RAYA UNIVERSITY

ENGINEERING AND TECHNOLOGY

COLLEGE

Exit Exam Model for Mechanical

Engineering Department

January 15, 2024

1. Which of the following relation is true, for coefficient of performance (C.O.P)?
a. (C.O.P)heat pump - (C.O.P)refrigerator = 1
b. (C.O.P)heat pump - (C.O.P)refrigerator > 1
c. (C.O.P)heat pump - (C.O.P)refrigerator < 1
d. (C.O.P)heat pump - (C.O.P)refrigerator = 0
2. The use of compressor is not required in
a. Vapor compression refrigeration
b. Bell Colman refrigeration
c. Vapor absorption refrigeration
d. Air refrigeration
3. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
a. High sensible heat
b. High total heat
c. High latent heat
d. low sensible heat
4. .The COP of a Carnot refrigeration system can be expressed as:
a) COP = Tc / Th
b) COP = Th / Tc
c) COP = Th - Tc
d) COP = Tc – Th
5. Comfort refers to the state of:
a) Achieving the desired temperature inside a building
b) Achieving the desired humidity inside a building
c) Achieving the desired air velocity inside a building
d) Achieving the desired indoor environment for occupants
6. Cooling load calculation is used to determine the:
a) Amount of heat gained by a building
b) Amount of heat removed by a cooling system
c) Size of the cooling equipment required
d) All of the above
7. What is thermodynamics?
a. Study of the relation between heat and other forms of energy
b. Study of the conversion of chemical energy to other forms of energy
c. Study of the relation between mechanical energy to other forms of energy
d. Study of the conversion of mechanical energy to other forms of energy
8. Boyle’s law states that for a given mass of perfect gas
a. volume is proportional to temperature
b. pressure is proportional to temperature
c. volume is proportional to pressure
d. volume is inversely proportional to pressure
9. If the temperature of the working substance does not change during the process ,while its pressure and
volume changes it is said to be
a. Adiabatic process
b. Isothermal process
c. Polytropic process
d. Constant volume process
10. Heat does not spontaneously flow from a colder body to a hotter one, which of the following
thermodynamics low states this?
a. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Second law of thermodynamics
d. Third law of thermodynamics
11. Work done is zero in case of
a. Adiabatic process
b. Polytropic process
c. Constant volume process
d. Isothermal process
12. Specific enthalpy is an ____________of a system and its unit is ___________
a. Extensive property,kJ
b. Extensive property,kJ/kg
c. Intensive property ,Kj
d. Intensive property ,kJ/kg
13. Total heat supplied at constant volume is given by relation
a. Q = mcp(T2-T1)
b. Q = mR(T2-T1)
c. Q = mcv(T2+T1)
d. Q = mcv(T2-T1)
14. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a. Volume
b. Pressure
c. Viscosity
 d. All of the above
15. What is the correct formula for absolute pressure
a. Pabs = Patm - Pgauge
b. Pabs = Pvaccum – Patm
c. Pabs = Pvaccum + Patm
d. Pabs = Patm +Pgauge
16. What is the purpose of a boundary layer control technique for reducing drag on an object?
a) To increase the separation of the boundary layer
b) To decrease the thickness of the boundary layer
c) To increase the velocity of the fluid in the boundary layer
d) To delay or prevent boundary layer separation
17. How does the addition of a spoiler or winglet to an aircraft wing affect the lift and drag forces?
a) Increases lift and decreases drag
b) Decreases lift and increases drag
c) Increases both lift and drag
d) Decreases both lift and drag
18. Which flow phenomenon is responsible for the generation of lift on an airfoil?
a) Boundary layer separation
b) Vortex shedding
c) Circulation around the air foil
d) Turbulent mixing
19. Which of the following methods is commonly used to compute head losses in pipes and channels for non-
uniform flow conditions?
a) Method of characteristics
b) Hardy-Cross method
c) Energy grade line method
d) Hazen-William’s method
20. Which of the following is true regarding head losses in laminar flow compared to turbulent flow?
a) Head losses are higher in laminar flow.
b) Head losses are lower in laminar flow.
c) Head losses are independent of flow regime.
d) Head losses are the same in both flow regimes.
21. Pascal's law states that a change in pressure applied to an enclosed fluid is transmitted __________.
a) Equally to all portions of the fluid
b) Only to the walls of the container
 c) Inversely to the density of the fluid
d) Directly to the surface tension of the fluid
22. The Reynolds number is used to predict whether a fluid flow will be __________.
a) Laminar or turbulent
b) Incompressible or compressible
c) Viscous or non-viscous
d) Steady or unsteady
23. The equation of energy balance can be represented as __________.
a) Accumulation = Inflow - Outflow + Generation - Consumption
b) Accumulation + Inflow - Outflow = Generation - Consumption
c) Accumulation + Inflow + Outflow = Generation + Consumption
d) Accumulation - Inflow + Outflow = Generation - Consumption
24. What is the purpose of tolerance in mechanical design?
a) To ensure that all dimensions are exact
b) To allow for variations in manufacturing processes
c) To reduce the need for quality control inspections
d) To improve the aesthetic appearance of the product
25. What does the term "reliability" refer to in mechanical design?
a) The ability of a product to perform its intended function
b) The likelihood of a product failing during use
c) The durability of a product under harsh environmental conditions
d) The cost-effectiveness of a product's manufacturing process
26. What is the yield strength of a material?
a) The maximum stress a material can withstand
b) The stress at which plastic deformation begins
c) The stress at which a material fractures
d) The stress at which a material deforms elastically
27. What is stress concentration?
a) The distribution of stress across a component
b) The amplification of stress at specific locations in a component
c) The force required to cause failure in a material
d) The deformation of a material under load
28. What can cause stress concentration in a mechanical component?
a) External forces acting on the component
b) Material defects or imperfections
c) Geometric features such as sharp corners or holes
 d) All of the above
29. What is the difference between brittle and ductile failure?
a) Brittle failure occurs suddenly without significant deformation, while ductile failure
involves substantial deformation before failure.
b) Brittle failure occurs in metals, while ductile failure occurs in ceramics and polymers.
c) Brittle failure is caused by stress concentrations, while ductile failure is caused by excessive
loads.
d) Brittle failure is reversible, while ductile failure is irreversible.
30. What is the purpose of a non-permanent joint in mechanical design?
a) To allow for easy disassembly and reassembly of components
b) To provide flexibility in the design for future modifications
c) To create a strong and permanent connection between components
31. What is the primary function of a mechanical spring?
a) To store and release energy
b) To transmit motion and power
c) To prevent excessive stress concentrations
d) To provide a smooth surface finish
32. What is a pressure vessel?
a) A device used to measure pressure in a system
b) A container designed to hold pressurized fluids or gases
c) A machine element used to transmit power between rotating shafts
d) A device used to prevent excessive pressure buildup in a system
33. The energy absorb by brake is always kinetic.

a. No, potential c. Potential

b. Kinetic or potential d. Strain Energy
34. Shear stress theory applicable for

a. Ductile materials c. Elastic materials

b. Brittle materials d. All of the above

35. The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon

a. Belt velocity c. Arc of contact

b. Initial belt tension d. All of the above

36. The following is an automatic clutch which is controlled by engine speed

 a. Cone clutch c. Jaw clutch
b. Centrifugal clutch d. Disc clutch

37. Which of the following bearings cannot take radial loads?

a. Taper roller bearing
b. Thrust ball bearing
c. Angular contact bearing
d. Deep groove ball bearing
38. If number of contacting surfaces are 5, then number of disks required in multi disk clutch are?

a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. Can’t be determined
39. Fins are used in heat transfer systems primarily to:
a. Increase the surface area for heat transfer
b. Decrease the flow rate of the fluid
c. Minimize the temperature difference
d. Enhance the thermal conductivity of the fluid
40. Why is the heat transfer coefficient dependent on the velocity of the fluid in forced convection?
a. Higher velocities increase the temperature difference across the boundary layer.
b. Higher velocities decrease the temperature difference across the boundary layer.
c. Higher velocities increase the rate of heat transfer by increasing the rate of mixing.
d. Higher velocities decrease the rate of heat transfer by increasing the thermal resistance of the
boundary layer.
41. Which of the following materials would be the best choice as an insulating layer in a composite wall for
minimizing heat transfer through the wall?
a. Glass wool (thermal conductivity = 0.04 W/(m·K))
b. Aluminium (thermal conductivity = 200 W/(m·K))
c. Copper (thermal conductivity = 400 W/(m·K))
d. Steel (thermal conductivity = 50 W/(m·K))
42. Consider a 0.8-m-high and 1.5-m-wide glass window with a thickness of 8 mm and a thermal conductivity
of k = 0.78 W/m·K. Determine the steady rate of heat transfer through this glass window for a day during
which the room is maintained at 20°C while the temperature of the outdoors is 2°C. The indoor and
outdoor heat transfer coefficients are h1 = 10 W/m2·K and h2=40 W/m2·K respectively, which includes
the effects of radiation.
a. 175 W b. 159 W c. 137 W d. 207 W
43. The thickness of the viscous boundary layer in turbulent flow is typically:
 a. Larger than in laminar flow
b. Smaller than in laminar flow
c. Equal to the thickness in laminar flow
d. It depends on the flow conditions
44. One is not true about using numerical methods in modelling heat transfer problems
a. Has realistic model and approximate solutions
b. Has simplified model and exact solution
c. It’s capable of modelling complicated geometries
d. It is more flexible to study multiple parameters
45. Carbon steel balls (ρ = 7830 kg/m3, k = 64 W/m·K, Cp = 434 J/kg·K) initially at 150°C are quenched in
an oil bath at 20°C for a period of 3 minutes. If the balls have a diameter of 5 cm and the convection heat
transfer coefficient is 450 W/m2·K. The center temperature of the balls after quenching will be:
a. 27.4°C b. 76°C c. 12.7°C d. 48.2°C
46. Which of the following is an electrical transducer used for measuring force?
a. Thermocouple b. Strain gauge c. Thermistor d. Photodiode
47. Which instrument is commonly used to measure displacement?
a. Pressure transducer b. Thermocouple c. LVDT d. Flowmeter
48. Which of the following instruments is used to measure velocity?
a. Tachometer b. Thermistor c. Load cell d. Photodetector
49. What is the purpose of instrument calibration?
a. To repair damaged instruments b. To adjust the sensitivity of the instrument
c. To determine the accuracy of the instrument d. To replace outdated instruments
50. What is the function of a PLC in controlling electromechanical systems?
a. To convert analog signals to digital form b. To amplify electrical signals
c. To provide automated control based on programmed logic d. To measure temperature
51. Which instrument is commonly used to measure the level of a liquid in a tank?
a. Pressure transducer b. Thermocouple c. LVDT d. Photodetector
52. What is the purpose of modeling common systems in mechanical engineering?
a. To repair the systems b. To simulate the systems' behavior
c. To measure the systems' outputs d. To analyze the systems' inputs
53. What is the purpose of a transducer in a measurement system?
a. To convert electrical signals to physical quantities
b. To amplify the electrical signals
c. To filter the electrical signals
d. To convert physical quantities to electrical signals
54. What is the function of a voltage regulator in instrumentation?
 a. To convert analog signals to digital form b. To amplify electrical signals
c. To stabilize and maintain a constant voltage level d. To measure temperature
55. In the context of instrumentation, what does the term "conditioning" refer to?
a. Converting electrical signals to physical quantities
b. Amplifying electrical signals
c. Filtering and modifying electrical signals
d. Converting physical quantities to electrical signals
56. What is the purpose of feedback in a control system?
a. To provide a reference input to the system b. To measure the system output
c. To compare the system output with the desired input d. To convert analog signals to digital form
57. Which component is commonly used to sense physical quantities in a measurement system?
a. Op-amp b. Transistor c. Sensor d. Filter
58. What is the role of op-amps and transistors in signal conditioning?
a. To convert analog signals to digital form b. To amplify electrical signals
c. To stabilize and regulate voltage levels d. To convert physical quantities to electrical signals
59. What is the purpose of a PLC in controlling electromechanical systems?
a. To convert analog signals to digital form
b. To amplify electrical signals
c. To provide automated control based on programmed logic
d. To measure physical quantities
60. What is the purpose of acquiring signals in a measurement system?
a. To convert physical quantities to electrical signals b. To amplify the signals
c. To condition the signals d. To convert analog signals to digital form
61. Cams are often used to convert:
a. Linear motion to rotary motion
b. Rotary motion to linear motion
c. Rotary motion to oscillatory motion
d. Oscillatory motion to rotary motion
62. Universal joints are used to transmit motion between:
a. Parallel shafts
b. Perpendicular shafts
c. Non-parallel and non-perpendicular shafts
d. Gears and pulleys
63. Gear trains are used to transmit motion and power between:
a. Parallel shafts
b. Perpendicular shafts
 c. Non-parallel and non-perpendicular shafts
d. Cams and gears
64. Flywheels are used to store and release:
a) Energy b) Power c) Torque d) Speed
65. Gyroscopes are used to measure or maintain:
a) Angular velocity b) Linear velocity c) Displacement d) Acceleration
66. What is the purpose of a universal joint in a drive shaft?
a. To change rotary motion to linear motion
b. To transmit motion between non-parallel and non-perpendicular shafts
c. To regulate and control speed
d. To store and release energy
67. What is the purpose of a flywheel in a machine?
a. To convert linear motion to rotary motion
b. To transmit motion between gears
c. To regulate and control speed
d. To store and release energy
68. The degree of freedom of a mechanism refers to:
a. The number of links in the mechanism
b. The number of joints in the mechanism
c. The number of independent variables required to define the motion of the mechanism
d. The number of forces acting on the mechanism
69. In a four-bar linkage, the Grashof's criterion determines the conditions for:
a. Maximum power transmission
b. Maximum efficiency
c. Full rotation of the output link
d. Stability of the mechanism
70. Which method is used to determine the deflection of a beam using the energy approach?
a) Castigliano's method
b) Mohr's method
c) Euler's method
d) Ritz method
71. Which method is commonly used to solve for the deflection of a statically indeterminate beam?
a) Moment distribution method
b) Slope-deflection method
c) Virtual work method
d) Cross-sectional analysis method
72. How does the cross-section of a beam affect its resistance to bending?
a) A symmetrical cross-section provides higher resistance.
b) A non-symmetrical cross-section provides higher resistance.
c) The cross-section does not affect the bending resistance.
d) The resistance depends on the material, not the cross-section.

73. Which theory is commonly used to analyze the effect of torsion on non-circular and thin-walled sections?
a) Euler-Bernoulli theory
b) Timoshenko theory
c) Saint-Venant theory
d) von Mises theory
74. What is the principal stress at a point in a structural member?
a) The maximum stress value
b) The minimum stress value
c) The average stress value
d) The normal stress value
75. Which method is commonly used to solve for the deflection of a statically indeterminate beam?
a) Moment distribution method
b) Slope-deflection method
c) Virtual work method
d) Cross-sectional analysis method
76. Which method is commonly used to determine the principal stresses at a point?
a) Mohr's circle method
b) Strain gauge method
c) Virtual work method
d) Finite element method

77. Consider two bars A and B of same material tightly secured between two unyielding walls. Coefficient of
thermal expansion of bar A is more than that of B. What are the stresses induced on increasing the
temperature?
a. Tension in both the materials

b. Tension in material A and compression in material B

c. Compression in material A and tension in material B

d. Compression in both the materials
78. A solid cube is subjected to equal normal forces on all its faces. The volumetric strain will be x- times
the linear strain in any of the three axes when?
 a) X=1
b) X=2
c) X=3

d) X=4

79. A material has a Poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If uniform pressure of 300GPa is applied to that material, what
will be the volumetric strain of it?
a) 0.50

b) 0.20

c) 0.25

d) Zero

80. Which of the following stresses are associated with the tightening of a nut on a bolt?
P. Crushing and shear stress in threads
Q. Bending stress due to the bending of bolt
R. Torsional shear stress due to frictional resistance between the nut and the bolt Select the correct
answer using the codes given below:
a. P and Q

b. P and R

c. Only P
d. Only R
81. Which method is used to determine the deflection of a statically indeterminate beam with fixed supports?
a) Moment distribution method
b) Slope-deflection method
c) Conjugate beam method
d) Strain energy method
82. Which of the following factors has no effect on the mechanical properties of a material under applied
loads?
a) Content of alloys b) Grain size c) Imperfection and defects d) Shape of material
83. A polymer made of identical monomer units is called ______
a) Homo-polymer b) Linear polymer c) Co-polymer d) Branched polymer
84. Which of the following is not a step in making ceramics?
a) Powder pressing b) Sintering c) Alloying d) Vitrification
85. A disturbance in a region between two ideal parts of a crystal is known as ________
a) Boundary defect b) Point defect c) Line defect d) Volume defect
86. The eutectic and eutectoid temperatures for the Fe–Fe3C system are____oC, and ____oC, respectively?
 a) 1147, 723 b) 1147, 727 c) 727, 1147 d) 723, 1147
87. Which of the following groups of alloying elements stabilize austenite?
a) Ni, Mn, Cu, and Co b) Cr, W, Mo, V, and Si
c) Cr, W, Ti, Mo, Nb, V, and Mn d) Co, Al, and Ni
88. Which of the following is not an example of a commodity thermoplastic?
a) Polyethylene b) Polypropylene c) Polystyrene d) Phenolic
89. Stainless steels with little carbon and no nickel are called ________
a) Ferritic stainless steel b) Austenitic stainless steel
c) Martensitic stainless steel d) Duplex stainless steel
90. Which of these is not a stage in precipitation hardening treatment?
a) Solution treatment b) Tempering c) Quenching d) Ageing
91. Brass is an alloy of copper and ______
a) Zinc b) Tin c) Tin and zinc d) Nickel
92. Which of the following metal forming processes involves the application of compressive forces to change
the shape of a metal workpiece?
a) Casting c) Welding
b) Machining d) Forging
93. Which of the following cutting tool geometries is typically used for drilling holes?
a) Round nose c) Single-point
b) Square nose d) Twist drill
94. Which of the following is NOT a post-casting process?
a) Pattern making c) Finishing
b) Cleaning d) Inspection
95. Which of the following machining processes is primarily used for shaping the external surface of a
cylindrical workpiece?
a) Milling c) Drilling
b) Turning d) Grinding
96. Which of the following cutting tools is commonly used in the milling process?
a) Drill bit c) End mill
b) Cutting torch d) Broach
97. Which nontraditional machining process utilizes a high-velocity stream of abrasive particles to remove
material from a workpiece?
a) Electrochemical machining (ECM)
b) Laser cutting
c) Abrasive Waterjet machining
d) Electrical discharge machining (EDM)
98. Which nontraditional machining process uses electrical discharges to remove material from a workpiece?
a) Electrochemical machining (ECM)
b) Laser cutting
c) Waterjet machining
d) Electrical discharge machining (EDM)
99. Which nontraditional machining process involves the chemical dissolution of material to achieve desired
shapes or surface finishes?
a) Electrochemical machining (ECM) c) Waterjet machining
b) Laser cutting d) Electrical discharge machining (EDM)
100. Which welding process uses a coated electrode that provides both the filler material and the shielding
gas?
 a) Gas tungsten arc welding (GTAW)
b) Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW)
c) Gas metal arc welding (GMAW)
d) Flux-cored arc welding (FCAW)

Mechanical Engineering Sample MCQ Answer Sheet

1. A
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. C
11. C
12. D
13. D
14. A
15. D
16. D
17. B
18. C
19. B
20. D
21. A
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. A
26. B
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. C
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. B
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. C
48. A
49. C
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. D
54. C
55. C
56. C
57. C
58. B
59. C
60. D
61. B
62. C
63. A
64. A
65. A
66. B
67. D
68. C
69. C
70. A
71. A
72. A
73. B
74. A
75. A
76. A
77. D
78. C
79. D
80. A
81. C
82. D
83. A
84. C
85. C
86. B
87. A
88. D
89. A
90. B
91. A
92. D
93. D
94. A
95. B
96. C
97. C
98. D
99. A
100. B