 2 m. The height between the centre of pipe sections is 5 m. The
density is assumed to be uniform over the cross sections. The gauge pressure at
Boundary 1 is 120 kPa. Calculate the velocity at the smaller pipe section.

[Answer: 20.93 m/s]

Solution:

Boundary 1

10 m/s
5m
5 m Boundary 2

2m

The Bernoulli equation can be written as:

⎡ p v2 ⎤ ⎡ p v2 ⎤
⎢ ρ + 2 + gz ⎥ = ⎢ ρ + 2 + gz ⎥
⎣ ⎦1 ⎣ ⎦2
p1 = 120 kPa
z1 = 1+5 = 6 m; z2 = 1 m
v1 = 10 m/s

94
 Therefore:
⎡120 ×103 102 ⎤ ⎡ v22 ⎤
⎢ 1000 + + 9.81 × 6 =
⎥ ⎢2 + 9.81 × 1⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦ ⎣ ⎦
v2 = 20.93 m/s

5. Figure III.14 shows a simplified representation of a turbine. If the water discharged from
Boundary 2 at a rate of 0.5 m3/s, calculate the power generated by the turbine.

[Answer: 243.8 kW]

Boundary 1

50 m

0.25 m
Turbine Boundary 2
5m

0.25 m

Figure III.4 Turbine

Solution:

Since reservoir is large, v1 =0

Since there are no other pressure forces on Boundaries 1 and 2 other than atmospheric
pressure, the gauge pressures p1 = p2 = 0
Since the discharge rate is 0.5 m3/s
2
⎛ 0.25 ⎞
v2 × π × ⎜ ⎟ = 0.5
⎝ 2 ⎠
v2 = 10.19 m/s
Mass flow rate = 500 kg/s

Work done per second or the power produced by the turbine is:
dWsys ⎡ p v2 ⎤ ⎡ p v2 ⎤
= m&⎢ 1 + 1 + gz1 ⎥ − m&⎢ 2 + 2 + gz2 ⎥
dt ⎣ρ 2 ⎦ ⎣ρ 2 ⎦
⎡10.192 ⎤
= 500 [9.81× 55] − 500 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 2 ⎦
= 243.8 kW
6. A fluid of density 1258 kg/m3 flows through a pipe of 150 mm diameter at 3.6 m/s.
Determine the Reynolds number. The viscosity of fluid is 0.96 Pa.s. Is the fluid flow
laminar or turbulent?

[Answer: 707.6, laminar]

95
 Solution:

vd ρ
3.6 × 0.15 ×1258
Re = = = 707.63
η 0.96
As Re < 2000 flow is laminar

7. A fluid of density 1250 kg/m3 flows inside a pipe of diameter 75 mm at 10 m/s. The
viscosity of the fluid is 1 mPa·s. Determine the friction factor for a galvanized iron pipe
having a roughness of 1.5 x 10-4 m

[Answer: 0.027]

Solution:
D 75 ×10−3
For a galvanized iron pipe = = = 500
ε 1.5 ×10−4
vd ρ
10 × 0.075 ×1250
Re = = −3
= 93.75 ×104
η 1×10
From the Moody diagram, the friction factor = 0.027

8. Oil, with density of 1200 kg/m3 and viscosity of 1 Pa.s, flows at a volume flow rate of 0.07
m3/s through a 150 mm diameter cast-iron pipe. Determine
a) the Reynolds number
b) the head losses per m length of the pipe
c) the pressure drop per m length of the pipe if the pipe slopes down at 15o in the flow
direction

[Answer: a) 713; b) 0.48 m; c) 2.59 kPa/m]

Solution:

0.07
a) Velocity of oil flow = 2
= 3.96 m/s
π ( 0.15 / 2 )
Reynolds number
vd ρ
3.96 × 0.15 ×1200
Rn = = = 713
η 1
As Rn < 2000 flow is laminar

b) Friction factor f = 64 / Rn = 64 / 713 = 0.09

2
⎛l⎞ v
The head losses due to friction is hL = f × ⎜ ⎟ × :
⎝ d ⎠ 2g
2
⎛ 1 ⎞ 3.96
hL = 0.09 × ⎜ ⎟× = 0.48 m
⎝ 0.15 ⎠ 2 × 9.81
c) From Bernoulli’s equation
p1 v12 p v2
+ + gz1 − ghL = 2 + 2 + gz2
ρ 2 ρ 2

96
Since v1 = v2 and also z1 − z2 = 1× sin15o = 0.26 m
p1 − p2 = ρ ( ghL − g ( z1 − z2 ) )
= 1200 × ( 9.81× 0.48 − 9.81× 0.26 )
= 2.59 kPa

97