MCQs for final-term exam (2023) maintenance fundamentals

Part (1)
1) According to the British Standard Glossary of terms (3811:1993), how is maintenance defined?
A) A set of organized activities to enhance an item's performance
B) A combination of technical and administrative actions to preserve an item's function
C) A process to acquire items at minimum cost
D) The act of holding or keeping an asset in a preserved state

2) What is the primary goal of maintenance?

A) To acquire items at minimum cost
B) To enhance an item's performance
C) To retain or restore an item's required function
D) To organize activities related to assets

3) How does the second definition describe maintenance?

A) A set of organized activities to enhance an item's performance
B) A combination of technical and administrative actions to preserve an item's function
C) A process to acquire items at minimum cost
D) The act of holding or keeping an asset in a preserved state

4) According to the second definition, what is a key aspect of maintenance?

A) Organizing activities
B) Retaining or restoring operational condition
C) Acquiring items at minimum cost
D) Administrative actions

5) What does the third definition emphasize about maintenance?

A) The act of holding or keeping an asset in a preserved state
B) Acquiring items at minimum cost
C) Enhancing an item's performance
D) Organizing technical and administrative actions

6) What are the two types of activities associated with the maintenance function?
A) Inspection and Supervision
B) Repair and Replacement
C) Planning and Organizing
D) Acquisition and Disposal

7) What is emphasized about the cost aspect of maintenance activities in the text?
A) It should be ignored for optimal results
B) It should be kept as high as possible
C) It should be minimized
D) It should be prioritized over productivity
8) How is reliability defined in the context of equipment or assets?
A) The lifespan of equipment or assets
B) The probability of equipment or assets performing without failure
C) The specific conditions under which equipment or assets operate
D) The frequency of failures in equipment or assets

9) What does reliability measure in equipment or assets?

A) The cost of maintenance
B) The probability of failure under specific conditions
C) The maximum lifespan of the equipment
D) The efficiency of the equipment

10) What is a key aspect of reliability?

A) The specific conditions under which equipment operates
B) The frequency of failures in equipment
C) The probability of performing without failure
D) The cost of maintenance

11) How is reliability related to the designed function of equipment or an asset?

A) It ensures the designed function is always exceeded
B) It measures the deviation from the designed function
C) It assesses the probability of performing the designed function without failure
D) It has no relation to the designed function

12) What does the term "specific condition" imply in the context of reliability?
A) The unique features of the equipment
B) The environment in which the equipment operates
C) The number of failures in the equipment
D) The cost associated with maintenance

13) What is the primary focus of terotechnology?

A) Maximizing asset acquisition
B) Maintaining assets in an optimal manner
C) Financial management
D) Engineering practices

14) What are the key components that make up terotechnology?

A) Management, financial, and engineering practices
B) Plant, machinery, and equipment
C) Economic life cycle costs
D) Buildings and structures

15) Which assets are included in the scope of terotechnology?

A) Financial assets
B) Intellectual property
C) Plant, machinery, equipment, buildings, and structures
D) Human resources
16) What should maintenance objectives be consistent with?
A) Financial goals
B) Production goals
C) Administrative goals
D) Marketing goals

17) How is the relation between maintenance objectives and production goals?
A) By emphasizing financial management
B) By reflecting the condition of production machines and facilities
C) By prioritizing administrative actions
D) By minimizing maintenance costs

18) What is the primary action associated with maintaining production machines and facilities?
A) Minimizing costs
B) Maximizing production goals
C) Keeping them in the best possible condition
D) Achieving financial objectives

19) Why should maintenance objectives be consistent with production goals?

A) To prioritize financial objectives
B) To minimize administrative efforts
C) To ensure the best condition of production machines and facilities
D) To reduce maintenance costs

20) What is one of the maintenance objectives?

A) Maximizing energy usage
B) Increasing facilities availability at the highest cost
C) Reducing breakdowns and emergency shutdowns
D) Minimizing equipment efficiency

21) What is the objective of optimizing resources utilization in maintenance?

A) To increase energy usage
B) To reduce downtime
C) To minimize the useful life of equipment
D) To increase breakdowns

22) What does "improving spares stock control" aim to achieve in maintenance?
A) Reducing equipment efficiency
B) Optimizing resources utilization
C) Enhancing control over spare parts
D) Minimizing safety standards

23) What is the goal of minimizing energy usage in maintenance?

A) To increase scrap rate
B) To reduce budgetary control
C) To optimize the useful life of equipment
D) To conserve energy and reduce costs
24) What is a primary objective of maintenance in relation to equipment efficiency?
A) Maximizing scrap rate
B) Minimizing energy usage
C) Improving equipment efficiency
D) Reducing spares stock control

25) What is the purpose of optimizing the useful life of equipment in maintenance?
A) To increase energy usage
B) To prolong the lifespan of equipment
C) To reduce budgetary control
D) To decrease facilities availability

26) How does maintenance contribute to cost and budgetary control?

A) By minimizing energy usage
B) By identifying and implementing cost reductions
C) By maximizing scrap rate
D) By reducing spares stock control

27) What is the goal of providing reliable cost and budgetary control in maintenance?
A) To increase emergency shutdowns
B) To reduce breakdowns
C) To ensure accurate financial planning and management
D) To decrease facilities availability

28) What constitutes a major portion of the total operating costs in most plants?
A) Labor costs
B) Material costs
C) Maintenance costs
D) Evaluation costs

29) How much of all maintenance dollars are estimated to be wasted through ineffective maintenance
management methods on average?
A) One third (1/3)
B) Half (1/2)
C) Two thirds (2/3)
D) Three quarters (3/4)

30) Which of the following are mentioned as components of maintenance costs?

A) Labor and materials
B) Equipment and tools
C) Evaluation and planning
D) Administration and marketing

31) Why are evaluations of maintenance costs important?

A) To reduce labor costs
B) To increase material costs
C) To identify wastage and inefficiencies
D) To improve marketing strategies
32) What are identified as the major contributors to abnormal maintenance costs within a plant?
A) Administrative costs and marketing expenses
B) Delays, product rejects, scheduled maintenance downtime, and traditional maintenance costs
C) Research and development costs
D) Energy consumption

33) What is the dominant reason for ineffective management leading to abnormal maintenance costs?
A) Lack of skilled labor
B) Lack of advanced machinery
C) Lack of factual data to quantify the actual need for repair or maintenance
D) Lack of proper marketing strategies

34) What is mentioned as a component of traditional maintenance costs?

A) Equipment replacements
B) Labor and overtime
C) Administrative overheads
D) Research expenses

35) What is the significance of factual data in the context of maintenance costs?
A) It helps in reducing labor costs
B) It quantifies the actual need for repair or maintenance
C) It increases product rejects
D) It leads to more scheduled maintenance downtime

36) What does the lack of factual data lead to in terms of maintenance costs?
A) Reduced product rejects
B) Efficient management
C) Ineffective management and increased costs
D) Decreased scheduled maintenance downtime

37) What are the factors that maintenance scheduling is predicated on?
A) Statistical trend data and actual failure of plant equipment
B) Production costs and bottom-line profit
C) Maintenance management and product quality
D) Previous maintenance practices

38) What was the impact of ignoring the maintenance operation on various aspects?
A) Improved product quality
B) Reduced production costs
C) Negative effects on product quality, production costs, and bottom-line profit
D) Increased bottom-line profit

39) What was the previous perception regarding maintenance?

A) Maintenance is a necessary evil
B) Maintenance has no impact on product quality
C) Maintenance cannot be improved
D) Maintenance has no effect on production costs
40) What was the previous belief about improving maintenance costs?
A) Nothing can be done to improve maintenance costs
B) Maintenance costs can always be improved
C) Maintenance costs have no impact on the bottom-line profit
D) Maintenance costs are already optimized

41) What are the two types of maintenance management commonly used in industrial and process plants?
A) Breakdown and Emergency maintenance
B) Run-to-failure and Preventive maintenance
C) Predictive and Corrective maintenance
D) Scheduled and Unscheduled maintenance

42) Which type of maintenance management involves allowing equipment to operate until it fails?
A) Breakdown maintenance
B) Preventive maintenance
C) Run-to-failure maintenance
D) Predictive maintenance

43) What is the primary goal of preventive maintenance?

A) Minimizing downtime
B) Allowing equipment to fail
C) Maximizing emergency maintenance
D) Ignoring equipment conditions

44) In which type of maintenance management is maintenance performed at predetermined intervals or

according to prescribed criteria?
A) Predictive maintenance
B) Corrective maintenance
C) Preventive maintenance
D) Run-to-failure maintenance

45) Which type of maintenance management involves predicting when maintenance should be performed
based on the condition of the equipment?
A) Breakdown maintenance
B) Corrective maintenance
C) Predictive maintenance
D) Unscheduled maintenance

46) What is the philosophy behind the "Run-to-failure" maintenance approach?

A) Fix the machine regardless of its condition
B) Only fix the machine if it is already broken
C) Perform maintenance on a regular schedule
D) Always replace the machine before it breaks

47) How does the "Run-to-failure" approach handle maintenance?

A) It performs maintenance on a regular schedule
B) It waits for a machine or equipment failure before taking any maintenance action
C) It always replaces the machine before it breaks
D) It conducts maintenance after every use
48) What is the characteristic of the "Run-to-failure" approach in terms of maintenance?
A) Proactive
B) Reactive
C) Predictive
D) Preventive

49) How does the text describe the "Run-to-failure" approach in terms of maintenance?
A) It is a high-cost method of maintenance management
B) It is a proactive approach that prevents all machine failures
C) It is the most cost-effective method of maintenance management
D) It is the least expensive method of maintenance management

50) What is the implication of "if it is not broke, don’t fix it" in the context of maintenance?
A) Only fix machines when they are in perfect condition
B) Only fix machines when they are broken
C) Fix machines even if they are not in use
D) Perform maintenance regardless of machine condition

51) What are the major costs associated with “Run-to-failure” management?
A) Low spare parts inventory cost, low overtime labor costs
B) High spare parts inventory cost, high overtime labor costs
C) Low machine downtime, low production availability
D) High machine downtime, low spare parts inventory cost

52) What contributes to the high costs in “Run-to-failure” maintenance management?

A) Low spare parts inventory cost
B) Low machine downtime
C) High overtime labor costs
D) High production availability

53) What is one of the consequences of “Run-to-failure” maintenance management?

A) Low spare parts inventory cost
B) High machine downtime
C) High production availability
D) Low overtime labor costs

54) Which of the following is a challenge associated with “Run-to-failure” maintenance management?
A) Low production availability
B) Low spare parts inventory cost
C) Low overtime labor costs
D) Low machine downtime

55) How are maintenance tasks typically scheduled in preventive maintenance management programs?
A) Based on the number of failures
B) Based on elapsed time or hours of operation
C) Based on the type of failure
D) Based on the cost of spare parts
56) What does the Bathtub curve or the mean time to failure (MTTF) curve illustrate?
A) The number of failures over time
B) The cost of maintenance tasks
C) The type of maintenance programs
D) The efficiency of preventive maintenance management

57) In preventive maintenance management programs, what drives the scheduling of maintenance tasks?
A) The type of failure
B) Elapsed time or hours of operation
C) The cost of spare parts
D) The number of failures

58) What is a common characteristic of all preventive maintenance management programs?

A) They are based on the cost of maintenance tasks
B) They are driven by the number of failures
C) They are time driven
D) They are reactive in nature

59) What information is depicted by the Bathtub curve or the mean time to failure (MTTF) curve?
A) The cost of spare parts over time
B) The number of failures over time
C) The efficiency of maintenance tasks
D) The type of maintenance programs

60) What does MTBF stand for?

A) Mean Time Between Failures
B) Mean Time to Failures
C) Mean Time to Repair
D) Maintenance Time Before Failures

61) What does MTTF stand for?

A) Mean Time Between Failures
B) Mean Time to Failures
C) Mean Time to Repair
D) Maintenance Time Before Failures

62) What does MTTR stand for?

A) Mean Time Between Failures
B) Mean Time to Failures
C) Mean Time to Repair
D) Maintenance Time Before Failures

63) What does MTBF represent?

A) The average time between two successive failures
B) The average time taken to repair a system
C) The total time a system operates before failing
D) The total time a system operates after failing
64) What does MTTF represent?
A) The average time between two successive failures
B) The average time taken to repair a system
C) The total time a system operates before failing
D) The total time a system operates after failing

65) What does MTBF stand for?

A) Mean Time between Failures
B) Mean Time to Failure
C) Mean Time to Repair
D) Maintenance Time Before Failures

66) How is MTBF defined in relation to a repairable system?

A) The average time an item will operate before failing
B) The average time between two failures for a repairable system
C) The average time required to repair a failed component
D) The total time a system operates before failing

67) What is MTTF?

A) The average time an item will operate before failing
B) The average time between two failures for a repairable system
C) The average time required to repair a failed component
D) The total time a system operates before failing

68) What does MTTR represent?

A) The average time an item will operate before failing
B) The average time between two failures for a repairable system
C) The average time required to repair a failed component
D) The total time a system operates before failing

69) Which metric describes the average time required to repair a failed component or device?
A) MTBF
B) MTTF
C) MTTR
D) None of the above

70) How is availability defined in the context of equipment?

A) The total time a piece of equipment is expected to be available for operation
B) The total time a piece of equipment is unavailable for operation
C) The total cost of equipment
D) The total number of equipment pieces in an operation

71) What does availability represent?

A) The fraction of time equipment is expected to be available for operation
B) The fraction of time equipment is unavailable for operation
C) The total lifespan of equipment
D) The total cost of maintenance
72) How is availability measured?
A) In terms of cost
B) In terms of time
C) In terms of equipment quantity
D) In terms of operational efficiency

73) Which of the following statements is true regarding availability?

A) Availability refers to the total cost of equipment
B) Availability is the same as operational efficiency
C) Availability is expressed as a fraction of time
D) Availability only considers equipment failure times

74) In terms of availability, what is the denominator in the fraction used to express it?
A) Total cost of equipment
B) Total operational time
C) Total number of equipment pieces
D) Total number of failures

75) What does a comprehensive preventive maintenance program schedule for critical machinery in a
plant?
A) Only repairs and lubrication
B) Repairs, lubrication, adjustments, and machine rebuilds
C) Only adjustments and machine rebuilds
D) Only machine rebuilds

76) In a comprehensive preventive maintenance program, what activities are scheduled for critical
machinery?
A) Only repairs and adjustments
B) Only lubrication and machine rebuilds
C) Repairs, lubrication, adjustments, and machine rebuilds
D) Only repairs and lubrication

77) What distinguishes a more comprehensive preventive maintenance program?

A) It only schedules repairs
B) It schedules repairs, lubrication, adjustments, and machine rebuilds
C) It focuses solely on adjustments
D) It only schedules lubrication

78) What is a key characteristic of a more comprehensive preventive maintenance program?

A) It only includes machine rebuilds
B) It covers a wide range of maintenance activities
C) It focuses exclusively on repairs
D) It excludes lubrication

79) What types of machinery are included in a more comprehensive preventive maintenance program?
A) Only non-critical machinery
B) Only machinery with minor issues
C) All critical machinery in the plant
D) Only machinery that requires major repairs
80) How does predictive maintenance diagnose equipment condition?
A) During operation using modern measurements and signal-processing methods
B) After operation using traditional measurements
C) Only when a failure occurs
D) By shutting down the equipment

81) What are the benefits of predictive maintenance?

A) Reducing overall maintenance costs
B) Improving productivity, product quality, and overall effectiveness
C) Exclusively improving equipment reliability
D) Minimizing the need for preventive maintenance

82) How is predictive maintenance classified by some researchers?

A) As a type of reactive maintenance
B) As a type of preventive maintenance
C) As a type of corrective maintenance
D) As a type of condition-based maintenance

83) What distinguishes predictive maintenance from traditional maintenance methods?

A) Predictive maintenance is conducted after a failure occurs
B) Predictive maintenance diagnoses equipment condition during operation using modern
methods
C) Traditional maintenance methods focus exclusively on preventive measures
D) Traditional maintenance methods do not rely on measurements

84) What is the primary focus of predictive maintenance?

A) Reducing overall maintenance costs
B) Diagnosing equipment condition during operation
C) Minimizing the need for maintenance
D) Conducting repairs after a failure occurs

85) What is one of the benefits of continuous and regular monitoring of a working machine?
A) Maximizing the number of unscheduled breakdowns
B) Ensuring the maximum interval between repairs
C) Increasing the cost of unscheduled breakdowns
D) Minimizing the need for monitoring

86) What is a result of minimizing the number and cost of unscheduled breakdowns?
A) Increased operational costs
B) Decreased operational efficiency
C) Improved operational reliability
D) Increased need for unscheduled repairs

87) What is suggested about mechanical problems?

A) They should always be ignored
B) They can be minimized if detected and repaired early
C) They are not important for machine operation
D) They cannot be detected through monitoring
88) How does continuous monitoring contribute to the interval between repairs?
A) By increasing the frequency of repairs
B) By ensuring the maximum interval between repairs
C) By reducing the need for repairs
D) By increasing the cost of repairs

89) What is a key advantage of detecting and repairing mechanical problems early?
A) Minimizing the number of repairs needed
B) Maximizing the interval between repairs
C) Reducing the cost of repairs
D) Increasing the number of unscheduled breakdowns

90) Which of the following is NOT listed as a Nondestructive technique (NDT) used for predictive
maintenance management?
A) Vibration monitoring
B) Thermography
C) Oil Sampling
D) Inventory management

91) What is one of the Nondestructive techniques (NDT) mentioned for predictive maintenance
management?
A) Oil Sampling
B) Inventory management
C) Sales forecasting
D) Marketing analysis

92) Which technique involves measuring temperature variations to detect anomalies in machinery?
A) Vibration monitoring
B) Thermography
C) Process parameter monitoring
D) Ultrasonic

93) Which technique involves using sound waves to identify potential issues in equipment?
A) Visual inspection
B) Ultrasonic
C) Oil Sampling
D) Process parameter monitoring

94) Which technique involves monitoring the movement and oscillations of machinery to identify
potential issues?
A) Vibration monitoring
B) Thermography
C) Oil Sampling
D) Visual inspection
95) What is the primary purpose of transmitting very short ultrasonic pulse-waves into materials?
A) To measure temperature
B) To detect distortions and cracks inside materials
C) To generate light
D) To determine electrical conductivity
96) What information can be obtained by using very short ultrasonic pulse-waves in materials?
A) Temperature variations
B) Material properties and thickness
C) Electrical conductivity
D) Surface color

97) What is the function of sensors?

A) To transmit ultrasonic waves
B) To generate distortions and cracks
C) To collect data from the actual industrial environment
D) To measure temperature variations

98) How are ultrasonic pulse-waves characterized in terms of duration?

A) Long
B) Very short
C) Medium
D) Continuous

99) What is the primary role of the maintenance organization?

A) To repair equipment after a failure
B) To optimize availability and operating condition of equipment
C) To manufacture machinery and equipment
D) To manage plant finances

100) What does "Optimum Availability" refer to in the context of maintenance organization's role?
A) All systems are always online and in good operating condition
B) The ability to react quickly to unexpected failures
C) The maximum utilization of maintenance resources
D) Increasing the useful life of plant assets

101) What is one of the objectives related to maintenance organization's role?

A) Maximum Spares Inventory
B) Optimum Equipment Life
C) Minimum Utilization of Maintenance Resources
D) Inefficient Reaction Time

102) What is emphasized regarding maintenance resources?

A) Maximum Utilization of Maintenance Resources
B) Minimum Utilization of Maintenance Resources
C) Complete Elimination of Maintenance Resources
D) Equal Allocation of Maintenance Resources

103) What is the significance of the ability to react quickly in the context of maintenance organization's
role?
A) It allows for maximum utilization of maintenance resources
B) It ensures the minimum spares inventory
C) It enables a swift response to unexpected failures
D) It increases equipment life
104) What is the acceptable threshold for production delays?
A) Less than 1% of the total production hours and not more than 30%
B) Less than 5% of the total production hours and not more than 50%
C) Less than 10% of the total production hours and not more than 70%
D) Less than 2% of the total production hours and not more than 20%

105) What is the acceptable threshold for overtime costs?

A) Not more than 1% of the total labor budget
B) Not more than 5% of the total labor budget
C) Not more than 10% of the total labor budget
D) Not more than 15% of the total labor budget

106) What percentage of available maintenance labor hours should be effectively utilized to improve
critical plant system reliability?
A) At least 50%
B) At least 70%
C) At least 90%
D) At least 30%

107) What does tribology encompass?

A) The study of weather patterns
B) The study of interacting surfaces in relative motion
C) The study of chemical reactions
D) The study of celestial bodies

108) Which of the following is NOT part of the study of tribology?

A) Friction
B) Wear
C) Lubrication
D) Electricity

109) How can tribology be defined?

A) The study of celestial bodies
B) The study of interacting surfaces in relative motion
C) The study of genetics
D) The study of geological formations

110) What specific aspects does tribology cover?

A) Friction, wear, and lubrication of surfaces in contact with each other
B) Atmospheric conditions and precipitation
C) Human physiology and anatomy
D) Celestial mechanics and orbits

111) In the context of tribology, what do scientists and engineers study?

A) The interactions of surfaces in relative motion
B) The interactions of chemical compounds
C) The interactions of light waves
D) The interactions of subatomic particles
112) Why do many equipment failures occur at inboard bearings?
A) Because they are located in dark, dirty, inaccessible locations
B) Because they are always over-lubricated
C) Because they are made of poor-quality materials
D) Because they are rarely used

113) How can the need for lubrication be reduced?

A) By using permanently lubricated, long-life bearings
B) By increasing the number of inboard bearings
C) By making all bearings inaccessible
D) By using manual oiling methods

114) If using permanently lubricated, long-life bearings is not practical, what alternative is suggested?
A) Increasing the need for lubrication
B) Installing an automatic oiler
C) Making bearings even more inaccessible
D) Using manual oiling methods more frequently

115) What is the primary objective of corrective maintenance?

A) To eliminate the source of failure after its occurrence
B) To prevent failures from occurring
C) To improve overall system performance
D) To carry out scheduled repairs

116) Which term is synonymous with corrective maintenance?

A) Preventive maintenance
B) Emergency maintenance
C) Remedial maintenance
D) Planned maintenance

117) How can better improvement maintenance and preventive maintenance impact the need for
emergency corrections?
A) They can increase the need for emergency corrections
B) They have no impact on the need for emergency corrections
C) They can reduce the need for emergency corrections
D) They lead to total failures

118) What is the challenge in relation to maintenance?

A) Detecting small starting problems before they lead to total failures
B) Eliminating the need for any type of maintenance
C) Reducing the need for corrective maintenance
D) Carrying out scheduled repairs

119) What is the overarching goal when it comes to correcting defects in maintenance?
A) To correct defects at the highest possible cost
B) To eliminate the need for any type of maintenance
C) To correct defects at the lowest possible cost
D) To carry out emergency repairs
120) What is the primary objective of preventive maintenance tasks?
A) To maximize unscheduled downtime
B) To prevent unscheduled downtime and early equipment damage
C) To increase the need for corrective activities
D) To only focus on repair activities

121) How are preventive maintenance tasks typically scheduled?

A) Based on equipment age
B) Based on equipment location
C) Based on a time-driven schedule or repetitive tasks
D) Based on equipment color

122) What types of tasks are included in preventive maintenance?

A) Only major repairs
B) Only adjustments
C) Lubrication and adjustments, among others
D) Only corrective activities

123) What does preventive maintenance aim to maintain?

A) Acceptable levels of reliability and availability
B) High levels of unscheduled downtime
C) Low levels of equipment damage
D) The need for corrective activities

124) In the context of preventive maintenance, what does the term "time-driven schedule" refer to?
A) Scheduling based on equipment location
B) Scheduling based on equipment color
C) Scheduling based on a predetermined time interval
D) Scheduling based on equipment age

125) What is the primary focus of reactive maintenance?

A) Preventing equipment breakdown
B) Restoring equipment after it's already broken
C) Improving equipment efficiency
D) Maintaining equipment in optimal condition

126) What is another term for reactive maintenance?

A) Preventive maintenance
B) Breakdown maintenance
C) Corrective maintenance
D) Predictive maintenance

127) What is the primary action taken in reactive maintenance?

A) Replacing or repairing faulty parts and components
B) Conducting routine inspections
C) Implementing preventive measures
D) Improving equipment design
128) What condition is the broken-down equipment returned to in reactive maintenance?
A) Below service specifications
B) Within service specifications
C) Above service specifications
D) It depends on the extent of the damage

129) What distinguishes reactive maintenance from preventive maintenance?

A) Reactive maintenance restores equipment after it's broken, while preventive
maintenance aims to prevent breakdowns
B) Preventive maintenance is also known as breakdown maintenance
C) Reactive maintenance focuses on routine inspections
D) Preventive maintenance is only concerned with improving equipment design

130) What is the primary purpose of condition monitoring in machinery?

A) To repair faulty components
B) To monitor various parameters of condition
C) To improve machinery design
D) To prevent any change in machinery condition

131) How does condition monitoring help in identifying faults in machinery?

A) By conducting regular inspections
B) By monitoring parameters and identifying significant changes
C) By replacing all components periodically
D) By shutting down the machinery

132) Which of the following is mentioned as a parameter of condition in machinery?

A) Material composition
B) Vibration
C) Color
D) Historical significance

133) What is condition monitoring considered a major component of?

A) Corrective maintenance
B) Predictive maintenance
C) Preventive maintenance
D) Breakdown maintenance

134) What does a significant change in monitored parameters indicate in condition monitoring?
A) A developing fault in the machinery
B) An improvement in machinery condition
C) The need for immediate repair
D) A decrease in vibration

135) What is an example of a fixed interval task?

A) 10,000-mile tire rotation on a car
B) 3,000-mile oil change on a car
C) Monthly engine diagnostic check on a car
D) Annual emission test on a car
136) How often is the 48,000-mile spark plug change?
A) Every 12,000 miles
B) Every 24,000 miles
C) Every 36,000 miles
D) Every 48,000 miles

137) What characterizes fixed interval tasks?

A) They are performed only when the equipment breaks down
B) They are carried out at regular, predetermined intervals
C) They are done based on the equipment's condition
D) They are scheduled randomly

138) In the context of fixed interval tasks, why are oil changes performed every 3,000 miles?
A) Because the oil is likely to degrade after 3,000 miles
B) Because it is a fixed interval task, regardless of the oil's condition
C) Because the oil level is likely to drop after 3,000 miles
D) Because oil changes are only done when the engine malfunctions

139) What is a common characteristic of fixed interval tasks?

A) They are tailored to the specific needs of the equipment
B) They are performed irregularly
C) They may be performed even if the equipment does not need it
D) They are only carried out in emergency situations

140) What are the two main elements of fixed-interval preventive maintenance?
A) Days and hours
B) Procedure and discipline
C) Miles and activations
D) Gallons and intervals

141) How can preventive maintenance timing be determined?

A) Based on seasons only
B) Based on intervals such as miles, gallons, activations, or hours of use
C) Based on months and years only
D) Based on weeks and days only

142) What does "Procedure" refer to in the context of fixed-interval preventive maintenance?
A) The timing of maintenance tasks
B) The specific tasks and actions carried out
C) The discipline required for maintenance
D) The type of equipment being maintained

143) What does "Discipline" entail in fixed-interval preventive maintenance?

A) Ensuring that tasks are planned and carried out at the correct interval
B) Determining the best interval for maintenance tasks
C) Selecting the appropriate lubricants for the tasks
D) Controlling the usage of consumables
144) In fixed-interval preventive maintenance, what is the significance of discipline?
A) It ensures that all tasks are planned and controlled at the correct times
B) It determines the specific tasks to be carried out
C) It specifies the type of lubricants to be used
D) It establishes the best interval for maintenance tasks

145) What is the main goal of an organization in the context of maintenance planning and control?
A) To establish discipline within the organization
B) To ensure accomplishment through good planning and control
C) To list all equipment in the organization
D) To assign responsible persons for tasks

146) What is identified as a major problem in many organizations?

A) Updating of records
B) Follow-up procedures
C) Discipline
D) Master schedule

147) What are some of the elements of the planning and control procedure?
A) Recording personal achievements
B) Listing all equipment and their maintenance intervals
C) Scheduling personal vacations
D) Assigning unrelated tasks to responsible persons

148) What does the master schedule in the planning and control procedure break down tasks by?
A) By the hour
B) By the week
C) By the month, week, and possibly even to the day
D) By the year

149) What is the purpose of inspection by the responsible supervisor in the planning and control
procedure?
A) To assign tasks to responsible persons
B) To ensure that quality work is done on time
C) To update records
D) To establish the master schedule

150) Which of the following is considered one of the fundamental requirements of effective maintenance?
A) Inspections
B) Budget allocation
C) Employee training
D) Marketing strategies

151) What is mentioned as one of the fundamental requirements for effective maintenance in relation to
human involvement?
A) Human Resources
B) Human Senses
C) Human Intelligence
D) Human Factors
152) What is another fundamental requirement for effective maintenance alongside human senses?
A) Auditory systems
B) Visual systems
C) Sensors
D) Feedback mechanisms

153) What is meant by "thresholds" in the context of effective maintenance?

A) The maximum number of inspections allowed
B) The minimum level of human senses required
C) The points at which maintenance action should be taken
D) The predetermined budget for maintenance

154) What is a benefit of careful inspection that doesn't involve tearing down the machine?
A) Saves technician time and reduces exposure to possible damage
B) Increases the likelihood of equipment failure
C) Requires less training for technicians
D) Decreases the sensitivity of human senses

155) What is one way to increase the sensitivity of human senses for maintenance purposes?
A) Increase the exposure to loud sounds
B) Provide more hands-on experience
C) Train maintenance managers
D) Use specialized equipment for inspections

156) Why is experience considered the best teacher in the context of human senses for maintenance?
A) Because it increases the sensitivity of human senses
B) Because it helps technicians become more efficient
C) Because it allows technicians to recognize unusual sights, sounds, etc.
D) Because it eliminates the need for inspections

157) What is a characteristic of sensors?

A) They have low sensitivity to small changes
B) They measure conditions and transmit information to external indicators
C) They are not capable of detecting vibrations
D) They are limited to specific types of measurements

158) What does the setting of a threshold point depend on?

A) The availability of advanced sensors
B) The size and cost of the equipment
C) Whether the equipment is manual, semi-automatic, or automatic
D) Equipment manufacturers' recommendations, experience, and laboratory testing

159) What are the two major consequences of friction problems?

A) Heat and vibration
B) Heat and wear
C) Wear and corrosion
D) Corrosion and vibration
160) How much do friction problems cost industries annually?
A) Over $1 million
B) Over $1 billion
C) Over $100 million
D) Over $10 billion

161) What is the primary purpose of introducing a lubricant onto or between moving surfaces?
A) To increase friction
B) To reduce heat
C) To reduce wear
D) To increase corrosion

162) What are some of the functions of a lubricant?

A) Create friction and generate heat
B) Clean and seal
C) Lubricate, cool, clean, protect, seal, and transmit power
D) Increase wear and vibration

163) Why is it important to use a lubricant between moving surfaces?

A) To increase friction and wear
B) To generate more heat
C) To reduce friction and wear
D) To decrease the lifespan of the equipment

164) What are the two conditions required for good lubrication?
A) Sound technical design and equipment purchase
B) Equipment maintenance and management program
C) Sound technical design and a management program
D) Equipment installation and lubricant selection

165) Where can information for developing lubrication specifications come from?
A) Equipment manufacturers, lubricant vendors, other equipment users, and individual
experience
B) Equipment owners, government agencies, equipment users, and test laboratories
C) Equipment manufacturers, government agencies, equipment users, and equipment vendors
D) Equipment owners, lubricant vendors, government agencies, and test laboratories

166) What are some of the primary functions and steps involved in developing a lubrication program?
A) Design, installation, and testing
B) Identification of piece, equipment records, locations, lubricant, and more
C) Management, scheduling, and maintenance
D) Procurement, training, and implementation

167) What is one of the pieces of information that needs to be identified in the lubrication program
development?
A) Budget allocation for lubricants
B) Lubricant viscosity
C) Best method for lubrication
D) Supplier contact information
168) What is one of the sources of information for developing lubrication specifications?
A) Equipment manufacturers
B) Financial advisors
C) Marketing consultants
D) Travel agents

169) What is the primary goal of calibration?

A) To increase the sensitivity of instruments
B) To minimize or eliminate discrepancies or errors in measurements
C) To adjust instruments for higher accuracy
D) To change the standard used for measurement

170) How is calibration achieved?

A) By adjusting the instrument to a known standard or reference
B) By replacing the instrument with a new one
C) By conducting frequent inspections of the instrument
D) By using secondary standards

171) What is a "secondary standard" in the context of calibration?

A) A standard used for specific analysis in a laboratory
B) A standard that is prepared by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
C) A standard used for air velocity calibration
D) A standard used for electrical calibration

172) What organization is mentioned in relation to calibration standards?

A) International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
B) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
C) World Health Organization (WHO)
D) European Union (EU)

173) What is one of the elements that every organization should include in its written description of the
calibration system?
A) List of equipment owners
B) Established environmental conditions for calibration
C) Employee work schedules
D) Marketing strategies

174) How can the checking interval for calibration be determined?

A) Based on the amount of use
B) Based on equipment size
C) Based on the number of employees
D) Based on the type of industry

175) What is the recommended maximum interval for examining equipment that doesn't have specific
calibration intervals?
A) Every 2 years
B) Every 6 months
C) Every 3 months
D) Every year
176) What information should be included in the record system for every instrument?
A) Brand and model number
B) History of use, accuracy, present location, calibration interval, and more
C) Employee ID and contact information
D) Marketing specifications

177) How should test equipment and measurement standards be labeled for calibration?
A) Only with an identifying code reflecting the due date for next calibration
B) With the name of the equipment owner
C) With the date of manufacture
D) With a detailed history of all calibrations

178) What is considered the heart of a good inspection and preventive maintenance (PM)?
A) Writing ability
B) Planning
C) Estimating costs
D) Scheduling

179) Why is accurate planning, estimating, and scheduling crucial for preventive maintenance?
A) To reduce the number of inspections
B) To improve profits and control costs
C) To increase the maintenance budget
D) To decrease the importance of writing ability

180) What is an important qualification for creating good procedures for preventive maintenance?
A) Estimating costs
B) Scheduling expertise
C) Writing ability
D) Inspection skills

181) What is emphasized about the language used in procedures for preventive maintenance?
A) It should be complex and technical
B) It should be clear and concise with short sentences
C) It should include industry-specific jargon
D) It should focus on describing the 'who' and 'when' aspects only

182) When should the procedures be provided to the preventive maintenance (PM) craftsperson?
A) After the task is completed
B) Together with the work order
C) Only if requested by the craftsperson
D) At the end of the month

183) What is one of the philosophies for handling unscheduled repair and preventive maintenance
actions?
A) Fixing them on the spot within 10 minutes
B) Ignoring them and waiting for them to worsen
C) Scheduling them for later action
D) Sending them to a different department
184) What should be included in the procedure to ensure safety?
A) Location for mechanic performance indication
B) Operating cautions and safety precautions
C) Identifying number and title
D) List of tools and parts

185) What principle should guide the completion of maintenance tasks?

A) Random order
B) Priority
C) Alphabetical order
D) Size of the equipment

186) How is coordination between the maintenance manager and production manager typically achieved?
A) Through email communication
B) By conducting regular meetings
C) Through formal reports
D) By individual machine operators

187) Why is the cooperation of individual machine operators important?

A) To reduce maintenance costs
B) To ensure proper record keeping
C) For effective coordination with production
D) To schedule major shutdowns

188) When might it be helpful to perform preventive maintenance (PM) on equipment?

A) Only on a regular schedule
B) When equipment suddenly becomes available
C) Only during major shutdowns
D) Only during holidays

189) What method involves specified cleaning, inspection, lubrication, and adjustments at every service
call?
A) Techniques of Routine Interim Maintenance (TRIM)
B) Cold shutdown technique
C) Rapid repair method
D) Emergency maintenance

190) What is suggested for ensuring completion of inspection and preventive maintenance tasks?
A) Using a modern computer technology
B) Conducting random spot checks
C) Implementing a quality assurance report
D) Using a checklist

191) What does a failure reporting system aim to identify?

A) Only the corrective action
B) Problem, cause, and corrective action
C) Only the problem
D) Only the cause
192) What is one of the characteristics that goals for improving equipment reliability should have?
A) Verifiable
B) Ambiguous
C) Measurable
D) Incomprehensible

193) What is the focus of Simplified Failure Modes and Effects Analysis (SFMEA)?
A) Identifying trends and eliminating problems
B) Preventing failures that can be reduced or eliminated
C) Analyzing heat as a cause of failure
D) Studying mechanisms of failure

194) What is considered the watchword of preventive maintenance?

A) Lubrication
B) Cleanliness
C) Friction reduction
D) Component inspection

195) Who is responsible for performing lubrication tasks at the beginning of each shift?
A) Operators
B) Skilled personnel
C) Oiler
D) Maintenance managers

196) What is emphasized as the best detection system for maintenance tasks?
A) Proper test instruments
B) Experienced personnel's senses
C) User cooperation
D) Manufacturer's recommendations

197) What is listed as one of the necessary items for establishing an effective preventive maintenance
program?
A) Brand new equipment
B) Skilled personnel
C) Management support
D) Clear instructions with a checklist

198) What is the best way to start ensuring maintainability?

A) Regular inspections
B) Buying the right equipment initially
C) Skilled personnel training
D) Creating detailed equipment histories

199) What kind of documentation should architects and construction engineers provide for new buildings
or plants?
A) Equipment histories
B) Detailed checklists
C) Complete documentation on facilities and installed equipment
D) Service manuals
 Part (2)
200) Why is the management and control of maintenance activities important?
a) To reduce the size of maintenance groups
b) To improve the efficiency of maintenance activities
c) To decrease the need for mechanization and automation
d) None of the above

201) What has been the historical size of maintenance groups in manufacturing establishments?
a) 50-60% of the operating force
b) 5-10% of the operating force
c) 20-30% of the operating force
d) 70-80% of the operating force

202) What is the prime factor behind the trend of increasing maintenance effort compared to the
operating group?
a) Better management and control
b) Decreased need for mechanization
c) Increased need for operators
d) Increased mechanization and automation

203) What is one of the functions of a maintenance department?

a) Marketing products to potential clients
b) Managing inventory
c) Conducting market research
d) Designing new products

204) What is the purpose of performing preventive maintenance (PM)?

a) To monitor inventory levels
b) To plan and repair equipment/facilities
c) To improve workplace safety
d) To prepare budgets for maintenance personnel

205) What is one of the responsibilities of a maintenance department in terms of personnel and material
needs?
a) Training maintenance staff
b) Conducting market research
c) Reviewing plans for new equipment
d) Managing inventory

206) What function involves developing effective approaches to monitor the activities of maintenance
staff?
a) Managing inventory
b) Planning and repairing equipment/facilities
c) Training maintenance staff
d) Implementing methods to improve workplace safety
207) What is a role of the maintenance department in terms of communication?
a) Marketing products to potential clients
b) Training maintenance staff
c) Keeping records
d) Keeping upper-level management aware of maintenance activities
208) In which type of companies is centralized maintenance typically used?
a) Large companies
b) Small- and medium-sized companies
c) Both large and small- to medium-sized companies
d) None of the above

209) What type of maintenance organization is favored in large plants based on past experience?
a) Centralized maintenance
b) Decentralized maintenance
c) Combination of centralized and decentralized maintenance
d) None of the above

210) Which type of maintenance organization is recommended for small- and medium-sized companies?
a) Centralized maintenance
b) Decentralized maintenance
c) Combination of centralized and decentralized maintenance
d) None of the above

211) What is included in the short-range plan of the maintenance program approach?
a) Strategic goals for 3-5 years
b) High-priority goals for a 1-year period
c) Performance indicators
d) Personnel assessment

212) what should the maintenance manager be aware of regarding spare parts inventory?
a) Cost vs. downtime losses
b) Craftsperson time
c) Equipment and activity costs
d) Job costs

213) What should be considered during the design of new or modified equipment?
a) Craftsperson time
b) Equipment and activity costs
c) Maintainability factors
d) Safety procedures

214) What should be used for performing tasks?

a) Proper tools and methods
b) Craftsperson time
c) Job costs
d) Safety procedures
215) What should be provided to the craftsperson?
a) Quality and quantity of material
b) Equipment and activity costs
c) Spare parts inventory
d) Maintainability factors

216) What must be followed to ensure safety in maintenance activities?

a) Maintainability factors
b) Safety procedures
c) Equipment and activity costs
d) Job costs

217) What should the maintenance manager be mindful of regarding job costs?
a) Comparing the "should" with the "what"
b) Craftsperson time
c) Equipment and activity costs
d) Spare parts inventory

218) What does the work order system help management with?
a) Evaluating job performance
b) Controlling material costs
c) Keeping spares in storage
d) None of the above

219) What is the main purpose of performing Preventive Maintenance (PM)?

a) Keeping equipment records
b) Controlling material costs
c) Repairing equipment/items to operational state
d) Inspecting and correcting early-stage deficiencies

220) How is schedule effectiveness based?

a) On the reliability of the planning function
b) On the number of tasks to be done
c) On the availability of equipment
d) On the coordination with other departments

221) What is the purpose of backlog control and priority system in maintenance management?
a) Balancing manpower and workload requirements
b) Evaluating job performance
c) Controlling material costs
d) Managing equipment records

222) What is the significance of identifying backlogs in maintenance management?

a) It helps in making maintenance jobs more efficient
b) It controls material costs
c) It keeps spares in storage
d) It evaluates job performance
223) What does Corrective Maintenance involve?
a) Repairing equipment/items to operational state
b) Controlling material costs
c) Inspecting and correcting early-stage deficiencies
d) Managing equipment records

224) How do successful maintenance organizations measure their performance?

a) Through various means
b) Through evaluating job performance only
c) Through controlling material costs
d) Through managing equipment records

225) What information is crucial for decisions regarding overtime and hiring in maintenance
management?
a) Backlog information
b) Material costs
c) Performance indices
d) Equipment records

226) What does PERT stand for?

a) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
b) Project Evaluation and Resource Tracking
c) Project Efficiency and Resource Technology
d) Program Efficiency and Resource Tracking

227) When was PERT developed and by whom?

a) 1956 by the U.S. Navy
b) 1958 by the U.S. Navy’s Special Project Office
c) 1956 by a team of engineers
d) 1954 by a team of project managers
228) What is the primary purpose of PERT?
a) Analyzing tasks and identifying minimum project completion time
b) Simplifying large and complex project planning
c) Managing project resources efficiently
d) Controlling project costs

229) What is a major difference between PERT and CPM?

a) PERT deals with uncertain completion times, while CPM deals with certain
completion times
b) PERT focuses on large and complex projects, while CPM is used for smaller
projects
c) PERT is used in aerospace projects, while CPM is used in construction projects
d) PERT was developed in 1956, while CPM was developed in 1958

230) What are the three important factors of concern in maintenance and other projects?
a) Time, cost, and resource availability
b) Design, development, and execution
c) Quality, efficiency, and safety
d) Scope, stakeholders, and communication
231) What are the initial steps involved in both PERT and CPM methodologies?
a) Breaking a project into tasks, arranging tasks into a network, determining
duration time
b) Identifying project control tasks, developing a schedule, redistributing resources
c) Analyzing project completion times, managing project costs, improving project
efficiency
d) Evaluating project objectives, setting project milestones, assessing project risks
232) When is PERT commonly used?
a) When completion times of activities are uncertain
b) When completion times of activities are certain
c) When the project is small in scale
d) When the project is related to software development

233) What is the main objective of redistributing resources in PERT and CPM?
a) To improve the project schedule
b) To reduce the number of tasks
c) To increase project costs
d) None of the above

234) What is the basis for PERT analysis?

a) An optimistic time
b) A pessimistic period of time
c) The date that is most likely
d) All options mentioned above

235) A PERT chart’s full name is

a) Evaluation and Review Techniques for Programs
b) Evaluation of Programs and Robotic Techniques
c) Assessment of Programs and Robotics
d) Technology for Program Evaluation and Rating

236) CPM stands for

a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management

237) Assume that we have the following time estimates to accomplish an activity:
OT = 50 days, PT =75 days, and MT = 55 days. Calculate the activity expected duration time.
a) 60 days
b) 62.5 days
c) 57.5 days
d) 58.5 days
238) What is one of the advantages of using CPM for project management?
a) Reducing project costs
b) Monitoring project progress effectively
c) Increasing the likelihood of duplications
d) Avoiding interrelationships in workflow

239) What does CPM highlight to ensure the project is completed on time?
a) Unimportant activities
b) Activities important for timely project completion
c) Omissions in the project plan
d) Pessimistic estimates for activity times

240) Why is CPM considered an effective tool for controlling costs?

a) Because it reduces the need for labor and resources
b) Because it provides poor estimates of activity times
c) Because it can easily be computerized
d) Because it tends to use optimistic estimates for activity times

241) What is mentioned as one of the disadvantages of using CPM for project management?
a) It is cost-effective
b) It is time-consuming
c) It provides accurate estimates of activity times
d) It avoids omissions in project planning

242) What is one of the drawbacks associated with CPM?

a) It tends to use optimistic estimates for activity times
b) It is a low-cost method
c) It is ineffective in controlling project progress
d) It is costly

243) What is mentioned as a potential issue with CPM's estimates of activity times?
a) They are accurate and reliable
b) They are inclined to be pessimistic
c) They are not considered in project understanding
d) They highlight unimportant activities

244) What is an inclination associated with CPM's estimates for activity times?
a) They tend to be optimistic
b) They tend to be pessimistic
c) They tend to be costly
d) They tend to be time-consuming
245) What is the objective of shaft alignment?
a) To achieve maximum power consumption
b) To minimize equipment reliability
c) To obtain a common axis of rotation
d) To introduce vibration into the system

246) Why is proper shaft alignment crucial, especially for high-speed equipment?
a) To reduce power consumption
b) To maximize equipment life
c) To minimize noise levels
d) None of the above

247) What are the potential consequences of misalignment?

a) Reduced power consumption and noise levels
b) High vibration levels and hot-running bearings
c) Increased equipment reliability and life
d) Improved equipment performance

248) What are the two main methods used for achieving shaft alignment?
a) Shimming and welding
b) Moving and rotating
c) Shimming and moving
d) Welding and rotating

249) What components are designated as "Machines To Be Moved (MTBM)" in the alignment process?
a) Components corrected in the horizontal plane
b) Components corrected in the vertical plane
c) Components that are stationary and level
d) Components supported by base plate and foundation

250) What do the initials "MTBS" generally refer to in the alignment process?
A) Components corrected in the horizontal plane
a) Components corrected in the vertical plane
b) Stationary and level components
c) Base plate and foundation support

251) What assumption is made when performing alignment procedures?

a) That the machine components are stationary and level
b) That the rotational centerline is irrelevant
c) That shimming is unnecessary
d) That no adjustments are needed
252) Why is it important to perform both angular and offset alignment in the vertical and horizontal
planes?
a) To maximize equipment reliability
b) To minimize noise levels
c) To achieve a common axis of rotation
d) To align with the rotational centerline of the stationary shaft
253) What problem arises when alignment operations are performed randomly and adjustments are made
by trial and error?
a) Abnormal wear of machine-train components
b) Speeding up the alignment process
c) Time-consuming procedure
d) Efficient maintenance procedures

254) What is the condition for shafts to be considered in alignment at the coupling point?
a) They must be parallel
b) They must form one line
c) They must have abnormal wear
d) They must be randomly adjusted

255) What does the term "collinear" refer to in the context of shaft alignment?
a) Parallel rotational centerlines
b) Abnormal wear of machine components
c) Random adjustments made during alignment
d) Time-consuming alignment procedures

256) How do coupled shafts operate when they are in a collinear condition?
a) They operate like a solid shaft
b) They cause abnormal wear of machine components
c) They result in time-consuming alignment procedures
d) They form random adjustments during alignment

257) What is the consequence of any deviation from the aligned or collinear condition of shafts?
a) Random adjustments are needed for alignment
b) Abnormal wear of machine-train components
c) Time-consuming alignment procedures
d) Efficient maintenance procedures

258) What can cause variations in machine-component configuration and thermal growth?
a) Abnormal wear of machine components
b) Mounting-foot elevations and horizontal orientations
c) Time-consuming alignment procedures
d) Random adjustments made during alignment
259) When are individual drive-train components considered to be properly aligned, even if their
orientations are in different planes?
a) When their shafts are collinear at the coupling point
b) When they have abnormal wear of machine components
c) When they undergo time-consuming alignment procedures
d) When they require random adjustments during alignment

260) What allows for accurate alignment measurements and calculations, reducing the need for trial-and-
error methods?
a) Complex trigonometric principles
b) Simple trigonometric principles
c) Precise measuring instruments
d) Multiple attempts at alignment

261) What is the main characteristic of perfectly aligned shafts?

a) They are collinear and operate as a solid shaft
b) They are parallel but not collinear
c) They have angular misalignment
d) They require constant monitoring

262) When might offset misalignment be present in machinery?

a) When the shafts are not in the same plane
b) When there is no angular relationship between shafts
c) When there is a distance between two shaft centerlines
d) When the alignment is monitored regularly

263) How is angular misalignment defined in terms of shaft orientation?

a) The shafts are not in the same plane
b) The shafts are parallel but not collinear
c) The shafts have an angular relationship but no offset
d) The shafts are not parallel but are in the same plane
264) How is angularity generally expressed in terms of measurements?
a) In degrees
b) As a 'slope' or 'rise over run'
c) In millimeters
d) In inches

265) In which planes must angular misalignment be determined?

a) Only in the vertical plane
b) Only in the horizontal plane
c) In both the vertical and horizontal planes
d) It is not necessary to determine angular misalignment
266) When does combination misalignment occur in shafts?
a) When they are parallel and collinear
b) When they are angular and intersect at the coupling
c) When they are neither parallel nor intersect at the coupling
d) When they are perfectly aligned

267) What is the most common type of misalignment problem encountered?

a) Vertical angularity
b) Combination misalignment
c) Skewed misalignment
d) Horizontal offset

268) How many misalignment planes need to be corrected in combination misalignment?

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

269) Which type of misalignment is corrected by using shims in the vertical plane?
a) Horizontal angularity
b) Vertical angularity
c) Horizontal offset
d) Vertical offset

270) In which plane is horizontal misalignment typically illustrated?

a) Vertical plane
b) Side-view drawing
c) Top-view drawing
d) Both vertical and horizontal planes

271) How is horizontal misalignment corrected?

a) By using shims
b) By physically moving the MTBM
c) By adjusting angularity
d) By using trial-and-error method

272) What is recommended regarding the cleanliness of the base and bottom of a machine before
alignment?
a) They should be painted for protection
b) They should be rough to ensure a secure fit
c) They should be clean, rust-free, and without burrs
d) They should be lubricated for smooth placement
273) What is advised regarding the use of shims during alignment?
a) Use any shims, regardless of their condition
b) Use only shims that have been 'kinked' for better fit
c) Use only clean shims without burrs or deformities
d) Use shims made of rust-free material

274) What should be checked for before starting the alignment procedure?
a) Indicator sag
b) Soft-foot condition
c) Tightening sequence procedure
d) Jacking bolt assembly

275) Why is it important to position the stem of the dial indicator perpendicular to the resting surface?
a) To prevent indicator sag
b) To ensure proper shimming
c) To avoid erroneous readings
d) To correct soft-foot condition

276) What should be avoided when lifting the machine during the alignment process?
a) Lifting it too high
b) Adding or removing shims
c) Lifting it more than necessary
d) Using jacking bolt assemblies

277) What is "soft-foot" in the context of machinery?

a) The condition when a machine's feet are too rigid
b) The condition when all four of a machine’s feet do not support the weight of
the machine
c) The condition when a machine's feet are too soft
d) The condition when a machine's feet are uneven in height

278) Why is it important to determine if a soft-foot condition is present before performing shaft
alignment?
a) To ensure the machine's feet are clean
b) To prevent metal fatigue
c) To avoid frustrating adjustments during alignment
d) To support the weight of the machine
279) What can happen to dial-indicator readings if soft-foot condition is not addressed during shaft
alignment?
a) They remain consistent regardless of adjustments
b) They may vary each time hold-down nuts are tightened, loosened, and
retightened
c) They become inaccurate due to metal fatigue
d) They show no change regardless of alignment efforts

280) What can be a consequence of nuts securing the feet to the base becoming loose?
a) Machine rigidity is improved
b) Reduced risk of misalignment
c) Machine looseness and/or misalignment
d) Increased safety for personnel

281) How can metal fatigue occur as a result of soft-foot condition?

a) Nuts may over-tighten
b) Cracks can develop in the support base/frame
c) Dial indicators become less sensitive
d) Hold-down nuts may become stripped

282) In extreme cases of soft-foot, what may happen to the affected area?
a) It may experience improved stability
b) It may develop cracks and potentially break off
c) It may become more rigid
d) It may show no visible signs of damage

The End …!