Iop Test Bank

Industrial and Organizational Psychology
Chapter 01  Introduction to I/O Psychology c. 1970s

d. 1980s
1. I/O Psychology is a branch of psychology that _____ in the
workplace. 12. The use of more sophisticated statistical techniques, a more
a. treats psychological disorders aggressive approach in developing methods to select employees, and
b. applies the principles of psychology an increased interest in the application of cognitive psychology to
c. provides therapy to employees industry took place in the:
d. all of these equally define I/O psychology a. 1920s and 30s
b. 1940s and 50s
2. I/O psychology examines factors that affect the _______ in an c. 1960s and 70s
organization, whereas business fields examine the broader aspects of d. 1980s and 90s
running an organization.
a. people 13. The greatest number of Ph.D. I/O psychologists work in:
b. machines a. universities
c. stock performance b. consulting firms
d. I/O psychology examines all three factors c. private industry
d. the public sector
3. I/O psychologists who are involved in ________ study and practice
in such areas as employee selection, job analysis, and job evaluation. 14. Compared to Ph.D.'s, master's level graduates are less often
a. personnel psychology employed by:
b. organizational psychology a. universities
c. training and development b. consulting firms
d. human factors c. the private industry
d. the public sector
4. The study of leadership is part of:
a. personnel psychology 15. To get accepted into a graduate program in I/O psychology, a
b. training and development student usually must take which of the following standardized tests?
c. human factors a. LSAT
d. organizational psychology b. MCAT
c. SAT
5. Psychologists involved in _______ study leadership, job d. GRE
satisfaction, and employee motivation.
a. personnel psychology 16. Which of the following would a student in a doctoral program
b. organizational psychology usually have to complete but a student in a master’s program would
c. training and development not?
d. human factors a. Thesis
b. Dissertation
6. Regardless of the official start date, I/O psychology was born in the: c. Internship
a. mid 1800s d. A statistics course
b. late 1800s
c. early 1900s 17. According to your text, the most important reason for the reliance
d. mid 1900s on research is that it ultimately:
a. reduces accidents
7. I/O Psychology first started about: b. saves an organization money
a. 1840 c. increases employee satisfaction
b. 1938 d. reduces turnover
c. 1903
d. 1957 18. Which of the following was NOT a reason why you should
understand research and statistics?
8. The _____ were a husband and wife team who were among the first a. answering questions
scientists to improve productivity and reduce fatigue by studying the b. research is part of everyday life
motions used by workers. c. common sense is often wrong
a. Watsons d. all of these are reasons
b. Scotts
c. Binghams 19. Hypotheses are based on:
d. Gilbreths a. previous research
b. logic
9. In which decade were the Hawthorne studies published. c. theories
a. 1920s d. all three of these
b. 1930s
c. 1960s 20. Which of the following is the reason for WHY a study obtains
d. 1980s certain results?
a. Hypothesis
10. Changes in employee behavior that result from an employee being b. Idea
studied or receiving increased attention from mangers is called the: c. Postulation
a. Hawthorne effect d. Theory
b. Premack principle
c. Pygmalion effect 21. If researchers have trouble forming a hypothesis, they:
d. Peter principle a. can't conduct their study
b. wait until more research is available
11. The ____ were characterized by passage of several major pieces c. conduct an exploratory study
of civil rights legislation. d. guess about the outcome of a study
a. 1930s
b. 1960s
@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 1

22. Conducting a literature review means: 33. Manipulating the _____ best distinguishes experimental research
a. reading the classics methods from other research methods.
b. seeing if similar research has been conducted a. dependent variable
c. assessing a study's reading level b. intervening variable
d. calling other researchers for their opinion c. statistical results
d. independent variable
23. Which of the following is a leading journal in I/O psychology?
a. Journal of Applied Psychology 34. In an experiment designed to test the effect of noise on employee
b. Research in the Study of Work performance, noise is the ______ and employee performance is the
c. I/O Psychology review ______.
d. None of these is the leading journal a. dependent variable/independent variable
b. dependent variable / control variable
24. The Harvard Business Review is an example of a: c. independent variable/dependent variable
a. journal d. control variable / dependent variable
b. trade magazine
c. magazine 35. Researchers at IBM think that employees who get to chose their
d. bridge publication own working hours will be more satisfied than those who do not. To
test this idea, IBM employees at the Dallas facility are told that they
25. Which of the following contain articles usually written by can chose their own hours. Six months later, the satisfaction level of
professional writers who have little expertise in a given field? employees in the Dallas facility is compared to employees in the
a. Journals Knoxville facility. The employees in the Knoxville facility are
b. Magazines and journals considered the:
c. Magazines a. dependent variable
d. None of these is correct b. control group
c. experimental group
26. What field research gains in _______ it loses in _______. d. independent variable
a. control / external validity
b. power / control 36. The main difference between a quasi-experiment and an
c. internal validity / power experiment is that the independent variable:
d. external validity / control a. is manipulated in an experiment
b. is manipulated in a quasi-experiment
27. To ensure that subjects are participating in a study of their own c. has 3 levels in an experiment
free will, researchers must obtain : d. cannot be measured in a quasi-experiment
a. permission from the APA
b. a writ of mandamus from the participant 37. Even though they lack control, ____ are used due to ____ reasons.
c. informed consent from the participant a. experiments / ethical
d. a valid control group b. correlational designs / historical
c. archival methods / statistical
28. To ensure ethical treatment of subjects, universities have: d. quasi-experiments/ethical & practical
a. institutional review boards
b. the APA closely monitor every study 38. _____ research sacrifices external validity for control of
c. witnesses during experiments extraneous variables whereas _____ research sacrifices the control of
d. All of these are true extraneous variables for external validity.
a. Laboratory / field
29. The most powerful research method is the: b. Field / laboratory
a. correlational method c. Archival / quasi-experimental
b. quasi-experimental method d. Quasi-experimental /archival
c. archival method
d. experimental method 39. Which of the following research methods uses previously
collected company records?
30. Which of the following research methods can determine a cause a. Experimental
and effect relationship? b. Survey
a. Correlational method c. Archival
b. Quasi-experimental method d. Meta-analysis
c. Archival method
d. Experimental method 40. If I went through my employee files to determine what type of
person makes the best
31. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is the ________ employee, I would probably be conducting:
variable. a. archival research
a. independent b. a meta-analysis
b. dependent c. a field study
c. intervening d. an experiment
d. control
41. Which of the following survey methods has the lowest response
32. The variable that we expect to change as a result of our rate?
manipulation is called the: a. Interview
a. independent variable b. Email
b. dependent variable c. Mail
c. intervening variable d. The three have equal response rates
d. control variable
42. you used an email survey, your results would be representative of
the population in terms of:
a. sex
b. race

c. both sex and race 52. In general, the majority of the research comparing college student
d. neither sex nor race samples with actual employee samples conclude that college students
behave _______ real world samples.
43. Which of the following will increase the response rates to mailed a. similar to
surveys? b. different than
a. Include a monetary incentive c. No research is available
b. Keep the survey under 4 pages d. The research results are inconsistent
c. Have a university sponsor the survey
d. All will increase response rates 53. A _____ implies that each person in the population has an equal
chance of being selected.
44. A researcher sent a survey containing 5 questions to a sample of a. random sample
500 employees. The wording was easy to understand and the b. convenience sample
researcher offered a financial incentive yet few employees returned c. random assignment
the survey. What might be the reason for this low response? d. convenience assignment
a. The number of questions
b. The use of a financial incentive 54. Most research in industry uses a ________ sample.
c. The easy-to-understand wording a. random
d. None of the three is a reasonable explanation b. convenience sample
c. free sample
45. _______ is a method of reaching conclusions based on the d. stratified sample
statistical combination of several previous research studies.
a. The experimental method 55. A teacher wants to see if there are any differences in the test
b. Quasi-experimental analysis scores of students who take her exam on the computer and those who
c. Archival research take her exam the traditional paper and pencil way. Students with an
d. Meta-analysis odd digit at the end of their student ID number are required to take her
midterm exam on the computer and those with an even digit are
46. In a meta-analysis conducted to see if a particular training method required to take a paper and pencil exam. Her study has a _____
is better than another, sample with _____.
the proper effect size to use would be: a. random / random assignment
a. d b. convenience / random assignment
b. r c. convenience / nonrandom assignment
c. Z d. random / nonrandom
d. t
56. After all the data have been collected, the results are then:
47. Meta-analyses looking at the difference between two groups would a. filed for future use
use ___ as the effect size whereas meta-analyses looking at the b. shared between colleagues
relationship between two variables would use ___ as the effect size. c. statistically analyzed
a. d / r d. data collection never ends
b. r / d
c. t / d 57. The level of statistical significance that we use in psychology is:
d. t / F a. .01
b. .05
48. An effect size (d) of .20 is considered: c. .10
a. small d. .50
b. large
c. moderate 58. The statistical significance of research results tell us the
d. significant probability that:
a. our results were due to chance
49. The statistical "averaging" of effect sizes across previous b. our results are useful
empirical studies defines: c. our results are biased
a. experimental research d. all of these are true
b. meta-analysis
c. correlational research 59. Significance levels tell us the ______ significance of a study and
d. archival research effect size tells us the _______ of a study.
a. statistical / alpha level
50. A large research sample is nice to have, however, it may not be b. practical / beta level
necessary if the experimenter can choose a ______ sample and c. practical / statistical significance
control for many of the ______ variables. d. statistical / practical significance
a. random / extraneous
b. extraneous / random 60. Which of the following represents the strongest correlation?
c. representative / nuisance a. - .05
d. homogeneous / confounding b. +.45
c. +.10
51. The majority of research in the field of I/O psychology is conducted d. - .47
at universities using students as subjects rather than employees. In
fact, college students serve as subjects in approximately ____ percent 61. If a researcher calculated a correlation coefficient of r = 1.27
of all published I/O research. between two variables, you would conclude that there is a(n):
a. 5% a. high correlation
b. 50% b. very low correlation
c. 85% c. error in the calculation
d. 99% d. moderately low positive correlation

62. The use of correlational analysis does not allow you to infer a Chapter 02  Job Analysis and Evaluation
cause and effect relationship. This is because a third variable, a(n)
______ variable, often accounts for the relationship between the two 1. The gathering, analyzing, and structuring of information about a
variables. job’s components, characteristics, and requirements is a process
a. intervening called:
b. nuisance a. task analysis
c. confounding b. job analysis
d. dependent c. surveying
d. job description
63. A researcher finds a strong correlation between job satisfaction
and performance. What can he conclude from this correlation? 2. Job analysis can serve as a foundation for:
a. Satisfaction causes good performance a. selecting employees
b. Good performance causes job satisfaction b. training employees
c. Satisfaction and performance are related c. evaluating employees' performance
d. He can conclude all three d. all of these and more
64. In a ______ ethical dilemma, there is a high level of uncertainty as 3. The _______ is the process of determining the work activities and
to what is right or wrong. requirements, and the _______ is the written result.
a. rationalizing a. job analysis / job description
b. Type A b. job description / job analysis
c. type B c. job evaluation / job description
d. deconstructive d. job analysis / job evaluation
4. Promoting people until they reach their highest level of

incompetence is called:
a. the Anderson Analog
b. the Peter Principle
c. personpower planning
d. none of these
5. Shahidi Industries has a policy of promoting employees who

perform well. Unfortunately, many of the people promoted do not
become effective supervisors. Currently there is a crisis because most
of the supervisors are getting poor performance reviews. Shahidi
Industries seems to be a good example of:
a. the Anderson Analog
b. the Peter Principle
c. personpower planning
d. none of the above
6. Even though the _______ are not law, courts have granted them
"great deference."
a. Amendments
b. APA Principles
c. Uniform Guidelines
d. Standards and Practice Guidelines
7. Which of the following practical uses of job analysis may discover

lapses in organizational communication?
a. Training
b. Personpower planning
c. Organizational analysis
d. Performance appraisal
8. _______ was the first real court case that addressed the issue of job
relatedness.
a. McDonnel Douglas v. Green
b. Connecticut v. Teal
c. Pan American Airlines v. Diaz
d. Griggs v. Duke Power
9. Which of the following is not true of job titles?

a. Titles should describe the nature of a job
b. Job titles can affect perceptions of job status
c. Titles provide workers with identity
d. All three of these statements are true
10. Which of the following sections in a thorough job description can

be used in help wanted advertisements, internal job posting, and
company brochures?
a. Job title
b. Brief summary
c. Work activities
d. Work context

11. Which of the following is another name for a job competency? 22. Josh conducted a job analysis by convening a panel of experts and
a. Work context having the panel identify the objectives and standards that are to be
b. Job factors met by the ideal incumbent. What method of job analysis is Josh
c. Training requirements using?
d. KSAOs a. PAQ
b. AET
12. Knowledge, skill, ability, and personality are types of: c. Nagy-Reilly Approach
a. competencies d. Ammerman Technique
b. job factors
c. job functions 23. A specialized job analysis interview that uses groups and focuses
d. compensable factors on objectives is:
a. critical incidents
13. Which of the following sections in a thorough job description b. PAQ
contains what is commonly called job specifications? c. the Ammerman technique
a. Brief summary d. task analysis
b. Performance standards
c. Work activities 24. A problem with the observation method of job analysis is that it is
d. Competencies often:
a. illegal
14. According to the author, the section of a job description which b. unreliable
contains the knowledge, skills, abilities, and other characteristics c. unethical
necessary to be successful on the job is labeled ______; the section d. obtrusive
containing a list of tasks and activities in which the worker is involved
is labeled ________. 25. In the task statement, “Types correspondence to be sent to
a. job competencies/ work context vendors,” ____ is the action and ___ is the object.
b. job competencies / work activities a. correspondence / types
c. work context / work activities b. correspondence / vendors
d. performance standards / work activities c. types / correspondence
d. vendors / types
15. A job analysis is typically conducted by:
a. job incumbents 26. Creating a list of tasks that are thought to be involved with a job,
b. supervisors and having job incumbents rate the tasks on scales such as frequency
c. outside consultants of occurrence and importance, best defines which job analysis
d. the human resource department method?
a. Task analysis
16. If you have a small number of incumbents in a job (6 people), how b. Critical incident technique
many should you interview as part of your job analysis? c. Job-element approach
a. all 6 d. Ammerman technique
b. 2
c. 4 27. Once task statements have been written, the next step is to:
d. 1 a. select tests to tap KSAOs
b. determine essential KSAOs
17. Informal changes that employees make in their jobs is called: c. interview incumbents
a. job crafting d. rate the task statements
b. spontaneous revision
c. position alterations 28. A task statement rated ____ on frequency and ____ on importance
d. job reconstruction would be left out of the job description.
a. low / low
18. Which of the following is the most common method of conducting b. high / high
a job analysis? c. high / low
a. Observation d. low / high
b. Task analysis
c. Interview 29. ____ is a structured job analysis method containing 194 items and
d. Job participation is difficult to read.
a. The critical incidents technique
19. Job analysis interviews are conducted to determine: b. The PAQ
a. who should conduct the job analysis c. The Ammerman technique
b. who should participate in the job analysis d. Task analysis
c. information about the job itself
d. if a job analysis is even necessary 30. A revised version of the Position Analysis Questionnaire which is
used by a job analyst rather than a job incumbent is the:
20. During the job analysis interview, the questions asked should be: a. Job Structure Profile
a. open ended b. Job Element Inventory
b. multiple choice c. Job Components Inventory
c. true-false d. AET
d. highly structured
31. Andre is completing a questionnaire containing over 400 items
21. An excellent group job-analysis interview technique is the: covering five major categories: tools and equipment, perceptual and
a. task analysis physical requirements, mathematical requirements, communication
b. Ammerman technique requirements, and decision making and responsibility. Andre is using
c. brain storming the:
d. Position Analysis Questionnaire a. Job Components Inventory
b. Position Analysis Questionnaire
c. Critical Incident Technique

d. Threshold Traits Analysis 42. In job evaluation, compensable factors would be associated with
determining _____, whereas salary surveys would be associated with
32. The ___ is an excellent job analysis method for information about determining ________.
tools and equipment. a. internal equity / external equity
a. JCI b. external equity / internal equity
b. PAQ c. internal equity/ wage trend lines
c. F-JAS d. external equity/wage trend lines
d. AET
43. The first step in evaluating a job is to decide what factors
33. Which of the following job analysis techniques is NOT a good differentiate the relative worth of jobs. These are called
source of information _______factors.
about competencies? a. job related
a. CIT b. compensable job
b. F-JAS c. task
c. AET d. structural
d. TTA
44. Level of responsibility, mental demands, and education
34. The ___ is an excellent job analysis method for information about requirements would be potential ________factors.
the work environment. a. job related
a. JCI b. compensable job
b. PAQ c. task
c. F-JAS d. structural
d. AET
45. To construct a wage trend line, I would use:
35. _____ is an example of an ergonomic centered job analysis a. regression
method. b. a ruler and graph paper
a. The AET c. nomological statistics
b. Task analysis d. the span of discretion
c. The PAQ
d. The Ammerman technique 46. After conducting a salary equity evaluation we find that Bob is
underpaid by $2,000 and Bill is overpaid by $2,000. We would
36. The ______ is the job analysis method created by the federal probably:
government to replace the Dictionary of Occupational Titles (DOT). a. give Bob a raise and lower Bill's salary
a. FJA b. not do anything
b. PAQ c. redo the job evaluation
c. AET d. give Bob a raise and leave Bill's salary alone
d. O*NET
47. Salary surveys help establish:
37. Generating examples of good and bad performance, and a. external equity
categorizing these examples based on their similarities and b. legality
differences with other examples, best defines which job analysis c. BFOQ's
method? d. internal equity
a. Task analysis
b. Critical incident technique 48. If an organization's compensation plan is competitive with other
c. Job-element approach similar organizations', they are said to have:
d. Ammerman technique a. internal equity
b. external equity
38. The ___ is an excellent job analysis method for obtaining the c. merit
physical abilities needed to perform a job. d. comparable worth
a. JCI
b. PAQ 49. Salary surveys are used to determine:
c. F-JAS a. internal equity
d. AET b. external equity
c. merit
39. The best method(s) to use in analyzing a job appears to be: d. comparable worth
a. the Position Analysis Questionnaire
b. interviews, observations, and job participation 50. When an organization determines where it wants to be when
c. The Critical Incident Technique compared with the compensation policies of other organizations, they
d. dependent on how the information will be used are determining their:
a. external equity
40. Determining the worth of a job defines: b. rank order
a. functional job analysis c. market position
b. job evaluation d. compensation structure
c. comparable worth
d. salary surveying 51. A job evaluation concerns the worth of the _______, not the worth
41. _______ is the process of determining a job's worth. of the _______.
a. Comparable worth a. job / person
b. Job analysis b. person / job
c. Job evaluation c. performance / product
d. Performance appraisal d. product / performance

52. The job evaluation process determines the amount of money that Chapter 03  Legal Issues in Employee Selection
a job is worth; this amount is called _______compensation.
a. financial 1. In the past few years, about _____ discrimination complaints were
b. monetary filed with the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
c. direct a. 90,000
d. indirect b. 500,000
c. 950
53. According to national statistics, the average salary for women in d. 10,000
the U.S. is approximately ____ of the average salary for men.
a. 57% 2. The first step in the legal process is for some legislative body to:
b. 98% a. get sued
c. 50% b. receive a complaint
d. 82% c. pass a law
d. take a vote
54. Differences in average salaries between men and women is the
result of: 3. If a law is passed at the federal level, states may pass laws that
a. discrimination _____ the rights granted in the federal law, states may not pass laws
b. vocational choice that will _____ the rights granted in the federal law.
c. educational opportunities a. diminish / expand
d. all of the above contribute to the difference b. expand / change
c. diminish / change
55. The statistical method most commonly used in a salary equity d. expand / diminish
study is:
a. analysis of variance 4. In which of the following ADR methods does a neutral third-party
b. chi-square make a decision that both sides must abide by?
c. regression a. Binding arbitration
d. nominal analysis b. Nonbinding arbitration
c. Mediation
d. Negotiation
5. The EEOC usually handles alleged violations of:

a. state laws
b. federal laws
c. county laws
d. none of these
6. In order for a case of discrimination to be investigated by the EEOC,

the complaint must be filed
within _____ days of the discriminatory act.
a. 120
b. 140
c. 160
d. 180
7. According to the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act, an employee filing a

discrimination complaint with the EEOC regarding pay discrimination,
has 180 days from when she:
a. was hired
b. received her last pay check
c. was told of her salary
d. discovered she was underpaid
8. When the courts make a decision, the decision becomes:

a. final
b. moot
c. case law
d. a statute
9. _______ is a judicial interpretation of a law and is important because

it establishes a precedent for future cases.
a. A statute
b. Case law
c. A briefing
d. A sanction
10. Based on the Civil Rights Acts of 1866, 1964, and 1991 as well as
the 14th Amendment, it is illegal to discriminate against a person
based on race. According to Congress, all of the following are
protected races except:
a. African Americans
b. Asian Americans
c. Native American Indians
d. all three of these are protected races

11. The "equal protection" clause of the Fourteenth Amendment 20. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) forbids an
mandates that no state may deny a person equal protection under the employer from discriminating against an individual over the age of:
law. Because any suite filed under the Fourteenth Amendment must a. 35
demonstrate ______, it is not often used. b. 40
a. intent c. 45
b. past discrimination d. 50
c. equal protection
d. due process 21. Which of the following is not an important factor in filing a
complaint of age discrimination?
12. The 1964 Civil Rights Act (Title VII) and its 1972 and 1991 a. you are at least 40
amendments cover: b. a younger person was hired to replace you
a. unintentional discrimination c. you were a good employee
b. race, color, sex, religion, national origin d. all three are important factors
c. companies with 15 or more people
d. all of these 22. The _______ is thought to be the most important piece of
employment legislation since the 1964 Civil Rights Act.
13. Unlike the Fourteenth Amendment, for an employment practice to a. Sexual Preference Fairness Act
be potentially illegal under the Civil Rights Act, the discrimination b. Equal Pay Act
does not have to: c. Americans with Disabilities Act
a. be continuous d. Vietnam-Era Veterans Readjustment Act
b. be intentional
c. effect large groups 23. Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define
d. show past discrimination disability in part as "having a record of such impairment." Which of
the following "disabilities" would qualify under this part of the
14. The Civil Rights Act has also been interpreted by the courts to definition?
cover such issues as sexual harassment, age harassment, and race a. blindness
harassment. These issues are related to the organization's: b. severe burns
a. structure c. asthma
b. hiring practices d. recovering alcoholics
c. atmosphere
d. policies 24. Though Congress did not provide a list of disabilities, it did define
disability in part as "being regarded as having such an impairment."
15. In the 1989 case of Walker v. Secretary of the Treasury, a district Which of the following "disabilities" would qualify under this part of
court found that a darker skinned black illegally fired a lighter skinned the definition?
black employee. Which of the following protected classes were at a. blindness
issue in this case? b. severe burns
a. Age c. asthma
b. Disability d. recovering alcoholics
c. Race
d. Color 25. If a disability keeps a person from performing the _______ of a job,
the person does not have to be hired or retained.
16. “English only” requirements at work are: a. marginal functions
a. always illegal b. essential functions
b. always legal c. remote functions
c. are legal if they are job related d. standard functions
d. legal if most of employees only speak English
26. Nagy Industries is considering reserving the best parking spots for
17. All employees at Wally World Amusement Park are required to employees who are 7 months pregnant. Is this legal?
work on weekends because that is when 80% of the customers visit a. No, giving preference would violate the Pregnancy Discrimination Act
the park. Alex likes to go to church on Sunday morning and asks that b. No, pregnancy can not be treated better than other short term disabilities
he not have to work on Sunday. Must the park accommodate his c. Yes, pregnancy can be treated better than other short term disabilities
request? d. Yes, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act requires companies to provide
a. Yes, religious accommodations must always be make accommodations
b. No, because going to church in the morning is a preference and he can
go in the evening 27. If a job can only be performed by a person in a particular class, the
c. No, private sector organizations are not required to accommodate days requirement is considered:
of worship a. a BFOQ
d. Yes, preferences for days and time of worship are protected b. restrictive
c. discriminatory
18. It is illegal to use an individual's religion in an employment d. to be none of these three choices
decision unless the nature of the job involves:
a. national security 28. The courts have clearly ruled that a customer's satisfaction and/or
b. religion preference ________ used to determine if a job requirement is a BFOQ.
c. the public sector a. should be
d. the private sector b. must be
c. cannot be
19. In determining if an employment decision is legal, the first question d. the courts haven't ruled on this issue
to ask is "does the employment practice directly refer to a member of
a federally protected class? Which of the following is NOT a federally 29. _______ means a particular employment decision results in
protected class? negative consequences more often for members of one protected
a. Sexual orientation group than for another.
b. Religion a. Adverse impact
c. Color b. Bad faith dealings
d. All are protected classes c. Disparate treatment

d. Bona fide occupational qualification 40. Sexual harassment results in:
a. decreased productivity
30. Which of the following can establish practical significance for b. increased absenteeism
adverse impact? c. increased turnover
a. Standard deviation test d. all of these are results
b. Four-fifths rule
c. McDonnell Douglas standards 41. Employees using FMLA must:
d. Chi-square analysis a. be given paid leave
b. have at least 5 years of tenure
31. For adverse impact to have practical significance, the minority c. give 30 days notice when possible
selection ratio must be less than ____ percent of the majority selection d. all three of these are true
ratio.
a. 50 42. Jean is the 2nd highest paid employee at Reilly, Inc. She has
b. 30 worked there 3 years and wants to take 4 weeks of unpaid leave to
c. 80 have a baby. She gave the company 45 days notice but they rejected
d. 75 her request. Under the FMLA, the company can do this because she:
a. is a key employee
32. If ____ White applicants and ____ Black applicants were hired, b. hasn't worked at the company long enough
adverse impact would occur. c. asked for too much leave
a. 35 of 50 / 12 of 20 d. did not give the required amount of notice
b. 15 of 50 / 2 of 25
c. 12 of 24 / 11 of 25 43. There are several affirmative action strategies an employer could
d. 12 of 20 / 35 of 50 use. If an employer advertised in magazines and newspapers with a
minority readership, it would be using which of the following
33. An employment practice resulting in adverse impact may still be strategies?
legal as long as: a. Identification of discriminatory practices
a. the test used was job related b. Preferential hiring and promotion of minorities
b. there was no intent to discriminate c. Recruitment of minority applicants
c. neither of the two options is true d. Recruiting through employee referrals
d. both of the options are true
44. Which of the affirmative action strategies would involve an
34. Based on the material presented in your text, which of the following employer changing the company policy or the way an organization is
is NOT an exception to the requirement of determining that an decorated?
employment practice is job related? a. Identification of discriminatory practices
a. National security b. Preferential hiring and promotion of minorities
b. Bona fide seniority system c. Recruitment of minority applicants
c. Veteran's preference rights d. Recruiting through employee referrals
d. All three of these are exceptions
45. Organizations have affirmative action plans for one of four
35. Which of the following types of harassment are NOT illegal? reasons. Which of the following is NOT one of the four reasons?
a. Age a. Labor union agreement
b. Sexual b. Desire to be a good citizen
c. Racial c. Court order
d. All three types are illegal d. Consent decree
36. A supervisor offering a promotion in exchange for sex would fall 46. With a _______, the agency agrees with a judge that it has not hired
under the ______ form of sexual harassment. or promoted enough members of a protected class and is willing to
a. BFOQ make changes.
b. quid pro quo a. labor union agreement
c. sine quo non b. desire to be a good citizen
d. hostile environnent c. court order
d. consent decree
37. In a quid pro quo case of sexual harassment, ____ sexual
advance(s) must have been made. 47. Which of the following populations is used to statistically
a. two determine discrimination?
b. no a. Area population
c. one b. Qualified work force
d. at least three c. Control group population
d. National census data
38. Asking a coworker out on a date is sexual harassment if:
a. he/she is not interested 48. AT&G does not have any female employees. Ann Smith applied for
b. the request is made several times a job as a machine operator. Though she did not obtain the minimum
c. both options must occur score of 40 on the machine operator test, AT&G plans to hire her as
d. either of the two options occurs part of their new affirmative action plan. There are 10 men who passed
the test who did not get hired. Is this legal?
39. Which of the following components of a sexual harassment policy a. No, an applicant must be qualified to be given preference based on
would be illegal? gender or race
a. All complaints must be investigated b. No, preference is never allowed
b. The punishment must be severe c. Yes, because AT&G has no women employees, they can do this
c. Complaints must be kept confidential d. Yes, because they are only changing their rules for one person, this would
d. All of three are legal and good policy be a reasonable plan

49. Research has indicated that employees hired due to affirmative Chapter 04  Employee Selection Recruiting & Interviewing
action programs are perceived by coworkers as:
a. lucky 1. _____ is the process of attracting people with the right qualifications
b. more competent to apply for the job.
c. equally competent a. Job analysis
d. less competent b. Recruitment
c. Interviewing
50. The ______ protects against unreasonable search and seizure. d. Selection
a. Fourth Amendment
b. Fifth Amendment 2. An organization has difficulty getting enough qualified applicants
c. Fourteenth Amendment from its existing employees to fill a vacant position. As a result, the
d. 1964 Civil Rights Act (Title VII) organization seeks qualified applicants from outside the organization.
This best exemplifies:
51. When rendering decisions involving the 4th Amendment, as it a. agency recruitment
applies to drug testing, courts have based their decisions on all of the b. internal recruitment
following factors except: c. external recruitment
a. reasonable suspicion of drug use d. personnel selection
b. adverse impact
c. safety and trust of the public 3. To help employ qualified veterans, ______ are required to post all
d. the opportunity to retest a specimen job openings with a state employment agency.
a. all employers
52. Allowing employees to _________ removes the right of the b. federal contractors
organization to search the lockers. c. public employers
a. place their own locks on lockers d. all private employers
b. place their name on the lockers
c. sign a waiver 4. An employee moving from Engineer I to Engineer II within a
d. organizations can never search lockers company is an example of a(n):
a. external promotion
53. A test asking questions about sexual orientation or belief in God b. illegal promotion process
might be illegal due to: c. career progression promotion
a. invasion of privacy d. competitive internal promotion
b. adverse impact
c. tort law 5. Help-wanted signs, job fairs, and direct mailings are all examples
d. low reliability of:
a. internal recruitment methods
54. The case law most pertinent to privacy issues and psychological b. external recruitment methods
testing is: c. methods used by employment agencies
a. Soroka v. Dayton Hudson d. the least expensive recruitment methods
b. Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Services
c. Griggs v. Duke Power 6. Based on the available research, which of the following recruitment
d. Harris v. Forklift Systems strategies may enhance employee moral and motivation?
a. Job analysis
b. Internal recruitment
c. External recruitment
d. Use of electronic media
7. If a company has a high rate of promoting from within, which of the

following may result?
a. High group cohesiveness
b. Diverse work force full of ideas
c. Stale work force devoid of many ideas
d. Decrease in benefits
8. About what percent of external hires in large organizations were

recruited through print media?
a. Very few (2%)
b. Many (33%)
c. About half (50%)
d. Most (65%)
9. Based on your text, newspaper advertisements typically ask the

applicant to respond in one of four ways. Which of the following is
NOT one of the four ways?
a. Contact a recruiter
b. Apply in person
c. Send resume directly to the organization
d. Send a resume to a blind box
10. When an organization does not want its phones tied up with
applicants calling, which of the following advertisement types would
it NOT use?
a. Apply in person
b. Send a resume
c. Respond by calling

d. It would use all three methods 21. Bastion Manufacturing plans to start a formal employee referral
program in which employees referring an applicant will get an
11. When applicants respond to a newspaper advertisement by calling, incentive. According to research, which of the following incentives
they should: would result in the most number of employee referrals?
a. practice their first few sentences a. A $250 savings bond
b. be prepared for a short interview b. $1,000 in cash
c. have a resume handy c. A two-day vacation
d. all three would be great advice d. The size of incentive doesn't matter
12. Which of the following will increase an applicant’s attraction to an 22. Direct mail recruiting works best for positions involving:
organization? a. low skill levels
a. Provide realistic information in the ad b. temporary work
b. Make the organization seem better than it is c. specialized skills
c. Use blind-box ads d. part-time work
d. Use several font colors in the ad
23. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of employer-based
13. In recent years, a trend in help-wanted advertising is to use: websites for recruitment?
a. colorful ads a. Applicants can apply for jobs online
b. creative, high energy ads b. Applicants can take employment tests online
c. local, rather than national newspapers c. Applicants can be immediately screened
d. short ads that contain little detail d. All three are advantages
14. Both McDonald’s and the military often use ______ to recruit new 24. A private company whose website lists job openings for thousands
employees. of organizations and resumes for thousands of applicants is called:
a. television ads a. an employer-based website
b. newspaper ads b. a job board
c. send-resume ads c. social media
d. situation-wanted ads d. a Wiki
15. Which recruitment method is based on the same principles used 25. Realistic job previews involve telling potential applicants the ____
to market products to consumers? a job with an objective of increasing _____.
a. Newspaper advertisements a. positive aspects of / applications
b. Point-of-purchase methods b. positive aspects of / referrals
c. Campus recruiters c. truth about / performance
d. Employment agencies d. truth about / tenure
16. Placing a help-wanted sign on a pizza box or a placemat is an 26. The most effective realistic job previews (RJPs) are presented in
example of: a(n) ______ format.
a. electronic media advertising a. written
b. internal recruitment b. oral
c. point-of-purchase recruitment c. multimedia
d. using social media d. presentation mode does not matter
17. To reduce the cost of campus recruiting, many large organizations 27. The most commonly used method to select employees is:
are using: a. employment interviews
a. executive search firms b. psychological tests
b. virtual job fairs c. physical tests
c. point-of-purchase methods d. letters of recommendations
d. internal recruitment only
28. Most evidence suggests that the typical unstructured interview is
18. Employment agencies charge the company or the applicant when a _______ predictor of future performance.
the applicant takes the job. The amount charged usually ranges from a. poor
_______ of the applicant's first year salary. b. moderate
a. 5% to 20% c. high
b. 10% to 30% d. perfect
c. 15% to 40%
d. 20% to 50% 29. ______ interviews involve several interviewers interviewing one
applicant at the same time.
19. Compared to employment agencies, executive search firms: a. Panel
a. are not ethical b. Serial
b. charge lower fees c. Return
c. charge higher fees d. Group
d. are more likely to charge the applicant
30. Interview questions such as, “Why should I hire you” and “What
20. One of the concessionaires in Yellowstone National Park offers its college subjects do you like best” demonstrate which negative aspect
employees a financial incentive for recommending applicants who are of unstructured interviews?
subsequently hired and remain on the job for a specific period of time. a. Lack of job relatedness
This BEST exemplifies: b. Contrast effects
a. internal recruitment c. Primacy effects
b. external recruitment d. Recency effects
c. an employee referral program
d. a situation-wanted recruitment approach 31. Which of the following factors would suggest that making a
favorable first impression is important?
a. Primacy effects

b. Contrast effects 41. “Can you work weekends” and “Can you work overtime without
c. Negative information bias notice” are examples of which type of interview question?
d. Nonverbal cues a. Disqualifier
b. Clarifier
32. Your text identifies eight factors that contribute to the poor c. Future-focused (situational) question
reliability and validity of the interview process. Which factor is related d. Past-focused question
to why there is no relationship between interview length and
outcome? 42. "Suppose that an angry customer started yelling at you in front of
a. Lack of job relatedness other customers. What would you do?" This type of interview question
b. Contrast effect is an example of a:
c. Halo effect a. disqualifier
d. Primacy effect b. clarifier
c. future-focused (situational) question
33. Your text identifies eight factors that contribute to the poor d. past-focused question
reliability and validity of the interview process. Which of the following
is NOT one of the eight factors? 43. A good example of a ______ interview question is "If a customer
a. Lack of job relatedness started yelling at you, how would you handle the situation?"
b. Contrast effect a. skill level determining
c. Halo effect b. past focused
d. Primacy effect c. future focused
d. clarifying
34. Which of the following factors would suggest emphasizing your
strengths and concealing your weaknesses in an interview? 44. Interviews that contain only past-focused interview questions are
a. Primacy effects also known as:
b. Contrast effects a. situational interviews
c. Negative information bias b. patterned behavior description interviews
d. Nonverbal cues c. unstructured interviews
d. structured interviews
35. An applicant who looks around the interviewer's office and pays
close attention to such items as pictures and plaques probably has a 45. If a group of employees brainstormed possible answers to an
good understanding of the role ________ plays in their interview interview question, they would most likely be using the ____ approach
score. to scoring a structured interview.
a. interviewee appearance a. key issues
b. negative information bias b. typical answer
c. interviewer-interviewee similarity c. criterion validity
d. lack of job relatedness d. Garcia and Perez
36. The majority of the evidence regarding physical attractiveness 46. In a structured interview, if an applicant gets a point for each part
indicates that, in general, _______ applicants have an advantage over of an answer that taps a main point, she is being scored using the ____
_______ applicants. approach.
a. more attractive / less attractive a. key issues
b. less attractive / more attractive b. typical answer
c. average looking / very attractive c. criterion validity
d. none of the above d. Garcia and Perez
37. Which of the following factors seems to have the strongest 47. Based on the information in your text, research suggests that the
relationship with scores on a traditional interview? best day of the week to schedule an interview is:
a. Primacy effects a. early in the week
b. Contrast effects b. later in the week
c. Negative information bias\ c. the middle of the week
d. Nonverbal cues d. there is not a best time
38. What is the first step in constructing a structured interview? 48. Which of the following arrival times will have the most dramatic
a. Writing questions effect on an interview score?
b. Creating a scoring key a. Arrive 15 minutes early
c. Conducting a job analysis b. Arrive 5 minutes early
d. Removing primacy effects c. Arrive right at the time of the interview
d. arrive 5 minutes late
39. Perhaps the best way to ensure that interviewers base their
decisions on relevant information is to:
a. use trained professionals 49. Cover letters should never be longer than:
b. hold them accountable for bad decisions a. 1 page
c. use the structured interview b. 1/2 page
d. interview in teams of three or more c. 2 pages
d. length doesn't matter
40. A good example of a _______ interview question is "Your resume
says that you worked for the AMFAM Club, what is that?" 50. How many paragraphs does the typical cover letter contain?
a. skill level determining a. Four
b. past focused b. Three
c. future focused c. Five
d. clarifying d. One

51. If you don't know the name of the person to whom you are sending Chapter 05  Employee Selection: References and Testing
your resume, use:
a. Dear sir 1. In psychology, it is commonly believed that the best predictor of
b. Dear madam
future performance is:
c. To whom it may concern
d. Dear human resource director a. results from a psychological test
b. present performance
52. Which of the following would NOT be good advice about writing a c. past performance
cover letter? d. asking the person if they can do the job
a. Avoid grammar errors
b. Tailor your letter to each company 2. The process of confirming the accuracy of information provided by
c. Don't beg the applicant is called a:
d. Use officious words a. reference
b. reference check
53. Which of the following is NOT a description of an effective resume? c.letter of recommendation
a. Attractive and easy to read d. trait evaluation
b. The applicant looks as good as possible
c. There are no typos 3. Because it is not uncommon for applicants to engage in resume
d. Qualifications are embellished a little fraud, references and letters of recommendation are used to:
a. confirm details on a resume
54. The resume that most takes advantage of such principles as b. check for outside interests and habits
primacy, priming, and short-term memory limits is the ______ resume. c. check for discipline problems
a. psychological d. discover new applicant information
b. chronological
c. functional 4. Which of the following is good advice in asking for a letter of
d. premordal recommendation?
a. Provide your reference with a copy of your resume
55. Which of the following is NOT an important principle used in b. Give your reference plenty of advance notice before the letter is due
writing a resume? c. Choose references who can provide information from multiple
a. Relevance perspectives
b. Unusualness d. All three are good advice
c. Primacy
d. Relativity 5. If an employer does not check an applicant's references and the
applicant molests a child after being hired, the employer could be
charged with:
a. negligent reference
b. defamation
c. tort reform
d. negligent hiring
6. Even though references are commonly used to screen and select

employees, they have not been successful in predicting future
employee success. The average uncorrected validity coefficient for
references and performance is:
a. .00
b. .18
c. .32
d. .57
7. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to reference

leniency?
a. Applicants choose their own references
b. Employers fear legal ramifications
c. Most applicants are highly skilled
d. All three contribute to leniency
8. In a reference check over the telephone, Bob says that his former
employee Ted was a real jerk and couldn't be trusted. Ted might sue
Bob for:
a. negligent hiring
b. libel
c. negligent reference
d. slander
9. A problem associated with letters of recommendation is the lack of

agreement between two people who provide references for the same
person. This lack of agreement is related to the issue of:
a. reliability
b. knowledge of the applicant
c. leniency
d. extraneous factors

10. Increasing the ______ of references seems to increase validity. 20. Which of the following is NOT a concern about using physical
a. length ability tests?
b. scoring complexity a. Job relatedness
c. structure b. Reliability
d. psychometric depth c. Passing scores
d. When the ability must be present
11. Which of the following is NOT an ethical practice in providing
references or writing letter of recommendation? 21. A job in which an employee continually lifts 25 pound boxes from
a. State the nature of your relationship with the applicant 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m. requires:
b. Provide an honest appraisal of the applicant a. trunk strength
c. Always write a positive letter of recommendation b. gross body equilibrium
d. Let the applicant see a copy of your reference before you send it c. dynamic strength
d. static strength
12. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of grade point
average for employee selection? 22. Though work samples are excellent selection tools for several
a. GPA predicts job performance reasons, the main reason for not using them is that they can be:
b. GPA predicts best in the first years after graduation a. expensive to construct
c. GPA has low adverse impact b. expensive to administer
d. All three are true c. neither are important reasons
d. both are important reasons
13. Tests that are designed to measure how much someone already
knows rather than how much someone is capable of knowing are 23. Which of the following selection methods uses multiple techniques
referred to as: and multiple observers to evaluate applicants as they perform
a. knowledge tests different job-related tasks?
b. interest inventories a. Work samples
c. personality tests b. Assessment centers
d. aptitude tests c. Psychological testing
d. job-knowledge testing
14. The major disadvantage to job knowledge tests is that even though
they do a good job of predicting performance, they often result in 24. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an assessment
_______. center?
a. high costs a. Multiple assessors
b. misdiagnosis b. Multiple assessment exercices
c. invasion of privacy issues c. Use of an interview
d. adverse impact d. At least one simulation exercise
15. Most general ability tests place the many specific aptitudes into 25. The first step in creating an assessment center is to:
one of three main dimensions. The _______ dimension includes a. conduct a job analysis
verbal, numerical, logic, and general learning aptitudes. b. find a location to hold the center
a. cognitive c. develop the necessary exercises
b. developmental d. restructure the company budget
c. perceptual
d. psychomotor 26. Which assessment center technique is designed to simulate the
types of daily information that appear on a manager's or employee's
16. The _________ is a potential breakthrough in cognitive ability tests desk?
as it has high validity and lower levels of adverse impact. a. simulation
a. Miller Revised Intelligence Scale b. work sample
b. Siena Reasoning Test c. leaderless group discussion
c. Cognitive Styles Assessment Test d. in-basket technique
d. Employee Knowledge Scale
27. Which of the following assessment center techniques allows the
17. Color discrimination, glare sensitivity, and speech recognition are applicant to demonstrate such attributes as creativity, decision
examples of ______ abilities. making, and ability to work with others?
a. cognitive a. Business games
b. developmental b. Out-basket technique
c. perceptual c. Simulations
d. psychomotor d. In-basket technique
18. Tests of ______ ability might contain measures of finger dexterity 28. The first step in the development of a biodata instrument is to:
and manual dexterity aptitudes. a. obtain information about employees
a. cognitive b. analyze group differences
b. developmental c. choose an appropriate criterion
c. perceptual d. split employees into two criterion groups
d. psychomotor
29. The traditionally used method to compare each piece of employee
19. Jobs such as police officer, fire fighter, and lifeguard, which information with criterion group membership in the biodata process is
require physical strength and stamina, often use _______tests. the:
a. physical ability a. questionnaire approach
b. mental ability b. rare response scoring
c. general aptitude c. vertical percentage method
d. job knowledge d. composite scoring

30. In constructing a biodata instrument, John asks his employees to 40. _______ are designed to tell an employer the probability that an
answer a series of questions about their background. John then applicant would steal money or merchandise.
compares these answers to the employees’ job performance. John is a. Creativity tests
using which of the following methods? b. Social desirability tests
a. rare response scoring c. Integrity tests
b. questionnaire approach d. Theft analysis inventory
c. vertical percentage method
d. composite scoring 41. ____ are legal and scores on these tests are often compared to
self-admissions of theft and the amount of goods lost by an
31. Which of the following are criticisms of biodata? organization.
a. The validity of biodata may not be stable a. Polygraph tests
b. Some biodata items may not be legal b. Pencil-paper integrity tests
c. Both are criticisms c. Voice stress analyzers
d. Neither are criticisms of biodata d. Electronic honesty tests
32. Gandy and Dye (1989) believe that proper biodata items must: 42. _______ are based on the premise that peoples' attitudes about
a. be job related theft as well as their previous theft behavior will accurately predict
b. deal with events under a person's control their future honesty.
c. have answers that are verifiable a. Personality based integrity tests
d. all three of these are item standards b. Overt integrity tests
c. Voice stress analyzer
33. The 16PF is a personality inventory whose 16 dimensions were d. Interest inventories
determined by a factor analysis. The 16PF is an example of a(n) ______
test. 43. The manager of a retail store notices that 7% of the inventory is
a. theory-based missing. She doesn’t know if the merchandise was stolen, lost, or
b. empirically-keyed based broken. This missing inventory is called ______ and is one of the
c. parapsychology-based criteria used to validate integrity tests.
d. statistically-based a. a loss leader
b. inventory obsolescence
34. Though there is some disagreement, psychologists today agree c. product pilferage
there are _______ main personality dimensions. d. shrinkage
a. two
b. three 44. Though handwriting analysts are consistent in their judgment
c. five about script features, they are not consistent in:
d. seven a. their analysis of what these features mean
b. their selection success rate
35. Which of the following is NOT one of the "Big 5" personality c. their use of handwriting analysis
dimensions? d. any of these
a. openness to experience
b. agreeableness 45. _______ testing certainly is one of the most controversial testing
c. conscientiousness methods used by personnel professionals.
d. vigor a. Personality
b. Ability
36. Tests of _______ determine if individuals have serious c. Drug
psychological problems such as depression and bipolar disorder. d. Agility
a. psychopathology
b. psychometrics 46. Which of the following is NOT true about drug testing?
c. character a. Many organizations use drug testing
d. integrity b. Illegal drug users are absent more often
c. Drug testing is not accurate
37. Because they are expensive, time-consuming to score and d. Applicants consider drug testing to be fair
administer, and lack reliability and validity, _______ tests such as the
Rorschach Ink Blot Test are seldom used by I/O psychologists. 47. In recent years, the percentage of applicants failing drug tests has:
a. objective a. remained the same
b. subjective b. increased slightly
c. projective c. greatly increased
d. multi-modal d. decreased
38. A job applicant is given a set of questions in which she is asked to 48. Most drugs can be detected for ______ after use.
rate the extent to which she is outgoing, anxious, optimistic, careful, a. 8 hours
and loyal. She is probably taking: b. 2-3 days
a. a personality inventory c. 2-3 weeks
b. an interest inventory d. 2-3 months
c. a cognitive ability test
d. an assessment center 49. When personnel professionals are concerned with adverse impact
or invasion of privacy associated with a test, they are assessing the:
39. Of the four choices below, which is the worst predictor of employee a. cost
performance? b. scoring methods
a. Biodata c. reliability
b. Cognitive ability d. potential for legal problems
c. Vocational interest
d. Assessment centers

50. Which of the following is the least useful predictor of future Chapter 06  Employee Selection: Techniques and Decisions
performance?
a. Biodata 1. _______ is the extent to which a score from a test is stable and free
b. Interest inventories from error.
c. Assessment centers a. Reliability
d. Cognitive ability tests b. Validity
c. Psychometrics
51. Which of the following is the best predictor of training proficiency? d. Stratification
a. Cognitive ability
b. Experience 2. There are three major ways to determine whether a test is reliable.
c. Education With the _______ method, several people each take the same test
d. Vocational interest twice.
a. repeat reliability
52. Which of the following has both high validity and low adverse b. test-retest reliability
impact? c. dual reliability
a. Cognitive ability tests d. alternate forms reliability
b. Integrity tests
c. Education 3. A student takes the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) as a requirement
d. Personality inventories to get into college. Her score on the test is 600. Three weeks later, she
is asked to take the identical test again. This time she scores 500. This
53. Which of the Big 5 personality dimensions is the best predictor of inconsistency in scores is an issue of:
employee performance? a. internal reliability
a. Openness b. parallel forms reliability
b. Agreeableness c. test-retest reliability
c. Conscientiousness d. form stability
d. Emotional stability
4. Test-retest reliability taps ____ stability.
54. Which of the following have the highest level of adverse impact? a. form
a. Cognitive ability and GPA b. temporal
b. Cognitive ability and integrity tests c. item
c. Integrity tests and personality inventories d. score
d. Integrity tests and GPA
5. The process of counterbalancing test-taking order is used in which
method of estimating reliability?
a. Test-retest reliability
b. Alternate-forms reliability
c. Internal reliability
d. All of the above use counterbalancing
6. When the two scores from alternate forms of a test are correlated
and found to be similar, the test is said to have ________.
a. temporal stability
b. internal consistency
c. form stability
d. version consistency
7. In general, the longer the test, the higher its _______.

a. internal validity
b. external validity
c. internal reliability
d. external reliability
8. To ask if all of the items measure the same thing, or do they measure
different constructs, is related to ________.
a. internal validity
b. test-retest reliability
c. scorer reliability
d. item homogeneity
9. When computing internal reliability, _____ is used for dichotomous

items and _____ is used for interval and ratio items.
a. coefficient alpha / K-R 20
b. coefficient alpha / Spearman-Brown
c. K-R 20 / coefficient alpha
d. Spearman-Brown / coefficient alpha
10. An industrial/organizational psychologist correlates the responses

to the even numbered items on a selection test with the responses to
the odd-numbered items from the same test. Which of the following
answers BEST describes the concern of the psychologist?
a. Parallel form reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability

d. Scorer reliability 21. The extent to which a test found valid for a job in one location is
valid for the same job in another location refers to the concept of
11. The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to adjust the _______.
correlation in which of the following reliability estimate methods? a. the cross over effect
a. Test-retest method b. temporal stability
b. Alternate form method c. validity generalization
c. Counterbalancing method d. known group validity
d. Split-half method
22. ______ is the basis for validity generalization.
12. _______ is an issue especially in projective or subjective tests in a. Face validity
which there is no one correct answer. b. Known-group validity
a. Internal validity c. Meta-analysis
b. Test-retest reliability d. Utility
c. Scorer reliability
d. Item homogeneity 23. If a small police department uses a cognitive ability test because a
meta-analysis indicated cognitive ability is the best predictor of
13. If we use the weight of an infant to predict the subsequent performance in the police academy, it is:
performance of the infant in college, the weight measure is probably: a. breaking the law
a. reliable and valid b. using the Taylor-Russell method
b. reliable but not valid c. going to see a reduction in quality
c. not reliable but valid d. using validity generalization
d. not reliable and not valid
24. _______ is based on the assumption that tests that predict a
14. The extent to which tests or test items sample what they are particular component of one job should predict performance on the
supposed to measure is related to the measure's _______ validity. same component for another job.
a. content a. Content validity
b. construct b. Validity generalization
c. criterion c. Synthetic validity
d. concurrent d. Face validity
15. The extent to which tests or test items sample the content that they 25. Construct validity is usually determined by correlating scores on
are supposed to measure refers MOST specifically to: a test with _______.
a. face validity a. performance on the job
b. content validity b. the items within the test
c. construct validity c. scores from similar tests
d. criterion validity d. correlational analysis is not used
16. In industry, _____ is used to establish the content validity of 26. A researcher correlates scores on a test (Test 1) with scores on
selection tests or test batteries. other tests (Test 2 and Test 3). The analysis demonstrates that the
a. job analysis scores on Test 1 correlate highly with scores on Test 2 but do not
b. correlational analysis correlate with scores on Test 3. This type of analysis is used to
c. job evaluation determine:
d. an experiment a. content validity
b. construct validity
17. _______ validity is a measure which refers to the extent to which a c. concurrent validity
test score is related to some measure of job performance. d. predictive validity
a. Content
b. Construct 27. If a police applicant is asked questions about her favorite hobbies
c. Criterion and religious beliefs, she may feel the test is not valid. In this case,
d. Concurrent her impression demonstrates the importance of ______ validity.
a. construct
18. With a __________ validity design, the test is administered to a b. criterion
group of employees who are already on the job. c. concurrent
a. concurrent d. face
b. predictive
c. content 28. _______ validity refers to the extent to which a test appears to be
d. face valid.
a. Content
19. With a _______ validity design, the test is administered to a group b. Criterion
of job applicants who are going to be hired. The test scores, which are c. Construct
not used in the actual hiring decision, are then compared to a future d. Face
measure of job performance.
a. concurrent 29. If test takers do not believe that items on a test measure what they
b. predictive are supposed to measure then the test probably lacks:
c. content a. face validity
d. face b. concurrent validity
c. criterion validity
20. The _______ of performance scores makes obtaining a significant d. reliability
validity coefficient more difficult with a concurrent validity design.
a. variety 30. Barnum statements are most associated with:
b. restricted range a. known-group validity
c. heterogeneous nature b. face validity
d. cost c. concurrent validity
d. construct validity

31. Setting your clock ten minutes fast will affect the _______ of the b. adverse impact
clock. c. selection bias
a. reliability d. known group validity
b. validity
c. psychometrics 41. Single-group validity and differential validity are types of:
d. speed a. adverse impact
b. predictive bias
32. Which of the following sources contain reliability and validity c. measurement bias
information on various tests? d. validation strategies
a. Radford Guide to Reliability
b. California Index 42. If a test of reading ability predicts performance of white clerks but
c. Validity Studies not African American clerks, the test has _______.
d. Mental Measurements Yearbook a. known-group validity
b. differential validity
33. Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily c. single-group validity
useful. The _______ are designed to estimate the percentage of future d. validity generalization
employees who will be successful on the job if an organization uses a
particular test. 43. Single-group validity is very rare and is usually the result of
a. Taylor-Russell tables _______.
b. Expectancy charts a. small sample sizes
c. Lawshe tables b. methodological problems
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula c. both a and b
d. none of the above
34. Which of the following pieces of information is NOT required to
use the Taylor-Russell tables? 44. If a test is valid for two groups, but more valid for one than the
a. Criterion validity coefficient other it is said to have _______.
b. Selection ratio a. known group validity
c. Base rate b. differential validity
d. Reliability c. single group validity
d. validity generalization
35. Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily
useful. The _______ were created to determine the probability that a 45. A test predicts performance for two different groups of applicants
particular applicant will be successful. (e.g., men and women); however, the test predicts the performance
a. Taylor-Russell tables significantly better for men than it does for women. This exemplifies:
b. Expectancy charts a. utility
c. Lawshe tables b. single-group validity
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula c. differential validity
d. known-group validity
36. Even though a test is both reliable and valid, it is not necessarily
useful. The _______ were/was developed to determine the amount of 46. If an HR director believes the higher that applicants score on a test,
money that an organization would save if it used a particular test to the better they will do on the job, she could take a ________ approach
select employees. to hiring decisions.
a. Taylor-Russell tables a. top-down
b. Expectancy charts b. nonlinear
c. Lawshe tables c. passing score
d. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser utility formula d. banding
37. The ______ are (is) used to determine the amount of money that an 47. Of the available approaches to making a hiring decision, the
organization would save if it used a particular test in place of the test _______ method results in the highest levels of adverse impact.
it currently uses to select employees. a. multiple hurdle
a. Brogden-Cronbach-Gleser formula b. top-down selection
b. Taylor-Russell Tables c. passing score
c. expectancy charts d. banding
d. Lawshe tables
48. San Antonio, Texas, has a system in which the names of the top
38. When the criterion validity coefficient is ____, and the selection three applicants for promotion are submitted to the Chief of Police
ratio is ____, a test will have the most utility in selecting successful who then selects one of the three to be the new Captain. This system
employees. uses:
a. large / large a. the rule of three
b. large / small b. top down selection
c. small / small c. a passing score
d. small / large d. banding
39. A test is considered to have _____ if there are race differences in 49. An HR director determines that all applicants who receive at least
test scores that are unrelated to the construct being measured. an 81 on their test will be able to perform the functions of the job. The
a. differential validity hiring decision strategy to be used in this situation is:
b. measurement bias a. multiple hurdle
c. selection bias b. top down selection
d. adverse impact c. passing score
d. banding
40. If the selection rate for any of the protected groups is less than
80% of the selection rate for either white applicants or males, the test 50. With a _______ approach, the applicant is administered one test at
is considered to have _______. a time.
a. differential validity a. multiple hurdle

b. top down selection Chapter 07  Evaluating Employee Performance
c. passing score
d. banding 1. Which of the following is true about evaluating employee
performance?
51. Which approach to employee selection would administer several
tests to employees one at a time, with the least expensive tests being a. Most performance appraisal systems are successful
administered first; would score the various tests on a pass/fail basis; b. Most organizations have specific goals for their appraisal systems
and would continue to test each applicant until he/she failed one of c. 360-degree feedback is best used for developmental purposes
the tests? d. All three are true
a. Multiple-regression approach
b. Cutoff approach
2. The statement "It's not fair to pay a bad employee the same amount
c. Multiple-cutoff approach
d. Multiple-hurdle approach of money as an excellent employee" exemplifies the need for accurate
performance appraisals in:
52. Which of the following hiring decision strategies takes into a. determining salary increases
consideration the degree of error associated with any test score? b. making promotion decisions
a. Multiple hurdle c. employee training and feedback
b. Top down selection d. training needs assessment
c. Passing score
d. Banding
3. Promoting employees until they reach their highest level of
53. To compute a band, one needs the: incompetence is called the:
a. standard error a. Anderson criteria
b. validity b. paradoxical shift
c. F ratio c. attribution error
d. mean d. Peter Principal
54. In constructing a band, how many standard errors are normally
used? 4. Which of the following is the most important use of performance
a. Three evaluation results?
b. One a. Employee compensation
c. None b. Employee promotion
d. Two c. Employee training and feedback
d. Personnel research
5. Which of the following is an area of potential use for performance

appraisals?
a. Validation of employment testing
b. Training needs assessment
c. Employee training and feedback
d. All of these
6. Which of the following ratings would not be used in a 360-degree

feedback system?
a. Supervisor ratings
b. Peer ratings
c. Self-ratings
d. All three of these would be used
7. Whereas supervisors see the _______ of an employees effort, peers

often see the _______.
a. actual behavior / end result
b. end result / actual behavior
c. physical part / mental part
d. mental part / physical part
8. _____ ratings have been successful in predicting future success of

promoted employees but/and are _____ in organizations.
a. Customer and subordinate / seldom used
b. Peer / seldom used
c. Self-appraisal / seldom used
d. self-appraisal / often used
9. When peer ratings are used, research has found that high
performers evaluate their peers _______ low performers.
a. the same as
b. more strictly than
c. more leniently than

d. none of these would be true 20. Which of the following performance appraisal dimensions focuses
on what an employee accomplishes?
10. Which of the following performance appraisal evaluators is not a. Traits
b. Behaviors
common or well regarded by managers?
c. Goals
a. Supervisor d. Cognition
b. Peer
c. Subordinate 21. The most common method of employee comparison is the _______
d. Customer method.
a. paired comparison
11. When would the use of subordinate ratings of a supervisor be least b. forced distribution
desirable? c. rank order
a. There are only 1 or 2 subordinates d. behavioral anchored rating scale
b. The ratings are anonymous
c. The ratings will not affect raises 22. If a supervisor had 10 employees, how many paired comparisons
d. The job is in the public sector would she have to make for each performance dimension?
a. 10
12. According to most research, subordinate feedback results in: b. 25
a. higher supervisor turnover c. 45
b. bad feelings among employees d. 90
c. increased supervisor performance
d. subordinates being fired 23. With the _______ method, a predetermined percentage of
employees are placed into one of five categories.
13. To get better customer feedback on employee performance, a. paired comparison
_______ are used. b. forced distribution
a. secret shoppers c. rank order
b. consultants d. behavioral anchored rating scale
c. peer ratings
d. employee comparisons 24. Which performance appraisal method assumes that employee
performance is normally distributed?
14. Self-appraisals of performance appear to be most accurate when a. Rank order
the purpose of the self-appraisal is for: b. Paired comparison
a. salary increases c. Forced distribution
b. promotions d. Forced choice rating
c. administrative purposes
d. research 25. According to your text, the greatest problem with all of the
employee comparison methods is that they do not provide information
15. Agreement in performance ratings is highest between: about _______.
a. two supervisors a. the employee's motivation
b. two peers b. how well an employee is actually doing
c. two subordinates c. work related behaviors
d. peers and subordinates d. there are no problems with this method
16. Which of the following performance appraisal approaches would 26. Which of the following methods is an employee comparison
have dimensions such as “prevent crimes from occurring” and method?
“minimize citizen complaints”? a. Rank order
a. Competency focus b. Paired-comparison
b. Goal focus c. Forced distribution
c. Task focus d. All of these methods
d. Trait focus
27. Quality of work is usually measured in terms of _______, which are
17. Which of the following performance appraisal approaches focus defined as deviations from a standard.
on employees' attributes such as their dependability, assertiveness, a. errors
and friendliness? b. relevant job behaviors
a. Competency focus c. attendance
b. Goal focus d. all of these
c. Task focus
d. Trait focus 28. If an employee was to produce a work product of a quality level
above the organization's standards, it technically would be called
18. Though commonly used, trait-focused performance appraisal _______.
instruments are not a good idea for several reasons. Which of the a. an error
following is the main reason outlined in your text? b. good worker output
a. They are hard to construct c. self initiative
b. They provide poor feedback d. none of these
c. Employees hate them
d. All of these are major problems 29. An employee's attendance can be separated into several different
criteria. According to your text, which of the following is NOT a criteria
19. According to your text, a performance appraisal instrument used to measure attendance?
focuses on many areas. Which of the following is NOT one of the areas a. Absenteeism
listed in your text? b. Resignations
a. Traits c. Tardiness
b. Competencies d. Tenure
c. Tasks
d. Cognition

30. Which of the following criteria is a subjective measure of b. recent behaviors
performance for a waitress? c. leniency
a. Number of positive comments received d. extreme behaviors
b. Average amount of money spent on a meal
c. Number of days absent from work 41. Documenting employee performance:
d. A supervisor's rating of dependability a. increases employee anxiety
b. decreases rating accuracy
31. The most common type of rating scale is the _______scale. c. reduces legal liability
a. behavioral anchored rating d. increases recency errors
b. behavioral observation
c. graphic rating 42. A type of distribution error in which a rater tends to rate every
d. forced choice rating employee at the upper end of the scale is called _______ error.
a. leniency
32. Which of the following rating scales have been most criticized b. central tendency
because of their susceptibility to rating errors such as halo and c. strictness
leniency? d. halo
a. Behavioral anchored rating scale
b. Behavioral observation scale 43. A type of distribution error in which a rater tends to rate every
c. Graphic rating scale employee in the middle of the scale is called _______.
d. Forced choice rating scale a. leniency
b. central tendency
33. What type of rating scale is depicted below? c. strictness
Job knowledge: Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent d. halo
Dependability: Poor 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Excellent
a. Behaviorally anchored rating scale 44. A _______ error occurs when a rater allows either a single attribute
b. Behavioral observation scale or an overall impression to affect their ratings.
c. Graphic rating scale a. leniency
d. Mixed standard scale b. proximity
c. strictness
34. A problem with _____ performance statements is that an employee d. halo
can do everything asked of him by an organization and still not get the
desired results due to factors outside his control. 45. Which type of rating error does not necessarily rate all employees
a. results-focused similarly?
b. trait-focused a. Strictness error
c. behavior-focused b. Leniency error
d. emotion-focused c. Central tendency error
d. Halo
35. A rating scale that uses anchors such as always, often, and seldom
is an example of which type of rating scale? 46. An employee's ratings on the dimension of initiative are highly
a. Employee comparison correlated with all of the other performance appraisal dimensions
b. Frequency (e.g., cooperation, job accomplishment, job knowledge). Which type
c. Expectations of rating error may be occurring?
d. Goal a. Central tendency error
b. Strictness error
36. Meta-analysis results indicate that objective and subjective c. Halo error
measures of performance: d. Proximity error
a. are slightly correlated (r = .39)
b. are highly correlated (r = .80) 47. If managers allow their performance ratings of one employee to
c. are not correlated (r = .02) affect their performance ratings of another employee, they have
d. can never be correlated committed a _______ error.
a. strictness
37. Which of the following is NOT true about rater training? b. contrast
a. Most organizations spend considerable time training supervisors how to c. carry over
rate performance d. proximity
b. Frame-of-reference training is an effective form of rater training
c. Training increases employee satisfaction with ratings 48. Janet is perceived by her dining room manager, Sarah, as the best
d. All three are true waitress who ever worked for her. Naturally, Janet's ratings on her
performance appraisal are all high. Tom, on the other hand, is an
38. Perhaps the best rater training program is ________. average waiter; yet, after evaluating Janet, Sarah's ratings of Tom are
a. the Cronbach method below average. This type of rating error is referred to as:
b. frame-of-reference training a. contrast error
c. BARS training b. halo error
d. no rater training program is effective c. proximity error
d. preference error
39. In performance appraisal, critical incidents are an important part
of the _____ process. 49. Bob has been a model employee all year except for the last two to
a. documentation three weeks; yet, Bob's ratings on his performance appraisal reflect
b. evaluation his performance during this last two-week to three-week period. This
c. political type of rating bias is referred to as:
d. political a. strictness error
b. contrast error
40. Documentation helps reduce the effects of all the following except c. the recency effect
______. d. infrequent observation
a. first impressions

50. Observation and cognitive processing of behavior occurs during Chapter 08  Designing and Evaluating Training Systems
the:
a. performance appraisal review 1. _______ is the systematic acquisition of skills, rules, concepts, or
b. actual performance appraisal evaluation attitudes that result in improved performance.
c. selection of the performance criteria a. Training
d. instrument development stage b. Motivation
c. Job analysis
51. The ____ affects the quality of ratings provided by raters. d. Stress management
a. amount of stress in the rater's environment
b. the feelings the rater has toward the ratee 2. On average, organizations annually spend about _____ per
c. the race of the rater and the ratee employee on training.
d. all of these are factors a. $200
b. $1,100
52. Which of the following is NOT a limitation to employment-at-will? c. $5,600
a. Public policy d. $5,600
b. Implied contracts
c. Covenants of good faith 3. Conducting a _______ analysis is the first step in developing an
d. All of these are limitations employee training system.
a. organizational
53. Progressive discipline is especially important if a ______ employee b. demographic
violates a company rule. c. task
a. senior d. needs
b. new
c. private sector 4. Your text outlines three types of needs analysis. Which of the
d. poor performing following is NOT referred to by your text as a needs analysis?
a. Organizational
54. A performance appraisal instrument would be most useful in b. Demographic
terminating an employee due to: c. Task
a. a violation of company rules d. Person
b. a layoff
c. an inability to perform 5. Which of the following types of needs analysis has the purpose of
d. employment-at-will determining factors that either facilitate or inhibit training
effectiveness?
55. If an employee is to be terminated, when is the best time to inform a. Organizational
the employee? b. Demographic
a. Monday afternoon c. Task
b. Friday morning d. Person
c. Friday afternoon
d. The day doesn't really matter 6. According to your text, if the results of the organizational analysis
indicate that a positive climate for training exists, the next step is to
conduct a ____analysis.
a. climate
b. demographic
c. task
d. person
7. A task analysis conducted as part of a training needs assessment

is made easier if:
a. a person analysis is conducted first
b. job descriptions are available
c. training has previously been conducted
d. training has previously been conducted
8. An organization decides to send cashiers who have a high

incidence of shortages on the job to a retraining program in order to
correct this problem. This practice demonstrates which type of needs
analysis?
a. Organizational analysis
b. Person analysis
c. Choice analysis
d. Job analysis
9. Which training needs assessment technique is concerned with an

individual employee's training needs?
a. Organizational analysis
b. Job analysis
c. Person analysis
d. Operations analysis
10. Using _______ are perhaps the easiest method of person analysis.
a. performance appraisal scores
b. surveys
c. interviews
d. skill and knowledge tests

11. Which of the following types of person analysis methods 20. Which of the following training methods requires trainees to
eliminates the problems of performance rating errors and is based on discuss appropriate and inappropriate employee behaviors, watch the
the premise that employees know best their own strengths and appropriate behavior being performed and role play the appropriate
weaknesses? behavior?
a. Performance appraisal scores a. Job rotation
b. Surveys b. Apprentice training
c. Skill tests c. Behavior modeling
d. Knowledge tests d. Role playing
12. The type of person analysis that yields in-depth answers about 21. An organization that provides food during training and allows the
training needs and more clearly reveals employee feelings and employees to choose the training topics, is trying to motivate
attitudes is the ________. employees to:
a. survey a. come to training
b. skill and knowledge test b. perform better in training
c. performance appraisal score c. pay attention during training
d. interview d. transfer what is learned in training to the job
13. With the critical incident methods of needs assessment, job 22. If an organization provided the same training program twice a
dimensions with ______ should be targeted for future training. week, it would make sense for the training to be conducted by:
a. many good incidents a. a consultant
b. many bad incidents b. an external trainer
c. few good incidents c. an internal trainer
d. few bad incidents d. a large training company
14. Lectures, use of videos, discussions, and question and answer 23. An advantage of holding a training session off-site is:
periods are activities which belong to which of the following training a. the location can serve as a reward
methods? b. a reduction in training expenses
a. classroom training c. that it is easier to organize the training
b. distance learning d. all of the above are advantages
c. computer-assisted instruction
d. on-the-job training 24. Waiting until the night before a test to read the chapters and review
your notes may be referred to as:
15. According to your text, _______ are a good training method for a. overlearning
teaching analysis and synthesis skills. b. massed practice
a. critical incidents c. distributed practice
b. case studies d. social learning
c. computer assisted instruction
d. programmed instruction 25. Employees who perform well in training are generally:
a. bright
16. _______ exercises allow the trainee to work with equipment and in b. motivated
an environment like that found in the actual job. c. goal oriented
a. Case study d. all of the above
b. Simulation
c. Programmed instruction 26. During a training session, breaks should be given approximately
d. Critical incident every:
a. 30 minutes
17. For two days prior to "opening," employees in a Food and b. 60 minutes
Beverage Department actually take orders, prepare food, serve meals, c. 2 hours
and compute check totals for other employees posing as tourists. d. 4 hours
These exercises allow the staff members to work in an environment
that closely resembles the actual work environment. These exercises 27. Which of the following is NOT a consideration in selecting an
are referred to as: icebreaker for a training program?
a. apprentice training a. Goal of the icebreaker
b. simulations b. Length of the training session
c. behavior modeling c. Nature of the audience
d. role playing d. All three should be considered
18. Whatever the method used, a simulation exercise can only be 28. Which of the following is most true about the use of humor during
effective if it _______. training presentations?
a. simulates actual job conditions a. It should always be used
b. produces job related behaviors b. As a trainer, don’t pick on yourself
c. is designed by a trained professional c. The humor should serve a purpose
d. has a high level of face validity d. All three are true
19. Which of the following training methods is best for learning 29. Programmed instruction is effective because it takes advantage of
interpersonal skills? several important learning principles. Which of the following is NOT
a. Role play one of the learning principles?
b. Critical incidents a. Learning is self-paced
c. Case study b. Trainees are actively involved in learning
d. Modeling c. Information is presented in small units
d. Information is presented in large units

30. Modeling is a very useful training method. Which of the following c. a role playing approach
is NOT a characteristic of someone we would model? d. none of these approaches
a. Similarity
b. Success 41. Skill-based pay is primarily a(n) _______ method.
c. Status a. goal setting
d. Personality b. incentive
c. feedback
31. For an employee to model another's behavior, employees must: d. modeling
a. pay attention
b. be able to retain the information 42. Employees who are paid for learning specialized skills are
c. be able to reproduce the behavior participants in a ____ skill plan.
d. all three of these are required a. depth
b. vertical
32. It is important to limit the number of behaviors being modeled so c. basic
the employee can: d. horizontal
a. pay attention
b. retain the information 43. Feedback works best when it is given in _____ amounts and
c. reproduce the behavior ______ feedback is provided.
d. model the behavior for others a. small / only positive
b. moderate / only negative
33. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of job rotation? c. large / positive
a. Allows for lateral transfer d. small / both positive and negative
b. Allows for greater staffing flexibility
c. Can increase job satisfaction 44. Overlearning helps increase:
d. Expands employees' levels of responsibility a. role applicability
b. job satisfaction
34. Which training method allows trainees to experience working in c. transfer of training
many or all of the jobs in an organization, allows for greater flexibility d. boredom
in replacing absent workers, and helps improve job satisfaction?
a. Role playing 45. Overlearning:
b. Behavior modeling a. increases stress in training
c. Job rotation b. decreases trainee performance
d. Apprentice training c. increases retention of material
d. increases retention of material
35. Though ______ are/is a valuable method of training, it has been
said that unions often use them to restrict entry into their trades. 46. An organization requires its managers to "get away" for a few days
a. role plays and participate in a training program designed to increase their
b. behavioral modeling effectiveness as managers. Following the training program, managers
c. job rotation often feel the training program was worthwhile; however, it is not
d. apprenticeships uncommon for these managers to return to their operations and
perform their old habits while ignoring the recently presented
36. Which training technique assigns a new employee with an principles. This scenario is related to the issue of:
experienced employee who is told to "show the kid the ropes?" a. transfer of training
a. Apprenticeship training b. massed practice
b. Job rotation c. distributed practice
c. Coaching d. feedback
d. Person analysis
47. Practicing a task even after it has been successfully learned refers
37. Though coaching has many strong points as a training method, it to:
is not without its problems. Which of the following is a problem a. transfer of training
associated with using coaching as a training method? b. massed practice
a. Coaching reduces the expert's productivity c. overlearning
b. Good workers are not always good trainers d. distributed practice
c. Neither of the two are problems
d. Both are problems 48. Which of the following will NOT contribute to effective transfer of
training?
38. To reduce the loss of productivity associated with coaching, some a. Overlearning
organizations such as Pitney-Bowes have ______. b. Feedback
a. decided not to use coaching c. Incentives
b. adopted pass-through programs d. Massed practice
c. adopted total quality management
d. adopted mentoring as a training method 49. Supervisors who set goals, provide feedback, and encourage
employees to use their training are trying to motivate employees to:
39. A training program that has experienced workers temporarily a. come to training
assigned to the training department is called a(n) _______. b. perform better in training
a. pass-through programs c. pay attention during training
b. apprenticeship programs d. transfer what is learned in training to the job
c. job enlargement programs
d. none of these is correct 50. Nagy Enterprises had a 32% increase in sales after sending its
employees to the Reilly School of Sales. However, without the use of
40. Discussing an employees' strengths and weaknesses on the job is a control group, it is difficult to determine if:
characteristic of _______ to training. a. the money was spent wisely
a. a performance appraisal approach b. the 32% increase was actually due to the training
b. a coaching approach c. the increase was due to outside factors

d. the trainees actually learned anything Chapter 09  Employee Motivation
51. Including a(n) ____ in the research design allows a researcher to 1. An internal force that drives a worker to perform well is:
look more closely at the effects of ______. a. job satisfaction
a. control group / outside factors b. ego needs
b. experimental group / outside factors c. safety needs
c. control group / training program d. motivation
d. experimental group / training program
2. _____ determines whether a person can do the job properly and
52. A Solomon Four Groups Design attempts to do all of the following ____ determines whether that person will do it properly.
except: a. Satisfaction / motivation
a. control for the effects of outside factors b. Ability / satisfaction
b. control for the effects of pretesting c. Ability / motivation
c. control for the effects related to time d. Motivation / satisfaction
d. be more practical than other designs
3. The personality dimension of _____ is the best predictor of
53. Having trainees evaluate how much they learned from and enjoyed performance whereas _____ is the best predictor of promotions.
a training program a. openness / conscientiousness
taps which of the following criteria? b. conscientiousness / extraversion
a. Employee reactions c. extraversion / agreeableness
b. Content validity d. conscientiousness / stability
c. Employee learning
d. Application of training 4. Consistency theory states that there is a relationship between work
motivation and:
54. Giving employees a 100-item test after they complete a training a. self-esteem
program is an example of which of the following training evaluation b. perceived fairness
criteria? c. expectancy
a. Content validity d. salary
b. Employee learning
c. Application of training 5. _____ self-esteem focuses on an individual's feelings in a particular
d. Employee reactions situation whereas _____ self-esteem focuses on how a person feels
about himself based on the expectations of others.
55. There is a _____ correlation between how well employees liked a a. Socially influenced / situational
training program and how much they learned. b. Situational / chronic
a. small (r = .02) c. Chronic / socially influenced
b. moderate (r = .40) d. Situational / socially influenced
c. large (r = .80)
d. almost perfect (r = .94) 6. Janice sends all of her new employees to a self-esteem workshop.
She must believe in ______.
a. consistency theory
b. equity theory
c. expectancy theory
d. social learning theory
7. An employee thinks he is an idiot and will never be able to master

the new computer system. The employee takes a training class on the
new system and fails. This situation might best
be explained by:
a. social learning theory
b. the Galatea effect
c. expectancy theory
d. equity theory
8. An employee's supervisor places full confidence in the employee

and believes that the employee
can handle a fairly difficult task. This boosts the employee's self-esteem
which in turn increases
her performance. This phenomena is known as:
a. consistency
b. the Pygmalion effect
c. the Golem effect
d. socially influenced self-esteem
9. Temea spends a lot of effort selecting her employees. Thus, when

she hires someone, she knows they will perform well and has a lot of
confidence in them. According to _______, the employees probably
will perform well.
a. equity theory
b. the Pygmalion effect
c. intrinsic motivation theory
d. goal setting theory

10. According to research by Eden (1998), training supervisors to use 20. Making goals _______ would not increase their effectiveness.
the Pygmalion Leadership Style: a. specific
a. increases employee self-esteem b. general
b. does not increase subordinate self-esteem c. high but attainable
c. has had mixed results d. concrete
d. will save an organization money
21. Fred's parents tell him to try his best in college. Fred's first
11. Bob hates his work but will work hard if the supervisor is around semester GPA is 1.8 and his parents
to punish employees who are not working. Bob is probably ______ are mad. What was wrong with the goal set for Fred?
motivation. a. It was not specific
a. high in extrinsic b. It was not general enough
b. high in intrinsic c. It was too high
c. low in both extrinsic and intrinsic d. Fred did not help set the goal
d. high in both extrinsic and intrinsic
22. Three meta-analyses indicate that allowing an employee to
12. An individual's orientation toward intrinsic and extrinsic participate in goal setting will result in:
motivation is measured by the: a. an increase in performance
a. Employee Personality Inventory b. a decrease in performance
b. Job Descriptive Index c. no effect on performance
c. Test of Motivational Style d. decreased job satisfaction
d. Work Preference Inventory
23. The supervisor at a local grocery store schedules individual
13. Sue is motivated by jobs in which she can help others, whereas monthly meetings with her four
Bob is motivated by the desire to influence others. Sue has a high employees to let them know how they are doing in their respective areas.
need for _______ and Bob has a high need for _______. The supervisor is
a. affiliation / power using a technique known as:
b. affiliation / achievement a. social learning
c. achievement / affiliation b. modeling
d. achievement / power c. feedback
d. goal setting
14. ______ is a person’s ability to select, set, and modify goals to adapt
to changing conditions. 24. Matt constantly posts charts and graphs indicating the latest
a. Need for affiliation production statistics. Matt seems to believe in:
b. Self-esteem a. providing feedback
c. Self-regulation b. the Pygmalion effect
d. Skill variety c. intrinsic motivation theory
d. goal setting theory
15. Which of the following component of job characteristics theory
involves an employee being able to connect her efforts with an 25. Feedback is most effective when it focuses on an employee’s
outcome? ______ and the supervisor explains how the behavior impacts _____ .
a. skill variety a. behavior / others
b. task significance b. personality / the employee
c. autonomy c. behavior / the employee
d. task identification d. personality / others
16. ______ theory states that individuals have five major types of 26. Operant conditioning focuses on:
hierarchical needs is: a. modeling of behavior
a. Maslw's b. self-esteem
b. McClelland's c. reinforcement of behavior
c. FIRO d. employee needs
d. ERG
27. Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the
17. In general, research on Maslow’s theory: effectiveness of an incentive program?
a. has been very supportive a. Timing of the incentive
b. has shown that there should be six level b. Contingency of the consequences
c. has shown that people skip levels c. Type of incentive used
d. indicates the theory does not make intuitive sense d. All three factors should be considered
18. Which need theory has three levels of needs and allows individuals 28. Which of the following types of rewards has been shown not to
to skip levels? increase performance?
a. Maslow's theory a. Financial
b. ERG theory b. Non-financial
c. Two-factor Theory c. Social
d. McClelland's needs theory d. All three can increase performance
19. According to two-factor theory, ____ is an example of a hygiene 29. A supervisor rewards a restaurant employee for cleaning the
factor. bathrooms by allowing the employee to stock the salad bar. ______
a. growth would predict that the opportunity to stock the salad bar would
b. control actually be reinforcing.
c. responsibility a. Gainsharing
d. pay b. The Premack principle
c. Social loafing
d. Classical conditioning

30. Managers constructing a reinforcement hierarchy for employees c. Both individual and group
are probably using: d. Neither individual nor group
a. gainsharing
b. the Premack principle 41. Employees at Roth Robotics receive a bonus at the end of each
c. social loafing year. The bonus is based on the amount of money the company made
d. classical conditioning during the year. Roth is using a _______ system.
a. pay-for-performance
31. An individual does not like to do laundry but prefers to do laundry b. merit pay
over studying for exams. Because doing laundry is liked more than c. gainsharin
studying, _______ predicts that the opportunity to do laundry will d. profit sharing
motivate a person to study.
a. equity theory 42. In 2011, Harris Optical lost $450,000 in missing merchandise. As a
b. the Anderson adage result, it developed a plan in which employees in 2012 would share
c. the Thompson tenet half of each dollar under $450,000 that was
d. the Premack principle lost. Harris Optical is using a ______ plan.
a. pay-for-performance
32. Which part of a pay plan is designed to motivate employees? b. merit pay
a. Benefits c. gainsharing
b. Base pay d. profit sharing
c. Shift and location adjustments
d. Variable pay 43. Approximately what percentage of organizations have gainsharing
plans?
33. Benefits provide ______ and variable pay provides _____. a. 3%
a. incentive / security b. 11%
b. security / security c. 41%
c. incentive / incentive d. 83%
d. security / incentive
44. Which of the following is the most complicated incentive plan?
34. Lona gives her employees attention, smiles at them, and nods her a. Merit pay
head in approval when they perform well. She is using _____ to b. Profit sharing
motivate her employees. c. Stock options
a. social recognition d. Pay for performance
b. social learning
c. equity 45. Which of the following plans is most geared toward long-term
d. valence organizational performance?
a. Merit pay
35. Employees at Denton Electronics receive $3 for each electrical b. Profit sharing
switch they assemble. Denton is using a _____ system. c. Stock options
a. pay-for-performance d. Gainsharing
b. merit pay
c. gainsharing 46. In expectancy theory, _____ is the perceived relationship between
d. profit sharing the amount of effort an employee puts in and the resulting outcome,
and ______ is the extent to which the outcome of a worker's
36. _______ plans are also called earnings-at-risk plans. performance will result in a particular consequence.
a. Pay-for-performance a. instrumentality / expectancy
b. Merit pay b. expectancy / instrumentality
c. Stock options c. instrumentality / valence
d. Profit sharing d. valence / expectancy
37. Which of the following incentive plans is most geared toward short 47. In expectancy theory, the three components are ____ to get an
term performance? overall motivation index.
a. Pay-for-performance a. added
b. Profit sharing b. divided
c. Stock options c. subtracted
d. All three are short-term oriented d. multiplied
38. Janelle will receive $1,000 if her performance appraisal score is at 48. An employer will give $3 each month to every employee with
least a 4.0. It sounds like perfect attendance. According to the _____ component of expectancy
Janelle is under a _____ plan. theory, this plan will not motivate employees.
a. pay-for-performance a. equity
b. merit pay b. expectancy
c. gainsharing c. instrumentality
d. profit sharing d. valence
39. A problem with _____ plans, is that they are based on subjective 49. The president of Peso Bank tries to motivate employees by giving
supervisor ratings. them $1,000 every time he notices them providing excellent customer
a. pay-for-performance service. The problem is that the president is never in the branch
b. merit pay offices. According to the ____ component of expectancy theory, this
c. stock option plan will not motivate employees.
d. profit sharing a. equity
b. expectancy
40. _______ incentive plans often result in social loafing. c. instrumentality
a. Individual d. valence
b. Group

50. A waiter is asked to increase his check average by "suggestively Chapter 10  Employee Satisfaction and Commitment
selling" appetizers, salads, and desserts. It has been explained to the
waiter that the larger his check average, the more he will make in tips. 1. ______ is the attitude one has toward her job and ______ is the
However, the waiter does not believe that suggestive selling will extent to which an employee identifies with and is involved with an
actually result in increased tips. In this scenario, the waiter's belief organization.
that suggestive selling is not likely to result in more tips exemplifies: a. Job satisfaction / cohesiveness
a. equity b. Job satisfaction / organizational commitment
b. expectancy c. Organizational commitment / cohesiveness
c. instrumentality d. Organizational commitment / job satisfaction
d. valence
2. Job satisfaction is most related to performance in:
51. Dave is the owner of Cohen's Sassy Designs. He takes great effort a. low complexity jobs
to make sure that his employees know that if he promises a reward, b. clerical jobs
he will always keep his word. Dave seems to believe in: c. high complexity jobs
a. consistency theory d. moderate complexity jobs
b. equity theory
c. expectancy theory 3. Job satisfaction is most related to:
d. social learning theory a. performance
b. absenteeism
52. According to _______, an employee’s motivation is related to how c. organizational commitment
fairly she believes she is being treated compared to other employees. d. tenure
a. Maslow’s theory
b. equity theory 4. Sara was out of work for 9 months before being hired by Midwest
c. consistency theory Medical Supplies. Midwest has treated Sara well, gave her a raise
d. ERG theory during a time in which the company was losing money, and sent her
to several expensive training programs to help her career. Sara has
53. If an employee feels she is underpaid for the effort she exerts, she been offered a job at a competitor that would increase her salary by
will probably: $10,000. Though accepting the new job would seem to be an easy
a. work harder decision to make, Sara feels she should remain with Midwest. Her
b. not change her effort commitment to Midwest is a good example of:
c. reduce her effort a. affective commitment
d. feel guilty b. continuance commitment
c. normative commitment
54. All of Armand's employees make the same amount of money but d. volitional commitment
he thinks they lie to each other about how much they make. To stop
this, he posts all salary information on the bulletin board. 5. According to research, an employee's job satisfaction level is
Armand seems to believe in _______. consistent:
a. consistency theory a. across time but not jobs
b. equity theory b. across jobs but not time
c. expectancy theory c. across neither time nor jobs
d. social learning theory d. across both time and jobs
55. Employees who work with highly motivated employees are likely 6. Research indicates that about ___ percent of job satisfaction is
to be _______ than employees who work with unmotivated coworkers. genetically determined.
a. less challenged a. 5
b. less satisfied b. 30
c. more resentful c. 60 percent
d. more motivated d. 90
7. Which of the following is not a component of a core self-evaluation?

a. Self-monitoring
b. Self-esteem
c. Self-efficacy
d. Locus of control
8. People prone to be satisfied with their jobs have:

a. an external locus of control
b. low self-efficacy
c. high self-esteem
d. all three of these characteristics
9. According to Judge and Watanabe (1994), job satisfaction and life

satisfaction are:
a. related for some people
b. not related
c. related for most people
d. related for everyone
10. Juan has an internal locus of control and a high self-esteem. We

would predict that he would be:
a. dissatisfied with his job and life
b. satisfied with his job but not life
c. satisfied with life but not his job
d. satisfied with both his life and job

11. Clay is very intelligent and Joshua is not very bright. On the basis 20. Two employees are performing the same job and are required to
of the meta-analysis by Griffeth, Hom, and Gaertner (2000), we would meet the same standards; however, one employee makes $2 per hour
expect Clay to be _________ with his job and Joshua to be ______ more for the job. According to which theory will the lower paid
satisfied with his job. employee be unsatisfied because he feels he is being treated unfairly
a. dissatisfied / satisfied in comparison to his coworker?
b. satisfied / dissatisfied a. McClelland's needs theory
c. satisfied / satisfied b. Equity theory
d. intelligence is not related to job satisfaction c. Expectancy theory
d. Consistency theory
12. Reuben had certain expectations about his new job and his new
company. After three months on the job, Reuben realized that the 21. An employee determines if she is being treated equitably by ____
reality of the job and the organization were different from his weighing the _____ inputs and outputs associated with herself and
expectations. Reuben is likely to be: other employees.
a. less satisfied and less committed but will stay with the organization a. consciously / actual
b. less satisfied and less committed and will probably leave the organization b. consciously/ perceived
c. satisfied but not committed and will stay with the organization c. subconsciously / perceived
d. satisfied and committed and will stay with the organization d. subconsciously / actual
13. The extent to which the rewards, salary, and benefits received by 22. With _______ employees are given more tasks to do at one time,
employees are perceived to be consistent with their efforts and whereas _____ means that an employee performs the same number of
performance is called ______ fit. tasks at one particular time and then moves on to other tasks for a
a. needs-supplies specified time.
b. person-organization a. job enlargement / job rotation
c. demands-abilities b. job rotation / job enlargement
d. needs-abilities c. job enlargement / job enrichment
d. job enrichment / job rotation
14. Which of the following types of “fit” is NOT related to increased
job satisfaction? 23. Job rotation, job enlargement, and job enrichment attempt to
a. needs-supplies satisfy needs at which level?
b. person-organization a. Self-actualization needs
c. demands-abilities b. Safety needs
d. All three result in increased job satisfaction c. Social needs
d. Ego needs
15. Social information processing theory focuses on:
a. reinforcement of behavior 24. Job ____ refers to giving an employee more tasks to do at one
b. modeling of behavior time; job _____ refers to giving an employee the same number of tasks
c. employee needs to perform at any one time but different tasks from time to time; job
d. self esteem _____ refers to giving employees more responsibility for performing
their jobs.
16. Woo-jin is normally a very satisfied employee. However, all the a. enlargement / rotation / enrichment
other employees at Surrette Manufacturing constantly complain. After b. rotation / enlargement / enrichment
a month, Woo-jin starts to complain. What theory would explain this c. enrichment / rotation / enlargement
change? d. enrichment / enlargement / rotation
a. Social learning
b. Discrepancy 25. Which theory hypothesizes that enriched jobs are the most
c. Maslow satisfying?
d. Two-factor a. ERG
b. Job characteristics model
17. According to ____ "new" employees who work with highly satisfied c. Two-factor
"old" employees are more likely to be highly satisfied themselves. d. Equity
a. individual differences theory
b. McClelland's needs theory 26. The job characteristics model focuses on:
c. consistency theory a. equity
d. social information processing theory b. consistency
c. locus of control
18. Sally is angry about a promotion decision. Though she is not sure d. job enrichment
that she was the best candidate, she feels that she never really got the
chance to demonstrate her skills. Sally's dissatisfaction is consistent 27. The Job Diagnostic Survey measures:
with research on: a. job satisfaction
a. distributive equity b. job enrichment
b. procedural consistency c. equity
c. distributive justice d. self-esteem
d. procedural justice
28. Allowing employees to make decisions about their jobs:
19. Janice is angry about a promotion decision. She is convinced that a. increases job satisfaction
she was the best candidate and can't believe she wasn't offered the b. reduces turnover
job. Janice's dissatisfaction is consistent with research on: c. decreases absenteeism
a. distributive equity d. Increased decision making does all three
b. procedural consistency
c. distributive justice 29. Carole’s organization brought in a consultant who suggested that
d. procedural justice her company increase the level of job enrichment for her position. On
the basis of research, this change should result in Carole:
a. being more satisfied
b. being less likely to leave the company

c. being less likely to miss work 40. Which of the following is the biggest reason that employees miss
d. being all three of the above work?
a. Illness
30. If you were to develop a test to determine who would be most b. Stress
satisfied with their jobs, you would probably develop a test that would c. Personal needs
identify people with a high level of: d. Family issues
a. internal locus of control
b. Type B personality 41. According to meta-analyses, which of the following is the most
c. introversion effective way to reduce absenteeism?
d. social mistrust a. Games
b. Wellness programs
31. Which of the following is most likely to be satisfied with their jobs? c. Well pay
a. Men d. Discipline
b. Older workers
c. African Americans 42. You have been asked to develop a program to reduce absenteeism
d. Women in your organization. According to a meta-analyses, ______ would be
the most effective method and _____ the least effective.
32. Which of the following is NOT a measurement for job satisfaction? a. games / wellness programs
a. JDI b. well pay / games
b. MSQ c. wellness programs / discipline
c. JIG d. discipline / well pay
d. ERG
43. Tavris Manufacturing gives its employees 10 vacation days, 3
33. Which of the following measures of job satisfaction has the most personal days, and 11 holidays, and 5 paid sick days per year.
number of factors? Edmunds Industries gives its employees 29 days of paid time off for
a. Faces Scale any reason in which the employee chooses to use them. Edmunds
b. JDI Industries is using a ______ program.
c. JIG a. wellness
d. MSQ b. flextime
c. well pay
34. An organization interested in measuring the overall satisfaction d. PTO
level of its employees rather than the employees’ satisfaction with
several job facets would probably use the _____ to measure 44. ____ of employees think their attendance record is better than their
satisfaction. coworkers.
a. Nagy Job Satisfaction Scale a. 25%
b. Job Descriptive Index b. 90%
c. Job in General Scale c. 50%
d. Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire d. 10%
35. Which job satisfaction scale asks employees to rate the 45. To help employees cope with stress and personal problems,
importance of a facet as well as their level of satisfaction with the ______ employers provide employee assistance programs (EAPs).
facet? a. very few (5%)
a. Nagy Job Satisfaction Scale b. some (36%)
b. Job Descriptive Index c. most (74%)
c. Job in General Scale d. almost all (92%)
d. Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire
46. According to the CCH Survey of Absenteeism Control Policies,
36. Approximately how many days of work does the average American ______ is the most commonly used policy but _____ is the policy rated
miss each year? by HR managers as being most effective.
a. None a. bonus program / recognition
b. 4 days b. disciplinary action / recognition
c. 10 days c. recognition / paid leave bank
d. 15 days d. disciplinary action / paid leave bank
37. Which of the following is true regarding international comparisons 47. According to the 2014 SHRM Benefits Survey, the most common
of employee absenteeism? type of wellness program offered by employers is:
a. Absenteeism rates are almost identical for all countries a. on-site vaccinations
b. The Unites States has one of the highest absenteeism rates in the world b. on-site medical care
c. Sweden has the lowest absenteeism rate of any country c. smoking cessation programs
d. There are large differences in absenteeism rates across countries d. on-site fitness centers
38. According to a meta-analysis by Griffeth and his colleagues (2000), 48. According to two meta-analyses, if an organization developed a
absenteeism and turnover are: worksite fitness program, it could expect _____ in employee
a. moderately correlated (r = .21) absenteeism.
b. highly correlated (r = .76) a. a small increase
c. not really related (r = .03) b. a large decrease
d. almost perfectly correlated (r = .95) c. a small decrease
d. no change
39. Approximately what percent of employee absenteeism is due to
illness? 49. Which of the following is true about employee absenteeism?
a. Almost none (5%) a. Most employees miss about the same number of days of work
b. Some (34%) b. There is really no effective way to reduce absenteeism
c. Most (67%) c. A relatively small number of employees are responsible for most of the
d. Almost all (96%) unavoidable absenteeism

d. All three are true Chapter 11  Organizational Communication
50. You would like to hire employees who will not miss work. Your best bet 1. Cmmunication that flows directly from one employee to her
would be to hire applicants who score high on the personality dimension of: supervisor is:
a. conscientiousness a. upward communication
b. extroversion b. downward communication
c. agreeableness c. serial communication
d. neuroticism d. horizontal communication
2. ______ communication reduces the number of people who can talk
51. Approximately ____ of employees change jobs each month. to the top executive.
a. 9% a. Downward
b. 2% b. Serial
c. 20% c. Horizontal
d. 17% d. Upward
52. The cost to replace an employee who leaves is approximately: 3. A top executive never receives negative information from her staff.
a. $1,000 This is known as _______ and is a disadvantage of _____
b. three months of pay communication.
c. 1.5 times their annual salary a. proximity effect / downward
d. $150 in recruitment costs b. MUM effect / horizontal
c. MUM effect / serial
53. Considering a good person-organization fit might reduce turnover d. proximity / serial
that is caused by:
a. unavoidable reasons 4. Which of the following statements probably refers to a problem
b. unmet expectations associated with an "open door" policy rather than serial
c. escape communication?
d. unmet needs a. Potential for excessive communication
b. Message content is often modified
54. Realistic job previews might reduce turnover that is caused by: c. Bad news is seldom relayed
a. unavoidable reasons d. The physical distance reduced accuracy
b. unmet expectations
c. escape 5. A communication method that facilitates upward communication by
d. unmet needs asking employees to rate their opinions on such things as pay or
working conditions is known as the ______.
55. Andrea conducted interviews of employees who quit their jobs a. complaint box
with her company. She found that the biggest reason employees were b. union steward
leaving is that they couldn’t handle the stress associated with c. ombudsperson
conflicts with other employees. To reduce future turnover, Andrea d. attitude survey
should develop:
a. a mediation program 6. ______ is an easily employed method which allows employees to
b. a realistic job preview communicate their opinions, complaints, suggestions, etc., to
c. a test of person-organization fit management at virtually any time.
d. more opportunities for advancement a. An attitude survey
b. A suggestion box
c. A memo
d. A liaison
7. Which of the following is NOT a method to facilitate upward

communication?
a. Complaint box
b. Bulletin board
c. Ombudsperson
d. Attitude survey
8. _______ communication flows directly from a supervisor to

employee.
a. Upward
b. Horizontal
c. Downward
d. Serial
9. A ____ contains all of the specific rules under which an organization

operates and is a method of ______ communication.
a. policy manual / downward
b. employee handbook / downward
c. policy manual / upward
d. employee handbook / upward
10. Which of the following methods of downward communication is

often lengthy and difficult to
understand?
a. Memos
b. Telephone calls
c. Policy manuals

d. Email d. Liaisons / dead‑enders
11. Babies, birthdays, and ballgame scores are commonly 21. If97% of managers hear information through the grapevine and
communicated through: then pass the information on, they are most accurately referred to as:
a. policy manuals a. isolates
b. the Internet b. dead enders
c. memos c. liaisons
d. newsletters d. rumorists
12. Internal, organization-wide electronic communication networks 22. Poorly substantiated information is known as:
are called: a. rumor
a. email b. gossip
b. the Internet c. noise
c. an intranet d. probability
d. voice mail systems
23. ______ communication is the exchange of a message across a
13. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of email? communication channel from
a. Increased documentation one person to another.
b. Timely exchange of information a. Downward
c. Increased productivity b. Interpersonal
d. Increased use of nonverbal cues c. Intrapersonal
d. Horizontal
14. Martha's desk in located in a large area that is completely open.
Her company uses a _______ to design its office. 24. A breakdown at any point in the interpersonal communication
a. freestanding process can affect the accuracy of information being communicated.
b. uniform plan What is the sequence for communicating a message from the sender
c. free-form work station plan to the receiver?
d. portable office approach a. Decode, transmit, encode, receive
b. Transmit, encode, decode, receive
15. Raul's desk is located in a cubicle next to 30 other cubicles. Raul's c. Encode, transmit, receive, decode
company uses a ______ to design its office. d. Encode, transmit, decode, receive
a. freestanding
b. uniform plan 25. What the receiver actually hears refers to ____ of the message;
c. free-form work station plan how this information is interpreted refers to ____ of the message.
d. portable office approach a. reception/encoding
b. reception/decoding
16. When one employee passes information to another, who passes c. transmission/decoding
the information to another, they d. encoding/decoding
are using what type of grapevine pattern?
a. Cluster grapevine 26. _____ is the interference that affects proper reception of a
b. Single strand message.
c. Probability a. Noise
d. Gossip b. Nonverbal cues
c. Paralanguage
17. ____ refers to an informal communication process in which one d. Error
individual in the grapevine passes on information to a select group of
people, with not everyone receiving the information. 27. Mrs. Jones raises her voice when saying certain words. She is
a. Single strand pattern using _______ to communicate.
b. Gossip a. noise
c. Rumor b. artifacts
d. Probability c. nonverbal cues
d. paralanguage
18. In the _____ grapevine, one employee passes information to only
a few people who randomly pass the information to others, whereas 28. Which of the following is NOT a nonverbal cue category?
in the ____ grapevine, those few people pass that information on to a a. Artifacts
few other selected employees. b. Use of space
a. probability / cluster c. Use of time
b. cluster / probability d. Noise
c. single strand / cluster
d. gossip / cluster 29. Which of the following is NOT an example of nonverbal
communication:
19. ______ are employees who receive most of the information a. body language
through a grapevine and, in turn, pass it on to others. b. the way in which a persons uses space
a. Liaisons c. how a person uses time
b. Isolates d. all three are example of nonverbal communication
c. Deadenders
d. Gossipers 30. Eye contact and touching are nonverbal cues known as:
a. paralanguage
20. _____ are employees who receive less than half of the information b. artifacts
through a grapevine, whereas _____ hear most of the grapevine c. proximity
information but don't pass it on. d. body language
a. Dead‑enders / isolates
b. Isolates / dead‑enders
c. Isolates / liaisons

31. People using the _____ zone are approximately 18 inches away b. queuing
from a person. c. escape
a. intimacy d. redundancy
b. public distance
c. personal distance 42. An administrative assistant who screens an executive's phone
d. social distance calls, opens his mail, and keeps rack of his appointments, exemplifies
which approach to handling communication overload?
32. Husbands and wives usually use the _____ spatial distance zone a. Omission
whereas people transacting business will use the _____ zone. b. queuing
a. public / personal c. Escape
b. intimacy / social d. use of a gatekeeper
c. intimacy / public
d. personal / social 43. Which of the following is NOT a method for handling
communication overload?
33. The tone, tempo, and volume in which one speaks is a nonverbal a. Use of a gatekeeper
cue known as: b. Omission
a. artifacts c. Use of multiple channels
b. paralanguage d. Assimilation
c. body language
d. proximity 44. Almost half of the time that managers spend communicating with
others is devoted to:
34. Ms. Brown has all of her awards and certificate she has earned on a. writing
her wall. She is using _____ to communicate her personality. b. reading
a. paralanguage c. listening
b. artifacts d. writing and reading
c. body language
d. space 45. Research indicates that we retain 25% of information presented in
meetings 48 hours after the meeting. The inability to retain this
35. Visitors to offices that use _____ perceive the offices to be more information is influenced by:
comfortable and their occupants more friendly and trustworthy. a. memory loss
a. closed desk arrangements b. how well we listen to the information
b. a uniform plan c. our listening style
c. cubicles d. all of these are influences
d. open desk arrangements
46. ______ listeners listen for the main ideas in communication
36. Information that is ____ has unimportant details removed. whereas ______ listeners listen to the way communication is spoken.
a. leveled a. Inclusive / stylistic
b. sharpened b. Leisure / stylistic
c. assimilated c. Empathic / technical
d. omitted d. Nonconforming / stylistic
37. Information that is _____ has been modified to fit an individual's 47. Ms. Smith often misses the main point of a communication
existing beliefs and knowledge. because she is interested in only the facts and main detail. She is a(an)
a. leveled _____ listener.
b. assimilated a. nonconforming
c. omitted b. empathic
d. sharpened c. technical
d. stylistic
38. A manager is experiencing communication overload to the point
that she is throwing away memos without reading them. This 48. ____ listeners attend to information that is consistent with their
approach to handling overload is: way of thinking.
a. omission a. Technical
b. error strategy b. Stylistic
c. queuing c. Nonconforming
d. escape d. Empathic
39. ______ is a conscious decision not to process certain information 49. If you made an oral presentation to your class on styles of
whereas ____ is an attempt to deal with every message received. listening, who would most likely remember the number of listening
a. Error / omission styles?
b. Omission / error a. Leisure listeners
c. Redundancy / omission b. Inclusive listeners
d. Omission / redundancy c. Stylistic listeners
d. Technical listeners
40. Dealing with communication overload by prioritizing which
information should be dealt with first refers to: 50. If you made an oral presentation to your class on listening styles,
a. omission who would most likely remember how understanding each of the six
b. escape styles can increase communicator effectiveness?
c. queuing a. Leisure listeners
d. omnibus processing b. Inclusive listeners
c. Stylistic listeners
41. When communication overload gets too extreme an employee d. Technical listeners
might begin to miss a lot of work or even resign. This method of
handling communication overload is known as: 51. Which of the following is a good listening habit?
a. omission a. Reacts to emotional words

b. Tunes out dry subjects Chapter 12  Leadership
c. Is distracted easily
d. Listens for central themes 1. Research has identified certain traits that differentiate leaders from
non-leaders (leader emergence). Which of the following traits is NOT
52. Which of the following tips is probably not conducive to effective one of these differentiating traits?
listening? a. Self-monitoring
a. Judging what the speaker is saying b. Conscientiousness
b. Making eye contact with the speaker c. Agreeableness
c. Removing distractions d. Openness
d. Letting the other person finish speaking
2. According to your text, _____ emerge as leaders most often.
53. If students don't understand the vocabulary that a professor is a. males
using, the culprit may be: b. both most often emerge
a. emotion c. high self-monitors
b. cognitive ability d. neither most often emerges
c. noise
d. bias 3. According to one study, the best way to hire a CEO is look for:
a. masculinity
54. Which of the following does not affect the way in which a received b. personality
message is interpreted? c. leadership early in the applicant's career
a. Emotional state d. all of these are the best ways
b. Cognitive ability
c. Bias 4. Julie was a leader throughout junior high and high school. She is
d. All three affect the interpretation bright and is well-adjusted. How good of a manager would we predict
she would be?
55. Which of the following is NOT important for readability? a. Good
a. Number of syllables per word b. Poor
b. Sentence length c. Average
c. Both are important d. We couldn't make a prediction
d. Neither are important
5. Meta-analyses indicate that several traits differentiate excellent
leaders from poor leaders. Intelligence is one of the traits and _______
is another.
a. cooperation
b. extraversion
c. calmness
d. masculinity
6. An interesting extension of the trait theory of leader performance

suggests that certain traits are necessary requirements for leadership
excellence but do not guarantee it. Instead, leadership excellence is a
function of:
a. specific behaviors performed as a leader
b. how well people follow your leadership
c. the right person being in the right place
d. appropriate modeling behavior training
7. People scoring _____ in self-monitoring should be effective leaders.

a. very low
b. low
c. moderately
d. high
8. Research by McClelland and Burnham (1976) and McClelland and

Boyatzis (1982) has demonstrated that high performance managers
have a "leadership motive pattern." This pattern is characterized by a
high need for ____ and a low need for ______.
a. power / affiliation
b. affiliation / power
c. achievement / power
d. power / achievement
9. A commonly used instrument to measure a person's need for power

and affiliation is the:
a. Rorschach
b. Thematic Apperception Test
c. Employee Personality Inventory
d. Wonderlic Personnel Inventory
10. The Thematic Apperception test measures needs for:

a. socialization and acceptance
b. power, affiliation, and acceptance
c. leadership
d. power, affiliation, and achievement

11. The Job Choice Exercise measures needs for: a. narcissists / high likability floaters
a. socialization and acceptance b. narcissists/paranoids‑passive aggressive
b. power, affiliation, and acceptance c. high likability floaters/narcissists
c. leadership d. paranoids-passive aggressive / narcissists
d. power, affiliation, and achievement
22. Hogan (1989) has identified three personality types that a poor
12. Examples of ______ include setting goals, making decisions, and leader might adopt. Which of the following is NOT one of the three
rewarding and punishing subordinates. personality types adopted by poor leaders?
a. task orientation a. Narcissist
b. consideration b. Paranoid/passive-aggressive
c. person orientation c. Obsessive-compulsive
d. attention d. High likability floater
13. Which of the following leadership types is not high in task 23. ______ leaders are insecure and seldom rock the boat or cause
orientation? trouble.
a. Impoverished a. Narcissistic
b. Initiating structure b. High likability floater
c. Theory X c. Obsessive-compulsive
d. Team d. Paranoid/passive-aggressive
14. Which of the following leadership styles is not high in person 24. _______ are leaders who overcome their insecurity by
orientation? overconfidence.
a. Country club a. Narcissists
b. Initiating structure b. Paranoid/passive-aggressive
c. Consideration c. Obsessive-compulsive
d. Theory Y d. High likability floater
15. Which of the following leadership styles is high in both person and 25. Which of the following theories uses the Least-Preferred Coworker
task orientation? scale to help a person understand their leadership style?
a. Team a. IMPACT theory
b. Country club b. Fiedler's contingency model
c. Theory X c. Path goal theory
d. Impoverished d. McGregor's theory X and theory Y
16. Leaders who are high in person orientation and low in task 26. A factor that is related to Fiedler's Contingency Model is the
orientation will have: favorableness of a situation. According to this theory, the
a. high performance favorableness of a situation is determined by three variables. Which
b. low turnover of the following is NOT one of these three variables?
c. high turnover a. Task structure
d. a high grievance rate b. Leader position power
c. Size of the organization
17. Leaders who are high in task orientation and low in person d. Leader-member relations
orientation will have:
a. low performance 27. High LPC leaders perform best when the situational favorability is:
b. low turnover a. low
c. a high grievance rate b. hig
d. a low grievance rate c. moderate
d. ambiguous
18. Leaders who are high in both task and person orientations will
have: 28. What is the name of Fiedler's training program?
a. high performance a. Fiedler's training program
b. low turnover b. Contingency training
c. a low grievance rate c. Leader Match
d. all of three of these results d. Lead or follow
19. Hogan (1989) has identified characteristics associated with poor 29. According to your text, _______ is probably the only training
leadership. According to your text, which of the following program in the country concentrating on changing the situation rather
characteristics is NOT associated with poor leadership? than the leader.
a. Cognitive deficiencies a. Lead Now!
b. Personality b. Leader Match
c. Lack of training c. contingency training
d. All three of these are associated d. Lead or Follow!
20. According to Hogan (1989) poor leaders are unable to learn from 30. According to _______, leaders are one of six behavioral types and
experience and are unable to think strategically. Which characteristic each type is only effective in a particular situation.
is this a description for? a. IMPACT theory
a. Cognitive deficiencies b. Fiedler's contingency model
b. Personality c. path goal theory
c. Lack of training d. McGregor's theory X and theory Y
d. None of these is the right description
31. A leader with a ____ style of leadership would function best in a
21. Insecure leaders who are outwardly charming but resent climate of ignorance.
successful people are known as _____ whereas leaders who a. information
overcome their insecurity by being overconfident are known as _____. b. magnetic

c. position 42. A leader who shows concern for employees has a ______ style of
d. affiliation leadership, whereas one who lets employees participate in decision
making uses a _____ style.
32. According to the IMPACT theory of leadership, which of the a. instrumental/supportive
following behavioral styles works best in a situation of despair? b. affiliation/supportive
a. Informational c. achievement oriented
b. Magnetic d. supportive/participative
c. Affiliation
d. Position 43. Under Situational Leadership Theory, a leader uses one of these
four behavioral styles:
33. Leaders with ____ styles lead through energy whereas a leader a. coercing/delegating/supporting/coaching
with affiliation style leads through _____. b. delegating/directing/supporting/coaching
a. tactical / strategy c. directing/rewarding/affiliation/coaching
b. position/powe d. delegating/directing/supporting/structuring
c. magnetic / liking
d. strategy/coercion 44. According to Situational Leadership Theory, the most effective
leader behavior to use on staff who are unable and unwilling to do a
34. A leader with a _______ style leads through the use of strategy and job is:
is most effective in a situation of disorganization. a. directing
a. tactical b. delegatin
b. coercive c. supporting
c. magnetic d. coaching
d. affiliation
45. A new manager is assigned staff who are unsure about a task but
35. Under IMPACT Theory, a leader can become effective by: are willing to do it. She should use a ______ approach.
a. changing her style to meet the situation a. supporting
b. finding a climate consistent with her style b. delegating
c. using strategy and affiliation c. directing
d. both a and b d. coaching
36. A manager orders her staff to do a task. She is leading through 46. A team of staff who are knowledgeable about a task but are not
_____ style which is effective in climates of _______. sure they want to do the task should be led by a ______ approach.
a. coercive/instability a. directing
b. tactical/disorganization b. coaching
c. position/instability c. supporting
d. magnetic/despair d. delegating
37. Based on the Path Goal theory, House (1971) believes that a 47. ______ Theory states that leaders develop different roles and act
leader's behavior will be accepted by subordinates only to the extent differently with different subordinates.
to which the behavior: a. Leader-Member Exchange
a. is forced upon the followers b. Path/Goal
b. will increase overall productivity c. IMPACT
c. helps subordinates achieve their goals d. Fiedler's Contingency
d. none of these are important factors
48. The Vroom-Yetton Model of Leadership focuses on_______.
38. According to House's path goal theory, a leader can adopt one of a. leader behavior
____ behavioral leadership styles to handle each situation. b. leader characteristics
a. two c. leader decision making
b. four d. leader performance
c. six
d. eight 49. French and Raven (1959) propose five types of power that a leader
can use. Which of the following types of power is inherent in the
39. Which of the four behavioral leadership styles proposed by House position a person holds?
calls for planning, organizing, and controlling the activities of a. Expert
employees? b. Referent
a. Instrumental c. Reward
b. Supportive d. Legitimate
c. Participative
d. Achievement-oriented 50. Managers whose power comes from their knowledge have ____
power whereas leaders who obtain power because of their position
40. According to Path-Goal Theory, a manager who sets challenging have ______ power.
goals and rewards increases in performance has a(n) _____ style of a. expert/coercive
leadership. b. referent/legitimate
a. instrumental c. legitimate/expert
b. supportiv d. expert/legitimate
c. participative
d. achievement-oriented 51. According to French and Raven, power for leaders may lie in the
positive feelings that others hold for them. Which of the following is
41. A leader who uses an achievement-oriented style: the term used for this type of power?
a. shares information with employees a. Expert
b. shows concern for employees b. Referent
c. sets goals and rewards performance c. Legitimate
d. controls rewards and punishment d. Reward

52. _____ leadership focuses on task-oriented behaviors whereas Chapter 13  Group Behavior, Teams, and Conflict
_____ leadership focuses on long-term goals.
a. Transformational / transactional 1. Which of the following is NOT a criteria for being a group?
b. Transactional / LMX a. Multiple members
c. LMX / transformational b. Common goals
d. Transactional / transformational c. Group rewards
53. Visionary charismatic managers are often known as ____ leaders. d. Identification
a. consultative
b. expert 2. When something affects one member of the group, it affects all
c. transactional members. This is known as ______ and is a criterion for being
d. transformational considered a group.
a. affiliation
54. Sam Walton’s strong emphasis on customer service at Walmart b. corresponding effects
demonstrates the importance of ____ in being a great leader. c. identification
a. vision d. group status
b. differentiation
c. values 3. A hotel room attendant does not show up to clean his rooms on a
d. flaws given day. Due to his absence, the other room attendants are assigned
additional rooms to clean. This scenario BEST exemplifies which
55. In _______, leaders reflect on their own ethics, core beliefs, and criteria of group membership?
values. a. Multiple members
a. IMPACT theory b. Group membership is rewarding
b. ethics-based leadership c. Corresponding effects
c. authentic leadership d. Common goals
d. situational leadership
4. Employees on the 7th floor go to lunch together and employees on
56. According to Project GLOBE, cultures can differ on _____, the the 2nd floor play together in a city basketball league. These examples
extent to which individuals express pride in their organizations and demonstrate the importance of ____ in forming groups.
families. a. emotional support
a. in-group collectivism b. physical proximity
b. humane orientatio c. common interests
c. social collectivism d. assignment
d. power distance
5. People who join a group to be with other people have ______ needs.
a. identification
b. support
c. affiliation
d. physical proximity
6. POWs who were isolated from other prisoners had a lower need to
live than POWs housed with older soldiers. This negative emotional
reaction demonstrates the need for:
a. power
b. common interests
c. affiliation
d. control
7. People probably join a group such as a fraternity or sorority

because of:
a. needs for emotional support
b. common interests
c. common goals
d. need for assistance or help
8. ______ refers to the extent to which group members like and trust
one another.
a. Group cohesiveness
b. Group homogeneity
c. Stability of membership
d. Group status
9. ______ refers to the extent to which group members are similar.

a. Group cohesiveness
b. Group homogeneity
c. Stability of membership
d. Group ststatus
10. According to your text, if you are interested in improving group

performance, what should the group's composition be in terms of the
homogeneity of its members?
a. Homogeneous
b. Heterogeneous
c. Slightly heterogeneous
d. Homogeneity doesn't matter

11. The East Barbarians softball team in the Great White North Softball 20. Social inhibition involves the ___ effects of the presence of others
League has continually improved its record over the nine years it has on individual behavior whereas social facilitation involves the ___
been in the league. Most recently, the East Barbarians, with the same effects of the presence of others.
team members as in the previous eight years, won the league a. negative / positive
championship for the first time. In this scenario, winning the b. positive / negativ
championship probably BEST exemplifies the effects of: c. positive / neutral
a. the group's homogeneity d. negative / coordinating
b. the stability of group membership
c. group status 21. A group of managers is watching a group of workers on an
d. group communication structure assembly line. The effect the managers will have on the performance
of the workers is known as:
12. In Yellowstone National Park, a small group of employees runs a a. coaction
fast food operation which is physically removed from all of the larger b. audience effects
lodges in town. These employees comment that they feel separated c. social inhibition
from the company's other operations; however, each summer this d. outside pressure
group tends to be a tight-knit group. This exemplifies:
a. group homogeneity 22. When two or more people perform the same task in the presence
b. stability of group membership of one another, the effect on the behavior is known as:
c. group isolation a. coaction
d. outside group pressure b. audience effect
c. social inhibition
13. A group comprised of 12 members will be _____ cohesive and have d. social apprehension
____ morale than one comprised of five members.
a. more / higher 23. Which of the following is NOT associated with social inhibition or
b. less / higher facilitation?
c. more / lower a. Mere presence
d. less / lower b. Comparison
c. Evaluation apprehension
14. Social impact theory is related to: d. Status
a. group size
b. group status 24. Anita is typing and starts to make mistakes when she notices that
c. communication structure the person sitting next to her is typing much faster and making fewer
d. group roles mistakes. Anita’s increase in mistakes is probably due to:
a. comparison
15. Increasing the perception that a group is difficult to obtain b. evaluation apprehension
membership in helps to increase: c. mere presence
a. group status d. none of the three are viable explanations
b. group isolation
c. group communication structure 25. Bill is an excellent typist, Fred is average, and John is just learning
d. group homogeneity to type. If an audience started to watch them type, we would expect
____ to do better and ____ to do worse.
16. Julie provides information to Temea who provides information to a. Bill / John
Juan who provides information to Julie. This is an example of which b. John / Fred
type of communication network? c. Fred / Bil
a. Circle d. Fred / John
b. Chain
c. Centralized 26. A member of a small task force has decreased the amount of his
d. Open individual effort on the group's task. He is exhibiting:
a. social apprehension
17. Which of the following group roles encourages group b. social facilitation
cohesiveness and group participation? c. social loafing
a. Task-oriented d. individual dominance
b. Social
c. Individual 27. Mary notices that none of the other members of her group are
d. Conjunctive working hard so she decides to lower her effort. Her behavior support
the _____ theory of social loafing.
18. A group member who coordinates the group's activities and finds a. free-rider
new information is ____ oriented whereas one who's main role is b. individual dominance
encouraging and supporting others is ____ oriented. c. distraction
a. social / task d. sucker-effect
b. task / social
c. individual / maintenance 28. Lilly is working on a group project with three other students. The
d. individual / task project is going great so Lilly decides to reduce her effort. The theory
that best explains her social loafing is:
19. A group member consistently avoids group interaction and block's a. free-rider
the group's activities. He would be considered: b. individual dominance
a. task-oriented c. distraction
b. structure-oriented d. sucker-effect
c. individual-oriented
d. maintenance-oriented 29. Which of the following is true about the effect of individual
dominance in a group.
a. Group performance will almost always decrease due to individual
dominance
b. Group performance will increase if the dominating person is competent

c. A dominating person really has relatively little effect on the group’s c. Parallel
performance d. Homogeneous
d. Group performance will increase only if the leader is high in compassion
40. During the _____ stage of team development, team members often
30. A situation in which a group becomes so cohesive and like-minded become frustrated with their roles.
that it makes poor decisions by ignoring information relevant to the a. storming
decision-making process is: b. norming
a. individual dominance c. forming
b. social loafing d. performing
c. groupthink
d. the devil's advocate approach 41. Many teams are formed to solve problems but are not given
sufficient authority to conduct their business. This is a problem
31. Not having the group leader state his/her own position in the involving:
decision making process, and having the group leader promote open a. the norming stage
discussion and encourage group members to speak are ways to b. lack of empowerment
reduce the effects of: c. the definition of a team
a. social loafing d. lack of skill
b. social inhibition
c. evaluation apprehension 42. Individuals from one part of the organization often rely on
d. groupthink individuals from other departments in the company in order to meet
common goals. Conflicts which arise between various groups is
32. When a group becomes too cohesive and insulated from outside probably caused by:
help, _____ is likely to occur: a. competition for resources
a. social loafing b. task interdependence
b. social facilitation c. jurisdictional ambiguity
c. groupthink d. communication barriers
d. group conflict
43. Which source of conflict results when geographical boundaries or
33. Which of the following should a leader NOT do to reduce lines of authority are unclear?
groupthink? a. Competition of resources
a. Promote open discussion b. Task interdependence
b. Elicit outside information c. Jurisdictional ambiguity
c. Appoint someone as a devil's advocate d. Communication barriers
d. Apply pressure on members to conform
44. The barriers to interpersonal communication that can cause
34. Assigning a task to a group instead of an individual is best under conflict are:
what circumstances? a. physical/cultural/psychological
a. When the task involves taking chances b. status/psychological/cultural
b. When the task quality is most important c. gender/status/cultural
c. Under neither circumstance d. jurisdictional/resource/physical
d. Under both circumstances
45. Your text lists several sources of conflict. Which one is NOT listed
35. A manager wants to increase the quality of his employee's as a source of conflict?
decisions. He should have: a. Competition for resources
a. some of them work in groups b. Power
b. them work individually c. Jurisdictional ambiguity
c. them work in groups d. Personality
d. none of these three answers will matter
46. A difficult worker obsessed with completing a task quickly is
36. Which of the following is true about brainstorming? classified as a _____, whereas one who dominates conversations and
a. Interacting groups are best at creating ideas does not listen to other's ideas is a _____.
b. Nominal groups are best at creating idea a. tank / know-it-all
c. Interacting and nominal groups are equally creative b. know-it-all / tank
d. Groups will be less creative than a single individual due to social loafing c. tank / sniper
d. sniper / know it all
37. Which of the following is NOT a factor that determines whether a
collection of employees is 47. Some people have a high need for attention. The _____ yells a lot
a team rather than a "group" or a "committee?" for attention and the _____ gets attention by poking fun at others.
a. Interdependence a. tank / sniper
b. Equal power among members b. grenade / friendly sniper
c. Increased social distance c. grenade / think-they-know-it-all
d. Use of collaboration to manage conflict d. tank / think-they-know-it-all
38. Which of the following characteristics suggests that a collection 48. A person who ignores conflict and hopes it will go away is using
of five employees is a team rather than a "group" or a "committee?" a(n) _______ style.
a. Independence a. forcing
b. 2 of the 5 members have 80% of the power b. accommodating
c. The members use casual language c. avoiding
d. Use of forcing to manage conflict d. collaborative
39. ______ teams consist of representatives from various departments 49. A person who manages conflict by ignoring it is using a(n) _____
within an organization. style whereas someone who always gives in to others and risks
a. Self-directed work hurting himself uses a(n) ____ style for handling conflict.
b. Customer-service a. accommodating / avoiding

b. avoiding / collaborative Chapter 14  Organization Development
c. avoiding / accommodating
d.avoiding / compromising 1. A manager who asks such questions as "Why are we doing this?"
and "How and when did we
50. People who use a(n) _______ conflict managing style, handle start doing this?" is:
conflict in a win-lose manner and do what it takes to win with no regard a. a whiner
for other people. b. ready to downsize the organization
a. forcing c. about to reorganize a work unit
b. accommodating d. conducting a sacred cow hunt
c. avoiding
d. collaborative 2. Bill is required to complete five forms for every request he makes.
Bill is upset because he considers theses forms to be examples of a:
51. A _____ conflict style handles conflict in a win-lose fashion a. meeting cow
whereas a _____ style adopts give and take tactics. b. Holstein cow
a. collaborative / forcing c. speed cow
b. forcing / collaborative d. paper cow
c. collaborative / compromising
d. forcing / compromising 3. Every memo that Cheryl receives indicates that an immediate
response is required. Cheryl thinks these timelines are unnecessary
52. Although it can take a lot of time and effort, the best style for are nothing more than a:
handling conflict is: a. meeting cow
a. collaborative b. paper cow
b. compromising c. speed cow
c. forcing d. Holstein cow
d. interpersonal
4. Organizational change can be encouraged by all of the following
53. In negotiation, a BATNA will affect a person’s: except:
a. least acceptable result a. conduct a sacred cow hunt
b. maximum supportable position b. play by everyone else’s rules
c. negotiation style c. think like a beginner
d. attempts at individual dominance d. ask stupid questions
54. A conflict resolution strategy that involves a neutral third party 5. When organizations undergo change, the first stage employees go
who helps both sides reach a mutually agreeable solution is known through is called:
as: a. discarding
a. arbitration b. defense
b. mediation c. denial
c. compromising d. internalization
d. cooperative problem solving
6. In a change made ________, employees will most likely accept the
55. A conflict resolution strategy in which a neutral third party listens change.
to all parties involved in a conflict and then makes a decision is called: a. because everyone else is doing it
a. mediation b. by a respected leader
b. cooperative problem solving c. without telling the reason for the change
c. arbitration d. by a leader with a self-interest in the change
d. compromising
7. Which of the following would most likely say If it ain't broke, break
it?
a. Change analyst
b. Change agent
c. Receptive changer
d. Change resister
8. Which of the following would most likely say If it's broke, I'll help fix
it?
a. Change analyst
b. Change agent
c. Receptive changer
d. Change resister
9. According to Denton (1996), what is the first step in implementing

change?
a. Communicating details
b. Creating an atmosphere for change
c. Determining a time frame for change
d. Assessing training needs
10. To create a good atmosphere for change, it is important for an

organization to create:
a. dissatisfaction with the current system
b. a sense of the "good old days"
c. a way to hide the change from doubters
d. none of the three is a good idea

11. An organization undergoing change should try to get the change c. Advisory
completed no later than: d. Absolute
a. a few weeks
b. several months 22. A manager asks an employee to study an issue and report back
c. two years with recommendations on how the issue can be resolved. In this
d. five years example, the employee is at the _____ level of input and control.
a. ownership of own product
12. After organizational change has occurred, what is the first step in b. following
assessing the new culture? c. advisory
a. Determining executive direction d. absolute
b. Training
c. Evaluation 23. If an empowered employee makes a wrong decision, a manager
d. Needs assessment should:
a. train the employee
13. Which of the following is NOT a step in changing organizational b. place the employee on a lower input level
culture? c. ignore the problem
a. Socializing new employees d. keep track of any future problems
b. Creating dissatisfaction with the old culture
c. Avoiding rituals 24. To reduce misunderstandings about levels of control, _______
d. Hiring people compatible with the new culture should be used.
a. the Vroom-Yetton model
14. Which of the following is good advice for handling organizational b. the two-factor theory
change? c. empowerment charts
a. Slow-down and don't make mistakes d. memos and e-mail
b. Take the initiative and don't be afraid
c. Don't spend too much energy 25. At what level of input and control should a new employee be
d. All three of these are good advice placed?
a. Following
15. According to Sherriton and Stern (1997), what is the fifth and final b. Ownership of own product
step in assessing the new culture following organizational change? c. Advisory
a. Needs assessment d. Participative
b. Determining executive direction
c. Training 26. Raja has been working for Shahidi Enterprises for five years. She
d. Evaluation of the new culture works by herself in a building, sorting mail. She is allowed two 20-
minutes breaks each day and can take them whenever she wants. In
16. Which of the following can be used to help make decisions? an empowerment chart, at what level would she be at regarding her
a. Vroom-Yetton Model authority to make decisions about when these two breaks should
b. Two-factor Theory occur?
c. Sacred Cow Guide a. Following
d. Organizational Consequence Model b. Advisory
c. Participative
17. A manager is about to make a decision regarding work schedules. d. Absolute
He has been with the company for 20 years and has all of the
information needed to make the decision. Though work schedules are 27. In general, empowering employees ______ job satisfaction and
a touchy issue, the manager is well thought of by his employees. How _______ stress.
should he make the decision? a. increases / decreases
a. Make the decision himself b. decreases / decreases
b. Ask for employee input and then decide c. decreases / increases
c. Have his employees make the decision d. the effects depend on the employee
d. Give the employees options and let them vote
28. Which of the following is true about employees' desire for
18. Leaders can make decisions without consulting others unless: empowerment?
a. their subordinates trust them a. All employees want empowerment
b. the leader is knowledgeable b. Very few employees want to be empowered
c. the problem is unstructured c. Most employees want empowerment
d. the decision quality in unimportant d. Some want empowerment and some don't
19. Which of the following is NOT a decision making strategy 29. During flextime working hours, ___ refer(s) to the total number of
associated with the Vroom-Yetton model? potential hours available for work each day?
a. Autocratic I a. bandwidth
b. Consultative III b. core hours
c. Autocratic II c. flexible hours
d. Group I d. flexitour hours
20. What is the lowest level of employee input and control? 30. A local grocery store has identified hours that everyone must work.
a. ownership of own product These hours are known as:
b. advisory a. bandwidth
c. following b. core
d. absolute c. gliding
d. gliding
21. Which of the following levels of employee input and control is the
first to remove a "redundant system?"
a. Ownership of own product
b. Following

31. _____ are(is) the number of potential hours available for work, c. Unions strongly approve of home work
whereas ____ consist(s) of hours during which an organization is d. It is difficult to enforce safety and fair treatment standards
busiest.
a. core/bandwidth 42. Which of the following is true about the relationship between
b. bandwidth/core economics and downsizing? Prior to downsizing:
c. lex/gliding a. most organizations were losing money
d. bandwidth/flexitour b. most organizations were profitable
c. employees complained about low wages
32. The most flexible work schedule is: d. most organizations lost big contracts
a. gliding time
b. modified flexitour 43. Which of the following is NOT an alternative to layoffs?
c. job sharing a. Use of temporary employees
d. core time b. Outsourcing
c. Both are alternatives
33. Research indicates that flexible working schedules are associated d. Neither is an alternative
with each of the following criteria except:
a. higher levels of fatigue 44. A company gets a huge, one-time order. It needs an additional 40
b. less absenteeism employees to complete the job but will not need them once the job is
c. higher job satisfaction done. The best strategy is for the company to:
d. slight increases in productivity a. not accept the new job
b. use temporary employees
34. An example of a compressed work week involves: c. hire and then layoff 40 employees
a. working 4 days a week, 10 hours a day d. bring former employees out of retirement
b. working 5 days a week, 8 hours a day
c. working staggered hours 45. Henri is the president of a company with 10 employees. Each
d. sharing the hours with another employee employee has full medical benefits and Henri doesn't have the time or
knowledge to administer the benefits program. His best bet would be
35. Research on compressed work weeks indicates that compressed to:
schedules are associated with: a. use outsouing
a. a moderate reduction in absenteeism b. learn the needed skills
b. small increases in productivity c. hire a temporary employee each month
c. large increases in job satisfaction d. adjust his working schedule
d. all of these
46. A problem with offering early retirement is that:
36. According to research, employees who work 12-hour shifts are a. it is too expensive
_____ than those working 8‑hour shifts. b. few employees agree to retire early
a. more fatigued c. too many employees want to retire
b. absent more often d. it is often illegal
c. more likely to leave the organization
d. less productive 47. Which of the following methods of avoiding downsizing is based
on the premise that most economic recessions last less than a year?
37. With ______, an employee works on an irregular or as-needed a. Job sharing
basis. b .Restricted overtime
a. casual work c. Reduced employee pay
b. flextime d. Use of payless holidays
c. peak-time pay
d. job sharing 48. An employee who ______ might be vulnerable to being downsized.
a. has kept up with technology
38. Bob works from 9:00 a.m. to 1:00 p.m. every day as a clerk; Sue b. has excellent performance ratings
works in that same position except from 1:00 p.m. ‑5:00 p.m. They are c. has a lot of idle time
working an alternative work schedule called: d. all three are signs of risk
a. flex time
b. gliding time 49. When a layoff is announced, employees should be told:
c. job sharing a. in a formal, written announcement
d. peak‑time pay b. in person
c. on the last day they will be working
39. Which of the following is the main difference between job sharing d. all three are good practices
and part-time employees?
a. Transportation ease 50. When employees receive word of downsizing, the first stage they
b. Safety go through is:
c. Organizational costs a. anger
d. Employee commitment b. denial
c. fear
40. An employee sews garments for her company at home. Once a d. acceptance
week she brings in the finished goods and gets paid. Her work
situation would be called: 51. Having support groups in which downsized employees can vent
a. telecommuting would be most useful during which of the following stages?
b. telework a. Anger
c. work at home b. Denial
d. mobile working c. Fear
d. Acceptance
41. Which of the following is a disadvantage of working from home?
a. Lower commuting costs for employees 52. Which of the following services is NOT needed by layoff victims?
b. Lower utility costs for employers a. Emotional counseling

b. Financial counseling Chapter 15  Stress Management: Dealing with the Demands of Life
c. Career assessment and Work
d. All three are needed
1. The psychological and physical reaction to certain events or
53. Which of the following would NOT be discussed during financial situations is called:
counseling? a. strain
a. Severance pay b. stress
b. Transferable skills c. stressors
c. Unemployment insurance d. eustress
d. All three would be discussed
2. The physical and psychological consequences to stress are called:
54. Which of the following is NOT true about the effects of layoffs? a. distress
a. Survivors have problems b. strains
b. Victims have problems c. stressors
c. The local community suffers d. eustress
d. All three are true
3. Stress that is converted to positive energy is called:
55. Survivors of layoffs: a. distress
a. tend to quickly leave the company b. strain
b. are more apt to take risks c. stressors
c. have lower role ambiguity d. eustress
d. lose self-confidence
4. Which of the following would be least likely to react negatively to
56. Most companies that downsize: stressors?
a. reduce expenses a. Type A personalities
b. have fewer disability claims b. Neurotics
c. have increased productivity c. Type B personalities
d. do not increase their financial success d. All three would react negatively
5. Type B personalities:
a. are likely to react negatively to stress
b. are opposite personalities
c. never feel stressed
d. never feel stressed
6. A person who is competitive and impatient might be called a(n):

a. optimist
b. pessimist
c. Type A personality
d. Type B personality
7. Which of the following is true about gender and race differences in

stress?
a. Men and minorities are most stressed
b. Minorities are more stressed than nonminorities
c. Men are more stressed than women
d. There are no sex or race differences in stress
8. Role _____ is when our work expectations and what we think we

should be doing don't match the work we actually have to perform
a. conflict
b. ambiguity
c. overload
d. synchronization
9. Darnell was hired as a cook's assistant but all he has been doing for
the past five months is clean tables and take out the trash. Darnell's
stress level can probably be explained by:
a. a lack of person-organization fit
b. role ambiguity
c. role conflict
d. role overload
10. Role _____ is when an individual's job duties and performance

expectations are not clearly defined.
a. conflict
b. ambiguity
c. overload
d. synchronization
11. ______ help reduce the potential for stress that comes from role
conflict and role ambiguity.
a. Job descriptions
b. Venting emotions

c. Counselors b. humidity/air temperature
d. Performance appraisals c. air temperature/humidity
d. air flow/humidity
12. Role ____ develops when employees feel they lack the skill or
workplace resources to complete a task. 22. High effective temperatures adversely affect performance on:
a. conflict a. cognitive tasks
b. ambiguity b. physical tasks
c. overload c. perceptual tasks
d. synchronization d. cognitive, physical, and perceptual tasks
13. Bob has been frustrated with his job for the last three months. He 23. Some people claim to be “night people” and others claim to be
was given two new assignments to complete in addition to his regular “morning people.” This is an issue most related to:
duties. To make matters worse, his computer is too slow to handle the a. circadian rhythms
programs he needs to run. Bob's stress level can probably be b. shift rotation
explained by: c. flexible work schedules
a. a lack of person-organization fit d. fixed shifts
b. role ambiguity
c. role conflict 24. An employee who works only the morning shift each day has what
d. role overload kind of shift schedule?
a. Rotating
14. A non-smoker may not feel comfortable working for a tobacco b. Fixed
company because of: c. Flexible
a. a lack of person-organization fit d. Gliding
b. role ambiguity
c. role synchronization 25. Compared to employees with only one job, moonlighting
d. role overload employees:
a. are more tired
15. People who like to make decisions and take charge run into b. have more accidents
problems when they are hired by an organization that is team oriented. c. perform worse
This trouble is probably the result of: d. are no different in terms of performance
a. a lack of person-organization fit
b. role ambiguity 26. Rating a potential source of frustration on a scale of 1 to 10 is an
c. role synchronization example of:
d. role overload a. perspective taking
b. residual stress
16. Mary always asks her boss if she needs help and is willing to stay c. forecasting
late. Beth talks negatively about her coworkers and keeps important d. rampant diffusion
information from them. Which of the following is true?
a. Neither Mary nor Beth is playing politics 27. Wasting time and energy worrying about the future and asking
b. Beth and Mary are both playing politics "What if?" are good examples of:
c. Mary is playing negative politics a. perspective taking
d. Beth and Mary are both playing negative politics b. residual stress
c. forecasting
17. ______ noise has less of an effect on employee behavior than do d. rampant diffusion
many other aspects of noise.
a. Intense 28. Larry is a junior at Raynes College and has trouble sleeping. He
b. Intermittent keeps worrying about not getting a job when he graduates and never
c. Constant finding the right person to marry. Larry's stress might be the result of:
d. Loud a. perspective taking
b. residual stress
18. Which of the following aspects of noise would most reduce c. rampant diffusion
employee performance? d. forecasting
a. Noise that is high pitched
b. Noise that has a low frequency 29. Mary refuses to let go of her anger for her previous employer. She
c. Noise that is pleasant is now feeling a lot of stress on her current job. This might be an
d. Noise that is necessary example of:
a. perspective taking
19. Continued exposure to high levels of noise is associated with: b. residual stress
a. hearing loss and high blood pressure c. forecasting
b. increased levels of employee aggressiveness d. rampant diffusion
c. increased incidents of worker illness
d. all of these 30. Which of the following is NOT a personal consequence of stress?
a. Loss of hair
20. The human body cools down two different ways. These are b. Sore muscles
through: c. Headaches
a. radiation and effective temperature d. All of these are consequences
b. radiation and evaporation
c. evaporation and circadian rhythm 31. People under stress do all of the following except:
d. none of these a. increase productivity
b. abuse alcohol
21. When ___ is high we are unable to cool ourselves down through c. miss work
radiation. When ___ is high, we are unable to cool ourselves down d. become more cynical
through evaporation.
a. humidity/air flow

32. When employees feel stressed and take a "mental health day," b. 80% (most)
they: c. 1% (very few)
a. have a short-term decrease in stress d. 50% (half)
b. have a long-term decrease in stress
c. have no decrease in stress 43. Of the following, the most common way that employers try to
d. actually have an increase in stress reduce employee stress related to child care is to:
a. provide an on-site child care center
33. Counseling programs designed to help employees reduce stress b. provide an off-site child care center
are called: c. subsidize the cost of child care
a. PRAs d. allow the employee to bring the child to work in an emergency
b. EAPs
c. CPAs 44. Which of the following is true about voucher systems for child
d. ERSs care?
a. Most employers have voucher systems
34. Clarence has been under a great deal of stress at work. His wife b. They probably don’t reduce employee absenteeism
told him that they should watch some sitcoms on TV. Her advice is c. Neither a nor b is true
sound because laughter can: d. Both a and b are true
a. put a new perspective on a situation
b. reduce blood pressure 45. Which of the following is true about most child care centers?
c. help distance you from a stressor a. They are inexpensive to maintain
d. laughter does all of these b. Most employers provide them
c. They don’t accept sick children
35. Maria is under a great deal of stress. What vitamin supplement d. They are mandated by FMLA
would we recommend for her?
a. Vitamin B 46. Which of the following interventions are designed to ease the
b. Vitamin A stress associated with child care?
c. Vitamin E a. Referral services
d. Vitamin C b. On-site child care centers
c. Flextime
36. Fred smokes about half a pack of cigarettes a day. Although he d. All three are designed to reduce stress
takes Vitamin B supplements, during the day, he is tired, irritable, and
has trouble concentrating. What might be the culprit? 47. Because many employees provide elder care, _____ organizations
a. A lack of sleep provide a company-sponsored elder care referral service.
b. Problems with his diet a. some (11%)
c. A lack of a support group b. many (48%)
d. Too much smoking c. most (65%)
d. almost all (93%)
37. Which of the following is NOT a proactive way to reduce stress?
a. Exercise 48. Some organizations try to ease the daily-chore burden on their
b. Healthy diet employees by providing:
c. Smoking a. child-care referral services
d. Laughter b. wellness centers
c. concierge services
38. Which of the following can help reduce stress? d. rotating shifts
a. Self-empowerment
b. Working a rotating shift 49. Which of the following is true?
c. Moonlighting a. Employers in the U.S. are required to provide vacation time
d. Increased role ambiguity b. Most employees keep in touch with work while on vacation
c. Employees in France and Sweden get two weeks of vacation per year
39. Shota closes his eyes and engages in several minutes of slow, d. All of the above are true
rhythmic breathing. He is trying to reduce stress through:
a. abdominal breathing 50. Most incidents of workplace violence are the result of:
b. progressive muscle relaxation a. another crime being committed
c. meditation b. violence against law enforcement personnel
d. time management c. jilted lovers
d. angry employees who were fired
40. Which of the following relaxation techniques is designed to relax
the body? 51. Most of the people who commit workplace violence are:
a. Abdominal breathing a. criminally insane
b. Progressive muscle relaxation b. jilted ex-lovers
c. Meditation c. criminals committing other crimes
d. Time management d. employees angry at their supervisors
41. Liam makes "to do" lists and carefully plans his schedule. He is 52. Which of the following does not fit the profile of the typical
trying to reduce stress through: perpetrator of workplace violence?
a. abdominal breathing a. Male
b. progressive muscle relaxation b. Age 21
c. meditation c. Self-esteem is tied to their job
d. time management d. Are fascinated by, and have access to guns
42. Because 40% of employees in the labor force have a child under
the age of 18, approximately _____ of organizations have an on-site
child care center.
a. 30% (many)

53. Andrew is a 21-year old white male. He is an excellent employee
who doesn't seem to have much of a life outside of his work. His only
hobby is hunting and gun collecting. Which is the only part of this
profile that is not consistent with the typical perpetrator of workplace
violence?
a. His gender
b. His fascination with guns
c. His self-esteem tied to his job
d. His age
54. Berserkers typically:

a. give no warning
b. use shotguns
c. give indications about future violence
d. take hostages
55. According to Mohandie (2014), if an employee threatens another

employee with violence, the employee should be:
a. given a warning
b. sent home without pay for a day
c. forced to seek counseling
d. fired

ANSWER KEY 31-40 ADCCC ADCCD 21-30 ACABD BDCDD 11-20 DAABA BCDDA
41-50 ACCBB ADDAA 31-40 DBDCD CDBAA 21-30 DCBAB CCCBA
CHAPTER 1 51-55 DDDAD 41-50 BADCC ACDDB 31-40 ABCAD CCBAD
1-10 BAADB CCDBA 51-55 ADABA 41-50 CDBAD CACDD
11-20 BDAAD BBDDD CHAPTER 5 51-56 BDDCCA
21-30 CBADC DCADD 1-10 CBADD BCDAC CHAPTER 9
31-40 ABDCB ADACA 11-20 CCADA BCDAB 1-10 DCBAD ABBBB CHAPTER 13
41-50 BADDD AAABA 21-30 CDBCA DAACB 11-20 ADACD ACBDB 1-10 DBCBC CBABC
51-60 BDABB CBADD 31-40 CDDCD ACACC 21-30 ACCAA CDDBB 11-20 BCDAA BBBCA
61-64 CACB 41-50 BBDAC CDBDB 31-40 DDDAA AABBB 21-30 BADAA CDABC
51-54 ABCA 41-50 DCBCC BDDCC 31-40 DCDDC BCCCA
CHAPTER 2 51-55 CBCBD 41-50 BBCAB ABCCA
1-10 BDABB CCDDB CHAPTER 6 51-55 DAABC
11-20 DADBD AACCA 1-10 ABCBB CCDCB CHAPTER 10
21-30 BDCDC ADABA 11-20 DCBAB ACABB 1-10 DCBAD ABBBB CHAPTER 14
31-40 AACDA DBCDB 21-30 CCDCC BDDAB 11-20 ADACD ACBDB 1-10 DDCBC BBCBA
41-50 CABBA DABBC 31-40 BDADC DABBB 21-30 ACCAA CDDBB 11-20 CBCBD AACBC
51-55 ACDDC 41-50 BCCBC ABACA 31-40 DDDAA AABBB 21-30 ACACA DDDAB
51-54 DDAD 41-50 DCBCC BDDCC 31-40 BAAAD AACDC
CHAPTER 3 51-55 CBCBD 41-50 DBCBA ACCBB
1-10 ACDAB DBCBD CHAPTER 7 51-56 ADBDDD
11-20 ADBCD CBBAB 1-10 CADCD DBBBD CHAPTER 11
21-30 DCDBB CACAB 11-20 ACADA BDBDC 1-10 ABCAD BBCAC CHAPTER 15
31-40 CBADD BCCBD 21-30 CCBCB DAABD 11-20 DCDAB BBAAB 1-10 ABDCD CBACB
41-50 CACAA DBADA 31-40 CCCAB AABAC 21-30 CABCB ADDDD 11-20 ACDAA BCADC
51-54 BAAA 41-50 CABDD CBACB 31-40 ABBBD ABABC 21-30 CDABD ACDBD
51-55 DDACA 41-50 CDDCD ACCDB 31-40 AABDA DCACB
CHAPTER 4 51-55 DABDC 41-50 DCDBC DACBA
1-10 BCBCB BCAAC CHAPTER 8 51-55 CBDCD
11-20 DABAB CBBCC 1-10 ABDBA CBBCA CHAPTER 12
21-30 DCDBD CAAAA 11-20 BDBAB BBAAC 1-10 CCCAB CDABD

Iop Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Iop Test Bank

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Iop Test Bank

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Industrial and Organizational Psychology

Chapter 01  Introduction to I/O Psychology c. 1970s

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 1

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 2

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 3

4. Promoting people until they reach their highest level of

5. Shahidi Industries has a policy of promoting employees who

7. Which of the following practical uses of job analysis may discover

9. Which of the following is not true of job titles?

10. Which of the following sections in a thorough job description can

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 4

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 5

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 6

5. The EEOC usually handles alleged violations of:

6. In order for a case of discrimination to be investigated by the EEOC,

7. According to the Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act, an employee filing a

8. When the courts make a decision, the decision becomes:

9. _______ is a judicial interpretation of a law and is important because

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 7

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 8

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 9

7. If a company has a high rate of promoting from within, which of the

8. About what percent of external hires in large organizations were

9. Based on your text, newspaper advertisements typically ask the

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 10

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 11

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 12

6. Even though references are commonly used to screen and select

7. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to reference

9. A problem associated with letters of recommendation is the lack of

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 13

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 14

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 15

7. In general, the longer the test, the higher its _______.

9. When computing internal reliability, _____ is used for dichotomous

10. An industrial/organizational psychologist correlates the responses

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 16

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 17

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 18

5. Which of the following is an area of potential use for performance

6. Which of the following ratings would not be used in a 360-degree

7. Whereas supervisors see the _______ of an employees effort, peers

8. _____ ratings have been successful in predicting future success of

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 19

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 20

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 21

7. A task analysis conducted as part of a training needs assessment

8. An organization decides to send cashiers who have a high

9. Which training needs assessment technique is concerned with an

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 22

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 23

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 24

7. An employee thinks he is an idiot and will never be able to master

8. An employee's supervisor places full confidence in the employee

9. Temea spends a lot of effort selecting her employees. Thus, when

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 25

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 26

@akosigengarrr @studying_skye @xxandengggxx 27