BITSAT : SOLVED PAPER 2010

(memory based)
INSTRUCTIONS
· This question paper contains total 150 questions divided into four parts:
Part I : Physics Q. No. 1 to 40
Part II : Chemistry Q. No. 41 to 80
Part III : Mathematics Q. No. 81 to 125
Part IV : (A) English Proficiency Q. No. 126 to 140
(B) Logical Reasoning Q. No. 141 to 150
· All questions are multiple choice questions with four options, only one of them is correct.
· Each correct answer awarded 3 marks and –1 for each incorrect answer.
· Duration of paper 3 Hours

PART - I : PHYSICS 5. Two blocks are connected

over a massless pulley as
1. If P represents radiation pressure, c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy shown in fig. The mass of A
striking a unit area per second, the non-zero block A is 10 kg and the
in tegers x,y and z such th at P x Q y c z is coefficient of kinetic 30º B

dimensionless, are. friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at

(a) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (b) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1 constant speed. The mass of block B in kg is:
(c) x = – 1, y = 1, z = 1 (d) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1 (a) 3.5 (b) 3.3 (c) 3.0 (d) 2.5
6. A spring is compressed between two toy carts of
2. The position x of a particle varies with time (t) as
mass m1 and m2. When the toy carts are released,
x = A t2 – B t3. The acceleration at time t of the
the springs exert equal and opposite average
particle will be equal to zero. What is the value
forces for the same time on each toy cart. If v1
of t?
and v2 are the velocities of the toy carts and there
2A A A is no friction between the toy carts and the ground,
(a) (b) (c) (d) zero
3B B 3B then :
3. Two projectiles A and B are thrown with the same (a) v1/v2 = m1/m2 (b) v1/v2 = m2/m1
speed but angles are 40º and 50º with the (c) v1/v2 = –m2/m1 (d) v1/v2 = –m1/m2
r
horizontal. Then 7. The potential energy for a force field F is given
(a) A will fall earlier by U (x,y) = cos (x + y). The force acting on a
(b) B will fall earlier particle at position given by coordinates (0, p/4)
(c) both will fall at the same time is –
(d) None of these
1 ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ
4. A body is travelling in a circle at a constant speed. It (a) - (i + j) (b) (i + j)
(a) has a constant velocity 2 2
(b) is not accelerated æ1ˆ æ1 3 ˆö
3 ˆö
(c) has an inward radial acceleration (c) ç 2 i + 2 j÷ (d) ç ˆi - j
è ø è2 2 ÷ø
(d) has an outward radial acceleration
8. A long string is stretched by 2 cm and the 17. One kilogram of ice at 0°C is mixed with one
potential energy is V. If the spring is stretched by kilogram of water at 80°C. The final temperature
10 cm, its potential energy will be of the mixture is (Take specific heat of water
= 4200 kJ/kg-°C, Latent heat of ice = 336 kJ/kg)
(a) V / 25 (b) V/5 (c) 5 V (d) 25 V (a) 0°C (b) 40°C (c) 50°C (d) 60°C
9. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere 18. In the equation PVg = constant, the value of g is
(mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’) rolling down an incline unity. Then the process is
of angle ‘q’ without slipping and slipping down
the incline without rolling is : (a) isothermal (b) adiabatic
(a) 5 : 7 (b) 2 : 3 (c) 2 : 5 (d) 7 : 5 (c) isobaric (d) irreversible
10. A system consists of three particles, each of mass 19. An ideal refrigerator has a freezer at a temperature
m and located at (1, 1), (2, 2) and (3, 3). The of 13ºC. The coefficient of performance of the
co-ordinates of the centre of mass are engine is 5. The temperature of the air (to which
(a) (1, 1) (b) (2, 2) (c) (3, 3) (d) (6, 6)
11. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely heat is rejected) is
as the nth power of distance. Then the time period (a) 320ºC (b) 39ºC (c) 325 K (d) 325ºC
of a planet in circular orbit of radius ‘R’ around 20. 3 moles of an ideal gas at a temperature of 27°C
the sun will be proportional to are mixed with 2 moles of an ideal gas at a
æ n -1 ö æ n +1 ö æ n -2 ö temperature 227°C, determine the equilibrium
ç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷
Rn Rè 2 ø Rè 2 ø temperature of the mixture, assuming no loss of
(a) (b) (c) Rè 2 ø (d)
12. Two planets A and B have the same material energy.
density. If the radius of A is twice that of B, then (a) 327°C (b) 107°C (c) 318°C (d) 410°C
the ratio of the escape velocity vA/vB is 21. A simple pendulum has time period 't'. Its time
period in a lift which is moving upwards with
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 1/ 2 (d) 1/2 acceleration 3 ms–2 is
13. The upper end of a wire of diameter 12mm and
length 1m is clamped and its other end is twisted 9. 8 12.8 9.8 6. 8
(a) t (b) t (c) t (d) t
through an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is 12.8 9. 8 6. 8 9.8
(a) 18° (b) 0.18° (c) 36° (d) 0.36° 22. A wave y = a sin (wt – kx) on a string meets with
14. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a another wave producing a node at x = 0. Then
viscous liquid. The speed (n) of the ball as a the equation of the unknown wave is
function of time (t) may be best represented by (a) y = a sin (wt + kx) (b) y = –a sin (wt + kx)
v v (c) y = a sin (wt – kx) (d) y = –a sin (wt – kx)
23. A source of sound produces waves of
wavelength 60 cm when it is stationary. If the
(a) (b) speed of sound in air is 320 m s–1 and source
t t moves with speed 20 m s–1, the wavelength of
v v sound in the forward direction will be nearest to
(a) 56 cm (b) 60 cm (c) 64 cm (d) 68 cm
(c) (d) 24. A charge +q is at a distance L/2 above a square
t
of side L. Then what is the flux linked with the
t
15. Two mercury drops (each of radius r) merge to surface?
form a bigger drop. The surface energy of the q 2q q 6q
bigger drop, if T is the surface tension, is (a) 4e (b) 3e (c) 6e (d) e
0 0 0 0
(a) 25/3 pr2T (b) 4 pr2T 25. Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm
(c) 2 pr T
2 (d) 28/3 pr2T are given charges of –1 × 10–2 C and 5×10–2 C,
16. Two circular plates of radius 5 cm each, have a respectively. If these are connected by a
0.01 mm thick water film between them. Then what conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger
will be the force required to separate these plate sphere is
(S.T. of water = 73 dyne/cm) ?
(a) 2 × 10–2 C (b) 3 × 10–2 C
(a) 125 N (b) 95 N (c) 115 N (d) 105 N –2
(c) 4 × 10 C (d) 1 × 10–2 C
26. In a region, the potential is represented by 31. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have
V(x, y, z) = 6x – 8xy – 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts their lengths and number of turns in ratio of 1 : 2.
and x, y, z are in metres. The electric force The ratio of self-inductance of two solenoids is
experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
point (1, 1, 1) is : (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
(a) 6 5 N (b) 30 N 32. An alternating voltage V = V0 sin wt is applied across
(c) 24 N (d) 4 35 N a circuit. As a result, a current I = I0 sin (wt – p/2)
27. The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is (a) zero (b) 0.5 V0I0
R
(c) 0.707 V0I0 (d) 1.414 V0I0
33. A resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor
5W
C all are connected in series with an AC supply.
The resistance of R is 16 ohm and for a given
frequency, the inductive reactance of L is 24 ohm
10V
and capacitive reactance of C is 12 ohm. If the
(a) 20 W (b) 15 W (c) 10 W (d) 30 W
current in the circuit is 5 amp., find the potential
28. Which of the following quantities do not change
difference across R, L and C.
when a resistor connected to a battery is heated
due to the current? (a) 30, 20, 50 volt (b) 40, 100, 60 volt
(a) Drift speed (c) 70, 110, 60 volt (d) 80, 120, 60 volt
(b) Resistivity 34. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a,
(c) Resistance its magnifying power is m and wavelength of
(d) Number of free electrons light is l, The resolving power of the telescope
29. The magnetic field at the origin due to the current is:
flowing in the wire is –
Y
(a) (1.22 l)/ a (b) (1.22 a)/ l
(c) lm / (1.22 a) (d) a /(1.22 l)
35. The photoelectric threshold of metal is 2000Å.
The energy of the electrons ejected from the surface
by ultraviolet light of wavelength 1500Å is
upto
I (a) 2.0 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 15 eV (d) 150 eV
X

a
36. A material particle with a rest mass m0 is moving
with a velocity of light c. Then the wavelength of
a
the de Broglie wave associated with it is :
Z I (a) (h/m0c) (b) zero
parallel to y axis (c) ¥ (d) (m0c/h)
37. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a
monochromatic radiation of l = 975 Å. Number
upto of spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted
m0I ˆ ˆ m0I ˆ ˆ will be
(a) - (i + k) (b) (i + k)
8pa 2 pa (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 10
m0 I ˆ ˆ m0 I ˆ ˆ
(c) (- i + k) (d) (i - k) 38. Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
8pa 4pa 2 (a) thorium 236 (b) plutonium 239
30. The back emf induced in a coil, when current
(c) uranium 236 (d) neptunium 239
changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second,
39. A transistor has a base current of 1 mA and
is 4 volts, the self inductance of the coil is emitter current 90 mA. The collector current will
(a) 1 henry (b) 4 henry (a) 90 mA (b) 1 mA (c) 89 mA (d) 91 mA
(c) 10–3 henry (d) 4 × 10–3 henry
40. A d.c. battery of V volt is connected to a series (d) increase in temperature increase the average
combination of a resistor R and an ideal diode D kinetic energy of molecules which
as shown in the figure below. The potential overcomes the attractive force between
difference across R will be them.
R D
48. At a constant volume the specific heat of a gas is
0.075 and its molecular weight is 40. The gas is:
V
(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic
(a) 2V when diode is forward biased (c) Triatomic (d) None of these
(b) Zero when diode is forward biased 49. Which of these is least likely to act as Lewis
(c) V when diode is reverse biased base?
–
(d) V when diode is forward biased (a) F (b) BF3 (c) PF3 (d) CO
50. The Ksp of CuS, Ag2S and HgS are 10–31,10–44
PART - II : CHEMISTRY
and 10–54 respectively. The solubility of these
41. The vapour density of ozone is sulphides are in the order :
(a) 16 (b) 32 (c) 24 (d) 48 (a) Ag2S > CuS > HgS
42. In redox reaction 1 g-eq of reducing agent requires (b) AgS > HgS > CuS
P gm-eq. of oxidising agent. The value of P is
(c) HgS > Ag2S > CuS
(a) 1 (b) 2
(d) CuS > Ag2S > HgS
(c) 3
(d) Depends on reaction 51. In which of the following reactions, H2O2 is
43. Chloride ion and potassium ion are isoelectronic. acting as a reducing agent?
Then : (a) H 2 O 2 + SO 2 ® H 2SO 4
(a) Their sizes are same (b) 2KI + H 2O 2 ® 2KOH + I 2
(b) Cl– ion is bigger than K+ ion
(c) PbS + 4H 2 O 2 ® PbSO 4 + 4H 2O
(c) K+ ion is relatively bigger
(d) Their sizes depend on other cation and (d) Ag 2 O + H 2 O 2 ® 2Ag + H 2O + O 2
anion 52. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns
44. Which of the following pairs has both members white due to formation of :
from the same period of periodic table : (a) Na2CO3 (b) Na2O
(a) Na, Ca (b) Na, Cl (c) NaOH (d) NaHCO3
(c) Ca, Cl (d) Cl, Br 53. Which of the following is similar to graphite
45. In the periodic table, with the increase in atomic (a) B (b) BN (c) B2H6 (d) B4C
number, the metallic character of an element 54. The number of geometrical isomers of
(a) decreases in a period and increases in a group CH3– CH = CH – CH = CH – CH = CHCl is
(b) increases in a period and decreases in a group (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
(c) increases both in a period and the group 55. According to IUPAC system, the correct name
(d) decreases in a period and the group of the compound having the formula
46. Which of the following statements is/are true? CH3 - C - CH 2 - CH 2
1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist. || |
2. pp – dp bond is present in SO2. CH 2 CH3
3. I 3+ has bent geometry.. (a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl but-1-ene
4. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape. (b) 2-methyl pent-3-ene
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 3, 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 (c) 2-methyl but-1-ene
47. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of (d) None of these
liquid decreases this is because 56. Liebig’s method is used for the estimation of
(a) decreased volume of the solution. (a) Nitrogen
(b) increased attraction between molecules. (b) Sulphur
(c) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond (c) Carbon and hydrogen
forces. (d) Halogens
57. Hyperconjugation involves (c) is always double of Ea
(a) s – p conjugation (d) is negative of Ea
(b) s – p delocalisation 66. The following data are for the decomposition of
(c) No bond resonance ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution :
(d) All Vol. of N2 in cc Time (min)
58. Name of following reaction is
6.25 10
9.00 15
+ || ¾¾® 11.40 20
CN CN 13.65 25
(a) Claisen Condensation 35.65 Infinity
(b) Diel’s Alder reaction The order of reaction is :
(c) Dieckmann cyclisation (a) Zero (b) One
(d) Michael addition reaction (c) Two (d) Three
59. The unsaturated hydrocarbon which on 67. Which liberates ammonia when treated with
ozonolysis gives one mole each of formaldehyde, water?
acetaldehyde and methyl glyoxal (CH3COCHO) is (a) Li3N (b) Mg3N2
(a) CH 3 – CH = C( CH 3 ) – CH 3 (c) CaCN2 (d) All
(b) CH 2 = CH – CH 2 – CH = CH 2 68. The correct order of reactivity of halogens with
(c) CH 2 = CH – C( CH 3 ) = CH – CH 3 alkalies is
(d) (CH 3 ) 2 C = CH - CH 3 (a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) F < Cl > Br < I
60. Minamata disease is due to pollution of (c) F < Cl < Br < I (d) F < Cl < Br > I
(a) aresenic into the atmosphere 69. In the manufacture of iron from haematite,
limestone is added to act as :
(b) organic waste into drinking water
(a) Flux (b) Slag
(c) oil spill in water
(c) A reducing agent (d) An oxidizing agent
(d) industrial waste mercury into fishing water
61. Phosphate pollution is caused by: 70. Which of the following has square planar geometry?
(a) Sewage and agricultural fertilizers. (a) [PtCl 4 ]2 - (b) [ NiCl 4 ]2 -
2-
(b) Weathering of phosphate rocks only. (c) [ ZnCl 4 ]2 - (d) [CoCl 4 ]
(c) Agriculutral fertilizers only.
71. In which of the following conversions,
(d) Phosphate rocks and sewage.
phosphorus pentachloride is used as the reagent?
62. Eutrophication causes reduction in
(a) H 2 C = CH 2 ¾ ¾® CH 3 CH 2 Cl
(a) Dissolved oxygen (b) Nutrients
(c) Dissolved salts (d) All of these (b) CH 3CH 2 OH ¾ ¾® CH 3 CH 2 Cl
63. Coolant used in car radiator is aqueous solution (c) H 3 C - O - CH 3 ¾ ¾® CH 3Cl
of ethylene glycol. In order to prevent the
(d) CH º CH ¾ ¾® CH 2 = CHCl
solution from freezing at – 0.3°C. How much
ethylene glycol must be added to 5 kg of water ? 72. Match List I (Reaction) with List II (Reagent)
(Kf = 1.86 K Kg mol–1) and select the correct answer using the codes
(a) 50 g (b) 55 g (c) 45 g (d) 40 g given below the lists :
64. Which of the following will form the cathode with List I List II
respect to iron anode in an electrolyte cell? I. Etard reaction A. Alcoholic KOH
(a) Mg (b) Al (c) Cu (d) Zn II. Hydroxylation B. Anhydrous AlCl3
65. The activation energy for a simple chemical III. Dehydro- C. Chromyl chloride
reaction A ® B is Ea in forward direction. The halogenation
activation energy for reverse reaction
IV. Friedel-Crafts D. Dilute alkaline
(a) is always less than Ea
reaction KMnO4
(b) can be less than or more than Ea
 (a) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-B 80. Experiment to study kinetics of the dissociation
(b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B of hydrogen peroxide must be performed by
(c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B group of two or three so that–
(d) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C (a) when one is recording data other should be
73. Which of the following will not form a yellow swirling flask at constant rate.
precipitate on heating with an alkaline solution (b) experiment can be performed by one student
of iodine? only as outcomes are independent on rate
(a) CH3CH(OH)CH3 of mixing of mixture 1 and 3.
(b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (c) for safety purpose.
(d) none of these.
(c) CH3OH
(d) CH3CH2OH PART - III : MATHEMATICS
74. Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished
81. Let A = {x : x Î R, x < 1};
by:
(a) phenyl hydrazine (b) NaHCO3 B = {x : x Î R, x - 1 ³ 1} and A È B = R - D,
(c) tollen’s reagent (d) none of these then the set D is
75. When ethylamine react with sodium metal, the (a) {x :1 < x £ 2} (b) {x :1 £ x < 2}
gas evolved is (c) {x :1 £ x £ 2} (d) None of these
(a) H2 (b) C2H5 (c) N2 (d) NH3 82. If 12 cot2 q – 31 coses q + 32 = 0, then the value
76. The secondary structure of a protein refers to of sin q is
(a) fixed configuration of the polypeptide
backbone 3 2 -2
(a) or 1 (b) or
(b) a-helical backbone 5 3 3
(c) hydrophobic interactions 4 3 1
(d) sequence of a-amino acids. (c) or (d) ±
5 4 2
77. When H2S gas is passed through the HCl
containing aqueous solution of CuCl2, HgCl2, 83. tan 20° + tan 40° + 3 tan 20° tan 40° is equal to
BiCl3 and CoCl2 it does not precipitate out (a) 3 / 2 (b) 3 / 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
(a) CuS (b) HgS (c) Bi2S3 (d) CoS
84. The roots of the equation x2 – 2 2 x + 1 = 0 are
78. Which one of the following statements is correct ? (a) Real and different
(a) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, (b) Imaginary and different
ammonia solution dissolves only AgCl. (c) Real and equal
(b) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on (d) Rational and different
adding potassium ferrocyanide solution. 1 - ia
(c) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and 85. If = A + iB, then A2 + B2 equals to
1 + ia
HCO 3- ions we get a precipitate of (a) 1 (b) a2 (c) –1 (d) – a2
K2Ca(CO3)2. 86. In a polygon no three diagonals are concurrent.
(d) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead If the total number of points of intersection of
test in the reducing flame. diagonals interior to the polygon be 70 then the
79. Three separate samples of a solution of a single number of diagonals of the polygon is
salt gave these results. One formed a white (a) 20 (b) 28
precipitate with excess ammonia solution, one (c) 8 (d) None of these
formed a white precipitate with dil. HCl solution
87. With 17 consonants and 5 vowels the number of
and one formed a black precipitate with H2S. The
words of four letters that can be formed having
salt could be
two different vowels in the middle and one
(a) AgNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2
consonant, repeated or different at each end is
(c) Hg(NO3)2 (d) MnSO4
(a) 5780 (b) 2890 (c) 5440 (d) 2720
88. The coefficient of x32 in the expansion of 98. A black die and a white die are rolled. Find the
15
probability that the number shown by the black
æ 4 1 ö die will be more than twice that shown by the
ç x – 3 ÷ is: white die.
è x ø
(a) –15C 3 (b) 15C4 (c) –15C 5 (d) 15C2 (a) 1/8 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/4
89. If m arithmetic means are inserted between 1 and 99. Let E = {1, 2, 3, 4} and F = {1, 2}. Then the number
31 so that the ratio of the 7th and (m – 1)th means of onto functions from E to Fis
is 5 : 9, then find the value of m. (a) 14 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 8
(a) 14 (b) 24 (c) 10 (d) 20 x
90. The reflection of the point (4, –13) in the line 100. If f(x) = , then (fof of) (x) is
1+ x2
5x + y + 6 = 0 , is
(a) (–1, –14) (b) (3, 4) 3x x
(c) (1, 2) (d) (–4, 13) (a) (b)
2
91. If the equations of the pairs of opposite sides of a
1+ x 1 + 3x 2
parallelogram are x2 – 5x + 6 = 0 and y2 – 6y + 5 = 0, (c) 3x (d) None of these
then equations of its diagonals are 2
1- x
(a) x + 4y = 13, y = 4x – 7
(b) 4x +y = 13, 4y = x – 7 æx 1 ö
101. The value of cos –1x + cos–1 ç + 3 - 3x 2 ÷ ;
(c) 4x + y = 13, y = 4x – 7 è2 2 ø
(d) y – 4x = 13, y + 4x = 7 1
£ x £ 1 is
92. If the line 2x – 1 = 0 is the directrix of the parabola 2
y2 – kx + 6 = 0, then one of the values of k is
(a) – 6 (b) 6 (c) 1/4 (d) – 1/4 p p 3 3
(a) - (b) (c) (d) -
3 3 p p
93. The line ax + by = 1 cuts ellipse cx2 + dy2 = 1
only once if é 1 3ù é -1 -2 ù
ê ú ê ú
c d 3 2ú 0 5ú
(a) ca 2 + db 2 = 1 (b) + =1 102. If A = ê and B = ê and
a 2
b2 êë 2 5 úû êë 3 1 úû
a 2 b2 A + B – D = 0 (zero matrix), then D matrix will be -
(c) + =1 (d) ac 2 + bd 2 = 1
c d é 0 2ù é 0 2ù
94. Find the equation of chord of the circle ê ú ê ú
x2 + y2 = 8x bisected at the point (4, 3) (a) ê3 7ú (b) ê
3 7ú
êë 6 5úû êë 5 6úû
(a) y = 3 (b) y = 1 (c) y = 6 (d) y = 7
é0 1ù é 0 -2ù
(1 + x 2 ) - 1 - x 2 ê ú ê ú
95. Find the value of lim -3 -7 ú
x ®0 x2 (c) ê3 7ú (d) ê
êë 5 6úû êë -5 -6úû
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
96. Mean of 25 observations was found to be 78.4. 1 2 3
But later on it was found that 96 was misread 69.
The correct mean is 103. The value of -4 3 6 is
(a) 79.24 (b) 79.48 2 -7 9
(c) 80.10 (d) None of these (a) 213 (b –231 (c) 231 (d) 39
97. If the mean, mode and S.D. of a frequency
distribution are 41,45 and 8 respectively, then its ì 2
104. Let f (x) = íax + 1, x > 1 . Then f (x) is derivable
Pearson’s coefficient of skewness is îx + a , x £ 1
1 -1 2 at x = 1, if
(a) (b) (c) (d) 1 (a) a = 2 (b) a = 1 (c) a = 0 (d) a = 1/2
3 2 3
105. If a circular plate is heated uniformly, its area r r rr r r
113. If (a ´ b )2 + (a.b ) 2 = 676 and | b |= 2 then | a |
expands 3c times as fast as its radius, then the
value of c when the radius is 6 units, is is equal to
(a) 4 p (b) 2 p (c) 6 p (d) 3 p (a) 13 (b) 26
106. The function f(x) = tan x – 4x is strictly decreasing (c) 39 (d) None of these
on 114. Which one of the following is the unit vector
r
æ p pö æ p pö perpendicular to both a = -ˆi + ˆj + kˆ and
(a) ç - , ÷ (b) ç , ÷ r
è 3 3ø è3 2ø b = ˆi - ˆj + kˆ ?
æ p pö æp ö
(c) ç - , ÷ (d) ç , p ÷ ˆi + ˆj ˆj + kˆ ˆi - ˆj
è 3 2 ø è2 ø (a) (b) k̂ (c) (d)
107. The slope of the tangent to the hyperbola 2 2 2
2x2 – 3y2 = 6 at (3, 2) is 115. With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate
(a) –1 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 2 system, three vectors are expressed as :
æ pö æ 5p ö r r r
108. ò 4 cos ç x + ÷ cos 2x.cos ç + x ÷ dx a = 4iˆ - ˆj, b = -3iˆ + 2jˆ an d c = - kˆ where
è 6ø è 6 ø
ˆi, ˆj, kˆ are unit vectors, along the X, Y and Z-axis
æ sin 4x sin 2x ö
(a) - ç x + + ÷ +c respectively. The unit vector r̂ along the
è 4 2 ø
æ sin 4x sin 2x ö direction of sum of these vector is –
(b) - ç x + - ÷ +c
è 4 2 ø 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
(a) r̂ = (i + j - k) (b) r̂ =
(i + j - k)
æ sin 4x sin 2x ö 3
(c) - ç x - + ÷ +c 2
è 4 2 ø
1 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ
æ
(d) - ç x -
sin 4x cos 2x ö
+ (c) r̂ = (iˆ - ˆj + k)
ˆ (d) r̂ = (i + j + k)
è ÷ +c 3 2
4 2 ø
e 116. If the middle points of sides BC, CA & AB of
109. If Im = ò (ln x)m dx , where m Î N, then triangle ABC are respectively D, E, F then position
1 vector of centre of triangle DEF, when position
I10 + 10 I9 is equal to - vector of A, B, C ar e respectively ˆi + ˆj,
e10 ˆj + k,
ˆ kˆ + ˆi is –
(a) e10 (b) (c) e (d) e – 1
10
110. The area of the region bounded by the curve (a) (1/3) (iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ (b) (iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ
y = x | x |, x-axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = –1 is
given by : (c) 2 (iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ (d) (2/3) (iˆ + ˆj + k)
ˆ
1 2 117. The perpendicular distance of P(1, 2, 3) from the
(a) zero (b) (c) (d) 1
3 3 x -6 y-7 z-7
line = = is
dy 3 2 -2
111. What is the solution of + 2 y = 1 satisfying
dx (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 0 (d) 6
y(0) = 0 ?
118. The equation of the plane containing the line
1 - e -2 x 1 + e -2 x
(a) y= (b) y = x - x1 y - y1 z - z1
2 2 = = is
l m n
1+ ex
(c) y = 1 + e x (d) y = a (x – x1) + b (y – y1) + c (z – z1) = 0, then
2
(a) ax1 + by1 + cz1 = 0 (b) al + bm + cn = 0
112. The solution of differential equation
dy a b c
2x – y = 3 represents a family of (c) = = (d) lx1 + my1 + nz1 = 0
dx l m n
(a) circles (b) straight lines
(c) ellipses (d) parabola
119. If mean of a poisson distribution of a random PART - IV : ENGLISH
variable X is 2, then the value of P(X > 1.5) is
3 3 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 126 - 128): In the following
(a) 2 (b) questions, choose the alternative which can most
e e
3 3 appropriately replace the group of words italicised in
(c) 1 – (d) 1 – 2 the sentenc.
e e
2 1 1
126. Despite being in the career of singing for the last
120. If P(A È B) = , P(A Ç B) = and P(A) = 10 yr, he has not been able to earn fame on
3 6 3 account of his practice of borrowing ideas and
then words from others and using them as his own.
(a) A and B are independent events (a) adaptation (b) pantomime
(b) A and B are disjoint events (c) imitation (d) plagiarism
(c) A and B are dependent events 127. Every person is not allowed to enter the place
(d) None of these where public, government or historical records
121. If a flagstaff of 6 metres high placed on the top of are kept
(a) scullery (b) pantry
a tower throws a shadow of 2 3 metres along (c) archives (d) coffer
the ground, then the angle (in degrees) that the 128. The advertisement assured the public that the
sun makes with the ground is medicine would give back to the users, their
(a) 60° (b) 80° youthful vigour and appearance.
(c) 75° (d) None of these (a) rejuvenate (b) restore
122. A wholesale merchant wants to start the business (c) replenish (d) render
of cereal with ` 24000. Wheat is ` 400 per quintal
and rice is ` 600 per quintal. He has capacity to DIRECTIONS (Qs. 129 - 131) : Choose the alternative
store 200 quintal cereal. He earns the profit ` 25 per which is most similar in meaning to the word given in
quintal on wheat and ` 40 per quintal on rice. If he capital letters.
store x quintal rice and y quintal wheat, then for
maximum profit the objective function is 129. PARAMOUR
(a) 25 x + 40 y (b) 40x + 25 y (a) Lover (b) Companion
(c) Friend (d) Rival
400 600
(c) 400x + 600y (d) x+ y 130. REFECTORY
40 25 (a) Dining Room (b) Parlour
x4 + y 4 + z 2 (c) Living Room (d) Restaurant
123. The minimum value of for 131. ASSENT
xyz
(a) Compromise (b) Judgement
positive real number x, y, z is (c) Agreement (d) Expression
(a) 2 (b) 2 2 (c) 4 2 (d) 8 2 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 132 & 133) : Choose the alternative
x 2 which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/
(e - 1)
124. Let f (x) = for x ¹ 0, phrase.
æ ö
x æ xö
sin ç ÷ log ç1 + ÷ 132. To show one’s teeth
è aø è 4ø
(a) To ridicule
and f(0) = 12. If f is continuous at x = 0, then the (b) To face difficulties
value of a is equal to (c) To adopt a threatening attitude
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (d) To be humble
125. Which of the following functions is differentiable 133. To pour oil in troubled water
at x = 0? (a) To foment trouble
(a) ( )
cos x + x (b) cos ( x ) - x (b) To add to the trouble
(c) To instigate
(c) sin ( x ) + x (d) sin ( x ) - x (d) To calm a quarrel with soothing words
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 134 - 138): Rearrange the following
six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer
the questions given below them.
(A) This is being done to ensure that when the cess
is removed or merged ,the flexibility to impose
higher rate on luxury goods is not taken away ,a
senior finance ministry official told ET.
(B) This is only an enabling provision and the highest
rate levied on goods will still be 28% (14% central
GST and 14% state GST ).The demerit and luxury
goods will attract higher 28% rate plus cess.
(C) India has decided to peg the peak goods and
services tax (GST) rate at40% in the legislation
instead of 28%, giving it the flexibility to raise
rates without having to reach out to parliament.
(D) "Some members of the council felt such an
enabling provision was needed." the official privy
to the development said.
(E) The GST council has proposed to peg the peak
tax rate at 40% (20% central GST and 20% state
GST) in the model GST law to preclude the
requirement of approaching parliament or state
assemblies for any change in future.
(F) This enabling provision will also allow the
government to remove the cess at some stage
and instead have a higher GST rate only, which
will make for a neater GST.
134. Which sentence should come second in the
paragraph?
(a) B (b) A (c) F (d) E
135. Which sentence shouldcome before the last ?
(a) F (b) E (c) D (d) A
136. Which sentence will come complete the passage ?
(a) C (b) A (c) D (d) B
137. Which sentence will be third after the
rearrangement?
(a) F (b) E (c) B (d) D
138. Which sentence will start the passage?
(a) F (b) C (c) E (d) B
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 139 & 140): Pick out the most
effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks
to make the sentence meaningfully complete in the
contest of the sentence.
139. A novel of real_____________ must invent its
own language, and this one does,
(a) impulsive (b) ambition
(c) intricate (d) abstruse
140. Information technology, and the hardware and
software______________with the IT industry.
(a) amalgamation (b) associated
(c) regulated (d) use
DIRECTION (Q. 141): In the following question,
select the related letter/word/number from the given
alternatives.
141. EFJK : LMQR :: LMQR : ?
(a) EFJK (b) STXY (c) KJFE (d) YXTS
DIRECTION (Q. 142): In the following question,
select the related letter/word/number from the given
alternatives.
142. Mahatma Gandhi : Porbandar : : Pt. Jawaharlal
Nehru : ?
(a) Allahabad (b) Calcutta
(c) New Delhi (d) Mumbai
DIRECTION (Q. 143): In the question below is given
a statement followed by three assumptions numbered
I, II and III. You have to consider the statement and
the following assumptions, decide which of the
assumptions is implicit in the statement and choose
your answer accordingly.
143. Statement: The education of a student at
collegiate level, not taking into account
maintenance expenses, costs four hundred
rupees a year. Collegiate education is thus
drawing heavily upon the national resources of
an impoverished community. So college
education should be restricted to a brilliant few.
Assumptions:
I. Our resources are very limited.
II. Only a few students should be admitted to
the colleges.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Neither I nor II is implicit
(d) Both I and II are implicit
144. In a code language, if BANGED is coded as
JJKQCC, then the word STRAY will be coded as
(a) DEUTV (b) DEUVT
(c) EFVWT (d) EFVVS
DIRECTION (Q. 145): In the following question, a
series is given with one terms missing. Choose the
correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series:
145. 2, 3, 7, 22, 155, ?
(a) 1706 (b) 1550 (c) 3411 (d) 3100
146. Which one of the following diagram represents Answer figures:
the correct relationship among
Colour, Black and White.
(a) (b)

(a) (b)

(c) (d)
(c) (d)
149. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.
147. Find out the alternative figure which contains
figure (X) as its part.

?
(X)

(X) (a) (b)

(c) (d)
(a) (b) 150. Find out which of the figures (a), (b), (c) and (d)
can be formed from the pieces given in figure
(X).

(c) (d)

148. A piece of paper is folded and cut. From the figures (X)
given, indicate how it will appear when opened?
Question figures:
(a) (b)

(c) (d)
 SOLUTIONS
PART - I : PHYSICS ¶U
7. (b) Fx = - = sin(x + y) ,
1. (b) ¶x
2. (c) Given that x = A t2 – B t3 ¶U
Fy = - = sin(x + y)
dx ¶x
\ velocity = = 2 A t - 3B t 2
dt 1
d æ dx ö Fx = sin(x + y) ](0,p / 4) = ,
and acceleration = ç ÷ = 2 A - 6 Bt 2
dt è dt ø
1
For acceleration to be zero 2A – 6Bt = 0. Fy = sin(x + y)](0, p / 4) =
2
2A A
\ t= = 1 ˆ ˆ
6 B 3B \ F= [i + j]
2
2 u sin q
3. (a) T= , lesser is the value of q, lesser
g 1 1 2V V
is sinq and hence lesser will be the time 8. (d) V= k ( x ) 2 = k (2) 2 or k = =
2 2 4 2
taken. Hence A will fall earlier.
4. (c) Body moves with constant speed it means 1 1 æVö
V¢ = k (10) 2 = ´ ç ÷ (10) 2 = 25V
that tangential acceleration aT = 0 & only 2 2 è2ø
centripetal acceleration aC exists whose 9. (a) For solid sphere rolling without slipping on
direction is always towards the centre or inclined plane, acceleration
inward (along the radius of the circle). g sin q
5. (b) Considering the equilibrium of A, we get a1 =
K2
10a = 10g sin 30º – T – mN 1+ 2
R
where N = 10g cos 30° aN For solid sphere slipping on inclined plane
T without rolling, acceleration
A mN T a a2 = g sin q
3 0º
sin a
10g 10g cos30º
B
Therefore required ratio = 1
a2
mg
10g B
1 1 5
10 = = =
K 2 2 7
\ 10 a = g - T - m ´ 10 g cos 30 º
1+ 2 1 + 5
2
R
but a = 0, T = mBg 10. (b) The coordinates of C.M of three particle are
0 .2 3 m1 x1 + m 2 x 2 + m 3 x 3 m y + m 2 y 2 + m 3 y3
0 = 5g - m B g - × 10 ×g x= &y = 1 1
2 m1 + m 2 + m 3 m1 + m 2 + m 3
Þ mB = 3.268 » 3.3 kg here m1 = m2 = m3= m
6. (c) Applying law of conservation of linear so x =
( x1 + x 2 + x 3 ) m = 2 ,
momentum m+m+m
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0, ( y + y 2 + y3 ) m = 2
y= 1
m1 v v m m+m+m
= - 2 or 1 = - 2 so coordinates of C.M. of three particle are (2,2)
m2 v1 v2 m1
V = 300 m/s
11. (c) F = KR - n = MRw 2 Þ w 2 = KR - ( n +1) If T be the equilibrium temperature, of the
mixture, then its energy will be
-( n +1)
or w = K' R 2 æ 3RT ö
Em = 5 ç
è 2 ÷ø
[where K' = K1/2, a constant]
-(n +1)
Since, energy remains conserved,
(n +1)
2p E m = E1 + E 2
aR 2
\T a R 2
T
4 æ 3RT ö 2700R
2Gd pR 3 or 5ç = + 1500R
2GM 3 è 2 ÷ø 2
12. (a) ve = 2gR = R= R
2
R R2 or T = 380 K or 107°C
4 1 1
= R 2Gd p 21. (a) tµ , t' µ
3 9.8 12.8
v
as ve µ R for same density, A = 2 (Q g ' = 9.8 + 3 = 12.8)
vB
t' 9.8 9.8
rq 6mm ´ 30° \ = Þ t' = t
13. (b) rq = lf Þ f = = = 0.18° t 12.8 12.8
l 1m
22. (b) Equation of a wave
14. (b)
y1 = a sin (wt – kx) ....(i)
4 3 4
15. (d) pR = 2 ´ pr 3 Þ R = 21/ 3 r Let equations of another wave may be,
3 3 y2 = a sin (wt + kx) ....(ii)
Surface energy of bigger drop, y3 = –a sin (wt + kx) ....(iii)
E = 4pR 2T = 4 ´ 22 / 3 pr 2T = 28 / 3 pr 2T If Eq. (i) propagate with Eq. (ii), we get
y = 2a cos kx sin wt
2AT 2 ´ p ´ (0.05)2 ´ 73 ´ 10 -3
16. (c) F = = If Eq. (i), propagate with Eq. (iii), we get
d 0.01 ´ 10-3
y = –2a sin kx cos wt
= 36.5 p » 115 newton At x = 0, y = 0, wave produce node
17. (a) So, Eq.(iii) is the equation of unknown wave
18. (a) PV = constant represents isothermal process. 23. (a)
19. (b) T2 = 273 – 13 = 260, q
T2 260 L/2
K= ; 5=
T1 - T2 T1 - 260 q
24. (c) L/2
or T1 – 260 = 52; T1 = 312 K, L
T2 = 312 – 273 = 39°C L L
20. (b) Energy possessed by the ideal gas at 27°C L
is The given square of side L may be
considered as one of the faces of a cube
æ3 ö 2700 R
E1 = 3 ç R ´ 300÷ = with edge L. Then given charge q will be
è2 ø 2
considered to be placed at the centre of the
Energy possessed by the ideal gas at 227°C cube. Then according to Gauss's theorem,
is the magnitude of the electric flux through
æ 3R ö the faces (six) of the cube is given by
E2 = 2 ç ´ 500÷ = 1500 R f = q/e0
è 2 ø
 Hence, electric flux through one face of the
L1 (1 / 2)
2
1
cube for the given square will be we get, = =
1 q L2 1/ 2 2
f' = f = 32. (a) The phase angle between voltage V and
6 6e 0
current I is p/2.
kx k (Q - x )
25. (b) = 33. (d) VR = i R = 5 ´ 16 = 80 Volt
1cm 3cm
3x = Q – x Þ 4x = Q VL = i ´ (wL) = 5 ´ 24 = 120 Volt
Q 4 ´ 10 -2 VC = i ´ (l / wC) = 5 ´ 12 = 60 Volt
x= = C = 1 ´ 10 -2
4 4 34. (d)
Q¢ = Q – x = 3 × 10– 2C
hc æ 1 1 ö
r ¶V $ ¶V $ ¶V $ 35. (a) Ek = ç - ÷
26. (d) E = - i- j- k e è l l0 ø = 2.0 eV
¶x ¶y ¶z
36. (b)
= -[(6 - 8y)iˆ + (-8x - 8 + 6z)ˆj + (6y)k]
ˆ
n(n - 1)
r 37. (c) Number of spectral lines = =6
At (1, 1, 1), E = 2i$ + 10$j - 6k$ 2
r 38. (b) Plutonium 239 is processed by breeder
Þ (E) = 22 + 102 + 62 = 140 = 2 35 mechanism to be used as nuclear feul.
r
\ F = qE = 2 ´ 2 35 = 4 35 39. (c) IC = IE –IB = 90 – 1 = 89 m A
2 40. (b) In forward biasing, the diode conducts. For
V
27. (c) P= ...(i) ideal junction diode, the forward resistance
Req is zero; therefore, entire applied voltage
1 1 1 5+ R æ 5R ö occurs across external resistance R i.e., there
= + = Req = çè ÷ P = 30 W
Req R 5 5R 5 + Rø occurs no potential drop, so potential
across R is V in forward biased.
Substituting the values in equation (i)
(10) 2 PART - II : CHEMISTRY
30 = Þ R = 10 W
æ 5R ö 41. (c) We know that,
çè ÷ø
5+ R Molecular weight of compound or
28. (d) Only number of free electrons is constant,
other factors are temperature dependent. molecules = 2 × V. D.
29. (c) BOD = 0, BOB = 0 Vapour density (V. D.) of ozone molecules
m0 I M. wt. of O 3 48
BAB = [cos 45°( -ˆi) + cos 45°k]
ˆ = = = 24.
4 pa 2 2 2
m0 I ˆ ˆ Hence, V. D. of O 3 is 24.
= (- i + k)
8pa 42. (a) In redox reaction,
di g equivalent of reducin g agent = g.
30. (d) e = – L
dt equivalent of oxidising agent
di 0 -1 Hence 1g equ. of reducing agent = P g
But e = 4V and = -3 = – 1/10–3
dt 10 equ. of oxidising agent.
-1 43. (b)
\ -3
(–L) = 4 Þ L = 4 × 10–3 henry
10 44. (b) 11Na Þ 2, 8, 1; 17Cl Þ 2, 8, 7
m0 N 2A N2 These have same number of shells. Hence,
31. (b) From L = a
l l they are the elements of the same period.
45. (a) CH3
46. (a) All the three statements are correct. |
47. (b) 55. (d) H 2 C = C - C H2 - C H2 - C H3
1 2 3 4 5
2- Methylpent -1-ene
c
48. (a) q = 56. (c) 57. (d)
m
Þ CV = q × m 58. (b) The given reaction is Diel’s Alder reaction.
= 0.075 × 40 59. (c) CH 2 = CH - C(CH 3 ) = CH - CH 3
= 3.0 cal O
¾¾®
3 HCHO + CH3CHO + CH3COCHO
ZnO/H 2O
CP – Cv = R
CP = CV + R 60. (d) Minamata is caused by Hg poisoning.
61. (a) Phosphate pollution is caused by sewage
=3+ 2=5
and agricultural fertilizers.
CP 5 62. (a) Eutrophication causes reduction in
CV
= = 1.66
3 dissolved oxygen.
Monoatomic gas. 63. (a) DTf = 0.3 ° C
49. (b) BF3 is Lewis acid (e– pair acceptor)
K f ´ WB ´ 1000
50. (a) For CuS, solubility = (10–31)1/2; DTf =
M B ´ WA
1 1
æ K sp ö 3 æ 10 - 44 ö 3 1.86 ´ WB ´ 1000
For Ag2S = çç ÷ =ç ÷ and 0.3 =
÷ ç 4 ÷ 62 ´ 5000
è 4 ø è ø
\ WB = 50 g
1
–54 2 The amount used should be more than 50 g.
for HgS = (10 )
64. (a) In electrolytic cell the cathode is of higher
51. (d) SO2 changes to H2SO4 (O.N. changes from reduction potential.
+4 to +6 oxidation)
65. (b) Since the nature of reaction (i.e. exothermic
2KI ® I2 (O.S. changes from –1 to 0 or endothermic) is not given, Ea for reverse
oxidation) reaction can be more or less.
PbS ® PbSO4 (O.S. changes from –2 to +6 66. (b) NH 4 NO 2 ¾¾® N 2 + 2 H 2 O
oxidation)
Ag2O ® 2Ag (O.S. changes from +1 to 0 Volume of N2 formed in successive five
reduction) minutes are 2.75 cc, 2.40 cc and 2.25 cc which
is in decreasing order. So rate of reaction is
1 dependent on concentration of NH4 NO2.
52. (c) Na 2 O 2 + H 2 O ¾
¾® 2 NaOH + O2
2 As decrease is not very fast so it will be
53. (b) Graphite and boron nitride have similar first order reaction.
structure. 67. (d) All nitrides react with H2O to give NH3 and
54. (d) The given structure has three double CaCN2 also react with H2O
bonds whose each carbon atom is
differently substituted hence number of CaNCN + 3H2O ¾¾® CaCO3 + NH3
geometrical isomers will be 2n = 23’ = 8, 68. (a) Reactivity follows the order F > Cl > Br > I
where n is the number of double bonds 69. (a) Limestone (CaCO3) is mixed with Fe2O3 and
whose each carbon atom is differently
substituted. it acts as flux to form slag (CaSiO3).
70. (a) [PtCl4]2– has square planar geometry.
Pt : 5d 96s1
 Pt2+ = PART - III : MATHEMATICS
5d 6s 6p
81. (b) A = [ x : x Î R, -1 < x < 1]
Two electrons are removed from 5d shell
and 6s shell. So, hybridisation takes place B = [ x : x Î R : x - 1 £ -1or x - 1 ³ 1]
is dsp2 i.e. square planar geometry.
= [ x : x Î R : x £ 0 or x ³ 2]
71. (b) When ethyl alcohol is treated with PCl 5 ,
then ethyl chloride is formed. \ A È B = R - D,
CH 3CH 2 - OH + PCl 5 ¾¾®
D where D = [ x : x Î R,1 £ x < 2]
CH 3CH 2 - Cl + HCl + POCl 3 82. (c) 12 cot 2 q - 31cosec q + 32 = 0
72. (c) Þ 12(cosec 2q - 1) - 31cosec q + 32 = 0
73. (c) CH3OH does not have – CH(OH)CH3 group Þ 12cosec 2 q - 31cosec q + 20 = 0
hence it will not form yellow precipitate with
an alkaline solution of iodine (haloform Þ 12cosec2 q - 16 cosec q - 15cosec q + 20 = 0
reaction). Þ (4cosec q - 5)(3cosec q - 4) = 0
74. (c) Formic acid(HCOOH) has aldehydic group. 5 4 4 3
75. (a) When ethylamine is heated with sodium Þ cosecq = , ; \ sin q = ,
4 3 5 4
metal, then hydrogen gas is evolved.
83. (c) 3 = tan 60° = tan (40° + 20°)
2C 2 H 5 NH 2 + 2Na¾ ¾¾® tan 40° + tan 20°
=
2C 2 H5 NHNa + + H 2 ­ 1 - tan 40° tan 20°
76. (b) The secondary structure of a protein refers \ 3 – 3 tan 40° tan 20°
to the shape in which a long peptide chain = tan 40° + tan 20°
can exist. There are two different Hence tan 40° + tan 20° + 3 tan 40° tan20°
conformations of the peptide linkage present
in protein are a-helix and b-conformation. = 3
The a-helix always has a right handed 84. (a) The discriminant of the equation
arrangement. ( -2 2 ) 2 – 4 (1) (1) = 8 – 4 = 4 > 0 and a
In b-conformation all peptide chains are perfect square, so roots are real and different
streched out to nearly maximum extension but we can't say that roots are rational
and then laid side by side held together by because coefficients are not rational
intermolecular hydrogen bonds. The therefore.
structure resembles the pleated folds of
drapery and therefore is known as b-pleated
( 2 2)
2
2 2± -42 2 ± 2 = 2 ±1
shelt.
=
77. (d) CoS is not precipitated in acidic medium. 2 2
78. (a) Ammonia can dissolve ppt. of AgCl only due this is irrational \ the roots are real and different.
to formation of complex as given below: 1 - ia 1 + ia
AgCl + 2NH3 ® [Ag (NH3)2]Cl 85. (a) A + iB = Þ A – iB =
1 + ia 1 - ia
79. (b) Pb(NO3)2 + 2NH4OH (1 - ia) (1 + ia)
Þ (A + iB) (A - iB) = =1
® Pb(OH)2 ¯ + 2NH4NO3 (white ppt) (1 + ia) (1 - ia)
Þ A2 + B2 =1
Pb(NO3)2 + 2HCl ® PbCl2 ¯ + 2HNO3 (white ppt) 86. (a) A combination of four vertices is equivalent
Pb(NO3)2 + H2S ® PbS ¯ + 2HNO3 (black) to one interior poin of intersection of
diagonals.
80. (a)
 = 15 C4 x32 .
Thus, coefficient of x32 = 15C4.
89. (a) Let the means be x1,x2,.....xm so that
1,x1,x2,....xm, 31 is an A.P. of (m + 2) terms.
Now, 31 = Tm+2 = a + (m + 1)d = 1 + (m + 1)d
\ No. of interior points of intersection
= nC4 = 70 30 x7 5
\d= Given : x =
Þ n (n – 1) (n – 2) (n – 3) = 5. 6. 7. 8 m +1 m -1 9
\n=8
So, number of diagonals = 8C2 – 8 = 20 T8 a + 7d 5
\ T = a + (m - 1)d = 9
87. (a) The two letters, the first and the last of the m
four lettered word can be chosen in (17)2 Þ 9a + 63d = 5a + (5m – 5)d
ways, as repetition is allowed for conso-
nants. The two vowels in the middle are dis- 30
Þ 4.1 = (5m – 68)
tinct so that the number of ways of filling m +1
up the two places is 5P2 = 20. Þ 2m + 2 = 75m – 1020 Þ 73m = 1022
The no. of different words = (17)2 . 20 = 5780.
1022
88. (b) We know by Binomial expansion, that (x + a)n \ m= = 14
73
= nC0 xn a0 + nC1xn–1.a + nC2 xn – 2 a2 90. (a) Let Q(a, b) be the reflection of P(4, – 13) in
+ nC3 xn–3 a3+ nC4xn–4. a4 +..... + nCnx0an the line 5x + y + 6 = 0

15 æ a + 4 b - 13 ö
æ 1 ö Then the mid-point R ç , ÷ lies on
Given expansion is ç x 4 – 3 ÷ è 2 2 ø
è x ø
5x + y + 6 = 0
On comparing we get n = 15, x = x4,
æ 1ö æ a + 4 ö b - 13
a = ç– ÷ \ 5ç + +6= 0
è x3 ø è 2 ÷ø 2
15 0 Þ 5a + b + 19 = 0 ...(i)
æ 1ö æ 1ö
\ ç x4 – ÷ =15 C 0 (x 4 )15 ç – 3 ÷ Also PQ is perpendicular to 5x + y + 6 = 0
è x3 ø è x ø
b + 13 æ 5 ö
2 Therefore ´ç- ÷ =–1
æ 1ö æ 1ö
+15 C1 (x 4 )14 ç – 3 ÷ +15 C 2 (x 4 )13 ç – 3 ÷ a - 4 è 1ø
è x ø è x ø
Þ a – 5b – 69 = 0 ..(ii)
3 4 Solving (i) and (ii), we get a = – 1, b = – 14
æ 1ö æ 1ö
+15 C3 (x 4 )12 ç – ÷ +15 C4 (x 4 )11 ç – ÷ +... 91. (c) Equations of the sides of the parallelogram
è x ø
3 è x3 ø
are
æ 1ö
r (x – 3) (x – 2) = 0 and (y – 5) (y – 1) = 0
15
Tr +1 = C r (x 4 )15– r × ç – ÷ = –15 C r x 60–7r
è x3 ø i.e. x = 3, x = 2; y = 5, y = 1
Hence its vertices are : A (2 ,1 ); B (3, 1);
Þ x 60 –7r = x32 Þ 60 – 7r = 32
C (3, 5); D (2, 5)
Þ 7r = 28 Þ r = 4
Equation of the diagonal AC is
So, 5th term, contains x32
4
æ 1ö
4 y–1 = (x – 2) Þ y = 4x – 7
= 15 C 4 (x 4 )11 ç – ÷ =15 C 4 x 44 x –12 1
è x3 ø
 Equation of the diagonal BD is But this Sx is incorrect as 96 was misread as 69.
4 \ correct S x = 1960 + (96 – 69) = 1987
y– 1 = (x – 3) Þ 4x + y = 13
-1 1987
92. (a) Given eqn of parabola is y2 – kx + 6 = 0 \ correct mean = = 79.48
25
2 æ 6ö 1 Mean - Mode
Þ y2 = kx – 6 Þ y = k ç x - ÷ 97. (b) - , We have SK =
è kø 2 S.D.
6 k
Now, directrix, x - = - 41 - 45 1
k 4 =-
6 k 8 2
Þ x= - ..... (i)
k 4 98. (b) The number of favourable cases are shown
1 below:
But directrix is given Þ x = .... (ii)
2 Number on white die Number on black die
6 k 1 1 3
\ - = Þ 24 – k2 = 2k
k 4 2 1 4
Þ k2 + 2k – 24 = 0 1 5
Þ (k + 6) (k – 4) = 0 Þ k = – 6, k = 4 1 6
93. (c) Clearly ax + by = 1 2 5
a 1 2 6
i.e y = - x + is tangent to There are 6 favourable cases in which the
b b
number on black die is more than twice the
x 2 y2 number on the white die.
cx 2 + dy 2 = 1 Þ + =1
1 1
\ m=6
c d
n = Total number of cases = 6 × 6
2 2
æ1ö æ 1 öæ a ö æ 1 ö (\ with each die there are six possibilities)
\ ç ÷ = ç ÷ç- ÷ + ç ÷
èbø è c øè b ø è d ø m 6 1
\ Probability p = = =
a 2 b2 n 6´6 6
Þ 1= +
c d 99. (a) If set A has m elements and set B has n
94. (a) T = S1 Þ x (4) + y (3) – 4 (x + 4) = 16 + 9 – 32 elements then number of onto functions from
Þ 3y – 9 = 0 Þ y = 3 A to B is
n
1 + x 2 - 1 - x2 1+ x2 + 1- x2
95. (a) lim
x® 0 x 2
.
2
1+ x + 1- x 2
å (-1)n-r n
Cr r m where 1 £ n £ m
r =1
Here E = {1, 2, 3, 4}, F = {1, 2}
1+ x2 -1+ x2

( 1+ x )
lim m = 4, n = 2
Þ x ®0 x 2 2
+ 1- x2 \ No. of onto functions from E to F
2
Þ lim
2x 2
=
2 2
= =1 = å (-1)2-r 2Cr (r )4
x® 0
x2 ( 1+ x 2
+ 1 - x2 ) 1+ 1 2 r =1
= (–1)2C1 + 2C2(2)4 = –2 + 16 = 14
Sx x
96. (b) Mean x = or Sx = n x
n 100. (b) f (x) =
1+ x2
Sx = 25 × 78.4 = 1960
 x 1 2 3
-4 3 6 3 6 -4 6
1+ x2 =
x 103. (c) =1 –2 +3
(fof) (x) = 2 -7 9 -7 9 2 9
x2 2x 2 + 1
1+
1 + x2 -4 3
x 2 -7

2x 2 + 1 x = 1 (3 × 9 – 6 (–7)) –2 (–4 × 9 –2 × 6) +3
(fofof)(x) = =
2 2 ((–4) (–7) – 3 × 2)
x 1 + 3x
1+ = (27 + 42) –2 (–36 – 12)+3 (28 – 6) = 231
2x 2 + 1
f (1 - h) - f (1)
101. (b) Let cos–1x = y 104. (d) Lf ¢(1) = lim
h®0 -h
1
Þ x = cos y, so that £ x £ 1 or 0 £ y £ p (1 - h + a) - (1 + a) -h
2 3 = lim = lim =1
h®0 -h h ®0 -h
x 1 1 3
and + 3 - 3x 2 = cos y + sin y f (1 + h) - f (1)
2 2 2 2 Rf ¢ (1) = lim
h®0 h
p p æp ö
= cos cos y + sin sin y = cos ç - y÷ [a (1 + h)2 + 1] - (1 + a)
3 3 è3 ø = lim
h ®0 h
æx 1 ö p
Þ cos-1 ç + 3 - 3x 2 ÷ = - y = lim (ah + 2a) = 2a
è2 2 ø 3 h ®0
\ the given expression is equal to Since f ' (1) exists, \ L f ' (1) = R f ' (1) Þ a = 1/2
p p 105. (a) Let A sq. units in the area measure when
y+ - y, i.e., the radius is r units.
3 3 their A = pr2
é a bù Differentiate both side w.r.t ‘t’
ê ú dA dr
102. (c) Let D = ê c d ú = 2pr ...(i)
êë e f úû dt dt
dA dr
é1 3ù é -1 -2ù éa bù We have, = 3c
dt dt
ê 3 2ú + ê 0 5 ú - ê c dú
\ A+ B – C = ê ú ê ú ê ú From eqn (i), we get
ëê 2 5úû êë 3 1 ûú ëê e f ûú dr dr
3 c. = 2pr. Þ 3c = 2pr
dt dt
é 1 - 1 - a 3 - 2 - bù é 0 0ù
ê ú ê ú 2
Þ ê3 + 0 - c 2 + 5 - d ú = ê 0 0ú Now, c = p (6) = 4p when r = 6
êë 2 + 3 - e 5 + 1 - f úû êë0 0úû 3
106. (a) f(x) = tanx – 4x Þ f ¢(x) = sec2x – 4
– a = 0 Þ a = 0, 1 – b = 0 Þ b = 1, -p p
3 – c = 0 Þ c = 3, 7 – d = 0 Þ d = 7, When < x < , 1 < sec x < 2
3 3
5 – e = 0 Þ e = 5, 6 – f = 0 Þ f = 6, Therefore, 1 < sec2x < 4
é0 1ù Þ – 3 < (sec2x – 4) < 0
ê3 7ú -p p
\D= ê ú Thus, for < x < , f ¢(x) < 0
êë 5 6úû 3 3
æ -p p ö
Hence, f is strictly decreasing on ç , ÷
è 3 3ø
107. (b) Differentiating the given equation of the dy dy
curve 111. (a) + 2y = 1 Þ = 1 – 2y
dx dx
4x – 6y. (dy/dx) = 0 \ dy/dx = 2x / 3y
dy 1
æ ödy
çè dx ÷ø
2 3
= . =1
ò 1 - 2y = ò dx - 2 log |1 - 2y | = x + C
(3, 2) 3 2
pö 1
æ æ 5p ö at x = 0, y = 0 ; - log1 = 0 + C Þ C = 0
108. (a) ò 4 cos çè x + 6 ÷ø cos 2x.cos çè 6
+ x ÷ dx
ø 2

æ 2p ö 1 - e -2x
= 2 ò çè cos ( 2x + p) cos ÷ø cos 2x dx 1 – 2y = e–2x Þ y =
3 2
æ 1ö
= 2 ò ç - cos 2x - ÷ cos 2x dx dy 2
dy =
dx
è 2ø 112. (d) We have, 2x =y+3 Þ
dx y+3 x
= ò (-2 cos 2 2x - cos 2x) dx integrating, 2 ln ( y + 3) = ln x + ln c = ln cx
= -ò (1 + cos 4x + cos 2x) dx Þ ln ( y + 3)2 = ln cx Þ (y + 3)2 = cx
sin 4x sin 2x which is a family of parabolas.
= -x - - +c r r r r
x 2 113. (a) (a ´ b ) 2 + (a × b )2 = 676
r r r r
e
e
109. (c) I10 = ò 1.(ln x)10 dx = éë(ln x)10 x ùû (| a | . | b | sin qnˆ ) 2 + (| a | × | b | cos q) 2 = 676
1
1
2
e e Þ a 2 b 2 sin 2 q + a 2 b 2 cos 2 q = 676 [(nˆ ) = 1]
1
-ò 10(ln x) . .x dx = e - 0 - 10ò (ln x) 9 dx
9
676 676
x 2
1 1 a2b2 (sin 2 q + cos2 q) = 676 Þ a = =
2 4
= e – 10I9 + 10I9= e b
110. (c) The area of the region bounded by the curve r 676 r 26 r
| a |= Þ | a |= Þ | a |= 13
y = f (x) and the ordinates x = a, x = b is given 4 2
by
114. (a) According to question a = -iˆ + ˆj + kˆ and
b
Area = òa y dx b = iˆ - ˆj + kˆ
According to the question, iˆ ˆj kˆ
ìï x 2 , x ³ 0 Then, a × b = -1 1 1
y=x x =í
2 1 -1 1
ïî - x , x < 0
Y = iˆ [1 + 1] - ˆj [-1 - 1] + kˆ[1 - 1] = 2(iˆ + ˆj)
y = x2
and |a × b| = 4+4 = 2 2
B
C(1, 0) x=1 2(iˆ + ˆj) iˆ + ˆj
x = –1 A(1, 0)
X \ Required unit vector = ± =±
O 2 2 2
D
r r r r ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
115. (a) r = a + b + c = 4i - j - 3i + 2j - k = i + j - k
y = –x 2
Required area r ˆi + ˆj - kˆ ˆi + ˆj - kˆ
r
= area of region OAB + area of region OCD r̂ = = =
|r| 12 + 12 + (-1)2 3
= 2 × Area of region OAB
1 2 116. (d) The position vector of points D, E, F are
= 2ò x 2dx = sq. units respectively
0 3
 [Since the triangles AEC A
i+ j k+ j i+k
+k , i+ and +j and BDC are similar]
2 2 2 6m

So, position vector of centre of DDEF h cot a = (h – 100) cot b B

h
1 éi + j k+ j i+k ù 2 100 cot b q q
= ê +k+i + + jú = [i + j + k] \h = E
3ë 2 2 2 û 3 cot b - cot a 2 3m D h C

117. (a) The point A (6, 7, 7) is on the line . Let the 122. (b) For maximum profit, z = 40x + 25y.
perpendicular from P meet the line in L. Then 123. (b) By A.M. ³ G.M.
AP 2 = (6 - 1) 2 + (7 - 2) 2 + (7 - 3) 2 = 66 x4 + y4 ³ 2x2y2 and 2x2y2 + z2 ³ 8 xyz.
P
x4 + y 4 + z 2
Also AL = projection of AP on line Þ ³ 8
xyz
L
æ 3 2 -2 ö
çç actual d.c.' s , , ÷÷ A ( 6, 7, 7)
(e x - 1)2
è 17 17 17 ø 124. (d) Lt
x ®0 æxö æ xö
sin ç ÷ log ç1 + ÷
3 2 -2 èaø è 4ø
Þ (6 - 1). + (7 - 2). + (7 - 3)
17 17 17 (e x - 1)2 2
.x
= Lt x
= 17 Þ 4a = 12
x ®0 æ xö æ xö
\ ^ distance d of P from the line is given by sin ç ÷ log ç1 + ÷
x è aø è 4ø x
. . .
a æ xö x 4
d 2 = AP 2 - AL2 = 66 - 17 = 49 so that d = 7 çè ÷ø
a 4
118. (b) If the given plane contains the given line then
the normal to the plane, must be perpendicular Þa=3
to the line and the condition for the same is 125. (d) x is non-differentiable function at
al + bm + cn = 0.
x = 0 as L.H.D = –1 and R.H. D = 1
–l r
e l ì x, x ³ 0
119. (d) Since, P (X = r) = (where l = mean) Q x =í
r! î- x, x < 0
\ P(X = r > 1.5) = P (2) + P (3) + ... ¥ But cos |h| is differentiable
= 1 – P (X = r £ 1) = 1 – P (0) – P(1) \ Any combination of two such functions will
be non-differentiable. Hence option (a) and (b)
æ e –2 ´ 2 ö 3 are ruled out.
= 1 – ç e –2 + ÷ =1 – 2
è 1! ø e Now, consider sin |x| + |x|
120. (a) P(A È B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(AB) sin -h + - h sin h
L¢ = lim = lim - 1 = -1 - 1
h ®0 -h h ®0 - h
2 1 1 1
Þ = + P(B) – Þ P(B) = = –2
3 3 6 2
Now, P(AB) = P(A) P(B), A and B are sin h + h sin h
R ' = lim = lim +1 =1+1 = 2
independent events. h® 0 h h® 0 h

121. (a) Accordingly, Consider sin |x| – |x|

h h+6 6 sin - h - - h sin h

tan q = = = Þ q = 60° L ' = lim = lim +1 = 0
x x+2 3 2 3 h® 0 -h h® 0 –h
 sin h - h sin h 141. (b) As, EFJK LMQR
R ' = lim = lim -1 = 0
h® 0 h h® 0 h +7
Hence, sin x - x is diffble at x = 0. Similarly, LMQR STXY
+7
PART - IV : ENGLISH 142. (a) As, the birth place of Mahatma Gandhi was
126. (d) 127. (c) 128. (a) 129. (a) Porbandar. Similarly, the birth place of Pt.
130. (a) 131. (c) 132. (c) 133. (d) Jawaharlal Nehru was Allahabad.
134. (a) 135. (d) 136. (c) 137. (a) 143. (d) The use of the words 'impoverished
138. (b) community' in the statement makes I implicit
139. (b) Ambition-a cherished desire while the phrase 'college education should
Abstruse-hard to understand intricate- be restricted to a brilliant few' makes II
complex implicit.
140. (b) Amalgamation-joining of two organization 144. (b)
to form one large organization
Regulated means controlled. 145. (c) 2 3 7 22 155 3411

2×1+1 2×3+1 3×7+1 7×22+1 22×155+1

146. (b) 147. (d) 148. (a) 149. (d)
150. (c)