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MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023-24

MOCK CLAT 37

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer because the passage
states that: The other three codes on Wages;
Industrial Relations; and Occupational Health,
Safety and Working Conditions, however, do not
mention the new categories of gig or platform-
worker. This indicates that these codes have no
inclusion of such workers.
Option (a) is incorrect because it is a correct
inference from the passage: The COVID-19
pandemic has spotlighted the insecure conditions
in which gig-workers operate and the lack of a
safety net provided by the law.
Option (b) is incorrect because it is a correct
inference from the passage: Further, 95.3% of the
respondents (drivers) of the survey reported that
they did not have any form of social security
including accidental, health or medical
insurance.
Option (d) is incorrect because it is a correct
inference from the passage: The benefits of
regularized payment or even higher wages
(compared to non-gig work) is short-lived.
2. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage
states that: Their explicit inclusion is necessary
because gig-work is often organized in a way that
is not captured by what is traditionally
understood as an employer-employee
relationship under labour law. Their work is
generally or conventionally not termed as employer-
employee relationship within the ambit of labour
law.
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Option (a) is incorrect because it mentions
“permanent” whereas there is lack of a legal
employer-employee relationship between them
which is not included within the ambit of labour
laws.
Option (c) is incorrect because there is no mention
of problems with determination of wages of gig-
workers; the problem is with their inclusion in
labour laws due to lack of an employer-employee
type relationship.
Option (d) is incorrect because the reason why an
explicit inclusion is required is because there is
“lack” of such relationship which makes them
presently out of the ambit of labour laws.
3. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer because it indicates
a lack of care or attention to duty which is used in
the context of the passage in calling the lack of
details in the labour laws about inclusion of new
kinds of employees and work arrangements.
Option (a) is incorrect because anything thoughtful
is something done with applying much mind to the
problem while here, it indicates that detailed
inclusion is missing signifying lack of thought
process.
Option (b) is incorrect because the word in the
context of the passage means something
irresponsible or negligent towards duty or care.
Option (d) is incorrect because it indicates a quality
wherein responsibility is present and there is much
care and alertness whereas in the context of the
passage, the word remiss indicates negligent
behaviour.
Page 1 of 16
4. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because the passage
states that: Maternity benefits, for instance,
usually depends on the fulfilment of a minimum
length of service, and because gig-work tends to
be flexible this can be difficult to determine. The
gig-workers usually perform service in flexible
duration without a continuous length of service
which makes their inclusion in getting maternity 7. (d)
benefits difficult.
Option (a) is incorrect because the passage states
that: Further, 95.3% of the respondents of the
survey reported that they did not have any form
of social security including accidental, health or
medical insurance. More than ninety percent
surveyed do not have such benefits.
Option (c) is incorrect because the passage
specifically states that all three labour codes apart
from social security do not mention or include “gig-
workers” within their ambit.
Option (d) is incorrect because the passage mentions
that: The benefits of regularized payment or even
higher wages (compared to non-gig work) is
short-lived. There are uncertainties about the
payment and its quantity received by gig-workers.
5. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer because the word is 8. (c)
preceded by “an” as an article which can only be
succeeded by a vowel sound. The word is also fit for
the context of the passage. Option (a) is incorrect
because it indicates secondhand or mediated
relationship generally used in the context of master-
servant relationship in tort or contract law. The
context of the passage is in relation to labour law
which is based on occupational relationship of 9. (b)
employer-employee. Option (b) is incorrect because
fiduciary indicates something based on trust which
is not in the context of the passage where there is
mention of employer-employee relationship. Option
(d) is incorrect because despite being a vowel sound,
the second hyphenated word is engager instead of
employer.
6. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer because as per the
passage, the children are the only ones who are out
and about in sunlight marking their innocence in the
backdrop of war whereas women are mostly present
in backyards and men have gone to either combat or
search for enemy soldiers. The passage is told from
the child’s viewpoint where some of them are 10. (d)
curious about enemy soldiers’ plane crash indicating
some war or conflict.
Option (a) is incorrect because the enemy soldiers
are being searched but it is a marginal point in the
passage depicting their curiosity; the whole passage
focusses on the depiction of the situation through the
point of view of the child.
Option (b) is incorrect because the persons
conversing are children only because the passage
mentions: The village was empty of adults. The
women were probably waiting at the back of
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their dark houses. Only the children were
drowning in the flood of sunlight.
Option (c) is incorrect because the soldiers are
mentioned at the far end of the passage to depict the
curiosity of children in going out to look for them.
The main point is about depiction of the existence in
a war like situation.
Option (d) is the correct answer because in the
context of the passage, it indicates that abundance of
new sunlight or bountiful of it was coming through
the walls.
Option (a) is incorrect because fertility cannot be
used in context of the passage especially regarding
sunlight which does not have a biological process of
reproduction; it is a chemical process in the fusion
process of the Sun.
Option (b) is incorrect because being fruitful means
to be able to reproduce whereas in the context of the
passage, it indicates an abundance of something like
sunlight.
Option (c) is incorrect because fecund indicates
abundance or production in excess of new things
whereas scarcity indicates a lack of something
which is not suiting the context of the passage.
Option (c) is the correct answer because in the
context of the passage, enemy or foreign soldiers
will be shot or captured. Rest all the options,
Options A, B and D are the synonyms of the same
word which indicates someone who has been an
original inhabitant of a particular place. Therefore,
all the other options are negated and only foreign
can be filled in the passage.
Option (b) is the correct answer because the author
is describing in detail about a place, the general
situation in the background of war and other
characteristics of the situation through explanation
and conversation.
Option (a) is incorrect because the passage is not
analyzing his thoughts or feelings and looking for a
proper course of action.
Option (c) is incorrect because the passage is not
providing information or facts or data to the reader.
Option (d) is incorrect because the passage is not
analyzing or examining any information or facts but
describing the situation in a war like situation from
a child’s point of view.
Option (d) is the correct answer because the passage
states that: “They won’t shoot, they don’t have
much ammunition,” Harelip explained
obligingly, “They aim to catch them!” It is stated
that the adults would not have shot the soldiers but
caught them due to lack of ammunition or firepower.
Option (a) is incorrect because it is stated in the
passage: The women were probably waiting at the
back of their dark houses.
Option (b) is incorrect because the passage states
that: “That plane yesterday crashed in the hills
last night. And they’re looking for the enemy
Page 2 of 16
 soldiers that were in it, the adults have all gone
hunting in the hills with their guns!”
Option (c) is incorrect because the passage states 13. (a)
that: My chest tightened with anxiety. The narrator
is with his brother whom he had awaken from sleep.
11. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer. The passage
discusses the challenges faced by absolute pacifism,
such as the limitations in the face of brutal enemies
and the potential for it to be ineffective in certain
historical contexts. It introduces Bertrand Russell's
"relative pacifism" as a more nuanced perspective
that recognizes some justifiable uses of war but
emphasizes the overall detrimental impact of wars
on society.
Option (a) While the passage does briefly mention
Gandhi's non-violent civil disobedience as an
example of people arguing in favor of pacifism, it
does not emphasize or explore this historical case
study extensively. The main focus of the passage is
on the limitations and challenges of absolute
pacifism, rather than the historical efficacy of non-
violent movements.
Option (b) The passage mentions Bertrand Russell's
"relative pacifism" as a more nuanced position, but
it does not emphasize his advocacy for a utopian
society free of all armed conflicts. Russell's stance
is about recognizing that some wars may be justified
under certain circumstances while acknowledging
the overall negative consequences of wars.
Option (c) While Bertrand Russell's "relative
pacifism" acknowledges that some wars may be
justified in achieving certain goals, the passage does
not focus on the potential benefits of wars in
bringing about positive societal changes. Instead, it 14. (c)
highlights Russell's belief that wars should be seen
as evil far more often than they are and questions the
overall effectiveness and wisdom of resorting to war
as a solution.
12. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. This statement
accurately reflects Bertrand Russell's "relative
pacifism" as described in the passage. It highlights
Russell's belief that some wars may be justified
under certain circumstances, while also recognizing 15.
the overall detrimental effects of wars.
Option (a) The passage does not mention that
Bertrand Russell's "relative pacifism" advocated for
a utopian society free of all armed conflicts. Instead,
it presents his perspective as a more nuanced
approach to pacifism.
Option (b) The passage does not suggest that
Bertrand Russell's "relative pacifism" emphasized
the importance of supporting all wars. On the 16. (c)
contrary, it acknowledges that very few wars are
worth fighting and emphasizes the negative impact
of wars.
Option (d) The passage does not suggest that
Bertrand Russell's "relative pacifism" outright
rejected war as a viable option for resolving
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conflicts. Instead, it acknowledges that some wars
may be justified in certain situations.
Option (a) is the correct answer. This statement
strengthens the argument in favor of relative
pacifism by presenting a historical example that
supports the idea that non-violence may not be
effective when facing determined and aggressive
adversaries. It highlights the need for a more flexible
approach like relative pacifism, which
acknowledges that in certain situations, the use of
force may be necessary to confront brutal
opposition.
Option (b) This Option (d)oes not directly address
the comparison between relative and absolute
pacifism. While it does emphasize the importance of
armed resistance in achieving India's independence,
it does not provide specific support for relative
pacifism over absolute pacifism in a broader
context.
Option (c) This Option (d)oes align with the idea of
relative pacifism, but it does not directly connect to
the historical example of Gandhi and India's
independence. It speaks to the criteria for justifying
wars, but it does not specifically relate to the
comparison between absolute and relative pacifism
in the context of Gandhi's non-violent resistance.
Option (d) This option weakens the argument in
favor of relative pacifism. If the passage argues that
India's independence was mainly a result of external
factors like the weakened state of the British
Empire, it undermines the significance of Gandhi's
non-violent resistance and implies that absolute
pacifism could have been equally effective.
Option (c) is the correct answer. The figure of
speech used in the statement is hyperbole. The
phrase "single-handedly end all wars and bring
about a utopian world without a hint of conflict"
exaggerates the pacifists' aspirations to an extreme
degree, emphasizing the vast scale of their goals.
Hyperbole is a literary device used to create
emphasis and make a point through exaggeration, as
seen in this statement.
(c) Option (c) is the correct answer. The idiom
"swimming against the tide" means facing resistance
or difficulty while trying to achieve something,
especially when the prevailing circumstances are not
in one's favor. In the passage, the proponents of
absolute pacifism are compared to those advocating
for a difficult and challenging cause, as they contend
with the complexities of war and historical realities
that may not align with their ideals.
The correct answer is (c). The passage primarily
focuses on the author’s attention being drawn to the
loud and continuous song of white-eye birds in a
specific corner of the lawn, overpowering the songs
of other bird species. The author expresses curiosity
and speculates about the reasons behind this unusual
behavior, suggesting that it may be related to the
birds’ mating rituals. The dominance of white-eye
Page 3 of 16
 birds’ songs in that particular area is the central
theme of the passage, making Option (b) the correct
choice.
(a) is incorrect because while the passage does
mention the author’s observations of various bird
species and their distinct songs in the morning, it is
not the main idea and can be considered as a mere
background.
(c) is incorrect as even though the passage briefly
mentions the habits and behaviors of white-eye
birds, such as their arboreal lifestyle and diet, it is
not the main idea anyway.
(d) is also incorrect. The passage mentions the
author’s speculation about the love life and mate
selection of birds but does not explore it further. It
is not the main idea of the passage.
17. (b) The correct answer is (b). The word ‘arboreal’ refers
to the habitat preference of the white-eye birds in the
given passage. In context of the passage, they are
predominantly associated with trees and spend most
of their time in tree habitats. The word ‘arboreal’ is
an adjective that generally means ‘living in trees’,
with that being said, B happens to be the most
appropriate answer choice.
(a) is incorrect because Eating habits isn’t directly
related to the term ‘arboreal’ as mentioned in the
passage.
(c) is also incorrect because the phrase doesn’t refer
to hunting style either.
(d) isn’t the correct choice as ‘arboreal’ doesn’t
mean hours of activity or anything alike in context
of the passage.
18. (d) The correct answer is (d). The author’s attitude
towards the loud songs of the white-eye birds can be
inferred as curiosity and intrigue. In the passage, the
author expresses surprise and fascination with the
unusually loud and continuous songs of the white-
eyes, questioning the reason behind their behavior.
This suggests a sense of curiosity and intrigue on the
part of the author.
(a) is incorrect because the author wasn’t annoyed
or irritated.
Even though B may prima facie seem to be an
appropriate answer choice, (d) is the more
appropriate answer because the author more upheld
a sense of curiosity than admiration.
(c) is incorrect because the author neither criticized
nor disapproved of anything at all in the given
passage.
19. (d) The correct answer is (d), because even though the
passage suggests that the white-eyed birds do have
an ‘arboreal’ habitat, living in gardens and lawns, it
doesn’t anyway mean that it can only be found in
‘urban’ gardens and lawns. It is therefore false.
A isn’t the correct answer since it’s true in context
of the passage, refer to the sentence: “Generally
white-eyes are soft-spoken birds.”
B is also true and therefore incorrect because the
passage clearly says, “They are chiefly arboreal,
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hunting for insects, spiders, berries, and nectar
among the blooms.”
(c) is, again, true and incorrect- “they are sociable
little birds (smaller than sparrows).”
20. (c) The grammatical error in the sentence is in Option
(c) that I suspect belong to those lovely little,
goggle-eyed yellow. The correct form should be
“that I suspect belongs to those lovely little, goggle-
eyed yellow.” The verb ‘belongs’ should agree with
the singular noun ‘song’ that precedes it. Therefore,
option (c) is the incorrect part and the correct
answer.
(a), (b) & (d) are incorrect because they don’t reflect
any grammatical errors.
21. (d) The passage mentions that Sri Lankan governments
have pledged to India that they will share more
power with the Tamil population and fully
implement the 13th Amendment, which created
provincial councils with decentralized powers.
However, despite these promises, they have
consistently failed to fulfill their commitment,
leading to dismay among Tamil political leaders in
both Sri Lanka and India.
Option (a) This statement is incorrect. The passage
suggests that the economic collapse in Sri Lanka
allowed New Delhi to regain influence but does not
attribute New Delhi's upper hand solely to the
economic collapse. It also mentions that free-
flowing loans and infrastructure investments from
China had previously helped Sri Lanka gain an
advantage against India in terms of influence.
Option (b) This statement is not entirely accurate.
The passage mentions that the civil war in Sri Lanka
ended with the defeat of the ethnic Tamil rebels in
2009, not the government forces. The defeat of the
rebels by the government brought an end to the
conflict.
Option (c) This statement is not supported by the
passage. The passage states that India and China are
competing for the same projects on infrastructure,
energy, and political influence in Sri Lanka,
indicating that political influence is a significant
consideration in the ties between the countries.
22. (b) The passage mentions that the two leaders expressed
support for an India-backed scheme to share power
with Sri Lanka's ethnic minority Tamil population.
The minority holds linguistic and cultural ties with
Tamils in southern India. The author suggests that
fully implementing this power-sharing scheme
could potentially address the long-running conflict
and contribute to resolving the economic crisis in Sri
Lanka.
Option (a) This statement is not supported by the
passage. While the passage mentions that China
provided free-flowing loans and infrastructure
investments to Sri Lanka in the past, it does not
suggest that seeking more financial aid from India
and China is the author's proposed solution to the
economic crisis.
Page 4 of 16
 Option (c) This statement is not the main focus of
the author's perspective on the solution to the
economic crisis. The passage mentions trade
opportunities in energy and infrastructure between
India and Sri Lanka, but it does not explicitly
emphasize this as the primary solution to the
economic crisis.
Option (d) This statement is mentioned in the
passage, but it is not the main gist of the author's take
on the solution to the economic crisis. The passage
mentions that "a lot of diaspora Tamils are willing to
help if Sri Lanka treats its Tamil people fairly," but
it is not about the Chinese diaspora but about Tamil
diaspora. The central focus of the author's
perspective. The main emphasis is on implementing
the power-sharing scheme with the Tamil
population.
23. (a) In the given passage, the term "conservative
calculations" is used to describe an approach that is
cautious, careful, and likely to produce more
conservative or lower estimates. Option (a) similarly
uses "conservative experiments," where the term
"conservative" is used to describe an approach that
is cautious and meticulous to ensure accurate results
and minimize uncertainties.
Option (b) This option uses "conservative" to
describe a cautious approach taken by a politician to
garner support from traditional voters. While it
shares the term "conservative," it does not match the
context of "conservative calculations" in the original
sentence.
Option (c) This option uses "conservative" to
describe a trend that prefers traditional styles and
values so, it does not align with the meaning
conveyed by "conservative calculations" in the
original sentence.
Option (d) This option uses "conservative" to
describe the artist's brushstrokes that are cautious
and restrained, reflecting a minimalist style.
Although it uses the term "conservative," it does not
match the context of "conservative calculations" in
the original sentence.
24. (d) The figure of speech used in the given lines is a
metaphor. The phrase "It's a power tug-of-war"
compares the competition between the two countries
to a tug-of-war, indicating a fierce struggle for
power and influence. The term "both countries
flexing and strengthening their muscle" further
extends the metaphor, likening the actions of the
countries to flexing their muscles, symbolizing the
display and utilization of their economic power. The
term "as a currency to trade and spend" reinforces
the metaphor, emphasizing that their economic
strength is being used as a means of negotiation and
transaction. The phrase "it is no skin of their own"
indicates that they are not risking their own well-
being in this power struggle. Finally, the phrase
"could all go pear-shaped for the island" warns that
the outcome for the island may not be favorable if
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things go awry, using another metaphor, "go pear-
shaped," to express potential negative
consequences.
Option (a) This option incorrectly identifies the
figure of speech as personification. Personification
would involve giving human characteristics or
actions to non-human entities or objects. In the
given lines, there is no personification because the
countries are not being described as performing
human actions.
Option (b) This option incorrectly identifies the
figure of speech as hyperbole. Hyperbole involves
exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be
taken literally. While there is some intensity in the
language used, it does not constitute hyperbole as
the overall meaning of the passage remains
grounded in the context of economic competition
and influence.
Option (c) This option identifies the figure of speech
as a simile. However, it does not provide a
explanation of the meaning of the simile as
described in the passage. Option (d) provides a more
comprehensive and accurate explanation of the
metaphor used in the lines.
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
25. (c) The Black Sea Grain Initiative was agreed upon to
allow cargo ships to safely travel from and to three
Ukrainian ports after inspection. This initiative
aimed to mitigate the impact of Russia's invasion
and blockade of Ukrainian ports on global food
prices.
26. (c) The three Ukrainian ports mentioned in the deal
were Odesa, Chornomorsk, and Pivdennyi
(Yuzhny).
27. (c) Russia believes that while they showed goodwill by
agreeing to the deal, the promises made to them
were not honored. They face challenges exporting
their agricultural products due to the indirect
effects of Western sanctions.
28. (b) The safe passage in the Black Sea designated under
the grain deal was 310 nautical miles long and
three nautical miles wide.
29. (d) The EU is considering connecting a subsidiary of the
Russian Agricultural Bank (Rosselkhozbank) to
SWIFT to enable grain and fertiliser transactions.
30. (c) According to the 2023 amendments, an "online
gaming intermediary" is defined as any
intermediary that allows users of its platform to
access one or more online games.
31. (b) The 2023 amendments distinguish between various
types of online games and specifically allow "real
money online games." These are games where users
can deposit money with the expectation of
potentially winning more, but not via betting on
game outcomes.
Page 5 of 16
32. (c) MeitY's fact-checking body will be responsible for
verifying and ensuring that online gaming
intermediaries aren't hosting or promoting non-
permissible online real money games or featuring 38. (b)
misleading advertisements.
33. (b) Intermediaries shall remove or disable access
withing 24 hours of receipt of complaints of
contents that exposes the private areas of
individuals, show such individuals in full or partial
nudity or in sexual act or is in the nature of
impersonation including morphed images etc.
34. (a) Rajeev Chandrasekhar is the Union Minister of
State for Electronics and Information Technology
and Union Minister of State for Skill Development
and Entrepreneurship. He is entrepreneur,
technocrat and was serving his third term as a 39. (c)
Member of Parliament in the upper house (Rajya
Sabha) from BJP representing Karnataka. He was
appointed as the Union Minister of State on July 7,
2023, as part of the Cabinet reshuffle by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi. He has been actively
involved in various initiatives related to digital
economy, digital governance, artificial intelligence,
emerging technology, cyber security, and
electronics manufacturing.
35. (d) Karnataka has been ranked as the most innovative
state in India, according to the National
Manufacturing Innovation Survey (NMIS) 2022.
Karnataka scored 82.5 out of 100 in the NMIS 2022,
followed by Maharashtra with 79.9 and Tamil Nadu 40. (c)
with 74.8.
36. (d) The NMIS 2021-22 was a collaborative effort
between the DST and UNIDO, with the support of
the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the
Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises,
and the Confederation of Indian Industry.
The NMIS 2021-22 was the first comprehensive
survey of its kind in India, covering more than 2,000
manufacturing firms across 15 states and 12 sectors.
The survey aimed to assess the innovation
performance of manufacturing firms in terms of
their inputs, outputs, outcomes, and impacts. The
survey also sought to identify the drivers and
barriers of innovation, the role of public policies and
institutions, and the best practices and 41. (d)
recommendations for enhancing innovation in the
manufacturing sector.
37. (b) The NMIS 2021-22 survey had two specific
components: the firm-level survey and the sectorial
systems of innovation (SSI) survey.
The Firm-level survey captured data related to types
of innovations and innovative measures taken by
firms, including the process of innovation, access to
finance, resources, and information for innovation,
besides also recording the factors impacting the
innovation activities in a firm. 42. (d)
The Sectorial System of Innovation survey mapped
the manufacturing innovation system and its
enabling role in achieving innovations in firms. A
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total of 8,087 firms participated in the firm-level
survey, while 5,488 firms and non-firms participated
in the SSI survey.
India ranked 40th in the Global Innovation Index
(GII) 2022, among 132 countries, improving by two
positions from its previous rank of 42nd in 2021.
The GII is an annual ranking of countries based on
their innovation performance, measured by various
indicators, such as institutions, human capital,
infrastructure, market sophistication, business
sophistication, knowledge and technology outputs,
and creative outputs. The GII is published by the
World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO),
in collaboration with Cornell University and
INSEAD Business School.
The first National Innovation Survey (NIS) was
conducted in 2011 by the National Innovation
Council (NIn(c) , under the Prime Minister’s Office,
in collaboration with the Federation of Indian
Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) and
the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI).
The NIS 2011 was a pilot survey that aimed to
measure the innovation performance of Indian firms
across various sectors, such as manufacturing,
services, agriculture, and social enterprises. The
survey covered more than 5,000 firms from 12 states
and 15 sectors, and collected data on various aspects
of innovation, such as inputs, outputs, outcomes,
impacts, drivers, barriers, and enablers.
Article 370 was a provision in the Indian
Constitution that granted special autonomy to the
state of Jammu and Kashmir. It was introduced to
provide the region with a certain degree of self-
governance and to acknowledge its unique
circumstances. The main objective was to recognize
the specific historical context of Jammu and
Kashmir's accession to India in 1947.
Under Article 370, Jammu and Kashmir had its own
Constitution, flag, and autonomy over matters
except foreign affairs, defense, finance, and
communications. This arrangement was intended to
respect the distinct culture, identity, and historical
background of the region while also allowing it to
be a part of the Indian Union.
N Gopalaswami Ayyangar was a member of the
Constituent Assembly of India and the Drafting
Committee of the Indian Constitution. He was also
a former Diwan (Prime Minister) of Jammu and
Kashmir under Maharaja Hari Singh.
Article 370 was drafted by Ayyangar as Article 306
A of the draft constitution. He introduced it in the
Constituent Assembly on October 17, 1949, after
consulting with Sheikh Abdullah, the leader of the
National Conference and the Prime Minister of
Jammu and Kashmir.
The Constitution (Application to Jammu and
Kashmir) Order 2019 was issued by the President
in the year 2019. This order effectively revoked the
special status of Jammu and Kashmir under Article
Page 6 of 16
 370 and extended all provisions of the Indian
Constitution to the region, thereby bringing it under
the same legal framework as the rest of the country.
43. (b) Article 35A of the Indian Constitution was an article
that empowered the Jammu and Kashmir state’s
legislature to define “permanent residents” of the
state and provide special rights and privileges to
them. It was added to the Constitution through a
presidential order, i.e., The Constitution
(Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954 –
issued by the President of India under Article 370.
44. (b) The Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019,
which was passed by the Parliament of India on
August 5, 2019, bifurcated the state of Jammu and
Kashmir into two union territories: Jammu and
Kashmir, and Ladakh. The act also redefined the
representation of these territories in the Lok Sabha,
the lower house of the Indian Parliament. According
to the act, of the six Lok Sabha seats allocated to the
former state, one will be allocated to Ladakh and
five to the Jammu and Kashmir union territory.
The act also stated that the delimitation of the
constituencies in the Jammu and Kashmir union
territory will be carried out by a Delimitation
Commission appointed by the Central Government.
45. (b) The military ousted the democratically elected
government of Aung San Suu Kyi in February
2021.
46. (b) Under the ASEAN plan, reached in April 2021, the
junta had promised to stop the violence and start
inclusive political dialogue.
47. (d) The Philippines will now take over, as the
chairmanship goes in alphabetical order."
48. (d) The only solution to the multiple crises Myanmar is
facing is the restoration of a legitimate, responsible
and responsive regime.
49. (b) The ruling military junta officially changed the
name of the country from Burma to Myanmar in
1989.
50. (b) Sinha introduced the "Crime Stopper System
(1090)" in the Kerala Police.
51. (c) Under Sinha's leadership, the BSF created the
Amphibious Commando Team known as Creek
Crocodile, which helped in restricting the intrusion
of Pak nationals in the Harami Nala area.
52. (c) In the SPG, Sinha introduced numerous specialized
training apparatus/programs to enhance the
professional skills of the SPG officers.
53. (d) After the assassination of Prime Minister Indira
Gandhi, the Birbal Nath Committee was set up to
review the security arrangements of the Prime
Minister. This committee recommended the
formation of a special protection unit, which
eventually became the Special Protection Group
(SPG).
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SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
54. (c) Option (a) is partially correct, as it can be deduced
from the passage’s text that “for the injured party, it
may afford the only possibility for compensation of
loss that is not susceptible to proof with sufficient
certainty”. Thus, loss is sine qua non for the award
under the head of liquidated damage. But it cannot
be inferred from the passage that proof of actual loss
is mandatory in all cases. Thus, it is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct.the context of the passage
is only limited to Section 74, i.e., liquidated
damages.
Option (c) is correct, as according to the passage,
“For the party in breach, it has the effect of limiting
damages to the sum stipulated..
Option (d), though factually correct,is incorrect as
per the text as the passage does not discuss
commercial uncertainty, leaving the determination
of the compensable amount largely within the realm
of the court ortribunal. Hence, it is not correct.
55. (c) Option (d) is eliminated as the facts suggest that
initially there was no date specified as to completion
of the work, but later, via a variation deed 30 April,
2018 was decided to be the date of completion.
Later, Ecoworld took possession of blocks (b) and
(c) 2018with practical completion of the remainder
of the works being certified on 20 December, 2018.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (a) is incorrect as there was no breach of
contract; Ecoworld accepted possession of the
remaining blocks, with the remainder of the works
being certified on 20 December, 2018. Hence, no
damages can be claimed for a period from 30
April,2018 to 20 December, 2018. Thus, Option (b)
is also rejected.
56. (d) Option (a) is not correct as the passage does not talk
about non-performance of the contract by one party
but instead mentions breach of contract. Thus, the
closest possible deduction in this situation is option
(d) as the plaintiff failed to supply the potatoes as
agreed.
Option (b) is incorrect because the statement implies
that the respondent is justified in terminating the
contract, but the amount cannot be forfeited;
nonetheless, the answer does not offer any
explanation for why the amount cannot be forfeited.
As a result, it is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect because the statement does
not provide a rationale for the assertion to be
considered true. As a result, it is incorrect. Taking
the circumstances into account, the only reasonable
conclusion that can be drawn is that the plaintiff has
breached his contract.
57. (b) Option (b) is correct, as according to the passage, if
the amount stipulated in the contract is likely to be a
genuine pre-estimate of damages flowing from the
breach, it is called 'liquidated damages', otherwise
Page 7 of 16
 the amount is labelled as penalty”. Thus, the clause
is valid as it’s a reasonable charge stipulated by the
university on default of the student. Thus, Option (a)
is incorrect as the rationale supported for justifying
it is not in line with the text of the passage.
Option (c) is not correct, as the facts do not assert
that the damages are difficult to quantify. Option (d)
is incorrect since the factual inquiry does not ask
to resolve whether the sum stipulated should be
classified as a penalty or liquidated damages.
58. (a) Option (a) is correct, as according to the text of the
passage, liquidated damages are a pre-estimate of
the amount of damages to be awarded in the event
of a breach of contract occurring. In cases where the
amount stipulated in the contract is likely to be a
genuine pre-estimate of damages flowing from the
breach, it is called liquidated damages. Option (b) is
not correct, as damages quantified by the courts are
not discussed in the context of the passage. Thus, it
is not correct. Option (c) is only partly correct as the
amount is a “genuine” pre-estimate of damages; it
cannot be deduced from the passage that the amount
is set excessively high in order to encourage
performance and deter breach.
Option (d) is incorrect as it suggests that liquidated
damages to be ascertained by the parties after the
breach. Thus, this option is not correct.
59. (c) Statement I is correct, but an essential part of
section 321 with causing hurt is “intention and
knowledge”. Since the given illustration’s option, A
lacks both. Thus, it is not correct. Statement II again
does not provide that the accused had intention, and,
with knowledge, caused hurt. Statement III is
correct as Section 321 IPC states that “Whoever
does any act with the intention of thereby causing
hurt to any person, or with the knowledge that he is
likely thereby to cause hurt to any person, and does
thereby cause hurt to any person, is said to have:
“voluntarily to cause hurt”.
Thus, this is the correct example of section 321 IPC.
Statement IV is not correct as the statement does not
provide that the accused, knowing or with intent,
inflicted syphilis on her customer. Thus, it is not
correct. Hence, only Statement III provides for a
correct illustration; thus, Option (c) is correct.
60. (a) Option (a) is correct as a fracture or dislocation of a
bone is considered as grievous hurt according to
Section 320 of the IPC. Thus, the punishment given
to the accused is appropriate, as such hurt was
inflicted upon the complainant during the accuser’s
assault. Option (b) though correct but only factually
whereas Option (a) provides a reasoning basis for
the information provided in the passage. Option (c)
is not correct as the injury was inflicted upon the
complainant during the accuser’s assault. Option (d)
is not correct as the presence of intent to cause
grievous hurt on the part of the accused is not
discussed. Thus, it was not considered.
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61. (d) Option (a) is not correct as the said accused was a
mental patient, and there are no facts that assert that
Mayank actions was intentional. Thus, not correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct. Option (c) is again
incorrect as intention on the part of the accused
cannot be deduced from the information given in the
facts.
62. (b) Option (a) is not correct as the act of the chef caused
the loss of an ear (i.e., permanent privation of one
ear). Thus, it is a case of grievous hurt and not
“hurt”. Hence, Option (b) is correct. Option (c) is not
correct as the facts do not provide that the guests
consented to such risk. Moreover, the passage does
not state that consent can be taken as a defense.
Thus, not correct. Option (d) is not correct as the
facts do not discuss on the intention of the chefs to
cause harm. Thus, it is not correct.
63. (b) Option (a) is not correct as his intention was to force
the couple to leave the premises and not to hurt
them. Hence, his conviction is justified under
Section 319 for causing mental disorder to the wife
of Bhide. Hence, Option (b) is correct. Option (c) is
not correct, as Jethalal’s conviction under Section
321 is not disputed in the facts. Thus, it is not
correct. Option (d) is not correct, as intention of
Jethalal is not disputed in the facts. Thus, Option (b)
is a better alternative then Option (d).
64. (c) (c) is the correct answer. The principle of theonomy
in natural law theory holds that the source and judge
of all laws and morals is God, and individuals should
act according to God's revelation. In this case,
Kelly's action is based on the law of the land, which
prescribes capital punishment for murder. This
indicates that she is acting according to human
reason, or the laws established by the state rather
than directly following God's revelation. Therefore,
her action does not conform to the principle of
theonomy in natural law theory. (a) is incorrect
because it assumes that Kelly's action must be in
accordance with the revelation of God. However,
the question does not provide any information about
Kelly's personal beliefs or whether she is acting
based on religious convictions. B is also incorrect
because it assumes that Kelly's action is based on the
revelation of God. As mentioned earlier, the
question does not provide any information about
Kelly's religious beliefs or whether she is acting
based on religious conviction. (d) is also incorrect.
While this Option (a)cknowledges the role of human
reason and nature in natural law theory, it implies
that Kelly's action potentially conforms to the
principle of theonomy in natural law theory solely
based on human reason or nature being reflections
or manifestations of God's will or commandments.
However, theonomy in natural law theory typically
emphasizes the direct influence of God's revelation
rather than solely relying on human reason or nature.
Thus, this answer is not the most accurate choice.
Page 8 of 16
65. (b) (b) is the correct answer, in the given situation, Jack,
as a scientist, is using his capacity for reason to
contribute to the advancement of knowledge and
benefit humanity. By publishing his findings and
sharing his data, he is acting in a way that aligns with
the pursuit of truth and the betterment of human
well-being. Therefore, his action potentially
conforms to the principle of rationality in natural
law theory. A is incorrect because it wrongly claims
that Jack's action does not align with human reason.
In fact, Jack's decision to publish his findings and
share his data demonstrates his use of reason in
contributing to the advancement of knowledge and
benefiting humanity. (c) is incorrect as it introduces
a different consideration related to intellectual
property rights, which is not directly relevant to the
principle of rationality in natural law theory. (d) is
incorrect because it introduces the concept of the
categorical imperative, or the law of nature, which
is not associated with the principle of rationality in
natural law theory.
66. (b) (b) is the correct answer as, the principle of
naturalism in natural law theory asserts that by
observing nature, one can discern the inherent order
and harmony of creation, as well as the natural rights
and duties of human beings. According to this
principle, individuals should act in accordance with
the natural order and the rights and duties that
emerge from it. In the given situation, Isla, as a
social worker, is using her skills and resources to
provide assistance to refugees in need. Her actions
reflect compassion, solidarity, and a commitment to
upholding human dignity and rights. These
principles align with the observation of nature. (a) is
incorrect because it suggests that Isla's action is not
in accordance with the observation of nature.
However, Isla's actions of providing aid to refugees,
showing compassion, and upholding human dignity
can be seen as in alignment with the order and
harmony of creation and the natural rights and duties
of human beings as understood through the
observation of nature. (c) is incorrect because it
incorrectly implies that acting according to human
reason or revelation is insufficient for conforming to
the principle of naturalism in natural law theory.
Naturalism recognizes the role of human reason in
understanding the natural order and deriving
principles of natural law. (d) is incorrect because it
suggests that Isla's action conforms to the principle
of naturalism in natural law theory solely because
human reason or revelation are reflections or
manifestations of nature. While human reason and
revelation can be considered important factors in
understanding natural law, the principle of
naturalism in natural law theory primarily
emphasizes the observation of nature itself,
including the order and harmony of creation and the
natural rights and duties of human beings.
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67. (c) (c) is the correct answer. The principle of theonomy
in natural law theory holds that the source and judge
of all laws and morals is God, and individuals should
act according to God's revelation. In the given
situation, Harry's action of hacking into a
corporation and exposing its confidential data is not
necessarily derived from or explicitly aligned with
divine revelation. It appears to be based on his own
judgement of the corporation's illegal and unethical
activities and his desire to expose the truth and
demand justice. (a) is incorrect as it is talking in
contradicting situation . (b) is also incorrect as it
assumes that Harry's action is based on the
revelation of God without providing any evidence to
support this claim. Without any information
regarding Harry's religious beliefs or motivations, it
is not valid to conclude that his actions are rooted in
divine revelation. (d) is incorrect because it suggests
that Harry's action potentially conforms to the
principle of theonomy in natural law theory based
on human reason or nature being reflections or
manifestations of God's will or commandments.
However, theonomy primarily emphasizes direct
guidance from divine revelation rather than solely
relying on human reason or nature.
68. (c) (c) is the correct answer, as, the principle of
theonomy in natural law theory asserts that the
source and judge of all laws and morals is God, and
individuals should act according to God's revelation.
In the given situation, Emma's action of exposing
the atrocities committed during the civil war is
driven by her own judgment, professional ethics,
and a sense of moral responsibility to inform the
public and advocate for justice. It does not
necessarily rely on or align with divine revelation as
the primary motivating factor. (a) is incorrect as it
assumes that Emma's action must be based on the
revelation of God. However, the question does not
provide any information about Emma's religious
beliefs or motivations, and her actions can be
understood within the context of journalistic
principles and a commitment to human rights, rather
than being explicitly derived from divine revelation.
(b) is also incorrect, as it assumes that Emma's
action is based on the revelation of God without
providing any evidence to support this claim.
Without any information regarding Emma's
religious beliefs or motivations, it is not valid to
conclude that her actions are rooted in divine
revelation. (d) is incorrect because it suggests that
Emma's action potentially conforms to the principle
of theonomy in natural law theory based on human
reason or nature being reflections or manifestations
of God's will or commandments. However,
theonomy primarily emphasizes direct guidance
from divine revelation rather than solely relying on
human reason or nature.
69. (a) (a) is the correct answer. The principle of rationality
in natural law theory asserts that human reason has
Page 9 of 16
 the capacity to discover universal and immutable
truths about human nature and morality. In this case,
Carol, as a doctor, is faced with a medical
emergency where the patient's life is at stake. In the
absence of the patient's consent and with no relatives
or friends present, Carol decides to perform a life-
saving surgery based on her professional judgement
and the understanding that human life is valuable
and sacred. By prioritizing the preservation of the
patient's life and preventing harm or injury, Carol's 73. (a)
action aligns with the principle of rationality in
natural law theory. (b) is incorrect because it focuses
on the violation of the patient's autonomy and right
to consent rather than the principle of rationality in
natural law theory. While the patient's autonomy is
an important consideration in medical ethics, the
principle of rationality in natural law theory is
primarily concerned with the discovery of universal
and immutable truths about human nature and
morality through human reason. (c) is also incorrect
as the principle of rationality in natural law theory
focuses on the capacity of human reason to discover 74. (d)
universal and immutable truths, rather than being
centred on the categorical imperative. (d) is also
incorrect, as it suggests that Carol's action is based
solely on her own subjective judgement without
considering reason. However, the question does not
provide enough information to conclude that Carol's
decision to perform the life-saving surgery is solely
based on subjective judgement.
70. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, the Supreme Court was approached for the
sharing of the waters of the river Cauvery. Article
262 also states that the Parliament confers the status 75. (d)
of the resolution of disputes through any other
authority than the Supreme Court. Option (b) is
incorrect because the High Court and the Inter-State
Council have not been mentioned in the passage.
Option (c) is incorrect because there is no mention
of the Inter-State River Tribunal in Article 262.
Option (d) is incorrect because there is no
requirement of compulsory jurisdiction under
Article 32 mentioned in the passage.
71. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, the Supreme Court will hear on August 25
State of Tamil Nadu's application seeking fresh
directions for the release of Cauvery River water
from Karnataka. In this factual situation, there will
be an application in the Supreme Court for the 76. (d)
enforcement of the order. Option (a) is incorrect
because there is no mention of writs in the passage,
and neither is the High Court mentioned. Option (c)
is incorrect because an appeal in the Supreme Court
under Article 136 is not mentioned in the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect because there is no mention
of a reversionary appeal in the Supreme Court.
72. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, the Supreme Court will hear on August 25
the State of Tamil Nadu's application seeking fresh
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directions for the release of Cauvery River water
from Karnataka. In this factual situation, there will
be action in the Supreme Court. Option (b) is
incorrect because there is no mention of the River
Dispute Tribunal in the passage. Option (c) is
incorrect because there is no mention of state acts in
the passage. Option (d) is incorrect because the High
Court under Article 226 has not been mentioned in
the passage.
Option (a) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, the Supreme Court will hear on August 25
the State of Tamil Nadu's application seeking fresh
directions for the release of Cauvery River water
from Karnataka. In this factual situation, there will
be a case in the authority created by the Parliament
under Article 262 of the Constitution. Option (b) is
incorrect because the High Court is not mentioned
in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect because the
Supreme Court, in reference to Article 136 is not
mentioned in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect
because Article 133 is not mentioned in the passage.
Option (d) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, the Supreme Court will hear on August 25
the State of Tamil Nadu's application seeking fresh
directions for the release of Cauvery River water
from Karnataka. In this factual situation, there will
be enforcement of the river dispute under Article
262. Option (a) is incorrect because there will be no
civil water dispute; it will be a river dispute. Option
(b) is incorrect because there is no mention of aqua
creatures in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect
because the passage does not mentioned about
natural resources.
Option (d) is the correct answer because the ban has
been announced by a co-operative union and not any
government department or agency. The passage
states that freedom of religion can only be claimed
against the government.
Option (a) is incorrect because, despite it being an
essential practice of religion, the ban is not imposed
by any government body, therefore it cannot be
enforced.
Option (b) is incorrect because, despite public order
covering noise pollution in its ambit, the ban,
imposing body is not the government.
Option (c) is negated because, despite them being
essential practices of religion, the banning authority
is not the government.
Option (d) is the correct answer because the
celebration is national and all communities are
included in the feast in community hall, making it
impartial. The Hindu celebration is being done by
people in a nearby area.
Option (a) is incorrect because the celebration is
neutral in nature because it is about the nation, with
all communities invited and included.
Option (b) is incorrect because the criteria of the
passage talk about accommodation or inclusion of
all communities but not representation.
Page 10 of 16
 Option (c) is incorrect because the Hindu festival
celebration is being done by common people in a
nearby area that is not backed by the government.
77. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer because the
missionaries deceptively stated that students who
have converted to their religion have seen a drastic
increase in numbers in school, which is a deceitful
luring technique for potential converts. It is not
included in their freedom of religion.
Option (a) is incorrect because it is not stated in the
passage; the criteria are merely that the propagation
must be through persuasion, not compulsion or
deception.
Option (b) is incorrect because their acts were not
persuasion but deception; converting to a particular
religion and the increase in marks in school are not
inter related; persuasion means to convince using
accurate information, albeit in a pleasant manner.
Option (d) is incorrect because the propagation
should not be through compulsion or deception. If
any one of those is satisfied then freedom of religion
cannot be claimed.
78. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because freedom of
religion is guaranteed to all people irrespective of
any consideration, and therefore, by imposing a ban
on women of a particular age, it is restricting the
right.
Option (a) is incorrect because the passage covers
statutory authorities in its ambit against whom
freedom of religion can be claimed. The Board is
created under a statute, making it a statutory
authority.
Option (c) is negated because this type of throwing
open of Hindu public places can only be done
through legislation, not through the Court.
Option (d) is negated because the reason given by
the board is that the deity is celibate and to preserve
his character, the restriction is imposed which is not
an issue of public order as no violence or protests
happened in this regard as per the facts.
79. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer because it has been
made under the restriction of health since the
consumption of cattle will lead to the spread of
disease in humans. The state government is right in
banning cow slaughter due to health concerns.
Option (a) is incorrect because the facts mention
“cattle”, while the state government has specifically
banned cow slaughter because of health concerns.
Option (b) is incorrect because freedom of religion
cannot be tilted in anyone’s favour, as it would be
against secularism, which mentions impartiality.
Option (c) is incorrect because that practice is not an
essential practice of religion.
80. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, malicious prosecution has the following
five
compulsory elements i.e. prosecution by the
defendant, absence of reasonable and probable
cause, defendant acted maliciously, termination of
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proceedings in the favour of the plaintiff, and
plaintiff suffered damage (in either person, or
property, or reputation) as a result of the
prosecution. Out of these, all the requirements are
being met, and the damage is to his reputation since
he was well-respected, and this case brought down
his reputation in front of the town people.
Option (a) is incorrect because there is no damage
caused to his person or body through the malicious
prosecution. He was treated well in prison with due
regard to his well-being.
Option (c) is incorrect because there was no damage
caused to his property by the malicious prosecution;
the damage was to his reputation.
Option (d) is incorrect because damage to profession
is not included within the criteria of the passage for
malicious prosecution.
81. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because as per the
passage, malicious prosecution has the following
five compulsory elements i.e. prosecution by the
defendant, absence of reasonable and probable
cause, defendant acted maliciously, termination of
proceedings in the favour of the plaintiff and
plaintiff suffered damage (in either person or
property or reputation) as a result of the prosecution.
All of these must be met. Out of these, action by
executive authorities is not considered as
prosecution. Therefore, John will not succeed in the
case of malicious prosecution.
Option (a) is incorrect because there was no case or
prosecution because it was before an executive
authority, not a trial in a Court or appeal. Executive
authority is an exception under prosecution.
Option (c) is incorrect because out of the five
compulsory elements, the requirement of
prosecution is not being met. The action was before
an executive authority, which is excluded from
ambit of prosecution.
Option (d) is incorrect because there was damage to
his reputation in this case as there was a false
campaign against him in media or news outlets.
82. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because, as per the
passage, malicious prosecution has the following
five compulsory elements i.e. prosecution by the
defendant, absence of reasonable and probable
cause, defendant acted maliciously, termination of
proceedings in the favour of the plaintiff and
plaintiff suffered damage (in either person or
property or reputation) as a result of the prosecution.
All of these must be met. In the present situation,
despite the trial court giving decision against John,
the appeal came in his favour and appeal is included
in the definition of prosecution as per the passage.
Option (a) is incorrect because the initial decision
did not come in his favour, but the decision in appeal
came in John’s favour, making his case for
malicious prosecution valid.
Page 11 of 16
 Option (c) is incorrect because there was damage to
his reputation, which is included within the types of
damage caused. 85. (c)
Option (d) is incorrect because not only one
requirement met but all the other requirements also
met.
83. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because as per the
passage, malicious prosecution has the following
five compulsory elements i.e. prosecution by the
defendant, absence of reasonable and probable
cause, defendant acted maliciously, termination of
proceedings in the favour of the plaintiff and
plaintiff suffered damage (in either person or
property or reputation) as a result of the prosecution.
All of these must be met. In conducting a flimsy
investigation, there was absence of reasonable cause
being displayed. The police should have taken
samples from her bakery; there should have been
reports of Richard from hospital stating 86. (d)
consumption of her bakery items leading to his ill-
health. The lack of all these indicates a lack of
reasonable cause for the prosecution.
Option (a) is incorrect because, the flimsy
investigation is not indicative of presence of
prosecution because lack of good investigation
would result in absence of reasonable cause for
prosecution as there would be negligible reasons or
material to sustain the prosecution.
Option (c) is incorrect becaus,e flimsy investigation
by police does not indicate a presence of damage to
reputation of Sarah; it indicates a lack of probable or
reasonable cause.
Option (d) is incorrect because, lack of good 87. (c)
investigation indicates a lack of reasonable cause.
The decision came in favour of Sarah because of
lack of reasonable cause to sustain the prosecution.
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
84. (a) It is given in the passage that “Humphrey's 88. (b)
exploration of these questions led him to propose
that our ability to have conscious experiences shapes
our objectives in ways that are evolutionarily
advantageous. Sensations not only motivate us but
also enable sensation-seeking activities like play,
exploration, and imagination, which have helped us
learn more about ourselves and thrive.” From these
lines we can infer Option (a). Option (b) is incorrect
because the passage doesn’t talk about which
impacts humans more, conscious perceptions or
non-conscious perceptions. In fact, the passage
claims that sensations with perceptions help us
evolve to experience various new activities, but
perceptions without sensations may not impact 89. (c)
survival of humans. Thus, this option is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect because it goes against the
idea stated in the passage. Option (d) is incorrect
because consciousness in perception helps us seek
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more activities that in turn have more sensations.
Hence, Option (a).
The author develops his argument on humans that
sensations with perceptions help us evolve to
experience various new activities that in turn have
more sensations, by beginning with an experiment
on anesthetized monkey. So, the assumption is
results of this experiment will be true for humans as
well. Option (a) is incorrect because sensations may
be different for both humans and monkeys, but the
result that sensations help humans evolve and enable
various activities is going to be the same for both
monkeys and humans. Option (b) is incorrect
because the argument is not about perception, but
about impact of sensations with perception or vision.
Option (d) is incorrect because there can be a
possibility that some parts may be same, not all.
Hence, Option (c).
The statement assumes that Sentience can be
achieved with touch, which is mentioned in Option
(d). Option (a) is incorrect because this option talks
about humans. Humans can have both Conscious
and non-conscious vision/ perception. So, this
Option doesn’t strengthen the argument. Option (b)
is incorrect because this opposes the idea stated in
the passage that perception without sensation may
not impact human survival, but that the perception
with sensation help humans evolve. Option (c) is
incorrect because it weakens the argument because
this is given as the example to support the claim that
perception with sensation help humans evolve.
Hence, Option (d).
The argument is the passage is that sensations with
perceptions help humans evolve to experience
various new activities that in turn have more
sensations. Option (c) clearly weakens by stating
that people without limbs, who can’t have sensations
by touch, had as varied and rich experiences as
normal people. Hence, Option (c).
The author discusses Humphrey's work on
consciousness and sentience, his exploration of the
phenomenon of "blindsight," and his challenge to
the 19th-century view of consciousness, all without
expressing personal agreement or disagreement.
This objectivity allows the reader to form their own
opinions based on the information presented. The
term 'informative' refers to the passage's primary
purpose, which is to inform or educate the reader.
The passage provides detailed information about
Humphrey's work, including his theories about
consciousness and sentience, his experiments with
monkeys, and his views on artificial intelligence and
animal consciousness. Hence, Option (b)
This statement is out of scope because it is not
mentioned that which business or sector has what
percentage impact on the environment. Option (a) is
incorrect as it is a valid assumption. The author is
making a suggestion that the company give up its
strategy of making it cokes servable all the time by
Page 12 of 16
 refrigerating it. This suggestion is made on the
assumption that it is not going to impact the
company’s business. Option (b) is incorrect because
it is a valid assumption. Since the suggestion is
given to consumers to re-evaluate whether their
approach is worthwhile, the author assumes that
cokes can be chilled later as well, and that this would
not impact environment the way current strategy
does. Option (d) is incorrect because it is a valid
assumption. The author criticizes Coca-Cola's heavy
reliance on refrigeration equipment and suggests
that the company should reconsider this reliance.
This implies that the author believes a significant
reduction in the use of such equipment would have
a noticeable impact on global greenhouse gas
emissions. Hence, Option (c).
90. (b) The author's main critique is centered on Coca-
Cola's heavy reliance on refrigeration, which
contributes significantly to global greenhouse gas 93. (b)
emissions. Introducing a new line of products that
do not require refrigeration would directly address
this concern. The other options, while potentially
beneficial for the environment, do not directly
address the issue of refrigeration. Option (a) is
incorrect because while this change would
potentially reduce Coca-Cola's overall carbon
footprint, it doesn't directly address the author's
main concern, which is the environmental impact of
the company's refrigeration practices. Option (c) is 94. (d)
incorrect. The author's critique is primarily focused
on the greenhouse gas emissions resulting from the
use of refrigeration equipment, not the emissions
from the company's distribution network. Option (d)
is incorrect because while promoting recycling
would be a positive step, it wouldn't directly address
the author's specific concerns. Hence, Option (b).
91. (a) If a study shows that consumers are aware and
willing to change these habits, it would challenge
the effectiveness of Coca-Cola's marketing strategy
of making a cold Coke always within reach is a
major driver of the company's environmental
impact. Option (b) is incorrect because awareness of 95. (c)
the consumers has no impact on the environmental
impact of refrigeration. Option (c) is incorrect
because if consumers are aware of the impact and
yet they consume coke in quantities, impacting the
environment, the suggestion by the author becomes
necessary, not unnecessary. Option (d) is incorrect.
Awareness of consumers of the impact of their
consumption on the environment is not going to
negate the fact that consumption is impacting the
environment. Hence, Option (a).
92. (d) This situation is neither an analogy nor a paradox to
the author's arguments about Coca-Cola. The 96. (c)
author's arguments focus on the environmental
impact of Coca-Cola's refrigeration practices and its
marketing strategy of making a cold Coke always
within reach. The situation with the software
company involves increased energy consumption
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due to a new application, which is not directly
related to the themes in the author's critique of Coca-
Cola. Option (a) is incorrect because the fast-food
chain's promotion of drive-thru service leads to
environmental harm, mirroring Coca-Cola's
promotion of readily available cold drinks, which
contributes to greenhouse gas emissions. Option (b)
is incorrect. The clothing brand's promotion of fast
fashion, which leads to environmental harm, mirrors
Coca-Cola's promotion of readily available
products, contributing to environmental harm.
Option (c) is incorrect. Option (c) is incorrect
because the city's promotion of public transportation
while continuing to build infrastructure favoring
private car use represents a similarity with the Coca-
Cola situation. Building infra for private car use is
sort of convenience resulting in lot of wastage.
Hence, Option (d).
If technology allows building cooling appliances
that don’t use refrigerants, then author’s suggestions
become useless. Option (a) is incorrect because it is
not clear what refrigerants are used in cooling
machines of Coca Cola company. Option (c) is
incorrect because this statement strengthens the
argument instead of weakening it. Option (d) is
incorrect. Just because we couldn’t gauge the
impact, it doesn’t mean that there was no impact. So,
this Option doesn’t weaken the argument.
The author explicitly agrees with this statement
because he or she criticizes the BJP and its
spokespersons for blaming foreign publications for
conspiring to defame India, and suggests that they
are actually harming Modi’s reputation by their
behaviour. Option (a) is incorrect because the author
does not explicitly or implicitly endorse Rahul
Gandhi as a better leader than Narendra Modi for
India’s future. Option (b) is incorrect because the
popularity of different leaders in the US is not
mentioned in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect
because Indian diaspora may be important for
winning elections, not for India’s image.
Option (c) is the right answer. The author’s
arguments in the given passage are most similar to
this Option because both involve praising a new or
alternative political entity for its positive attributes.
Option (a) is incorrect because this doesn’t align
with the idea stated in the passage, the actor is being
criticized for not working with the famous director.
Rahul was not criticized for not working with Mr.
Modi. Option (b) is incorrect because the coach is
being criticized for not electing the athlete. Option
(d) is incorrect because pandemic is for everybody,
not just for anyone restaurant. Hence, Option (c).
The passage implies that The Economist, which is
often accused of being biased against India, has
acknowledged Modi’s success in strengthening the
strategic partnership with the United States, as
evident from the cover story and the state visit.
Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not
Page 13 of 16
 provide any evidence of Rahul Gandhi’s popularity
among the Indian diaspora in America. It only
mentions his drive from Washington to New York
and his speeches. Option (b) is incorrect because the
passage states that the United States once denied
Modi a visa to travel there, not more than once. It
also states that he is now going to be welcomed in a
way that few foreign leaders have been welcomed in 100. (d)
the United States ever. Option (d) is incorrect
because the passage states that Modi will address
both houses of Congress for the second time as
prime minister, not the first time. It also states that
he will become one among small handful of foreign
leaders to be accorded this honour, not the only one.
97. (a) The passage mainly focuses on how Rahul Gandhi
and Narendra Modi differ in their personal traits,
political agendas, and public perceptions. It also 101. (d)
shows how their respective strengths and
weaknesses affect their chances of winning over the
Indian diaspora in America. Option (b) is incorrect
because the passage does not only criticize Rahul
Gandhi, but also acknowledges his positive
qualities, such as charm, humility, sincerity, and 102. (c)
genuine interest. It also points out some of the flaws
of Narendra Modi, such as autocracy, arrogance, and
narcissism. Option (c) is incorrect because The
passage does not only praise Narendra Modi, but
also mentions some of the challenges he faces, such 103. (a)
as the accusations of getting foreigners to intervene
in Indian affairs, prostrating himself before the
‘sengol’, and being defamed by conspiracy theorists.
It also shows how some of his achievements are
shared by other foreign leaders, such as addressing
both houses of Congress. Option (d) is incorrect
because The passage does not mainly analyze the
role of the media and the public opinion, but rather
uses them as sources of information and evidence to
support its arguments. It also does not provide a
comprehensive or systematic analysis of how the
media and the public opinion shape the image of 104. (a)
Rahul Gandhi and Narendra Modi, but rather gives
some examples and anecdotes.
98. (b) Nothing has been mentioned how Indian Diaspora
perceived Rahul Gandhi. The author has simly 105. (a)
assumed that people also perceive Rahul as he does.
Option (a) is incorrect because this strengthens the
argument that Rahul Gandhi’s timing was bad.
Option (c) is incorrect because this is used to
strengthen the statement. Option (d) is incorrect
because comparison of the two doesn’t have any
bearing on the bad timing of Rahul Gandhi, so this 106. (d)
option is irrelevant.
99. (c) (a) By 2030, India is set to have the largest
working-age population in the world: this does not
underline the need for changes in education
system. 107. (c)
(b) India’s youth not only need literacy, they need
the medium to accessible and affordable: This is
not related to the point being discussed
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(c) India’s educated youth have been found to be
severely deficient in both job and life skills: This is
the reason why government is asking for such a
change
(d) Indian youth are naturally good in quantitative
skills but are poor in language skills: This is
unrelated. Hence (c)
For many years, Indian universities and colleges
were not permitted to offer more than 20 percent of
a degree online
The question is about the change in stance of the
government with the caveat that government will
continue to be cautious. Option (d) is talking about
the previous attitude of the government which is
not relevant here. Rest all options strengthen the
‘cautionary’ approach attribute. Hence (d)
Though this is not mentioned, one can get an idea
about this from the passage. Also, the options to
some extent need to be evaluated independently, in
isolation to the passage. All options seem valid and
acceptable justifications of government’s
reluctance. Hence (d)
Option (c) clearly highlights the shortfall of the
Indian universities against the requirement in the
next few years. Therefore, it most strongly presents
the case of allowing foreign universities to operate
in India. Hence (c)
(a) Affordable and accessible: As mentioned
“while at the same time reducing barriers to entry,
online degrees will likely be offered at lower cost”
(b) Flexible for foreigners: Attractive and appealing
to foreigners is mentioned but flexibility has not
been suggested as a tempting aspect
(c) Company sponsored courses for working
professionals: Not mentioned implicitly or
explicitly
d) Will improve the number of examinees:
Mentioned that number of admissions and
completions will improve. Hence (a)
Ashwini Kumar Choubey’s proposal to rename
Corbett National Park strengthens the reserve’s rich
history. Author is strenuously arguing against it, so
obviously he will disagree with this. Hence (a)
The statement is about an expression that past or
history of a place, a tribe is also reflected in the
present life of the people. Only option (a) puts forth
an example in support of this idea. The other two
options are supporting the prevention of name
change but not really related to the idea of the given
statement. Hence (a)
Recent evidence suggest that Corbett was involved
in exploitation of the population in the area. Since
Corbett may have a dark past, therefore it may be
appropriate to change the name of the reserve.
Hence (d)
(a) He was the most famous hunter of his time who
killed many rare animals: We cannot infer that he
was the ‘MOST’ famous hunter of his time
Page 14 of 16
 (b) He was one of the few British who participated 7 22
⇒ x2 = × × r2 ⇒ x = r
22 7
in India’s freedom struggle: He was friends with
Also,
Pant but that does not imply that he participated in volume of cube 529 x3 529
freedom struggle = ⇒ = ⇒ x = 23 cm
volume of cuboid 132 r ×132 132
(c) He worked for the preservation of nature and Hence, the volume of the cube = (23)3 =
wrote extensively on the subject: it’s given that he 12167 cubic cm
was a hunter turned naturalist and also mentioned Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer.
his writings reflect empathy for the place and 111. (c) Let the radius of the sphere and cylinder be ‘r’
people and is steeped in ecosystem 2r
So, height of the cuboid = radius of the cone = =
(d) He created a natural reserve in Uttaranchal for 2

the preservation of the tigers: It cannot be inferred r

75
that he ‘created’ the reserve. Hence (c) Volume of the cylinder = × Volume of shpere
100
108. (a) People are entitled to interpret stray utterances by 3 4
⇒ IIr 2 h = × IIr 3
minister as indication of policy direction. As is 4 3
⇒h=r
obvious in the passage, it was just a remark or
Let the edge of the cube be ‘x’ so the height of the
comment by a minister and even the author mentions
cone will also be x
that BJP government of Uttarakhand has opposed 21
the proposal. So, it can be construed as a stray Volume of cube = (Volume of cone)
22
comment by the minister. Now in the given 21 1
⇒ x3 = × II × r 2 × x
22 3
statement in the question, author says that the 7 22
outrage is justified, which means that people are ⇒ x2 = × × r2 ⇒ x = r
22 7
right in vociferously protesting any remark as if it’s Also,
a policy stance of the government. Author must volume of cube 529 x3 529
= ⇒ = ⇒ x = 23 cm
believe that, that’s why he is justifying the outrage volume of cuboid 132 r ×132 132

for a single, random comment. Hence (a) Slant height of the cone = 23√2cm
So,
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES CSA of cone = 23 × 23 × 3√2π = 529 √2π sq cm
. Hence, Option (c) is the correct answer.
109. (a) Let the radius of the sphere and cylinder be ‘r’ 112. (b) Let the radius of the sphere and cylinder be ‘r’
2r 2r
So, height of the cuboid = radius of the cone = = So, height of the cuboid = radius of the cone = =
2 2
r r
75 75
Volume of the cylinder = × Volume of shpere Volume of the cylinder = × Volume of shpere
100 100
3 4 3 4
2 3
⇒ IIr h = × IIr [h is the height of the ⇒ IIr 2 h = × IIr 3
4 3 4 3
cylinder] [h is the height of the cylinder]
⇒h=r ⇒h=r
Let the edge of the cube be ‘x’ so the height of the Let the edge of the cube be ‘x’ so the height of the
cone will also be x cone will also be x
21 21
Volume of cube = (Volume of cone) Volume of cube = 21 (Volume of cone)
22
21 1 22
⇒ x3 = × II × r 2 × x
22 3 21 1
7 22 ⇒ x2 = × II × r 2 × x
⇒ x3 = × × r2 ⇒ x = r 22 3
22 7 7 22
Also, ⇒ x2 = × × r2 ⇒ x = r
22 7
volume of cube 529 x3 529 Also,
= ⇒ = ⇒ x = 23 cm
volume of cuboid
132 r ×132 132 volume of cube 529 x3 529
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer. = ⇒ = ⇒ x = 23 cm
volume of cuboid 132 r ×132 132
110. (b) Let the radius of the sphere and cylinder be ‘r’ Surface area of cube = 6(x) = 6(23)2
2
2r TSA of cylinder = 2IIr (r + h) = 2II (23)(23+23) =
So, height of the cuboid = radius of the cone = =
2
2II × 23 × 46
r
75 So, the required ratio = 6 (23)2 ∶ 2π × 23 × 46 = 3 :
Volume of the cylinder = × Volume of shpere 2π
100
3 4
⇒ IIr 2 h = × IIr 3 Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer.
4 3
⇒h=r 113. (b) Case 1: When she carries 4 books from bundle 1 and
Let the edge of the cube be ‘x’ so the height of the 1 book from bundle 2
cone will also be x Number of ways = 5C4 × 4C1 = 5 × 4 = 20
21 Case 2: When she carries 3 books from bundle 1 and
Volume of cube = (Volume of cone) 2 books from bundle 2
22
21 1
⇒ x3 = × II × r 2 × x Number of ways = 5C3 × 4C2 = 10 × 6 = 60
22 3
Total number of ways = 20 + 60 = 80
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 Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer. Sale of 750 ml milk bottles on Tuesday = 2 × (125 -
114. (c) Case 1: When she carries two books from bundle 1 45) = 160
and three books from bundle 2 Total number of milk bottles sold on Tuesday = 125
Number of ways = 5𝐶2 × 4𝐶3 = 10 × 4 = 40 + 45 + 160 = 330
Case 2: When she carries three books from bundle 1 Sale of 750 ml milk bottles on Wednesday = 2 ×
and two books from bundle 2 (150 - 60) = 180
Number of ways = 5𝐶3 × 4𝐶2 = 10 × 6 = 60 Total number of milk bottles sold on Wednesday =
The total number of ways = 40 + 60 = 100 60 + 150 + 180 = 390
Hence, Option (c) is the correct answer. Sale of 750 ml milk bottles on Thursday = 2 × (100
115. (d) Case 1: When she carries 1 book from bundle 1 and - 60) = 80
4 books from bundle 2 Total number of milk bottles sold on Thursday = 100
So, the number of ways = 5𝐶1 × 4𝐶4 = 5 × 1 = 5 + 60 + 80 = 240
Case 2: When she carries 2 books from bundle 1 and Sale of 750 ml milk bottles on Friday = 2 × (165 -
3 books from bundle 2 90) = 150
So, the number of cases = 5𝐶2 × 4𝐶3 = 10 × 4 = Total number of milk bottles sold on Friday = 90 +
40 165 + 150 = 405
So, the number of cases = 5 + 40 = 45 In tabular form:
Hence, Option (d) is the correct answer. Day Sale of milk bottles
116. (b) Total number of books carried by her = 5 250 ml 500 ml 750 ml Total
Difference between the number of books from both Monday 85 120 70 275
the bundles = 3 Tuesday 125 45 160 330
This is possible only when she carries four books Wednesday 60 150 180 390
from bundle 1 and one book from bundle 2 or four Thursday 100 60 80 240
books from bundle 2 and one book from bundle 1 Friday 90 165 150 405
So, the number of ways possible = 5𝐶4 × 4𝐶1 + 118. (c) Total quantity of milk sold from the store on
5𝐶1 × 4𝐶4 = 5 × 4 + 5 = 25 Wednesday = 250 × 60 + 500 × 150 + 750 × 180
Hence, Option (b) is the correct answer. = 225000 ml
117. (a) Case 1: When she carries 1 book from bundle 1 and = 225 liters
4 books from bundle 2 119. (c) Sale of 500 ml milk bottles on Tuesday and Friday
Number of ways =5𝐶1 × 4𝐶4 = 5 × 1 = 5 together = 45 + 165 = 210
Case 2: When she carries 2 books from bundle 1 and And sale of all milk bottles on Thursday = 240
3 books from bundle 2 Therefore, ratio = 210: 240 = 7: 8
Number of ways = 5𝐶2 × 4𝐶3 = 10 × 4 = 40 120. (a) Sale of milk bottles on Saturday = 2 × 438 - 390 =
Total number of ways = 5 + 40 = 45 486
Hence, Option (a) is the correct answer. Sale of milk bottles on Friday = 405
Hint (Q.118 – Q.120): Sale of 750 ml milk bottles Therefore, percentage increase
on Monday = 2 × (120 - 85) = 70 486 − 405
=( ) × 100 = 20%
405
Total number of milk bottles sold on Monday = 85
+ 120 + 70 = 275

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