Histo Answer File

1.
HISTOLOGIC TECHNIQUE
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
1-1. Histologic fixation of tissues is the process that:
a. causes irreversible coagulation of proteins and ceases vital activity of tissues and organs
b. enhances metabolism
c. causes hypometabolism
d. does not have any influence on vital activity of tissue
e. induces proliferation of cells
1-2. Purpose of histologic staining is:
a. to increase density of tissues
b. to decrease density of tissues
c. to increase contrast of structures
d. to decrease contrast of structures
e. to preserve tissue for a long time
1-3. Basic stains are bound with:
a. acid compounds of the histologic structures
b. basic compounds of the histologic structures
c. mineral substances
d. neutral fat
e. glycogen of cytoplasm
1-4. Acid stains are bound with:
a. acid compounds of histologic structures
b. basic compounds of histologic structures
c. mineral substances
d. neutral fat
e. glycogen of cytoplasm
1-5. Impregnation is due to the ability of histologic structures for:
a. being stained with acid dyes
b. being stained with basic dyes
c. reacting with periodic acid (PAS)
d. reducing salts of heavy metals
e. being stainable with Sudan-III
1-6. Histologic sections are embedded in balsam or in any other synthetic medium with the
following purpose:
a. to increase density of tissue
b. to decrease density of tissue
c. to increase contrast of tissue
d. to decrease contrast of tissue
e. to preserve histologic specimen for a long time
1-7. If it is necessary to investigate fat inclusions in cells. Which fixator and stain is useful
for that investigation:
a. formalin and Sudan III
b. alcohol and pyronin G
c. alcohol and Feulgen stain
d. formalin and periodic acid Schiff reaction
e. alcohol and toluidine blue
1-8. If it is necessary to investigate cellular structures sized less than 0,2 micrometers.
Which methods are useful for that investigation:
a. phase-contrast
1
b. luminescent
c. ultraviolet
d. electron
e. densitometry
SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS: The second type of tests includes several
questions or statements that are designated with numbers. There is also a list of lettered answers.
It is necessary to select correct answer to each question. Some answers may be selected more
than once, and the others may not be selected at all.
SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:
SELECTION OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE PICTURES OR

DESIGNATIONS IN THE PICTURES: tests of the third type includes questions to which it is
necessary to select correct answers in accordance with the offered diagram. Structures of the
diagram are designated with Russian letters: A, Б, В, Г, Д, Е. Answers are designated with Latin
letters: a, b, c, d, e. It is necessary to select one correct answer.
The ordinal number … of the stages of making histologic specimens …

1-9. The first -a a. fixation of tissues
1-10. The second -c b. staining the sections
1-11. The third -d c. compaction of tissues
1-12. The fourth b d. production of sections
1-13. The fifth e e. embedding of sections in balsam
Methods of microscopy … are used for the investigation of …

1-14. Comparative b a. poorly-contrast transparent histologic specimens
1-15. Phase-contrast a b. two objects in one visual field
1-16. Fluorescence -d c. selective absorption of short-wave rays by
1-17. Ultraviolet -c biologic tissues
1-18. Electron -e d. fluorescence of histologic structures
e. ultrastructure of the cell
Structures of histologic specimen … that are (the following colour) stainable with
hematoxylin-eosin …
1-19. Heterochromatin d a. green
1-20. Euchromatin e b. yellow
1-21. Nucleolus d c. pink
1-22. Cytoplasm c d. blue-and-violet
1-23. Collagen fibres c e. are not stainable
1. Correct answers on the subject «Histologic technique»
1-1 a 18- d 1-15 a 1-22 c

1-2 c 1-9 a 1-16 d 1-23 c
1-3 a 1-10 c 1-17 c
1-4 b 1-11 d 1-18 e
1-5 d 1-12 b 1-19 d
1-6 e 1-13 e 1-20 e
1-7 a 1-14 b 1-21 d
2
2. CYTOLOGY
2-1. Which of the following structures represents syncytium:
a. epithelium of thymic lobules
b. reticular tissue of the red bone marrow
c. reticular tissue of the peripheral hemopoietic organs
d. spermatogenic epithelium
e. enamel pulp
2-2. Cellular structure that consists of lipid bilayer, integral, semiintegral and membranous
proteins:
a. plasmalemma
b. microtubule
c. ribosome
d. cell centre
e. axoneme
2-3. Specialized junctional structure (cell contact) at which the two plasma membranes are
in actual contact:
a. unspecialized contact
b. tight junction
c. gap junction
d. desmosome
e. chemogenic synapse
2-4. Cell contact that allows the free passage of some substances from one cell to the other:
a. desmosome
b. tight junction
c. gap junction
d. adhesive belt
e. unspecialized contact
2-5. The structure that is able to transmit nerve impulse:
a. desmosome
b. hemidesmosome
c. synapse
d. tight junction
e. gap junction
2-6. Gap junction is characterized by the fact that:
a. plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the space between plasma membranes is about twenty nanometers
c. between plasma membranes there is an electron-dense zone
d. the space between plasma membranes is about three nanometers
e. the cell contact is able to transmit nerve impulse (activation or inhibition) from one cell to
the other
2-7. Contact between epithelial cell and basal membrane:
a. unspecialized
b. tight junction
c. desmosome
d. hemidesmosome
e. gap junction
3
2-8. Glycocalix of the cellular plasma membrane represents:
a. thick lipid layer
b. ribonucleoprotein layer
c. glycoprotein and glycolipid complexes associated with plasmalemma
d. layer of glycosaminoglycans
e. microfilaments and microtubules
2-9. What molecules (substances) and ions can enter cells because of passive transport:
a. water
b. glucose
c. amino acid
d. sodium
e. calcium
2-10. Unspecialized cell junction is characterized by the fact that:
a. the two plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the two plasma membranes are separated by a gap of 20 nanometers
c. the two plasma membranes are separated by an electron-dense zone
d. the two plasma membranes are separated by space of 3 nanometers
e. it is able to transmit activation and inhibition from one cell to the other
2-11. Desmosomes are characterized by the fact that:
a. the two plasma membranes are in actual contact
b. the two plasma membranes are separated by a gap of twenty nanometers
c. the two plasma membranes are separated by electron-dense zone
d. the two plasma membranes are separated by space of three nanometers
e. they are able to transmit activation and inhibition from one cell to the other
2-12. Which of the following structures is a membranous organelle:
a. cilium
b. microtubule
c. ribosome
d. centriole
e. endoplasmic reticulum
2-13. Which of the following structures is a membranous organelle:
a. ribosome
b. microtubule
c. lysosome
d. centriole
e. microfilament
2-14. Membranous organelle containing hydrolytic enzymes:
a. granular endoplasmic reticulum
b. Golgi complex
c. lysosomes
d. mitochondria
e. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
2-15. Which of the following structures are membranous organelles:
a. microtubules
b. microfilaments
c. ribosomes
d. polysomes
e. Golgi complex
2-16. Which of the following structures are membranous organelles:
a. centrioles
b. microtubules
c. microfilaments
4
d. ribosomes
e. mitochondria
2-17. Synthesis of proteins of the cell membrane takes place in:
a. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
b. granular endoplasmic reticulum
c. peroxisomes
d. lysosomes
e. centrioles
2-18. Cytoplasmic basophilia is due to the presence of the following organelles:
a. Golgi complex
c. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondria
e. lysosomes
2-19. Which of the following structures takes part in the breakdown of biogenic
macromolecules:
a. centrioles
b. ribosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. endoplasmic reticulum
e. lysosomes
2-20. Primary lysosomes are formed in:
a. microtubules
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. microfibrils
e. peroxisomes
2-21. Organelles that perform the function of accumulation, segregation, transport,
modification and discharge of secretory product from the cell:
a. microtubules
b. microfilaments
c. ribosomes
d. polysomes
e. dictyosomes of the Golgi complex
2-22. Cell organelle that consists of five to ten flattened cisternae and a large number of
vesicles:
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-23. Cell organelle that is bounded by a smooth outer membrane within which there is an
inner membrane; the inner membrane is highly folded on itself forming incomplete
partitions called cristae; the space bounded by the inner membrane is filled by a granular
material called matrix:
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-24. Synthesis of adenosinetriphosphate takes place in:
a. centrioles
5
b. microtubules
c. microfilaments
d. ribosomes
e. mitochondria
2-25. Organelles that change activity of the oxidation-reduction enzymes, and of the
processes of active ion transport in the cell:
a. lysosomes
b. peroxisomes
c. mitochondria
d. Golgi complex
e. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
2-26. Cell organelle 0,2-0,4 micrometer in size, that represents membrane bounded vesicle
containing hydrolases:
c. mitochondrion
d. Golgi complex
e. lysosome
2-27. Damaged organelles are destroyed within a cell by:
a. lysosomes
b. peroxisomes
c. microtubules
d. microfilaments
e. centrioles
2-28. Enzymes of the primary lysosomes are synthesized in:
b. Golgi complex
c. granular endoplasmic reticulum
d. mitochondria
e. free ribosomes and polysomes
2-29. Marker enzyme of peroxisomes:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. acid phosphatase
c. catalase
d. alkaline phosphatase
e. myeloperoxidase
2-30. Marker enzyme of lysosomes:
a. succinate dehydrogenase
b. acid phosphatase
c. catalase
d. cytochrome oxidase
e. lactate dehydrogenase
2-31. Marker enzyme of mitochondria:
a. catalase
b. acid phosphatase
c. alkaline phosphatase
d. succinate dehydrogenase
e. hyaluronidase
2-32. Protein synthesis for “export” takes place in:
a. nucleolus
b. mitochondria
6
d. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
e. lysosomes
2-33. In which cell organelles are the secretory granules formed:
a. lysosomes
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. microtubules
2-34. Non-membranous cell organelle:
a. mitochondrion
b. peroxisome
c. microtubule
d. lysosome
2-35. Non-membranous cell organelle:
a. Golgi complex
b. centriole
c. peroxisome
d. lysosome
2-36. Non-membranous cell organelles:
a. Golgi complex
b. microfilaments
c. peroxisomes
d. lysosomes
2-37. Ribosomes play an essential role in:
a. protein synthesis
b. glycogen synthesis
c. phagocytosis
d. glycosaminoglycan synthesis
e. transport of substances
2-38. Cell organelle that represents elementary apparatus of the protein synthesis:
a. ribosome
b. lysosome
c. peroxisome
d. mitochondrion
e. microtubule
2-39. Basophilic organelles of young cells:
a. lysosomes
b. mitochondria
c. ribosomes
d. peroxisomes
e. Golgi comples
2-40. Organelle of the cytoskeleton is:
a. mitrochondrion
b. cell centre
c. lysosome
d. Golgi complex
e. microtubule
2-41. Pigment inclusion of the cell is:
7
a. melanin
b. neutral fat
c. glycogen
d. yolk
e. zymogenic granule
2-42. What types of inclusions do the drops of neutral fat belong to:
a. secretory
b. excretory
c. pigment
d. trophic
e. foreign phagocytized particles
2-43. What type of cytoplasmic inclusion of erythrocytes does hemoglobin represent:
a. `trophic
b. secretory
c. excretory
d. endogenous pigment
e. exogenous pigment
2-44. What type of inclusions do zymogenic granules represent:
a. secretory
b. trophic
c. excretory
d. endogenous pigment
e. exogenous pigment
2-45. Which of the following substances belong to the trophic cytoplasmic inclusions:
a. bilirubin
b. hemosiderin
c. glycogen
d. lipofuscin
e. melanin
2-46. Structural component of nucleus that is the site where ribosomal RNA is synthesized:
a. nuclear membrane
b. nucleolus
c. nucleoplasm
d. euchromatin
e. heterochromatin
2-47. At what phase of mitosis do nucleoli disappear:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-48. At what phase of mitosis does nuclear membrane disappear:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-49. The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with the membranes of:
a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. lysosomes
c. peroxisomes
d. mitochondria
8
e. Golgi complex
2-50. Nuclei made up mainly of heterochromatin are referred to as closed-face nuclei; that
fact is due to:
a. insult to cells
b. beginning of mitosis
c. lack of transcriptional activity
d. high transcriptional activity
e. polyploidy of the cells
2-51. Large nuclei in which considerable areas of euchromatin can be seen are referred to
as open-face nuclei; that fact is due to:
a. insult to cells
b. beginning of mitosis
c. lack of transcriptional activity
d. high transcriptional activity
e. polyploidy of the cell
2-52. At what stage of the cell cycle is the DNA content of the chromosome duplicated, and
do centrioles divide:
a. mitosis
b. rest
c. presynthetic
d. synthetic
e. postsynthetic
2-53. What stage of the cell cycle is characterized by active RNA synthesis, tubulin
synthesis, adenosine tiposphate synthesis, and maturation of the daughter centrioles:
a. mitosis
b. rest
c. presynthetic
d. synthetic
e. premitotic
2-54. The most of somatic cells of the organism are at the stage:
a. G0
b. G1
c. S
d. G2
e. M
2-55. Apoptosis is:
a. programmed cell death
b. cell death under the influence of damaging factors
c. uncontrolled cell division
d. destruction of the intracellular structures as a result of hydrolase elaboration by lysosomes
e. lysis of the nucleus
2-56. At which stage of mitosis do the chromosomes move until they have separated into
two groups near the poles of the сell:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-57. At which stage of mitosis the two centrioles separate and move to the opposite poles of
the cell:
a. interphase
b. prophase
9
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-58. Which is the final phase of mitosis:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. telophase
d. metaphase
e. anaphase
2-59. At which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up across the centre, or equator, of the
cell:
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. early telophase
e. late telophase
2-60. Which stage of mitosis is followed by cytokinesis:
a. interphase
b. prophase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
2-61. At which stage of mitosis do sister chromatids separate:
a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. early telophase
e. late telophase
2-62. As a result of mitotic division, the two somatic cells were formed. What chromosome
number do they contain:
a. aneuploid
b. haploid
c. diploid
d. tetraploid
e. octoploid
Cells organelles … participate in …

2-63. Granular endoplasmic a. breakdown of the phagocyted particles
reticulum -c b. lipid synthesis
2-64. Golgi complex -d c. protein synthesis
2-65. Lysosomes -a d. transport of material out of the cell
2-66. Microtubules e e. formation of endocellular skeleton
2-67. Microfibrils e
Intracellular synthesis of … takes place in:

2-68. Proteins -b a. Golgi complex
2-69. Adenosine triphosphate -c b. ribosomes
2-70. Ribosomal RNA -d c. mitochondria
2-71. Polysaccharides a d. nucleoli
2-72. Lipids e e. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
10
Period of the cell cycle … is characterized by …
2-73. Mitosis -e a. synthesis of RNA, ATP, tubulins
2-74. Rest d b. reduplication of DNA
2-75. Presynthetic in interphase c c. synthesis of the enzymes that are necessary for the
2-76. Synthetic in interphase b formation of RNA precursors
2-77. Premitotic in interphase a d. temporary or definitive loss of the ability for
division
e. division of the initial cell into two
2. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of «Cytology»
2-1 d 2-24 e 2-47 b 2-70 d

2-2 a 2-25 c 2-48 b 2-71 a
2-3 b 2-26 e 2-49 a 2-72 e
2-4 c 2-27 a 2-50 c 2-73 e
2-5 c 2-28 c 2-51 d 2-74 d
2-6 d 2-29 c 2-52 d 2-75 c
2-7 d 2-30 b 2-53 e 2-76 b
2-8 c 2-31 d 2-54 a 2-77 a
2-9 a 2-32 c 2-55 a
2-10 b 2-33 c 2-56 d
2-11 c 2-34 c 2-57 b
2-12 e 2-35 b 2-58 c
2-13 c 2-36 b 2-59 b
2-14 c 2-37 a 2-60 e
2-15 e 2-38 a 2-61 c
2-16 e 2-39 c 2-62 c
2-17 b 2-40 e 2-63 c
2-18 b 2-41 a 2-64 d
2-19 e 2-42 d 2-65 a
2-20 c 2-43 d 2-66 e
2-21 e 2-44 a 2-67 e
2-22 d 2-45 c 2-68 b
2-23 c 2-46 b 2-69 c
3. EMBRYOLOGY
3-1. Spherical sex cell one hundred and thirty micrometers in diameter, covered by pellucid
zone and radiate crown; it contains haploid number of chromosomes:
a. ovogonium
b. primary oocyte
c. secondary oocyte
d. mature ovum
e. first polar body
3-2. Human oocyte in accordance with the arrangement of its cytoplasmic yolk inclusions
is:
11
a. centrolecithal
b. markedly telolecithal
c. moderately telolecithal
d. isolecithal
e. alecithal
3-3. The cytoplasm of the oocyte does not contain:
a. mitochondria
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. ribosomes
d. Golgi complex
e. cell centre
3-4. Cortical granules of the oocyte:
a. make for distance interaction of the ovum and spermatozoon
b. make for contact interaction of the ovum and spermatozoon
c. facilitate the penetration of sopermatozoon into oocyte
d. take part in the formation of fertilization membrane
e. make for the process of union of pronuclei
3-5. Common feature of spermatozoon and oocyte is:
a. shape
b. size
c. mobility
d. presence ot yolk
e. haploid chromosome number
3-6. Sex cell that consists of a head (containing haploid nucleus), midpiece and tail:
a. spermatogonium
b. spermatid
c. primary spermatocyte
d. spermatozoon
e. secondary spermatocyte
3-7. Chromosome number in the nucleus of spermatozoon:
a. aneuploid
b. haploid
c. diploid
d. tetraploid
e. octoploid
3-8. Structures of spermatozoon that contain microtubules:
a. acrosome
b. nucleus
c. terminal part of tail
d. axoneme
e. plasma membrane
3-9. Nucleus of the spermatozoon is situated in:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. principal piece
d. middle piece
e. neck
3-10. Which part of spermatozoon contains mitochondria:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
12
e. annulus
3-11. The part of spermatozoon that contains proximal centriole:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
e. annulus
3-12. Acrosome of spermatozoon represents a derivative of:
a. mitochondria
b. axial filament
c. distal and proximal centrioles
d. rough endoplasmic reticulum
e. Golgi complex
3-13. On the electron micrograph of the spermatozoon transverse section one can see axial
filament surrounded by mitochondria. Section of which part of the spermatozoon is it:
a. head
b. connecting piece
c. middle piece
d. principal piece
e. terminal part of tail
3-14. Which is the correct sequence of embryogenesis:
a. histogenesis and organogenesis – cleavage – gastrulation – fertilization
b. cleavage – gastrulation – fertilization – histogenesis and organogenesis
c. fertilization – gastrulation – cleavage – histogenesis and organogenesis
d. gastrulation – cleavage – fertilization – histogenesis and organogenesis
e. fertilization – cleavage – gastrulation – histogenesis and organogenesis
3-15. Fertilization takes place in:
a. outer third of the uterine tube
b. neck of uterus
c. uterine cavity
d. abdominal cavity
e. vagina
3-16. The process of union of a sperm and an ovum in order to form a zygote is called:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. gastrulation
d. implantation
e. histogenesis and organogenesis
3-17. Rheotaxis is the ability of spermatozoon for:
a. contact action on oocyte
b. distant action on oocyte
c. upstream movement in a flowing liquid
d. penetration through the zona pellucida of the ovum
e. penetration through the plasmolemma of the ovum
3-18. Chemotaxis is ability of spermatozoon for:
a. contact influence on the oocyte
b. distant influence on the oocyte
c. upstream movement in a flowing liquid
d. penetration through the zona pellucida of the ovum
e. directional migration due to a chemical stimulus
3-19. Capacitation is:
a. a change in spermatozoon whereby it aquires the ability to fertilize an ovum
13
b. formation of the fertilization membrane
c. loss of spermatic filament
d. upstream movement of spermatozoon in a flowing liquid
e. excretion of enzymes from the acrosome
3-20. Process that occurs during contact interaction between gametes (in course of
fertilization):
a. acrosomal reaction
b. chemotaxis
c. rheotaxis
d. capacitation
e. cortical reaction
3-21. Acrosomal reaction is the process of:
a. formation of the fertilization membrane
b. loss of spermatic filament
c. excretion of hyaluronidase and tripsin by acrosome
d. spermatozoon activation
e. upstream movement of spermatozoon in a flowing liquid
3-22. Which of the cell structures takes part in the formation of fertilization membrane of
zygote:
a. nucleus
b. Golgi complex
c. mitochondria
d. cortical granules
3-23. Cortical reaction is:
a. dispersion of the cells of corona radiata
b. formation of the tubercule of fertilization
c. fusion of the membranes of spermatozoon and oocyte
d. fusion of that area of the pellucid zone which is attached to the fertilizing spermatozoon
e. migration of the cortical granules to the perivitelline space and formation of the fertilization
membrane
3-24. Fertilization membrane is destroyed:
a. in the process of fertilization
b. before the beginning of cleavage
c. at the stage of morula
d. just before implantation
e. at the stage of gastrulation
3-25. Cleavage is;
a. formation of zygote as a result of fusion of male and female sex cells
b. formation of blastocyst as a result of sequential division of zygote into blastomeres
c. formation of the germs of organs
d. formation of the germinal layers
e. formation of the axial organs
3-26. Type of cleavage of the human zygote is:
a. nontotal, asynchronous
b. total, equal
c. synchronous, equal
d. total, unequal, asynchronous
e. incomplete, equal
3-27. Dark and light human blastomeres are formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
14
c. the first phase of the gastrulation
d. the second phase of the gastrulation
3-28. Human morula is formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
d. the second phase of gastrulation
3-29. Human embryo at the stage of morula is:
a. in cervical canal of uterus
b. in uterine cavity
c. in contact with the endometrium
d. within the endometrium
e. in lumen of the oviduct
3-30. Human blastocystis is formed in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
c. the first phase of gastrulation
3-31. What do we call the human germ at the end of cleavage:
a. blastocyst
b. amphiblastula
c. coeloblastula
d. discoblastula
e. morula
3-32. Trophoblast of the human blastocyst consists of:
a. one layer of flattened elongated cells
b. one layer of cuboidal cells
c. one layer of columnar cells
d. two layers of cuboidal cells
e. two layers of columnar cells
3-33. Trophoblast of the human germ is formed in the process of:
a. cleavage
b. fertilization
c. the first phase of gastrulation
e. organogenesis and histogenesis
3-34. Embryoblast of the blastocyst represents:
a. one large light blastomere that is situated in the centre of the blastocyst
b. two small dark blastomeres that are situated in the centre of the blastocyst
c. two small light blastomeres adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
d. one large light blastomere adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
e. cluster of large dark blastomeres adjacent to the trophoblast on the inside
3-35. Human germ at the stage of blastula is situated in:
a. cervical canal of uterus
b. uterine cavity
c. abdominal cavity
d. within the uterine mucous tunic
e. lumen of the oviduct
3-36. The process of implantation begins:
15
a. on the third day
b. on the fifteenth day
c. on the seventh day
d. on the tenth day
e. on the first day
3-37. The process of gastrulation represents:
a. division of zygote into blastomeres
b. union of a sperm and an ovum in order to form zygote
c. formation of the three germinal layers
d. formation of the primordia of tissues and organs
e. formation of the blastocyst
3-38. Human germ at the stage of gastrula is situated:
a. in cervical canal of uterus
b. in uterine cavity
c. in abdominal cavity
d. within the uterine mucous tunic
e. in lumen of the oviduct
3-39. On the 11,5th day of the human embryonal development the material of the germinal
layers is situated:
a. on the floor of the amnion
b. in the area of the amniotic roof
c. in the area of the yolk sac
d. in the lateral parts of the amniotic wall
e. within the lateral parts of the wall of yolk vesicle
3-40. Human germ on the 14th day of development differs from the germ on the 11,5th day of
development by the appearance of:
a. connecting stalk
b. amniotic sac
c. yolk sac
d. extraembryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic ectoderm
3-41. Human embryo on the seventeenth day of development differs from the embryo on
the fourteenth day of development by the formation of:
a. connecting stalk
b. amniotic sac
c. neural tube
d. allantois
e. cytotrophoblast and symplastotrophoblast
3-42. Embryonic endoderm is formed by the migration of cells from:
a. anterior part of the primitive groove
b. prechondral plate
c. roof of the amniotic sac
d. lateral portions of the wall of amniotic sac
e. trophoblast
3-43. Embryonic mesoderm is formed by the migration of cells from:
a. prechordal plate
b. posterior part of the primitive groove
c. roof of the amniotic sac
d. lateral portions of the wall of amniotic sac
e. trophoblast
3-44. Prechordal plate represents small thickening that is situated in the region directly in
front of notochord; it consists of the crowded cellular layers of:
16
a. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic endoderm
b. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
c. embryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
d. embryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
e. embryonic mesoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
3-45. Presumptive germ of notochord is situated:
a. in front of Hensen’s node along the midline of the blastodisk
b. in the anterior part of the primitive groove
c. in the posterior part of the primitive groove
d. in the Hensen’s node
e. in the region of the prtechordal plate
3-46. Formation of fetal organs and tissues takes place in the process of:
a. fertilization
b. cleavage
d. the second phase of the gastrulation
e. differentiation of the germ layers
3-47. Nephrotome gives rise to:
a. urogenital system
b. nervous system
c. respiratory system
d. digestive system
e. endocrine system
3-48. Neural tube gives rise to:
a. respiratory system
b. digestive system
c. reproductive system
d. nervous system
e. endocrine system
3-49. Ganglious lamellas develop into:
a. brain
b. spinal cord
c. spinal ganglions and chromaffin tissue
d. sense organs
e. dermal ectoderm
3-50. Myotome develops into:
a. myocardium
b. smooth muscle
c. skeletal muscle
d. axial skeleton
e. dermal connective tissue
3-51. Sclerotome develops into:
a. axial skeleton
b. skeletal muscle
c. dermal connective tissue
d. notochord
e. smooth muscle
3-52. Dermatome gives rise to:
a. dermal epithelium
b. dermal connective tissue
c. skeletal muscle
d. hair
17
e. sebaceous glands
3-53. Epidermis arises from:
a. mesenchyme
b. intestinal entoderm
c. dermal ectoderm
d. neural tube
e. mesodermal splanchnotom
3-54. Hemopoietic organs arise from:
a. mesodermal somites
b. mesenchyme
c. endoderm
d. ectoderm
3-55. Connective tissue arises from:
a. ectoderm
b. entoderm
c. mesenchyme
d. mesodermal splanchnotom
e. neural plate
3-56. Blood arises from:
a. ectoderm
b. mesemchyme
c. endoderm
d. nephrotome
3-57. Smooth muscle arises from:
b. mesodermal splanchnotom
c. nephrotome
d. neural tube
e. mesenchyme
3-58. Blood vessels arise from:
b. nephrotome
c. mesenchyme
d. neural plate
3-59. Epithelium of the stomach, intestine, liver and pancreas arises from:
a. mesoderm
b. mesenchyme
c. ectoderm
d. gastrocele
e. extraembryonic endoderm
3-60. Epithelium of the trachea, of lungs and of bronchi arises from:
a. mesoderm
b. mesemchyme
c. prechordal plate
d. endoderm
e. neural tube
3-61. Epithelium of the kidneys, gonads, uterus, oviducts and deferent duct arises from:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
18
c. mesenchyme
d. splanchnotom
e. nephrogonotom
3-62. Extraembryonic organ that consists of cytotrophoblast and primary villi; it carries
out trophic, respiratory, excretory and protective function:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. primary chorion
e. placenta
3-63. Trophoblast develops into:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. primary chorion
e. umbilical cord
3-64. Which of the following functions does amnion carry out:
a. hemopoietic
b. protective
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. transport
3-65. Which of extraembryonic organs arises from maternal epiblast:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. secondary chorion
e. primary chorion
3-66. Formation of a cavity between cells of epiblast occurs at the beginning of the second
week of the human prenatal development. Which extraembryonic organ is formed in this
way:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-67. Extraembryonic organ that defends fetus from mechanical injury:
a. yolk sac
b. amnuon
c. allantois
d. umbilical cord
e. placenta
3-68. Extraembryonic organ that represents reservoir filled with amniotic fluid:
a. amnion
b. yolk sac
c. allantois
d. chorion
e. placenta
3-69. Wall of the amnion consists of:
a. extraembryonic endoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
b. extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
c. embryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
19
d. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic mesoderm and embryonic mesenchyme
3-70. Function of the human yolk sac:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. endocrine
d. excretory
e. secretory
3-71. What function does the human yolk sac perform:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. excretory
3-72. What do we call the extraembryonic organ, in the wall of which the first blood vessels,
the first blood cells and primary germ cells arise:
a. amnion
b. allantois
c. yolk sac
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-73. In the process of the gastrulation hypoblast develops into:
a. amnion
b. primary yolk sac
c. embryonic mesoderm
d. primary chorion
e. secondary chorion
3-74. What is the wall of yolk sac made up of:
b. extraembryonic ectoderm and extraembryonic mesoderm
d. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic mesoderm and embryonic mesenchyme
3-75. Wall of allantois consists of:
b. embryonic endoderm and embryonic mesoderm
d. extraembryonic ectoderm and embryonic mesoderm
e. extraembryonic ectoderm and embryonic endoderm
3-76. What do we call the extraembryonic organ that is formed at the end of gasrulation,
and represents finger-shaped outgrowth of the extraembryonic endoderm projecting into
the connecting stalk:
a. amnion
b. allantois
c. yolk sac
d. placenta
e. umbilical cord
3-77. Extraembryonic organ that connects germ with maternal organism:
a. yolk sac
b. amnion
c. allantois
20
d. umbilical cord
e. placenta
3-78. Which placental structures take part in the elaboration of hormones:
a. chorial epithelium
b. connective tissue of the chorionic villi
c. endothelium of the fetal vessels
d. Langhans stria
e. basal lamina of the maternal placenta
3-79. What do we call the extraembryonic organ connecting the embryo with the maternal
organism and consisting of fetal and maternal parts:
a. umbilical cord
b. amnion
c. placenta
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-80. What is the maternal placenta made up of:
a. chorionic plate and chorionic villi
b. decidual membrane of the endometrium
c. deciduous capsular membrane
d. deciduous parietal membrane
e. myometrium
3-81. What is the maternal placenta made up of:
a. chorionic plate and chorionic villi
b. decidual membrane of the endometrium
c. myometrium
d. deciduous capsular membrane
e. deciduous parietal membrane
3-82. What is cotyledon of the developed placenta made up of:
a. branchy anchoring villus
b. lacuna containing maternal blood
c. basal lamina and septa
d. deciduous capsular membrane
e. deciduous parietal membrane
3-83. Human chorionic villi:
a. come in contact with the endometrial epithelium
b. come in contact with the endometrial lamina propria
c. are bathed directly by circulating maternal blood
d. are situated along the whole chorionic surface
e. come in contact with the endothelium of blood vessels
3-84. Extraembryonic organ that connects fetus with placenta:
a. yolk sac
b. amnion
c. allantois
d. umbilical cord
e. primary chorion
3-85. What function does the umbilical cord perform:
a. supporting
b. homeostatic
c. endocrine
d. immune
e. transport
3-86. What tissue is the stroma of umbilical cord made up of:
21
a. loose connective
b. adipose tissue
c. cartilaginous
d. reticular
e. mucous
Principal events of embryogenesis … are the processes of …

3-87. Fertilization a a. union of a sperm and an ovum in order to
3-88. Cleavage d form a zygote
3-89. Implantation b b. penetration of the fertilized ovum into
3-90. Gastrulation c endometrium
30-91. Histogenesis and organogenesis e c. formation of three primary germ layers
d. zygote division into blastomeres
e. formation of embryonal tissues and organs
Primordia of … are derived from …

3-92. Nervous system a a. neural tube
3-93. Epidermis d b. mesenchyme
3-94. Renal epithelium e c. embryonic endoderm
3-95. Gastric epithelium c d. embryonic ectoderm
3-96. Blood vessels b e. nephrotome
Extraembryonic organs … perform the function of …

3-97. Amnion e a. connection of embryo with maternal
3-98. Yolk sac c organism
3-99. Allantois d b. connection of embryo with placenta
3-100. Placenta a c. formation of primordial vessels and blood
3-101. Umbilical cord b cells hemopoiesis
d. vascular connections with the placenta
e. creation of water environment for the
embryo
Placental structures … are characterized by the fact that …

3-102. Chorionic plate a a. it consists of connective tissue
3-103. Amniotic sac b b. it adheres to the inner surface of the
3-104. Cytotrophoblast and chorionic plate
symplastotrophoblast e c. they are bathed directly by circulating
3-105. Tertiary villi c maternal blood
3-106. Lacunes d d. they contain maternal blood
e. they cover the surface of the chorionic
plate and villi
Structural elements of the following are …

extraembryonal organs …
3-107. Amnion b a. extraembryonic endoderm and
3-108. Yolk sac a extraembryonic mesoderm
3-109. Allantois a b. extraembryonic ectoderm and
3-110. Placenta d extraembryonic mesoderm
3-111. Primary chorion c c. trophoblast and extraembryonic mesoderm
22
d. chorionic plate, and chorionic villi bathed
directly by circulating maternal blood
e. extraembryonic ectoderm and embryonic
endoderm
The following periods of the embryonal correspond to the following critical periods
development … …
3-112. the sixth to seventh days b a. fertilization
3-113. the first day a b. implantation
3-114. the third to eighth weeks c c. development of the axial primordia, and
3- 115. the fifteenth to twentieth weeks d placentation
3-116. the twentieth to twenty-fifth weeks e d. stage of the intensive development of brain
e. differentiation of the reproductive system
3. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of «Embryology»
3-1 d 3-34 e 3-67 b 3-100 a 3-133 b

3-2 d 3-35 b 3-68 a 3-101 b 3-134 d
3-3 e 3-36 c 3-69 b 3-102 a 3-135 d
3-4 d 3-37 c 3-70 b 3-103 b 3-136 a
3-5 e 3-38 d 3-71 b 3-104 e
3-6 d 3-39 a 3-72 c 3-105 c
3-7 b 3-40 a 3-73 b 3-106 d
3-8 d 3-41 d 3-74 a 3-107 b
3-9 a 3-42 a 3-75 a 3-108 a
3-10 c 3-43 b 3-76 b 3-109 a
3-11 b 3-44 a 3-77 e 3-110 d
3-12 e 3-45 a 3-78 a 3-111 c
3-13 c 3-46 e 3-79 c 3-112 b
3-14 e 3-47 a 3-80 a 3-113 a
3-15 a 3-48 d 3-81 b 3-114 c
3-16 a 3-49 c 3-82 a 3-115 d
3-17 c 3-50 c 3-83 c 3-116 e
3-18 e 3-51 a 3-84 d
3-19 a 3-52 b 3-85 e
3-20 a 3-53 c 3-86 e
3-21 c 3-54 b 3-87 a
3-22 d 3-55 c 3-88 d
3-23 e 3-56 b 3-89 b
3-24 d 3-57 e 3-90 c
3-25 b 3-58 c 3-91 e
3-26 d 3-59 d 3-92 a
3-27 b 3-60 c 3-93 d
3-28 b 3-61 e 3-94 e
3-29 e 3-62 d 3-95 c
23
3-30 b 3-63 d 3-96 b
3-31 a 3-64 b 3-97 e
3-32 a 3-65 a 3-98 c
3-33 a 3-66 a 3-99 d
4. EPITHELIA
4-1. What type of tissue is characterized by the polar differentiation of the cells:
a. neural
b. loose irregular connective
c. muscular
d. epithelial
e. bone
4-2. Tissue that does not contain blood vessels and is devoid of intercellular substance:
a. epithelial
b. bone
c. neural
d. loose irregular connective
e. muscular
4-3. Formation of basal membrane of the surface epithelium is due to the vital activity of:
a. blood plasma
b. nervous elements and subjacent connective tissue
c. fatty tissue
d. epithelium and subjacent connective tissue
e. muscular tissue
4-4. Location of the surface epithelium:
a. on the outer surface of the body and the luminal surfaces of cavities
b. within the mucosal lamina propria
c. within the submucosa of alimentary canal
d. within the intermuscular connective tissue of the tongue
e. within the cartilage of trachea
4-5. Epithelial cells are bound together by means of:
a. network of elastic fibres
b. network of collagen fibres
c. liquid amorphous substance
d. different types of cell contacts
24
e. mineralized amorphous substance
4-6. Which of the following functions is typical of the surface epithelium:
a. protective
b. hemopoietic
c. contractile
d. prostaglandin secretion
e. conduction of the nerve impulse
4-7. Simple squamous epithelium (mesothelium) lines:
a. gastric mucosa
b. tracheal mucosa
c. serous tunics
d. esophageal mucosa
e. ureteral mucosa
4-8. Small intestine (lined by epithelium) performs absorptive function. What type of
epithelium corresponds to that function:
a. stratified squamous keratinized
b. simple squamous
c. transitional
d. simple pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar with striated border
4-9. Epithelium consisting of different shaped cells, all of which rest on a basement
membrane:
a. simple cuboidal
b. simple columnar
c. simple squamous
d. pseudostratified columnar ciliated
e. stratified squamous non-keratinized
4-10. Goblet (flask) cells of the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium take part in:
a. regeneration
b. mucus secretion
c. phagocytosis
d. immune reactions
e. hormone synthesis
4-11. Cell that represents unicellular gland of the pseudostratified ciliated epithelium:
a. ciliated cell
b. basal cell
c. short intercalated cell
d. long intercalated cell
e. goblet cell
4-12. Pseudostratified ciliated epithelium lines:
a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. intestine
d. trachea
e. renal tubules
4-13. Inner organ that contains mucous tunic lined by pseudostratified ciliated epithelium:
a. esophagus
b. stomach
c. intestine
d. renal tubules
e. oviduct
4-14. Epithelium that consists of three layers of cells – basal, spinous and superficial:
25
a. transitional
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. stratified squamous keratinized
d. pseudostratified ciliated
e. simple columnar
4-15. Epithelium that consists of five layers of cells – basal cell layer, stratum spinosum,
stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, stratum corneum:
a. transitional
e. simple columnar
4-16. In the tissue culture different cells of the stratified epithelium were inoculated: in the
first vial there are cells of basal layer, in the second vial there are cells of stratum lucidum,
in the third vial there are cells of stratum granulosum, in the fourth vial there are cells of
stratum corneum. In which of the vials will the cells proliferation occur:
a. the first
b. the second
c. the third
d. the fourth
e. none of them
4-17. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that contains stem (founded)
cells:
a. stratum granulosum
b. stratum basale
c. stratum spinosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-18. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is made up of cylindrical
cells:
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-19. Layer of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is made up of polygonal
cells:
a. stratum basale
b. stratum spinosum
c. stratum granulosum
d. stratum lucidum
e. stratum corneum
4-20. Shape of the cells that form basal layer of the stratified squamous non-keratinized
epithelium is:
a. flattened
b. stellate
c. polygonal
d. prismatic
e. fusiform
4-21. Shape of the cells that form stratum spinosum (Malpighian layer) of the stratified
squamous epithelium is:
a. flattened
26
b. stellate
c. polygonal
d. prismatic
e. fusiform
4-22. Epithelium that can be stratched considerably without being damaged:
a. transitional
e. simple columnar
4-23. What cells make up the surface layer of transitional epithelium:
a. prismatic
b. basal
c. endocrine
d. elongated (aggregated)
e. large (that can be stratched considerably without being damaged )
4-24. Endocrine glands pour their secretion:
a. into oral cavity
b. on to the surface of skin
c. into blood
d. into stomach and bowels
e. into gallbladder
4-25. Endocrine glands are characterized by:
a. presence of intercalated parts
b. presence of striated ducts
c. presence of interlobular excretory ducts
d. absence of excretory ducts
e. presence of common excretory duct
4-26. Glands that are characterized by holocrine type of secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. sebaceous
e. parotid
4-27. Glands that are characterized by apocrine secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. mammary
e. parotid
4-28. Glands that are characterized by apocrine secretion:
a. pancreas
b. liver
c. submandibular
d. sweat
e. parotid
4-29. Holocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
a. glandular cells are completely destroyed
b. apical parts of the glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of the glandular cells are destroyed
d. glandular cells remain
e. microvilli on the apical pole are destroyed
27
4-30. Apocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
b. apical parts of glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of glandular cells are destroyed
e. micrivilli on the apical pole are destroyed
4-31. Merocrine type of secretion is characterized by the fact that:
b. apical parts of glandular cells are destroyed
c. basal parts of glandular cells are destroyed
e. microvilli on the apical pole are destroyed
4-32. Gland that has branchy excretory duct:
a. simple alveolar (acinar)
b. endocrine
c. simple tubular
d. simple tubulo-alveolar (racemose)
e. compound
4-33. Gland that has unbranched excretory duct:
a. compound alveolar
b. endocrine
c. compound tubular
d. compound tubulo-alveolar
e. simple
4-34. In the histologic specimen of gland one can discover PAS-positive intracellular
secretion. What substances does that secretion contain:
a. carbohydrates
b. proteins
c. fat
d. nucleic acids
e. water.
Epithelium … is made up of …
4-35. Mesothelium b a. one layer of cells, the height of which is about
4-36. Simple cuboidal a the same as their width
4-37. Simple columnar c b. one layer of cells the height of which is very
4-38. Stratified squamous little as compared to their width
non-keratinized e c. one layer of cells the height of which is
4-39. Stratified squamous keratinized d distinctly greater than their width
d. five layers of cells: stratum basale, stratum
spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum,
stratum corneum
e. three layers of cells: basal layer of columnar
cells, intermediate layer of polyhedral cells,
superficial layer of squamous cells
Epithelium … lines …
4-40. Mesothelium b a. esophageal mucosa
4-41. Simple cuboidal c b. serous tunics
4-42. Pseudostratified ciliated d c. convoluted renal tubules
28
4-43. Stratified squamous d. tracheal mucosa
non-keratinized a e. mucous tunic of the urinary bladder
4-44. Transitional e
Epithelium … arises from …

4-45. Epidermal e a. mesenchyme
4-46. Enterodermal d b. neural tube
4-47. Celonephrodermal c c. mesoderm
4-48. Ependymoglial b d. endoderm
4-49. Angiodermal a e. ectoderm
To … glands belong …
4-50. Serous d a. sweat glands
4-51. Mucous c b. glands, ducts of which open into hair follicles
4-52. Mixed e c. goblet cells
4-53. Sebaceous b d. parotid glands
4-54. Perspiratory a e. submandibular gland
4. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Epithelium»
4-1 d 4-17 b 4-33 e 4-49 a

4-2 a 4-18 a 4-34 a 4-50 d
4-3 d 4-19 b 4-35 b 4-51 c
4-4 a 4-20 d 4-36 a 4-52 e
4-5 d 4-21 c 4-37 c 4-53 b
4-6 a 4-22 a 4-38 e 4-54 a
4-7 c 4-23 e 4-39 d
4-8 e 4-24 c 4-40 b
4-9 d 4-25 d 4-41 c
4-10 b 4-26 d 4-42 d
4-11 e 4-27 d 4-43 a
4-12 d 4-28 d 4-44 e
4-13 e 4-29 a 4-45 e
4-14 b 4-30 b 4-46 d
4-15 c 4-31 d 4-47 c
4-16 a 4-32 e 4-48 b
5. BLOOD. HEMATOSIS
5-1. Blood is derived from:
a. ectoderm
b. endoderm
c. mesoderma parietalis
d. mesoderma visceralis
e. mesenchyma
5-2. Of the total volume of blood plasma approximately is:
29
a. 55-60%
b. 40-45%
c. 20-30%
d. 10-20%
e. 1-5%
5-3. Blood cells that contain hemoglobin:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-4. Blood cells that have lost their nuclei and other organelles:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-5. What blood cells perform respiratory function:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-6. The life span of erythrocytes is approximately:
a. 8 to 12 hours
b. two months
c. 120 days
d. 10 to 12 minutes
e. one year
5-7. What types of erythrocytes are characterized by biconcave shape:
a. spherocytes
b. stomatocytes
c. echinocytes
d. discocytes
e. planocytes
5-8. Anuclear blood cells containing remains of organelles:
a. neurtophils
b. basophils
c. lymphocytes
d. reticulocytes
e. monocytes
5-9. Blood cells whose cytoplasm shows granular and reticular structures that are stainable
with cresyl blue brilliant:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. basophils
d. eosinophils
e. reticulocytes
5-10. Percentage of fetal hemoglobin in the blood of adult person constitutes about:
a. 2%
b. 12%
c. 50%
30
d. 82%
e. 100%
5-11. Percentage of human blood erythrocytes that contain rhesus-factor on their surfaces
is:
a. 0,5%
b. 10%
c. 30%
d. 86%
e. 100%
5-12. Diameter of the most erythrocytes is about:
a. 7,5 micrometers
b. 1,0 micrometer
c. 22,5 micrometers
d. 120,0 micrometers
e. 500,0 micrometers
5-13. Shape of leucocytes:
a. rounded
b. rectangular
c. stellate
d. spindle-shaped
e. cylindrical
5-14. Formed (cellular) elements of blood are:
a. fibroblasts
b. lipocytes
c. pigment cells
d. chondrocytes
e. neutrophils
5-15. Which of the following cells represents granulocyte:
a. neutrophil
b. monocyte
c. erythrocyte
d. lymphocyte
e. reticulocyte
5-16. Life span of the neutrophils is:
a. one year
b. 8 to 12 hours
c. one month
d. 120 days
e. 10 to 12 minutes
5-17. Blood cells that contain lobulated nuclei, and small cytoplasmic granules stainable
with acid and basic dyes. Those cells perform protective function:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
5-18. Blood cell that contains a large number of lysosomes in its cytoplasm:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. B-lymphocyte
d. T-lymphocyte
e. erythrocyte
31
5-19. In the nidus of the acute inflammation neutrophils perform several functions. What
function is the main:
a. antibody formation
b. histamine secretion
c. heparin production
d. lysozyme secretion
e. active multiplication
5-20 Neutrophils:
a. are formed in the spleen
b. are formed in the red bone marrow
c. secrete histamine
d. synthesize immunoglobulins
e. their specific granules contain major basic protein
5-21. Blood cells that contain bilobed nuclei, and large cytoplasmic granules stainable
red-orange:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-22. Blood granulocytes that contain large acidophilic cytoplasmic granules:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. erythrocytes
e. neutrophils
5-23. Granules of which blood cells contain histaminases:
a. basophils
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. B-lymphocytes
e. eosinophils
5-24. Blood cells that are characterized by presence of the ovoid cytoplasmic granules
containing elongated crystalloid:
a. erythrocytes
b. monocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-25. Antiparasitic activity is typical of:
a. eosinophils
b. basophils
c. neutrophils
d. monocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-26. Which of the following types of blood cells are granulocytes:
a. basophils
b. lymphocytes
c. monocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-27. Blood cells that contain large basophilic cytoplasmic granules:
32
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-28. Cells that produce histamine and take part in the regulation of vascular permeability:
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. monocytes
d. basophils
e. thrombocytes
5-29. Blood cells that take part in the regulation of vascular permeability:
a. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
c. basophils
d. monocytes
e. lymphocytes
5-30. Blood cells that exhibit round to horseshoe-shaped nuclei occupying most of the
cytoplasm, which appears as a thin basophilic rim around the nucleus:
a. lymphocytes
b. monocytes
c. erythrocytes
d. basophils
e. eosinophils
5-31. Blood cell that gives rise to plasmocyte:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. B-lymphocyte
d. T-lymphocyte
e. monocyte
5-32. Which of the following cells are granulocytes:
a. monocytes
b. basophils
c. segmentated neutrophils
d. eosinophils
e. stab (band) neutrophils
5-33. Blood cell that can move out of the vascular system to enter surrounding tissues and
give rise to macrophage:
a. neutrophil
b. basophil
c. erythrocyte
d. lymphocyte
e. monocyte
5-34. The largest blood cells that contain round or indented (kidney-shaped) placed
eccentrically nuclei, and poorly basophilic cytoplasm:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. eosinophils
d. neutrophils
e. basophils
5-35. Monocytes give rise to:
a. microglia
33
b. oligodendrocytes
c. protoplasmatic astrocytes
d. ependymal cells
e. fibrillar astrocytes
5-36. Monocytes give rise to:
a. hepatic macrophages (Kupffer cells)
b. hepatocytes
c. B-cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans
d. gastric chief cells
e. gastric parietal cells
5-37. Blood cells that consist of granulomere and hyalomere:
a. neutrophils
b. basophils
c. lymphocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. erythrocytes
5-38. Irregular-shaped fragments of megakaryocyte, that are avoid of nuclei and are
usually aggregated:
a. erythrocytes
b. blood platelets
c. monocytes
d. lymphocytes
e. basophils
5-39. Cells of the red bone marrow that release membrane-enclosed fragments of their
cytoplasm as platelets:
a. megakaryocytes
b. myeloblasts
c. erythroblasts
d. promonocytes
e. metamyelocytes
5-40. What is the percentage of lymphocytes in the leucogram of a healthy person:
a. 1-2%
b. 4-6%
c. 7-8%
d. 18-40%
e. 45-70%
5-41. What is the percentage of monocytes in the leucogram of an adult person:
a. 1-2%
b. 2-9%
c. 15-30%
d. 45-70%
e. 95%
5-42. What is the percentage of segmentated neutrophils in the leucogram of a healthy
person:
a. 1-2%
b. 2-9%
c. 45-70%
d. 95%
e. 15-30%
5-43. Common cell that gives rise to all types of blood cells:
a. megakaryoblast
b. stem cell
34
c. unipotential cell
d. macrophage
e. reticulum cell
5-44. What blood cells are formed in the thymus:
a. B-lymphocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. granulocytes
d. monocytes
e. thrombocytes
5-45. At what age does liver carry out hemopoietic function:
a. senility
b. puberty
c. embryonal
d. whole life
e. mature
5-46. Formed elements of blood were separated from plasma with the help of
centrifugation, and then they were injected into culture medium. What cells can be formed
in the colony:
a. stem cells
b. segmentated neutrophils
c. erythrocytes
d. eosinophils
e. thrombocytes
5-47. What process occurs in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes during erythropoiesis:
a. accumulation of hemoglobin
b. appearance of the specific granules
c. accumulation of lysosomes
d. increase of RNA content
e. increase of the number of mitochondria
5-48. Effector cells of the humoral immunity are:
a. reticulocytes
b. adipocytes
c. plasmocytes
d. T-lymphocytes
e. fibroblasts
5-49. Effector cells of the cellular immunity are:
a. reticulocytes
b. adipocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. T-lymphocytes-killers
e. plasmocytes
5-50. Cells that play a major role in both cellular and humoral immunity:
a. fibroblasts
b. reticulocytes
c. lymophocytes, macrophages, plasmocytes
d. erythrocytes, thrombocytes
e. adipocytes
5-51. In the postnatal life erythrocytes are formed in:
a. thymus
b. spleen
c. red bone marrow
d. lymph nodes
35
e. tonsils
5-52. What structures are formed in the red bone marrow:
a. T-lymphocytes , microglia
b. T-lymphocytes, pigment cells
c. T-lymphocytes, basophils, fibroblasts
d. fibroblasts, pigment cells, plasmocytes
e. thrombocytes, erythrocytes, granulocytes, B-lymphocytes, monocytes, precursor-cells of
T-lymphocytes
5-53. What cells are characterized by the ability for unlimited self-reproduction:
a. stem (founder) cells
b. blast cells
c. maturing cells
d. mature cells
e. unipotential cells – precursors
5-54. What blood cells are formed in the wall of the yolk sac and of other extraembryonic
organs:
a. monocytes
b. lymphocytes
c. primary erythrocytes, secondary erythrocytes primitive granulocytes
d. thrombocytes
e. T-lymphocytes, basophils
5-55. In the intrauterine life, the intravascular formation of blood cells occurs in:
a. spleen
b. red bone marrow
c. thymus
d. pancreas
e. yolk sac
5-56. At what stage of the enbryonal development does hemapoiesis in the liver begin:
a. on the third day
b. on the seventh day
c. in the sixth month
d. in the fifth week
e. in the eighth month
5-57. At what stage of the embryonal development does hematopoiesis in the spleen begin:
a. on the third day
b. on the seventh day
c. in the sixth month
d. in the third month
e. in the fifth month
5-58. At what stage of the embryonal development does hematopoiesis in the thymus begin:
a. on the third day
b. in the seventh or eighth week
c. in the third month
d. in the sixth month
e. in the seventh month
5-59. In the hepato-thymo-lienal period of embryonal blood cell formation, there is an
universal hematopoietic organ:
a. thymus
b. red bone marrow
c. lymph nodes
d. spleen
e. liver
36
5-60. In the postembryonal period monocytes are formed in:
a. spleen
b. thymus
c. red bone marrow
d. tonsils
e. lymph nodes
5-61. In the postembryonal period monocytes are formed in:
a. red bone marrow
b. thymus
c. lymph nodes
d. tonsils
e. spleen
5-62. Type of the hematopoietic cells of postembryonal hematosis, that are characterized by
considerable morphologic changes as a result of their fast differentiation:
a. stem (founder) cells
b. semi-stem cells
c. unipotential cells – precursor cells
d. maturing cells
e. blast cells
5-63. In what organ does embryonal hematocytopoiesis begin:
a. red bone marrow
b. spleen
c. liver
d. extraembryonic organs
e. thymus
5-64. The first stem cells of blood are formed in:
a. red bone marrow
b. yolk sac
c. spleen
d. thymus
e. liver
5-65. In the antenatal life the formation of blast cells takes place in:
a. liver
b. spleen
c. red bone marrow
d. yolk sac
e. thymus
5-66. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of thrombocytopoiesis in the
postnatal life:
a. adipose cells
b. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
c. macrophages
d. microenvironment and thrombopoietins
e. osteoblasts and osteoclasts
5-67. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of erythropoiesis in the
postnatal life:
a. microenvironment and erythropoietins
b. adipose cells
c. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
d. macrophages
37
5-68. What structures take part in the quantitative regulation of granulocytopoiesis in the
postnatal life:
a. endotheliocytes and adventitial cells
b. adipose cells
c. microenvironment and granulocytopoietins
d. macrophages
5-69. Myelocytes are:
a. pleuripotent haemal stem cells
b. half-stem partly determined hemopoietic cells
c. unipotential cells-precursors
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-70. Metamyelocytes are:
a. pleuropotent haemal stem cells
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-71. Colony forming units for granulocytes (CFU-G) are:
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-72. Colony forming units for erythrocytes (CFU-E) are:
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-73. Colony forming units for megakaryoblasts (CFU-Meg) are:
d. blast cells
e. maturing cells
5-74. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain nucleus and basophilic cytoplasm:
a. basophilic erythroblasts
b. polychromatic erythroblasts
c. acidophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. mature erythrocytes
5-75. What cells of erythropoiesis contain nucleus and acidophilic cytoplasm:
d. reticulocytes
5-76. Which of the developing granulocytes contain poorly lobulated nucleus and
basophilic cytoplasmic granules:
a. promyelocytes
38
b. neutrophile myelocytes
c. basophile myelocytes
d. eosinophilic stab leukocytes
e. basophilic leukocytes
5-77. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain nucleus, and cytoplasm stainable with both
basic and acid dyes:
d. reticulocytes
5-78. What cells of the erythropoiesis contain thin reticular cytoplasmic structure:
d. reticulocytes
5-79. What blood cells undergo a process of maturation in the thymus:
a. erythrocytes
b. T-lymphocytes
c. B-lymphocytes
d. macrophages
e. granulocytes
5-80. What blood cells are formed by separation of small masses of cytoplasm from
megakaryocytes:
a. erythrocytes
b. blood platelets
c. granulocytes
d. monocytes
e. lymphocytes
5-81. What process takes place during granulopoiesis:
a. synthesis and storage of hemoglobin
b. accumulation of specific granules
c. formation of the polynuclear cells
d. increase of the cells in size
e. pushing the nuclei out of cells
5-82. Antigen-dependent multiplication of the B-lymphocytes takes place in:
a. lymph nodes
b. spleen
c. tonsils
d. red bone marrow
e. solitary lymphatic follicles of the digestive tract
5-83. What cells of the red bone marrow releases membrane-enclosed fragments of its
cytoplasm as platelets:
a. megakaryocytes
b. lymphoblasts
c. myeloblasts
d. erythroblasts
e. monoblasts
39
Granules of granulocytes … contain …
5-84. Azurophilic granules of neutrophils a. alkaline phosphatase
b b. hydrolytic enzymes
5-85. Specific granules of neutrophils a c. basic protein
5-86. Azurophilic granules of eosinophils d. immunoglobulins
b e. histamine, heparin
5-87. Specific granules of eosinophils c
5-88. Specific granules of basophils e
Granules of leukocytes … are characterized by …

5-89. Specific granules of neutrophils c a. high electron density
5-90. Azurophilic granules of neutrophils b. presence of a crystalloid granule in the central
a area
5-91. Specific granules of eosinophils b c. small size (0,2 of a micrometer) and electron
5-92. Azurophilic granules of eosinophils transparency
a d. heterogenous electron density
5-93. Specific granules of basophils d e. vesiculous structure
Formed elements of blood … perform function …

5-94. Helper cells c a. respiratory
5-95. Suppressor cells d b. antiparasitic
5-96. Eosinophils b c. induce the proliferation and differentiation of
5-97. Erythrocytes a B-lymphocytes
5-98. Neutrophils e d. depress the proliferation and differentiation of
B-lymphocytes
e. phagocytize the microorganisms
Leucocytes … in the blood smear their diameter is …

5-99. Segmentated neutrophils d a. 4,5 – 6 micrometers
5-100. Eosinophils e b. 7 – 10 micrometers
5-101. Small lymphocytes a c. 18 – 20 micrometers
5-102. Medium lymphocytes b d. 10 - 12 micrometers
5-103. Monocytes c e. 12 – 14 micrometers
5. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Blood. Hematopoiesis»
5-1 e 5-29 c 5-57 d 5-85 a

5-2 a 5-30 a 5-58 b 5-86 b
5-3 c 5-31 c 5-59 d 5-87 c
5-4 c 5-32 a 5-60 c 5-88 e
5-5 c 5-33 e 5-61 a 5-89 c
5-6 c 5-34 a 5-62 d 5-90 a
40
5-7 d 5-35 a 5-63 d 5-91 b
5-8 d 5-36 a 5-64 b 5-92 a
5-9 e 5-37 d 5-65 d 5-93 d
5-10 a 5-38 b 5-66 d 5-94 c
5-11 d 5-39 a 5-67 a 5-95 d
5-12 a 5-40 d 5-68 c 5-96 b
5-13 a 5-41 b 5-69 e 5-97 a
5-14 e 5-42 c 5-70 e 5-98 e
5-15 a 5-43 b 5-71 c 5-99 d
5-16 b 5-44 b 5-72 c 5-100 e
5-17 d 5-45 c 5-73 b 5-101 a
5-18 a 5-46 a 5-74 a 5-102 b
5-19 d 5-47 a 5-75 c 5-103 c
5-20 b 5-48 c 5-76 e
5-21 e 5-49 d 5-77 b
5-22 c 5-50 c 5-78 d
5-23 e 5-51 c 5-79 b
5-24 c 5-52 e 5-80 b
5-25 a 5-53 a 5-81 b
5-26 a 5-54 c 5-82 d
5-27 e 5-55 e 5-83 a
5-28 d 5-56 d 5-84 b
6. CONNECTIVE TISSUES
6-1. Connective tissues arise from:
a. endoderm
b. ectoderm
c. splanchnotom
d. embryonic stalk
e. mesenchyme
6-2. Transport and trophic function of the connective tissue is performed because of:
41
a. collagen fibres
b. adipocytes
c. elastic fibres
d. plasmocytes
e. amorphous component of the intercellular substance
6-3. What cells participate in the regulation of permeability of the intercellular substance of
the connective tissue?
a. mastocytes
b. plasmocytes
c. macrophages
d. lipocytes
e. pericytes
6-4. Connective tissue that consists of a large number of different cells, ground substance
and loosely arranged fibres:
a. dense irregular fibrous
b. dense regular fibrous
c. loose irregular fibrous
d. reticular
e. pericytes
6-5. What tissue surrounds blood vessels:
d. osseous
e. cartilaginous
6-6. Connective tissue that is characterized by the presence of a large number of dense
fibres arranged parallel to one another, of few cells and of little ground substance:
d. reticular
e. adiposer
6-7. Dense regular connective tissue is found in:
a. tendons, ligaments, fibrous membranes
b. stroma of hemopoietic organs
c. reticular layer of derma
d. papillary layer of derma
e. tunica adventitia of blood vessels
6-8. What fibres predominate in the tendons:
a. mature elastic fibres
b. reticular fibres
c. collagen fibres
d. oxytalan elastic fribres
e. elaunin fibres fibres
6-9. Flattened ramifying cell of the connective tissue; it contains large oval light nucleus,
intensely basophilic endoplasm and poorly basophilic ectoplasm:
a. histiocyte
b. mature fibroblast
c. plasma cell
d. basophil
e. adipocyte
6-10. Connective tissue cell that participates in the synthesis of intercellular substance:
42
a. mature fibroblast
b. plasma cell
c. basophil
d. adipocyte
e. pigment cell
6-11. The main function of fibroblasts:
a. synthesis of the intercellular substance
b. storage of the reserve fat
c. melanin synthesis
d. immunoglobulin synthesis
6-12. Connective tissue cells of different shape that contain small dark nucleus and
numerous lysosomes and phagosomes:
a. fibroblasts
b. plasma cells
c. basophils
d. pigment cells
e. histiocytes
6-13. Histiocytes of the loose fibrous connective tissue:
a. perform phagocytosis
b. accumulate reserve fat
c. synthesize melanin
e. synthesize hormones
6-14. There is a histologic specimen of loose fibrous connective tissue that is stained with
special dye detecting lysosomal enzyme – acid phosphatase. What cells contain much of
that enzyme:
a. fibroblasts
b. plasmocytes
c. adipocytes
d. macrophages
e. tissular basophils
6-15. Oval cell of the connective tissue that contains small compact nucleus and large
basophilic granules:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. basophil
d. pigment cell
e. histiocyte
6-16. Connective tissue cell, the cytoplasmic granules of which contain heparin and
histamine:
a. histiocyte
c. plasmocyte
d. mastocyte
e. adipocyte
6-17. Cells of loose irregular connective tissue that participate in the energy production and
water metabolism:
a. fibroblasts
b. plasmocytes
c. macrophages
d. mast cells
43
e. adipocytes
6-18. Mast cells of the loose connective tissue:
a. synthesize and secrete histamine and hyaluronic acid
b. synthesize and accumulate fat
c. perform phagocytosis
e. synthesize hormones
6-19. Rounded connective tissue cell, the central zone of which is occupied by one large fat
drop:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. adipocyte
d. basophil
e. pigment cell
6-20.The main function of adipocytes is:
a. synthesis of intercellular substance
b. accumulation of reserve fat
c. melanin synthesis
d. immunoglobulin synthesis
6-21. Rounded connective tissue cell that contains a small eccentric nucleus surrounded by
well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum:
a. fibroblast
b. plasmocyte
c. adipocyte
d. basophil
e. pigment cell
6-22. Connective tissue cell that synthesize immunoglobulins:
a. histiocyte
c. plasma cell
d. basophil
e. adipocyte
6-23. On the electron photomicrograph there is a cell of loose fibrous connective tissue, that
takes part in the immune reactions. This cell contains eccentric nucleus, a prominent clear
area in the cytoplasm that is adjacent to the nucleus, and well developed granular
endoplasmic reticulum. What cell is it:
a. mast cell
b. plasmocyte
c. macrophage
d. lipocyte
e. fibroblast
6-24. What type of connective tissue contains a large number or melanocytes:

a. brown adipose
b. mucous
d. dense irregular fibrous
e. pigment
6-25. Connective tissue that is characterized by network structure, and consists of reticular
cells and reticular fibres:
44
d. reticular
e. adipose
6.-26. Tissue that forms supporting network for the hematopoietic cells:
a. white adipose
b. loose connective
c. reticular
d. dense regular
e. mucous
6-27. In the histologic specimen of the connective tissue possessing special properties, one
can see stellate cells that are in contact with each one another. What do we call that tissue:
a. brown adipose
b. mucous
c. reticular
d. dense irregular fibrous
e. white fat
6-28. Connective tissue of newborn infants that consists of adipocytes containing a large
number of small cytoplasmic adipose inclusions:
d. reticular
e. brown adipose
6-29. What tissue takes an active part in heat production in the newborn organism:
a. white adipose
b. brown adipose
c. reticular
d. dense regular
e. mucous
6-30. White adipose tissue is made up of a lot of:
a. mucous cells and gelatinous substance
b. adipocytes containing small adipose cytoplasmic inclusions
c. melanocytes
d. bands of collagen fibres
e. rounded adipocytes that contain one large fat drop
6-31. Brown adipose tissue is made up of a lot of:
a. mucous cells
b. adipocytes containing small adipose cytoplasmic inclusions
c. melanocytes
d. bands of collagen fibres
e. rounded adipocytes that contain one large fat drop
6-32. Mucous tissue is a part of:
a. chorion
b. amnion
c. yolk sac
d. umbilical cord
e. allantois
6-33. Mucous tissue is made up of:
a. adipocytes and collagen fibres
b. mucous cells, and gelatinous substance containing hyaluronic acid
c. elastic fibres
45
d. cluster of pigment cells
e. reticulum cells and network of reticular fibres
6-34. Strong but not elastic connective tissue fibres that are stainable with acid dye and
represent straight or wavy bands:
a. collagen
b. reticular
c. mature elastic
d. oxytalan
e. elaunin
6-35. Connective tissue fibres that are detected with silver impregnation:
a. collagen
b. reticular
c. mature elastic
d. oxytalan
e. elaunin
6-36. Fibres that cause the elasticity of connective tissue:
a. collagen
b. reticular
c. oxytalan
d. elaunin
e. mature elastic
Cells of loose irregular fibrous connective are characterized by …

tissue …
6-37. Mature fibroblasts d a. presence of a prominent, clear area in the
6-38. Histiocytes c cytoplasm that is adjacent to the nucleus
6-39. Mastocytes b b. a large number of metachromatic granules
6-40. Plasmocytes a with different density
6-41. Adipocytes of the brown adipose c. a large number of lysosomes and
tissue e phagosomes
d. well developed granular endoplasmic
reticulum, Golgi complex and mitochondria
e. a large number of small fat drops and
mitochondria
Cells of loose irregular fibrous connective perform the following functions …

tissue …
6-42. Mature fibroblasts c a. maintain local homeostasis of connective
6-43. Macrophages e tissue
6-44. Mastocytes a b. produce immunoglobulins
6-45. Plasmocytes b c. synthesis and secretion of the intercellular
6-46. Adipocytes of the white fatty tissue substance
d d. participate in the energy production and
water metabolism
e. deliver antigens to lymphocytes
General connective tissue … is characterized by …

6-47. Loose fibrous a a. predominance of the ground substance over
6-48. Dense irregular fibrous d fibres
6-49. Dense regular fibrous c b. presence of clusters of adipocytes
46
6-50. Reticular e c. predominance of collagen fibres that are
6-51. White adipose b arranged parallel to one another in a very
orderly manner
d. predominance of collagen fibres that
interlace in various directions
e. presence of multinucleate mass of
protoplasm which is not subdivided into
individual cellular compartment
General connective tissue … constitutes …

6-52. Loose fibrous b a. stroma of hemopoietic organs
6-53. Dense irregular fibrous c b. dermal papillary layer
6-54. Dense regular fibrous d c. dermal reticular layer
6-55. Reticular a d. tendon
6-56. White adipose e e. hypoderm
6. Correct answers to the questions on the subject «Connective tissues»
6-1 e 6-21 b 6-41 e

6-2 e 6-22 c 6-42 c
6-3 a 6-23 b 6-43 e
6-4 c 6-24 e 6-44 a
6-5 c 6-25 d 6-45 b
6-6 b 6-26 c 6-46 d
47
6-7 a 6-27 c 6-47 a
6-8 c 6-28 e 6-48 d
6-9 b 6-29 b 6-49 c
6-10 a 6-30 e 6-50 e
6-11 a 6-31 b 6-51 b
6-12 e 6-32 d 6-52 b
6-13 a 6-33 b 6-53 c
6-14 d 6-34 a 6-54 d
6-15 c 6-35 b 6-55 a
6-16 d 6-36 e 6-56 e
6-17 e 6-37 d
6-18 a 6-38 c
6-19 c 6-39 b
6-20 b 6-40 a
7. SKELETAL TISSUES
7-1. Cartilaginous tissue arises from:

a. visceral layer of the splanchnotom
b. parietal layer of the splanchnotom
c. ectoderm
48
d. mesenchyme
e. endoderm
7-2. Outer layer of the perichondrium is made up of:
a. loose fibrous irregular connective tissue
b. dense fibrous irregular connective tissue
c. dense fibrous regular connective tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. adipose tissue
7-3. Inner layer of the perichondrium is made up of:
a. young chondrocytes
b. chondrocytes of the first type
c. chondrocytes of the second type
d. chondrocytes of the third type
e. prechondroblasts, chondroblasts
7-4. In the superficial layer of the cartilage under the perichondrium there are:
a. chondroblasts and prechondroblasts
c. chondrocytes of the second type
d. chondrocytes of the third type
e. young chondrocytes
7-5. In the antenatal life the interstitial growth of hyaline cartilage takes place because of:
a. fibroblasts
c. chondroblasts
d. chondrocytes of the second type
e. chondrocytes of the third type
7-6. Reparative regeneration of the cartilaginous tissue takes place because of the division
of:
a. fibroblasts
b. chondroblasts
c. chondrocytes of the first type
7-7. Shape of the chondroblasts is:
a. hemisphere-shaped
b. stellate
c. prismatic
d. fusiform
e. cubical
7-8. What perichondral cells produce intercellular substance of the cartilaginous tissue:
a. chondrocytes of the first type
b. chondrocytes of the second type
c. chondrocytes of the third type
d. chondroblasts
e. fibroblasts
7-9. Growth of the cartilaginous tissue by addition of new cartilage over the surface of
existing cartilage (appositional growth) takes place because of:
a. chondrocytes of the first type
b. chondrocytes of the second type
c. chondrocytes of the third type
d. chondroblasts
e. fibroblasts
49
7-10. Shape of mature chondrocytes is:
a. cubical
b. oval, hemispherical, angular
c. prismatic
d. fusiform
e. stellate
7-11. Cells of the cartilaginous isogenetic groups that are characterized by high
nucleocytoplasmic ratio. Among such cells there are many those at different stages of
mitosis:
a. prechondroblasts
b. chondroblasts
7-12. Posttraumatic regeneration of the cartilaginous cells and intercellular substance takes
place because of:
a. prechondroblasts
b. chondroblasts
e. chondroclasts
7-13. Hyaline cartilage is found in:
a. intervertebral disks
b. laryngeal corniculate cartilage
c. trachea
d. auricle
e. laryngeal Morgagni’s cartilage
7-14. What type of collagen fibres does the intercellular substance of hyaline cartilage
contain:
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
7-15. Elastic cartilage differs from hyaline cartilage by the presence of:
a. ground substance
b. elastic fibres
c. collagen fibres
d. chondrocytes
e. perichondrium
7-16. Elastic cartilage is found in:
a. auricle
b. intervertebral disks
c. pubic suture
d. trachea
e. articular surfaces of the bone
7-17. Elastic cartilage is found in:
a. place of attachment of the ribs to the breast bone
b. intervertebral disks
c. trachea
d. large bronchi
e. epiglottis
50
7-18. Fibrocartilage is situated in:
a. the place of attachment of the ribs to the breast bone:
b. articular surface of bones
c. trachea
d. bronchi
e. intervertebral disks
7-19. Different-shaped cells that are situated on the surface of developing bony trabeculae.
Those cells are characterized by ultrastructure of the protein-synthesizing cells:
a. fibroblasts
b. odontoblasts
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
e. osteoclasts
7-20. What cells are responsible for the process of formation and calcification of the bony
intercellular substance:
a. osteoblasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts
d. fibroblasts
e. endotheliocytes
7-21. Osteoblasts take part in:
a. formation of the bony tissue
b. thermoregulation
c. destruction of the calcified cartilage and bone
d. production of the antibodies
e. homeostasis of the organic and mineral composition of the bony tissue
7-22. There is an electron photomicrograph of a cell of developing bony tissue. Around the
cell one can see collagen fibres. The cytoplasm of the cell contains well developed granular
endoplasmic reticulum. What do we call that cell:
a. mature osteocyte
b. osteoblast
c. osteoclast
d. endotheliocyte
e. mesenchymal cell
7-23. Bone cells that are not able to divide; they have small body and numerous processes:
a. osteoblasts
b. osteocytes
c. osteoclasts
d. fibroblasts
e. odontoblasts
7-24. There is an electron photomicrograph of a bone cell. Processes of the cell are situated
in small canaliculi. Its cytoplasm contains pooly developed endoplasmic reticulum and
Golgi complex. What do we call that cell:
a. mature osteocyte
b. osteoblast
c. osteoclast
d. endotheliocyte
e. fibroblast
7-25. Osteocytes participate in:
a. formation of the osseous tissue
b. thermoregulation
c. removal of bone
51
d. productions of antibodies
e. maintenance of the homeostasis of organic and mineral composition of the osseous tissue
7-26. Large polynucleated cells different in shape that contain ruffled membrane and
numerous lysosomes; those cells are responsible for absorption and destruction of bone and
calcified cartilage:
a. enameloblasts
b. odontoblasts
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
e. osteoclasts
7-27. Osteoclasts take part in:
a. formation of osseous tissue
b. thermoregulation
c. removal of bone and calcified cartilage
d. production of antibodies
e. maintenance of the homeostasis of organic and mineral composition of the osseous tissue
7-28. Osteoclasts arise from:
a. neutrophils
b. monocytes
c. basophils
d. lymphocytes
e. erythrocytes
7-29. There is an electron photomicrograph of a bone cell. In the cytoplasm of the cell one
can see a large number of lysosomes. What cell is it:
a. osteoblast
b. osteocyte
c. odontoblast
d. osteoclast
e. enameloblast
7-30. Tissue that is situated within cranial sutures and within the places of attachment of
tendon to bone:
a. elastic cartilage
b. fibrocartilage
c. hyaline cartilage
d. lamellar bone
e. woven bone
7-31. Intercellular substance of the woven bone is characterized by:
a. irregular arrangement of the bundles of collagen fibres
b. parallel arrangement of collagen fibres
c. reticular arrangement of the collagen fibres
d. interchange of regularly arranged collagen fibres and circularly arranged collagen fibres
e. circular arrangement of collagen fibres
7-32. Intercellular substance of the lamellar bone is characterized by:
a. irregular arrangement of the bundles of collagen fibres
b. parallel arrangement of collagen fibres
c. reticular arrangement of the collagen fibres
d. interchange of regularly arranged collagen fibres and circularly arranged collagen fibres
e. circular arrangement of collagen fibres
7-33. Interstitial lamellae of the diaphysis of compact bone are situated between:
a. osteons
b. periosteum and outer circumferential lamellae
c. endosteum and inner circumferential lamellae
52
d. outer and inner layers of the periosteum
e. concentric lamellae forming Haversian system
7-34. Endochondral ossification of the cartilaginous primordium of tubular bone begins as:
a. deposition of osseous tissue over the surface of diaphysis
b. deposition of lamellar bone within cartilaginous primordium
c. formation of woven bone around blood vessels of cartilage
d. formation of medullary (marrow) cavity
e. deposition of osseous tissue on the surface of epiphysis
7-35. Development of bone in place of cartilage begins from:
a. endochondral ossification
b. perichondral ossification
c. destruction of cartilaginous model
d. ossification of the epiphysis
e. calcification of the cartilaginous model
7-36. The first stage of the direct osteogenesis is characterized by the formation of:
a. bone trabeculae
b. skeletogenous islets
c. osteoid
d. osseous cuff
e. calcified osteoid
7-37. Growth of tubular bone in width takes place because of:
a. periosteum
b. endosteum
c. metaepiphyseal cartilaginous plate
d. epiphysis
e. diaphysis
7-38. Growth of tubular bone lengthwise takes place because of:
a. periosteum
b. endosteum
c. metaepiphyseal cartilaginous plate
d. epiphysis
e. diaphysis
7-39. What joint cells take part in the formation of matrix of articular cartilage and in
production of proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid as components of synovial fluid:
a. synovial fibroblasts (B-cells)
b. phagocytic synoviocytes (A-cells)
c. lymphocytes
d. monocytes
e. noutrophils
7-40. Special features of articular cartilage:
a. it is five centimetres in thickness
b. it is usually elastic
c. it has rugged surface turned towards articular cavity
d. it is not capable of regeneration
e. it regenerates till old age
7-41. At present, transplantation of the articular cartilage is widely used owing to its
immunological resistance. How can you explain this fact:
a. low permeability and absence of vessels
b. presence of large amount of intercellular substance
c. presence of isogenous groups of chondrocytes
d. presence of glycosaminoglycans and proteoglycans within ground substance
53
e. presence of lacunar capsules
7-42. Syndesmosis is union of bones by means of:
a. dense fibrous connective tissue
b. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
c. adipose tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. mucous tissue
7-43. Synchondrosis is union of bones by means of:
c. adipose tissue
d. reticular tissue
e. cartilaginous tissue
7-44. Synostosis is union of bones by means of:
c. adipose tissue
d. bone tissue
e. cartilaginous tissue
7-45. Fibrous ring of intervertebral disks consists of:
d. fibrocartilage
e. elastic cartilage
7-46. Fibres, content of which increase within gelatinous nucleus of intervertebral disk,
with age:
a. collagen
b. reticular
c. mature elastic
d. oxytalan
e. elaunin
7-47. Fibrous tunic of the joint capsule consists of:
d. fibrocartilage
e. elastic cartilage
7-48. Integumentary layer of synovial membrane of the joint capsule is lined by:
a. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
b. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium
c. one to six layers of synoviocytes
d. pseudostratified ciliated epithelium
e. mesothelium
7-49. Function of A-cells of superficial layer of synovial membrane is:
a. resorption of synovial fluid
b. secretion of proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid into synovial fluid
c. synthesis of collagen fibres
d. formation of elastic fibres
e. removal of articular cartilage
7-50. Function of B-cells of superficial layer of synovial membrane is:
a. resorption of synovial fluid
54
b. secretion of proteoglycans and hyaluronic acid into synovial fluid
c. synthesis of collagen fibres
d. formation of elastic fibres
e. removal of articular cartilage
7-51. Layer of basal zone of articular cartilage:
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. tangential layer
d. transitional layer
e. rows of chondrocytes
7-52. Layer of intermediate zone of articular cartilage:
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. tangential layer
d. transitional layer
7-53. Layer of superficial zone of articular cartilage:
a. acellular lamina
b. calcified layer
c. non-calcified layer
d. layer of isogenous groups
7-54. Cells that prevail in synovial fluid of a healthy articulation:
a. basophils
b. synoviocytes
c. monocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
7-55. Concentration of the cells in one cubic millimeter of synovial fluid of healthy
articulation is:
a. two hundred or less
b. ten thousand
c. fifty thousand
d. one hundred thousand
e. two hundred thousand
7-56. Cells that prevail in synovial fluid in case of arthritis:
a. lymphocytes
b. synoviocytes
c. monocytes
d. neutrophils
e. eosinophils
Cellular elements of cartilaginous tissue are characterized by the fact that …

…
7-57. Chondroblasts a a. they take part in appositional growth of
7-58. Chondrocytes e cartilage
7-59. Chondrocytes of the second type b b. they take part in protein synthesis and
7-60. Chondrocytes of the third type c glycosaminoglycan synthesis
7-61. Chondroblasts d c. they synthesize only proteins
55
d. they take part in resorption of cartilaginous
tissue
e. they are capable of mitotic division
Structures of the diaphysis of tubular are characterized by the fact that …

bone …
7-62. Periosteum c a. it is situated beneath periosteum
7-63. External circumferential lamellae a b. it consists of cylindrical lamellae
7-64. Osteons (Haversian systems) b c. it contains osteoblasts in its inner layer
7-65. Interstitial lamellae e d. it is well developed only within that zones
7-66. Internal circumferential lamellae d where diaphyseal compact substance borders
upon medullary cavity
Type of skeletal tissue … consists of …

7-67. Hyaline cartilage c a. lamellae containing thin parallel collagen
7-68. Fibrocartilage e fibres
7-69. Elastic cartilage b b. both collagen and elastic fibres
7-70. Woven bone d c. network of collagen fibres and non-calcified
7-71. Lamellar bone a ground substance
d. coarse irregularly arranged bundles of
collagen fibres
e. parallel bundles of collagen fibres and
non-calcified ground substance
Cells of skeletal tissue … are situated …

7-72. Chondroblasts e a. within outer layer of perichondrium
7-73. Chondrocytes d b. on the surface of developing bony trabecules
7-74. Osteoblasts b c. within osseous lacunes
7-75. Osteocytes c d. within isogenous cell groups
7-76. Osteoclasts b e. within outer layer of perichondrium
Unions of bones … they are …

7-77. Interosseous membranes of forearm a. syndesmosis
a b. synchondrosis
7-78. Between ribs and breast bone b c. synostosis
7-79. Between pubic bones b d. diarthrosis
7-80. Between cranial bones in the adult e. symphysis
c
7-81. Between cranial bones in the infant
a
Structural components of articulation consist of …

…
7-82. Fibrous tunic of joint capsule a a. dense fibrous connective tissue
7-83. Synovial cartilage c b. one to six layers of synoviocytes
7-84. Superficial layer of synovial c. hyaline cartilage
membrane b d. lamellar bone
7-85. Contents of articular cavity e e. synovial fluid
7-86. Ends of bones d
7. Correct answers to the questions on the subject «Skeletal tissues»
56
7-1 d 7-29 d 7-57 a 7-85e
7-2 b 7-30 e 7-58 e 7-86 d
7-3 e 7-31 a 7-59 b
7-4 e 7-32 b 7-60 c
7-5 b 7-33 a 7-61 d
7-6 b 7-34 b 7-62 c
7-7 d 7-35 b 7-63 a
7-8 d 7-36 b 7-64 b
7-9 d 7-37 a 7-65 e
7-10 b 7-38 c 7-66 d
7-11 c 7-39 a 7-67 c
7-12 e 7-40 d 7-68 e
7-13 c 7-41 a 7-69 b
7-14 b 7-42 a 7-70 d
7-15 b 7-43 e 7-71 a
7-16 a 7-44 d 7-72 e
7-17 e 7-45 d 7-73 d
7-18 e 7-46 a 7-74 b
7-19 c 7-47 a 7-75 c
7-20 a 7-48 c 7-76 b
7-21 a 7-49 a 7-77 a
7-22 b 7-50 b 7-78 b
7-23 b 7-51 b 7-79 b
7-24 a 7-52 e 7-80 c
7-25 e 7-53 a 7-81 a
7-26 e 7-54 b 7-82 a
7-27 c 7-55 a 7-83 c
7-28 b 7-56 d 7-84 b
8. MUSCULAR TISSUES
8-1. Smooth muscle of the most of inner organs and vessels arises from:
a. mesenchyme
b. ectoderm
57
c. endoderm
d. nerve tube
e. mesodermal somites
8-2. Shape of smooth muscle cell of mesenchymal origin is:
a. cuboidal
b. prismatic
c. pyramidal
d. fusiform
e. pyriform
8-3. Structural elements of the smooth muscle cell that contain ions of calcium:
a. mitochondria
b. actin filaments
c. myosin filaments
d. Golgi complex
e. vesicles of smooth endoplasmic reticulum
8-4. Actin filaments of the smooth muscle cell are connected with one another and with
plasmalemma by means of:
a. solid corpuscles
b. mitochondria
c. lysosomes
d. cisternae of the granular endoplasmic reticulum
e. canaliculi of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
8-5. Impulse transmission from one smooth muscle cell to another is caused by:
a. desmosomes (bridge corpuscles)
b. interdigitations
c. nexuses
d. adhesive belts
e. tight junctions
8-6. In the histologic specimen of muscular tissue one can determine muscle fibres
containing a large number of nuclei situated under the sarcolemma. What type of muscular
tissue is it:
a. skeletal striated
b. smooth muscle of inner organs and vessels
c. cardiac
d. myoepithelial
e. neuromuscular tissue of the eye
8-7. Shape and location of satellite cells of the skeletal muscle:
a. cubical, within surrounding connective tissue
b. prismatic, on the basal membrane surrounding the muscle fibre
c. flattened, between plasmalemma of the muscle fibre and basal membrane
d. round, under the plasmalemma
e. pyramidal, within muscle fibre
8-8. On the electron photomicrograph of the peripheral zone of muscle fibre there is a small
flattened cell containing very few organelles. That cell is situated between plasmolemma
and basal membrane of muscle fibre. What do we call that cell:
a. fibroblast
b. satellite cells
c. fat cell
d. plasmocyte
e. histiocyte
8-9. Striated muscle is able to regenerate because of:
a. sarcolemma
58
b. satellite cells
c. sarcoplasm
d. sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. myofibril
8-10. What structures are responsible for the trophism of striated muscle?
a. nuclei and common organelles
b. myofibrils
c. telophragmas and mesophragmas
d. sarcolemma
e. triads
8-11. Thin myofilaments of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre make up:
a. telophragma
b. mesophragma
c. isotropic disk
d. anisotropic disk
e. T-tubules
8-12. Thick myofilaments of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre make up:
a. telophragma
b. masophragma
c. isotropic disk
d. anisotropic disk
e. T-tubules
8-13. Sarcomeres represent the basic reoccuring structural units of the myofibril,
comprising the myofilaments and associated organelles which lie between:
a. two M-bands
b. two Z-bands
c. M- and Z-bands
d. overlap zone and M-band
e. overlap zone and Z-band
8-14. Common border-line structure between adjacent sarcomeres is:
a. mesophragma (M line)
b. telophragma (Z line)
c. H-zone
d. T-tubules
e. overlap zone
8-15. Area of the sarcomere of striated muscle, in which one thick filament is surrounded
by six thin ones:
a. telophragma
b. mesophragma
c. overlap zone
d. isotropic disk
e. H-zone
8-16. In striated muscle fibre, the I-band of the sarcomere of myofibril is made up of:
a. myosin filaments
b. actin filaments
c. microtubules
d. collagen of the first type
e. collagen of the second type
8-17. H-zone (light zone) of A-band of the myofibril of striated muscle fibre is made up of:
a. myosin filaments
b. actin filaments
c. microtubules
59
d. collagen of the first type
e. collagen of the second type
8-18. Z-line (telophragma) of the myofibrils of striated muscle fibre is situated:
a. in the middle of I-band
b. in the middle of overlap zone
c. in the middle of A-band
d. between overlap zone and M-band
e. on each side of M-band
8-19. Myosin filaments of the striated muscle are connected with Z line by means of
molecules of the following protein:
a. actin
b. myosin
c. tropomyosin
d. troponin
e. titin
8-20. In case of contraction of the striated muscle fibre, the heads of myosin molecules
come into contact with molecules of the following proteins:
a. tropomyosin and troponin
b. nebulin and myomesin
c. actin
d. nebulin and titin
e. titin and myomesin
8-21. M-line (mesophragma) of the myofibrils of striated muscle fibre is situated:
a. in the middle of I-band
b. in the middle of overlap zone
c. in the middle of A-band
d. between overlap zone and Z-band
e. on each side of Z-band
8-22. M line of the sarcomere of striated muscle fibre is made up of:
a. actin
b. actinin
c. tropomyosin
d. myomyosin
e. myosin
8-23. T-tubules represent:
a. microtubules
b. elongated mitochondria
c. invaginations of the sarcolemma into the sarcoplasm
d. canaliculi of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. invaginations of the basal membrane into sarcoplasm
8-24. Triad of the striated muscle fibre represents a complex that consists of:
a. one T-tubule and two cisterns of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. two T-tubules and one cistern of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. three T-tubules
d. three cisterns of sarcoplasmic reticulum
e. one T-tubule and two mitochondria
8-25. Canaliculi of the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the striated muscle fibres contain:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of phosphorus
c. molecules of adenosine triphosphoric acid
d. molecules of acid phosphatase
e. molecules of alkaline phosphatase
60
8-26. White skeletal muscle is characterized by:
a. presence of a large number of myofibrils
b. presence of a quantity of myoglobin
c. presence of a small number of myofibrils
d. absence of myofibrils
e. high content of the oxidizing enzymes
8-27. Red skeletal muscle is characterized by:
a. presence of a large number of myofibrils
b. presence of a quantity of myoglobin
c. low content of myoglobin
d. absence of myofibrils
e. low content of oxidizing enzymes
8-28. What tissue is the endomysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular fibrous connective
b. dense irregular connective
c. dense regular connective
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-29. What tissue is the perimysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular connective
c. dense regular connective
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-30. What tissue is the epimysium of striated muscle made up of:
a. loose irregular connective
c. adipose
d. mucous
e. reticular
8-31. Muscle is attached to tendon by means of:
a. collagen fibres
b. mature elastic fibres
c. oxytalan fibres
d. reticular
e. elaunin
8-32. There is a histologic specimen of the muscular tissue that is stained with
hematoxylin-eosin. In the histologic specimen one can see oxyphil muscle fibres that are
arranged parallel to one another. The fibres contain numerous nuclei situated under the
sarcolemma. What type of muscular tissue is it:
a. mesenchymal
b. epidermal
c. neural
d. coelomic
e. somatic
8-33. There are histologic specimens of muscular tissue that are stained with
hematoxylin-eosin. In the histologic specimens one can see muscle cells containing oxyphilic
cytoplasm. The nucleus of each cell is located centrally. The junctions between adjoining
cells are seen as dark staining transverse lines (intercalated discs). What type of muscular
tissue is that:
a. mesenchymal
b. epidermal
61
c. neural
d. coelomic
e. somatic
8-34. Myoepithelial cells arise from:
a. visceral layer of splanchnotom
b. myotomes of the somites
c. mesenchyme
d. endoderm
e. ectoderm
8-35. Muscle cells of the iris of eye develop from:
a. visceral layer of splanchnotom
b. myotomes of the somites
c. mesenchyme
d. neuroglia
e. endoderm
8-36. Staining of sections of muscular tissue with iron hematoxylin demonstrated cross
striation. What other morphological features is cardiac muscle characterized by?
a. layers of the connective tissue
b. nuclei that are situated under the plasmolemma of the functional muscle fibre
c. intercalated disks
d. dense corpuscles
e. blood vessels
Muscular tissue … develop from …

8-37. Of blood vessels c a. dermal ectoderm
8-38. Ciliary muscle b b. eyecup
8-39. Myoepithelial cells of the glandular c. mesenchyme of the splanchnotom
acini a d. myotomes of the mesodermal somites
8-40. Skeletal muscle d e. myoepicardial plate
8-41. Contractile cardiac myocytes e
Muscular tissues and cells … are responsible for …

8-42. Striated muscle fibres b a. gastric and intestinal peristalsis,
8-43. Muscle cells of mesenchymal origin a contraction of vessels
8-44. Muscle cells of neural origin d b. contraction of the skeletal muscle
8-45. Myoepithelial cells e c. contraction of the myocardium
8-46. Striated muscle cells c d. change of the pupillary diameter
e. flow of the secretion of exocrine glands
Cells of myocardium … are found in …

8-47. Cardiac pacemarkers b a. mainly in the atrioventricular node
8-48. Transitional a b. mainly in the sinoartial node
8-49. Purkinje’s cells c c. mainly in the His’ bundles
8-50. Contractile d d. in functional muscle fibres and their
8-51. Secretory e anastomoses
e. atria
Structures of the muscular tissues … are characterized by the fact that …
62
8-52. Myoepithelial cells a a. they are situated between basement
8-53. Myocytes of vessels b membrane and basal surface of the glandular
8-54. Striated muscle fibres d cells
8-55. Contractile cardiac myocytes c b. they are spindle-shaped
8-56. Conductive cardiac myocytes of the c. they are rectangular cells that contain oval
third type e or elongated nucleus in their central part
d. their cytoskeleton includes telophragma,
mesophragma, sarcolemma and intermediate
threads
e. they are situated in the His’ bundles and
their limbs
Structures of the sarcomere … are situated in the region of …
8-57. Myosin filaments e a. telophragma
8-58. Actin filaments d b. mesophragma
8-59. Actin and myosin filaments c c. A-band
8-60. Places of the attachment of actin d. I-band
filaments a e. H-zone
8-61. Places of the attachment of myosin
filaments b
8. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Muscular tissues».
8-1 a 8-19 e 8-37 c 8-55 c

63
8=2 d 8-20 c 8-38 b 8-56 e
8-3 e 8-21 c 8-39 a 8-57 e
8-4 a 8-22 d 8-40 d 8-58 d
8-5 c 8-23 c 8-41 e 8-59 c
8-6 a 8-24 a 8-42 b 8-60 a
8-7 c 8-25 a 8-43 a 8-61 b
8-8 b 8-26 a 8-44 d
8-9 b 8-27 b 8-45 e
8-10 a 8-28 a 8-46 c
8-11 c 8-29 a 8-47 b
8-12 d 8-30 b 8-48 a
8-13 b 8-31 a 8-49 c
8-14 b 8-32 e 8-50 d
8-15 c 8-33 d 8-51 e
8-16 b 8-34 e 8-52 a
8-17 a 8-35 d 8-53 b
8-18 a 8-36 c 8-54 d
9. NERVE TISSUE
64
9-1. Nerve tissue consists of:
a. nerve cells and neuroglia
b. fibroblasts and reticular fibres
c. reticulocytes and adipocytes
d. histiocytes and collagen fibres
e. epitheliocytes and oxytalan fibres
9-2. Nerve tissue develops from:
a. endoderm
b. neural plate
c. somites of the mesoderm
d. splanchnotom of the mesoderm
e. mesenchyme
9-3. In а picture there are three neurocytes (multipolar, bipolar, pseudounipolar). How
many axons does each of those cells cointain?
a. five
b. four
c. three
d. two
e. one
9-4. Multipolar neurons are characterized by the presence of:
a. one axon and many dendrites
b. two axons and one dendrite
c. one axon and one dendrite
d. a single process that after a very short course divides into axon and dendrite
e. one dendrite and many axons
9-5. Pseudounipolar neurons are characterized by the fact that:
a. their perikaryon gives off a single process that after a very short cource divides into two
b. their perikaryon gives off two processes that are situated at its opposite poles
c. their perikaryon gives off many processes
d. their cytoplasm contains poorly developed granular endoplasmic reticulum
e. their cytoplasm contains poorly developed Golgi complex
9-6. What organs are bipolar neurons found in?
a. spinal ganglion
b. gray matter of the spinal cord
c. organ of vision
d. white matter of the spinal cord
e. organs of the endocrine system
9-7. Pseudounipolar neurons are found in:
a. cerebral cortex
b. posterior horn of the spinal cord
c. cerebellar cortex
d. spinal ganglions
e. anterior horn of the spinal cord
9-8. Cells of the nerve tissue that contain secretory granules and vesicles in their cytoplasm:
a. neurosecretory cells
b. nerve cells of ordinary type
c. oligodendrocytes
d. astrogliocytes
e. microgliocytes
9-9. Which organelles are found only in the nerve cell?
a. basophilic substance and neurofibrils
b. mitochondria and tonofibrils
65
c. Golgi complex and myofibrils
d. primary lysosomes and residual corpuscles
e. centrioles and mitochondria
9-10. Chromophilic substance represents:
a. cluster of mitochondria
b. cluster of lysosomes
c. stack of cisternae of the Golgi complex
d. stack of cisternae of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
e. stack of cisternae of the rough endoplasmic reticulum, free ribosomes and polysomes
9-11. Neurofibrils of the cytoplasm of nerve cells represent:
a. projections from the cell surface
b. channels of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. fibrous protein (collagen) of nervous type
d. bundles of neurofilaments and neurotubules that are able to be impregnated with silver
e. elements of the Golgi complex
9-12. Nerve cells are charactertized by:
a. high level of the protein synthesis
b. low level of the protein synthesis
c. absence of the protein synthesis
d. high phagocytic activity
e. absence of the retrograde current of neuroplasm
9-13. Nerve cells are characterized by:
a. well developed granular endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi complex
b. absence of the cell centre
c. absence of the mitochondria
d. absence of the myofibrils
e. absence of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
9-14. Cell of the neural tissue that generate nerve impulse in response to irritation:
a. ependymocytes
b. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. neurocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. fibrous astrocytes
9-15. Nerve cells differ from other cells by the presence of:
a. tonofibrils
b. myofibrils
c. cilia
d. Nissl substance and neurofibrils
e. striated border
9-16. Structure of the nerve cell that takes part in the conduction of nerve impulse:
c. microtubules
d. cisternae of the Golgi complex
e. plasmalemma
9-17. Structure of the nerve cell that takes part in the mediator synthesis:
a. cell centre
b. lysosomes
d. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
e. mitochondrion
9-18. Speed of the impulse movement along a nonmyelinated nerve fibres is:
66
a. 100-200 meters per second
b. 40-50 meters per second
c. 1-2 meters per second
d. 150-200 meters per second
e. 200 -250 meters per second
9-19. Speed of the impulse movement along a myelinated nerve fibres is:
a. 10-15 meters per second
b. 2-10 meters per second
c. 1-2 meters per second
d. 5-120 meters per second
e. 20-25 meters per second
9-20. Myelinated nerve fibre is made up of:
a. three axons that invaginates into the cytoplasm of the Schwann cell
b. 10-20 axons that invaginate into the cytoplasm of Schwann cell
c. two axons and myelin sheath
d. one axon, myelin sheath, neurolemma
e. five axons and neurolemma
9-21. Nonmyelinated nerve fibre is made up of:
a. one axon, myelin sheath and neurolemma
b. two axons and myelin sheath
c. 10-20 axons that invaginate into the cytoplasm of Shwann cell
d. five axons and neurolemma
e. more than one hundred axons
9-22. Myelin sheath of the nerve fibre is made up of spiral mesaxon of:
a. fibrous astrocytes
c. oligodendrocytes
d. microglia
e. ependymocytes
9-23. Axis cyliders of the nerve are:
a. axon and dendrite of neurocytes
b. processes of the fibrous astrocytes
c. processes of the protoplasmic astrocytes
d. chains of oligodendrocytes
e. processes of microglia
9-24. What structure of the nerve fibre is stainable black with osmic acid:
a. axis cylinder
b. nodes of Ranvier
c. myelin sheath
d. neurolemma
e. nuclei of the neurolemma cells
9-25. Neuroglia cells that are derived from haemopoietic stem cell:
a. ependymocytes
b. fibrous astrocytes
c. protoplasmic astrocytes
d. microglia
e. oligodendrocytes
9-26. Neuroglia cells that possess phagocytic activity:
a. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
67
e. microglia
9-27. Neuroglia cells that belong to the system of the mononuclear phagocytes:
a. fibrous astrocytes
c. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocytes
e. microglia
9-28. Neuroglia cells that line central canal of spinal cord and ventricles of brain:
a. oligodendrocytes
d. ependymocytes
e. microglia
9-29. Shape of the cells of ependymal glia that line central canal of the spinal cord:
a. spherical
b. pyramidal
c. cylindrical
d. stellate
e. flattened
9-30. Neuroglia cells that are mainly found in the gray substance of the organs of central
nervous system; perikaryons of the cells give off short thick processes that then divide into
secondary processes:
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymocytes
d. fibrous astrocytes
e. microglia
9-31. Stellate glial cells whose cell bodies and fibrous filament-possessing processes are
found in the white matter of the brain and spinal cord:
a. oligodendrocytes
b. ependymocytes
d. fibrous astrocytes
e. microglia
9-32. Neuroglia cells that take part in the formation of myelin sheath of nerve fibres:
a. protoplasmic astrocytes
c. microglia
d. lemmocytes (Schwann cells)
e. ependymocytes
9-33. Schwann’s sheath of the nerve fibre consists of cytoplasm and nuclei of:
a. microgliocytes
c. lemmocytes
d. protoplasmic astrocytes
e. ependymocytes
9-34. On the photomicrograph there is a multipolar neurocyte and glia cells surrounding its
perikaryon and processes. What do we call the type of the glia cell supporting processes of
the neurocyte:
a. protoplasmic astrocyte
b. fibrous astrocyte
c. microglia
68
d. lemmocyte
e. ependymocyte
9-35. Gliocytes that surround neurons in peripheral ganglia:
a. microglia (small glial cells)
d. ependymal cells
e. capsular cells (satellite cells, capsular gliocytes)
9-36. Chemogenic synapses transmit nerve impulse from the presynaptic neuron to the
postsynaptic neuron by means of:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of sodium
c. neuromediators (neurotransmitters)
d. ions of potassium
e. ions of phosphorus
9-37. Synapse in which inhibition of impulse takes place:
a. axosomatic
b. axodendritic
c. axoaxonic
d. somatosomatic
e. dendrodendritic
9-38. Presynaptic pole of the chemogenic synapse is characterized by the presence of the
cluster of:
a. lysosomes
b. vesicles of Golgi complex
c. microtubules
d. presynaptic vesicles and mitochondria
e. components of the agranular endoplasmic reticulum
9-39. Structure of the chemogenic synapse that contains receptors that respond to
neuromediators:
a. presynaptic membrane
b. synaptic cleft
c. postsynaptic membrane
d. neurofilaments
e. presynaptic vesicles
9-40. Substances that take part in the nerve impulse transmission:
a. ions of calcium
b. ions of sodium
c. acetylcholine, noradrenaline
d. ions of potassium
e. ions of phosphorus
9-41. Which of the following structures belong to the effector nerve endings:
a. axomuscular synapse
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
e. thermoreceptors
9-42. Axonal terminals of the motor neurons form:
a. effector nerve endings
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. chemoreceptors
69
e. thermoreceptors
9-43. Neural processes that form effector nerve endings:
a. axons of motor neurons
b. dendrites of motor neurons
c. axons of sensory neurons
d. dendrites of sensory neurons
e. processes of association neurons
9- 44. Neuromuscular synapse includes a process of a nerve cell. What process is it? What
type of neurocyte does that process belong to:
a. axon of multipolar neuron
b. axon of pseudounipolar neuron
c. dendrite of multipolar neuron
d. dendrite of pseudounipolar neuron
e. axon of unipolar neuron
9-45. What type of receptors does Vater-Pacini corpuscle belong to:
a. thermoreceptors
b. mechanoreceptors
c. baroreceptors
d. photoreceptors
e. chemoreceptors
9-46. Inner flask of Vater-Pacini corpuiscle is made up of:
a. modified lemmocytes
b. plexus of collagen fibres
c. plexus of elastic fibres
d. plexus of fibroblasts
e. cluster of adventitional cells
9-47. On the photomicrograph of the inner flask of Vater-Pacini corpuscle one can see
neuronal process. What process and of what type of neurocyte is that:
a. axon of multipolar neuron
b. axon of pseudounipolar neuron
c. dendrite of pseudounipolar neuron
d. dendrite of multipolar neuron
e. axon of unipolar neuron
9-48. Sensory nerve ending that is responsible for temperature sense:
a. Vater- Pacini corpuiscle
b. Meissner’s corpuscle
c. genital corpuscle
d. free nerve ending
e. Ruffini’s corpuscle
9-49. Nerve cells that form reflex arc:
a. afferent, intercalary and efferent
b. afferent and intercalary
c. intercalary and efferent
d. afferent
e. efferent
Neuroglia cells … perform the following function …

9-50. Cuboidal ependymocytes that line a. secretory
surfaces of cerebral vascular plexuses a b. supporting delimiting
9-51. Fibrous astrocytes b c. trophic
70
9-52. Protoplasmic astrocytes c d. they form membranes of nerve fibres
9-53. Lemmocytes d e. phagocytic
9-54. Microglia e
Structures that make up the myelinated represent …

nerve fibre …
9-55. Axon a a. processe of a nerve cell
9-56. Myelin sheath b b. spiral mesaxon
9-57. Layer of neurilemmal c c. cytoplasm, nuclei and plasmolemma of
9-58. Nodes of Ranvier d lemmocyte
9-59. Incisures of Schmidy-Latermann e d. boundary of the two adjacent lemmocytes
e. obliquely directed narrow light lines
Structures of nerve tissue … are characterized by the fact that …

9-60. Nerve cells c a. in case of stimulation they become rounded
9-61. Prismatic ependymocytes that line turning into “granular spheres”
ventricles of brain and central canal of b. they perform supporting, delimiting and
spinal cord b barrier functions
9-62. Microglia a c. they contain neurofibrils and chromophilous
9-63. Capsular (satellite) cells d substance
9-64. Chemogenic synapses e d. they form layers around the perikaryons of
neurons
e. they transmit neurons impuls only in one
direction
Structural elements of the nerve tissue … are characterized by the fact that …
9-65. Electrical interneuronic synapses c a. axons of the effector neurons end on glands
9-66. Secretory nerve endings a b. they are situated mainly within the surface
9-67. Free nerve endings b epithelium
9-68. Varter-Pacini corpuscles d c. they transmit nervous impulses in the both
9-69. Myelinated nerve fibres e directions
d. they are baroreceptors
e. their membranes consist of two layers: inner
myelin sheath and outer neurilemma
Structural components of the nerve tissue represent …
…
9-70. Nerve fibres b a. systems that consists of chain of neurons
9-71. Reflex arcs a transmitting nerve impulse
9-72. Effector nerve endings c b. processes of nerve cells that are surrounded
9-73. Receptor nerve endings d by a sheath consisting of lemmocytes
9-74. Neuromuscular spindles e c. terminals of axons of effector neurons
d. terminals of dendrites of sensory neurons
e. complex of intrafusal muscle fibres
surrounded by connective tissue capsule
9. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Nerve tissue»
9-1 a 9-22 c 9-43 a 9-64 e

71
9-2 b 9-23 a 9-44 a 9-65 c
9-3 e 9-24 c 9-45 c 9-66 a
9-4 a 9-25 d 9-46 a 9-67 b
9-5 a 9-26 e 9-47 c 9-68 d
9-6 c 9-27 e 9-48 d 9-69 e
9-7 d 9-28 d 9-49 a 9-70 b
9-8 a 9-29 c 9-50 a 9-71 a
9-9 a 9-30 c 9-51 b 9-72 c
9-10 e 9-31 d 9-52 c 9-73 d
9-11 d 9-32 d 9-53 d 9-74 e
9-12 a 9-33 c 9-54 e
9-13 a 9-34 d 9-55 a
9-14 c 9-35 e 9-56 b
9-15 d 9-36 c 9-57 c
9-16 e 9-37 c 9-58 d
9-17 c 9-38 d 9-59 e
9-18 c 9-39 c 9-60 c
9-19 d 9-40 c 9-61 b
9-20 d 9-41 a 9-62 a
9-21 a 9-42 a 9-63 d
ҰСЫНЫЛҒАН СУРЕТТЕРГЕ НЕМЕСЕ СУРЕТТЕ БЕЛГІЛЕНГЕН ҚҰРЫЛЫМДАРЫ

БОЙЫНША ДҰРЫС ЖАУАПТЫ ТАҢДАУ: тесттердің үшінші түрі бірнеше суреттердегі
72
немесе бір суреттегі құрылымдарды анықтауды қажет етеді, бұлар орыс алфавитінің А, Б,
В, Г, Д, Е, К әріптерімен, ал дұрыс жауаптары суреттегі құрылымдар латын алфавитінің
a,b,c,d,e әріптерімен белгіленген. Ұсынылған жауаптардан бір дұрысын тауып, суреттегі
құрылымдарға белгілі әріпті қою керек.
ВЫБОР ПРАВИЛЬНОГО ОТВЕТА ПО ПРЕДЛОЖЕННЫМ РИСУНКАМ ИЛИ

ОБОЗНАЧЕННЫМ СТРУКТУРАМ НА РИСУНКЕ: III тип тестов представляет собой
вопросы к нескольким рисункам, или к структурам одного рисунка, обозначенным
прописными буквами русского алфавита А, Б, В, Г, Д, Е. К ним даны по пять возможных
ответов, обозначенных строчными буквами латинского алфавита a, b, c, d, e. Из
предложенных ответов следует выбрать один правильный, отметить его буквой под
которой он указан.
SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER: Tests of the third type represent questions or incomplete
assertions. For each of them there are five variations of answers or the ends of phrases that are
lettered with Latin alphabet (a,b, c, d, e). It is necessary to select one correct answer and
designate it by the corresponding letter.
Сурет 1.1 Сұрақтары 1-1-ден 1-6-ға дейін

1.1 суретте 1-1-ден 1-6-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
Рис. 1.1 Вопросы с 1-1 по 1-6
Вопросы с 1-1 по 1-6 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 1.1
Fig. 1.1 Questions from 1-1 to 1-6
35 SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER
36 1-1. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter A:
37 a. objective lens
38 b. cone with ocular lens
39 c. fine and coarse adjustment knobs
40 d. stage
41 e. condenser
42 1-2. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter Б:
46 d. stage
47 e. condenser
48 1-3. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter B:
52 d. stage
73
53 e. condenser
54 1-4. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter Г:
58 d. stage
59 e. condenser
60 1-5. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter Д:
64 d. stage
65 e. condenser
66 1-6. Component of the microscope “Leica DME” that is designated with the letter E:
70 d. stage
71 e. condenser
1. «Гистологиялық техника» тақырыбы бойынша берілген тесттердің

дұрыс жауаптары
1. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме: «Гистологическая техника»
1. Correct answers to the tests on the subject : “Histologic technique”
1-1 b
1-2 c
1-3 a
1-4 d
1-5 e
1-6 d
74
1 2 ЦИТОЛОГИЯ
Сурет 2.1 Сұрақтары 2-1-ден 2-3-ке дейін

2.1 Суретте 2-1-ден 2-3-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
2-1. Noncellular structure that is designated with the letter A:

a. syncytium
b. symplast of the striated muscle fibre
c. intercellular substance of the loose connective tissue
d. symplast of the chorion
e. intercellular substance of the dense regular connective tissue
2-2. Noncellular structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. syncytium
75
2-3. Structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. syncytium
Сурет 2.2 Сұрақтары 2-4-тен 2-9-ға дейін

2.2 Суретте 2-4-ден 2-9-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген

1
2 2-4. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter A:
3 a. mitochondrial matrix
4 b. crista
5 c. intermembranous space
6 d. outer mitochondrial membrane
7 e. mitochondrial granules
2-5. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. mitochondrial matrix
b. crista
c. intermembranous space
d. outer mitochondrial membrane
e. mitochondrial granules
2-6. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter B:
b. crista
2-7. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Г:
b. crista
2-8. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter Д:
b. crista
76
e. inner mitochondrial membrane
2-9. Mitochondrial structure that is designated with the letter E:
b. crista
e. inner mitochondrial membrane
Сурет 2.3 Сұрақтары 2-10-нан 2-16-ға дейін

2.3 Суретте 2-10-нан 2-16-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
1 SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER:
2 2-10. Cell structure that is designated with the letter A:

3 a. granular endoplasmic reticulum
4 b. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
5 c. Golgi complex
6 d. cell centre
7 e. mitochondrion
2-11. Cell structure that is designated with the letter Б:
b. agranular endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. mitochondrion
2-12. Cell structure that is designated with the letter B:
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. mitochondrion
2-13. Cell structure that is designated with the letter Г:
c. nucleolus
d. cell centre
e. mitochondrion
2-14. Cell structure that is designated with the letter Д:
77
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. mitochondrion
2-15. Cell structure that is designated with the letter E:
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. lysosome
2-16. Cell structure that is designated with the letter Ж:
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. lysosome

2.4 суретте 2-17-ден 2-19-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптері мен белгіленген
3 2-17. Nuclear structure that is designated with the letter A:

4 a. nucleolus
b. perinuclear space
c. heterochromatin
d. karyoplasm
e. nuclear pore
2-18. Nuclear structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. nucleolus
c. heterochromatin
d. nucleoplasm
e. nuclear pore
2-19. Nuclear structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. nucleolus
c. heterochromatin
d. nucleoplasm
e. nuclear pore
78
Сурет 2.5 Сұрақтары 2-20-дан 2-24-ке дейін
2.5 Суретте 2-20-дан 2-24-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
5 Рис. 2.5 Вопросы с 2-97по 2-24
2-20. Structure of the plasmalemma that is designated with the letter A:

a. molecules of the oligosaccharides
b. membrane proteins
c. half-integral proteins
d. integral proteins
e. double layer of lipid molecules
2-21. Structure of the plasmаlemma that is designated with the letter Б:
a. molecules of the oligosaccharides
c. half-integral prtoteins
2-22. Structure of the plasmalemma that is designated with the letter B:
a. molecules of oligosaccharides
2-23. Structure of the plasmalemma that is designated with the letter Г:
2-24. Structure of the plasmalemma that is designated with the letter Д:
79
2.6 Суретте 2-25-тен 2-29-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптерімен белгіленген
6 Рис. 2.6 Вопросы с 2-25 по 2-29
2-25. Phase of cell cycle that is designated with the letter A:

a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. prophase
e. interphase
2-26. Phase of cell cycle that is designated with the letter Б:
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. prophase
e. interphase
2-27. Phase of cell cycle that is designated with the letter B:
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. prophase
e. interphase
2-28. Phase of cell cycle that is designated with the letter Г:
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. prophase
e. interphase
2-29. Phase of cell cycle that is designated with the letter Д:
a. telophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. prophase
e. interphase
80
2. «Цитология» тақырыптары бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс
жауаптары
2. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме «Цитология»
2. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of “Cytology”
2-1 b 2-24 d
2-2 a 2-25 e
2-3 c 2-26 d
2-4 b 2-27 b
2-5 a 2-28 c
2-6 d 2-29 a
2-7 e
2-8 e
2-9 c
2-10 a
2-11 c
2-12 d
2-13 c
2-14 e
2-15 e
2-16 b
2-17 b
2-18 a
2-19 d
2-20 e
2-21 c
2-22 b
2-23 a
81
3 ЭМБРИОЛОГИЯ
Сурет 3.1 Сұрақтары 3-1-ден 3-7-ге дейін

3.1 Суретте 3-1-ден 3-7-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
Fig. 3.1 Questions 3-1 to 3-7
18 3-1. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter A:

19 a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. ectoderm
e. endoderm
3-2. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. ectoderm
e. endoderm
3-3. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. ectoderm
e. endoderm
3-4. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. parietal layer of the mesoderm
e. endoderm
3-5. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter Д:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
82
d. ectoderm
e. visceral layer of the mesoderm
3-6. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter E:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. ectoderm
e. endoderm
3-7. Human germinal structure that is designated with the letter Ж:
a. nerve tube
b. notochord
c. somites
d. ectoderm
e. endoderm

18 3-8. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with the
letter A:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
3-9. Structure of the human placenta and associated organs, that is designated with the
letter Б:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
letter B:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
83
letter Г:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
letter Д:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. chorionic plate
e. chorionic villi
letter E:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. endometrium
e. chorionic villi
letter Ж:
a. septa
b. umbilical cord
c. lacunae
d. endometrium
e. myometrium
Сурет 3.3 Сұрақтары 3-15-тен 3-18-ге дейін

3.3 Суретте 3-15-тен 3-18-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
3-15. Endometrial implantation of the germ. Structure that is designated with the letter A:
a. embryoblast
b. trophoblast
c. blastocele
d. endometrial epithelium
e. endometrial lamina propria
3-16. Endometrial implantation of the germ. Structure that is designated with the letter Б:
84
a. embryoblast
b. trophoblast
c. blastocele
3-17. Endometrial implantation of the germ. Structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. embryoblast
b. trophoblast
c. blastocele
3-18. Endometrial implantation of the germ. Structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. embryoblast
b. trophoblast
c. blastocele
Сурет 3.4 Сұрақтары 3-19-дан 3- 24-ке дейін

3.4 Суретте 3-19-дан 3-24-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
3-19. Human germ on the thirteenth day of development. Structure that is designated with
the letter A:
a. yolk sac
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
d. extraembryonic celom
e. cytotrophoblast
the letter Б:
а. yolk sac
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
e. cytotrophoblast
the letter B:
a. yolk sac
85
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
e. cytotrophoblast
the letter Г:
a. yolk sac
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
e. cytotrophoblast
3-23. Human germ on the trirteenth day of development. Structure that is designated with
the letter Д:
a. yolk sac
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
e. cytotrophoblast
the letter E:
a. yolk sak
b. amniotic vesicle
c. connecting stalk
d. syplastotrophoblast
e. cytotrophoblast

3.5 Суретте 3-25-тен 3-30-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен
белгіленген
Вопросы с 3-25 по 3-30 обозначены прописными
буквами на Рис. 3.5
3-25. Human germ in the period of formation of the embryonal body folds. Structure that
is designated with the letter A:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
is designated with the letter Б:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
3-27. Human germ in the period of formation of the embruonal body folds. Structure that
is designated with the letter B:
86
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
is designated with the letter Г:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
is designated with the letter Д:
a. chorionic villi
b. body of the embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois
is designated with the letter E:
a. amnion
b. body of embryo
c. gut
d. yolk sac
e. allantois

18 3-31. Interrelation between embryo, extraembryonic organs and layers of the

uterine wall. Structure that is designated with the letter A:
19 a. decidua capsularis
20 b. decidua basalis
21 c. decidua parietalis
22 d. myometrium
23 e. embryo
87
3-32. Interrelation between embryo, extraembryonic organs and layers of the uterine wall.
Structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. decidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
c. decidua parietalis
d. myometrium
e. embryo
3-33. Interrelation between embryo, extraembryonic organs and layers of the uterine wall.
Structure that is designated with the letter B:
b. decidua basalis
d. myometrium
e. embryo
3-34. Interrelation between embryo, extraembryonic organs and layers of uterine wall.
Structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. desidua capsularis
b. decidua basalis
d. amnion
e. embryo
Structure that is designated with the letter Д:
b. decidua basalis
d. myometrium
e. uterine cavity
3-36. Interrelation between embryo , extraembryonic organs and layers of uterine wall.
Structure that is designated with the letter E:
b. decidua basalis
d. myometrium
e. embryo
Structure that is designated with the letter Ж:
b. decidua basalis
d. myometrium
e. embryo
3. «Эмбриология» тақырыптары бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс

жауаптары
3. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме: «Эмбриология»
88
3. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of “Embryology”
3-1 d 3-27 d
3-2 c 3-28 e
3-3 a 3-29 a
3-4 d 3-30 b
3-5 e 3-31 b
3-6 e 3-32 a
3-7 b 3-33 c
3-8 a 3-34 d
3-9 b 3-35 e
3-10 c 3-36 e
3-11 d 3-37 d
3-12 e
3-13 d
3-14 e
3-15 a
3-16 c
3-17 b
3-18 d
3-19 d
3-20 a
3-21 b
3-22 c
3-23 e
3-24 d
3-25 a
3-26 c
4 ЭПИТЕЛИЙ ТІНДЕРІ
89
72 SELECT ONE CORRECT ANSWER

4-1. Type of epithelium that is designated with the letter A:
a. simple squamous
b. simple cuboidal
c. simple columnar
4-2. Type of epithelium that is designated with the letter Б:
a. simple squamous
b. simple cuboidal
c. simple columnar
4-3. Type of epithelium that is designated with the letter B:
a. simple squamous
b. simple cuboidal
c. simple columnar
4-4. Type of epithelium that is designated with the letter Г:
a. simple squamous
b. simple cuboidal
c. simple columnar

a. Суретте 4-5-тен 4-8-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
90
4-5. Structure of stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium that is designated with the
letter A:
a. vessel
b. basement membrane
c. basal layer
d. layer of polyhedral cells
e. layer of flattened cells
letter Б:
a. vessel
c. basal layer
letter B:
a. vessel
c. basal layer
letter Г:
a. vessel
c. basal layer

b. Суретте 4-9-дан 4-14-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
36 4-9. Structure of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is designated with

the letter A:
91
37 a. basement membrane
b. basal layer
c. stratum spinosum (Malpighian layer)
d. stratum granulosum
e. stratum lucidum
4-10. Structure of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium that is designated with the
letter Б:
a. basement membrane
b. basal layer
e. stratum lucidum
letter B:
b. basal layer
e. stratum lucidum
letter Г:
b. basal layer
e. stratum lucidum
letter Д:
b. basal layer
e. stratum lucidum
letter E:
a. stratum corneum
b. stratum basale
e. stratum lucidum
1

c. Суретте 4-15-тен 4-17-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
92
4-15. Type of gland that is designated with the letter A:

a. simple alveolar (acinar) unbranched
b. simple tubular unbranched
c. simple tubular branched
d. simple alveolar (acinar) branched
e. compound tubulo-alveolar branched
4-16. Type of gland that is designated with the letter Б:
a. simple alveolar unbranched
d. simple alveolar branched
4-17. Type of gland that is designated with the letter B:
a. simple alveolar unbranched
d. simple alveolar branched
4. Correct answers to the tests on the subject “Epithelium”
4-1 a 4-9 a
4-2 b 4-10 b
4-3 d 4-11 c
4-4 c 4-12 d
4-5 b 4-13 e
4-6 c 4-14 a
4-7 d 4-15 b
4-8 e 4-16 a
4-17 e
5. ҚАН. ҚАННЫҢ ТҮЗІЛУІ

93
Вопросы c 5-1 по 5-3 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 5.1
5-1. Formed element of blood (at the magnification of 630) that is designated with the letter
A:
a. erythrocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte
Б:
a. erythrocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte
B:
a. erythrocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte
Сурет 5.2 Сұрақтары 5-4-тен 5-5-ке дейін

5.2 Суретте 5-4-тен 5-5-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
5-4. Formed element of blood (at the magnification of 1000) that is designated with the
letter A:
a. erythrocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte
letter Б:
94
a. erythrocyte
b. thrombocyte
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte

Сурет 5.3 Сұрақтары 5-6-дан 5-7-ге дейін

5.3 Суретте 5-6-дан 5-7-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
letter A:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. large lymphocyte
letter Б:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. large lymphocyte

95
letter A:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte
letter Б:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. small lymphocyte

letter A:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. monocyte
letter Б:
a. erythrocyte
b. eosinophil
c. neutrophil
d. basophil
e. monocyte

96

5-12. Eosinophilic structure that is designated with the letter A:
a. Golgi complex
b. mitochondria
d. primary (azurophilic) granules
e. mature specific granules
5-13. Eosinophilic structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. Golgi complex
b. mitochondria
5-14. Eosinophilic structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. Golgi complex
b. mitochondria
5-15. Eosinophilic structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. Golgi complex
b. mitochondria
5-16. Eosinophilic structure that is designated with the letter Д:
a. Golgi complex
b. mitochondria
5. Correct answers to the tests on the subject “Blood. Hematopoiesis”
5-1 b
5-2 c
5-3 a
5-4 d
5-5 a
5-6 b
5-7 a
5-8 e
5-9 a
5-10 e
5-11 a
5-12 e
97
5-13 a
5-14 d
5-15 c
5-16 b
6 ДӘНЕКЕР ТІНДЕРІ


6-1. Structure of the loose irregular fibrous connective tissue that is designated with the
letter A:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance
letter Б:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance
letter B:
98
a. mast cell l
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance
letter Г:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance
letter Д:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance
6-6. Structure of the loose irregular connective tissue that is designated with the letter E:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. macrophages
d. elastic fibre
e. fibroblast
letter Ж:
a. mast cell
b. collagen fibre
c. adipose cell
d. elastic fibre
e. ground substance

6-8. Structure of the macrophage that is designated with the letter A:

a. lysosomes
99
b. phagolysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. inclusions
6-9. Structure of the macrophage that is designated with the letter Б:
a. lysosomes
b. phagolysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. inclusions
6-10. Structure of the macrophage that is designated with the letter B:
a. lysosomes
b. phagolysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. inclusions
6-11. Structure of the macrophage that is designated with the letter Г:
a. lysosomes
b. phagolysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. inclusions
6-12. Structure of the macrophage that is designated with the letter Д:
a. lysosomes
b. phagolysosomes
c. Golgi complex
d. cell centre
e. inclusions

6.3 Суретте 6-13-тен 6-16-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
6-13. Structure of the mast cell that is designated with the letter A:
a. granules
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-14. Structure of the mast cell that is designated with the letter Б:
100
a. granules
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-15. Structure of the mast cell that is designated with the letter B:
a. granules
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-16. Structure of the mast cell that is designated with the letter Г:
a. granules
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus

6.4 Суретте 6-17-ден 6-21-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Fig 6.4 Questions from 6-17 to 6-21
6-17. Structure of the plasma cell that is designated with the letter A:
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-18. Structure of the plasma cell that is designated with the letter Б:
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-19. Structure of the plasma cell that is designated with the letter B:
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
101
e. nucleus
6-20. Structure of the plasma cell that is designated with the letter Г:
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus
6-21. Structure of the plasma cell that is designated with the letter Д:
b. cell centre
c. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. nucleus

6.5 Суретте 6-22-ден 6-26-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
6-22. Fibroblastic structure that is designated with the letter A:

a. nucleolus
b. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. cell centre
6-23. Fibroblastic structure that is designated with the letter Б:
a. nucleolus
b. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. cell centre
6-24. Fibroblastic structure that is designated with the letter B:
a. nucleolus
b. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. cell centre
6-25. Fibroblastic structure that is designated with the letter Г:
a. nucleolus
b. Golgi complex
102
d. mitochondria
e. cell centre
6-26. Fibroblastic structure that is designated with the letter Д:
a. nucleolus
b. Golgi complex
d. mitochondria
e. cell centre

letter A:
a. mast cell
b. macrophage
c. fibroblast
d. collagen fibre
e. ground substance
letter Б:
a. mast cell
b. adipocyte
c. fibroblast
d. collagen fibre
e. ground substance
letter B:
a. mast cell
b. adipocyte
c. fibroblast
d. collagen fibre
e. ground substance
6-30. Structure of the loose irregular connective tissue that is designated with the letter Г:
a. mast cell
b. adipocyte
c. fibroblast
d. collagen fibre
103
e. ground substance
6. «Дәнекер тіндері» тақырыбы бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс

жауаптары
6. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме «Соединительные ткани»
6. Correct answers to the questions on the subject “Connective tissues”
5-1 a 6-16 c
5-2 b 6-17 b
6-3 c 6-18 c
6-4 d 6-19 d
6-5 e 6-20 e
6-6 e 6-21 a
6-7 c 6-22 d
6-8 b 6-23 c
6-9 c 6-24 a
6-10 d 6-25 e
6-11 a 6-26 b
6-12 e 6-27 b
6-13 d 6-28 d
6-14 e 6-29 e
6-15 a 6-30 c
104
7. ҚАҢҚА ТІНДЕРІ

7.1 Суретте 7-1-ден 7-5-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
7-1. Structure of hyaline cartilage that is designated with the letter A:

a. perichondrium
b. zone of young cartilage
c. zone of mature cartilage
d. young chondrocytes
e. isogenous cell groups (cell-nests)
7-2. Structure of hyaline cartilage that is designated with the letter Б:
a. perichondrium
7-3. Structure of hyaline cartilage that is designated with the letter B:
a. perichondrium
7-4. Structure of hyaline cartilage that is designated with the letter Г:
a. perichondrium
7-5. Structure of hyaline cartilage that is designated with the letter Д:
a. perichondrium
105
Сурет 7.2 Сұрақтары 7-6-дан 7-10-ға дейін

7.2 Суретте 7-6-дан 7-10-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
7-6. Structure of elastic cartilage that is designated with the letter A:

a. zone of young cartilage
b. zone of mature cartilage
c. perichondrium
d. elastic fibres
7-7. Structure of elastic cartilage that is designated with the letter Б:
a. perichondrium
d. elastic fibres
7-8. Structure of elastic cartilage that is designated with the letter B:
a. perichondrium
d. elastic fibres
7-9. Structure of elastic cartilage that is designated with the letter Г:
a. perichondrium
d. elastic fibres
7-10. Structure of elastic cartilage that is designated with the letter Д:
a. perichondrium
d. elastic fibres
106
7.3 суретте 7-11-ден 7-16-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген
7-11. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter A:

a. matrix
b. isogenous cell groups
c. solitary flat cells (young chondrocytes)
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
7-12. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter Б:
a. matrix
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
7-13. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter B:
a. matrix
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
7-14. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter Г:
a. matrix
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
7-15. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter Д:
a. matrix
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
7-16. Structure of intervertebral disk that is designated with the letter E:
a. matrix
c. bundles of collagen fibres
d. ground substance
e. fibrocytes
107
Рис. 7.4 Вопросы с 7- 17 по 7-20
7-17. Structure of woven bone that is designated with the letter A:

a. ground substance
b. bundles of collagen fibres
c. osteocytes
d. processes of osteocytes
e. osteoblasts
7-18. Structure of woven bone that is designated with the letter Б:
a. ground substance
c. osteocytes
e. osteoblasts
7-19. Structure of woven bone that is designated with the letter B:
a. ground substance
c. osteocytes
e. osteoblasts
7-20. Structure of woven bone that is designated with the letter Г:
a. ground substance
c. osteocytes
e. osteoblasts
1
108
7-21. Structure of lamellar bone that is designated with the letter A:

a. layer of the inner circumferential lamellae
b. Haversian canal
c. interstitial lamellae
d. osteon
e. layer of the outer circumferential lamellae
7-22. Structure of lamellar bone that is designated with the letter Б:
b. Haversian canal
d. osteon
7-23. Structure of lamellar bone that is designated with the letter B:
b. Haversian canal
d. osteon
7-24. Structure of lamellar bone that is designated with the letter Г:
b. Haversian canal
d. osteon
7-25. Structure of lamellar bone that is designated with the letter Д:
b. Haversian canal
d. osteon
Сурет 7.6 Сұрақтары 7-26-дан 7-30-ға дейін

7.6 Суретте 7-26-дан 7-30-ға дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
109
7-26. Structure of osteoclast and surrounding tissues, that is designated with the letter A:
a. zone of resorption
b. ruffled membrane
c. marginal light zones
d. lysosomes
e. nuclei
7-27. Structure of osteoclast and surrounding tissues, that is designated with the letter Б:
b. ruffled membrane
d. lysosomes
e. nuclei
7-28. Structure of osteoclast and surrounding tissues, that is designated with the letter B:
b. ruffled membrane
d. lysosomes
e. nuclei
7-29. Structure of osteoclast and surrounding tissues, that is designated with the letter Г:
b. ruffled membrane
d. lysosomes
e. nuclei
7-30. Structure of osteoclast and surrounding tissues, that is designated with the letter Д:
b. ruffled membrane
d. lysosomes
e. nuclei

7-31. Bone cell that is designated with the letter A:

110
a. dormant osteoblast
b. mature osteoblast
c. osteocyte of the first type
d. “resorbing” osteocyte
e. osteoclast
7-32. Bone cell that is designated with the letter Б:
e. osteoclast
7-33. Bone cell that is designated with the letter B:
e. osteoclast
6
7

7.8 Суретте 7-34-тен 7-37-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
7-34. Structure of the bone developing in place of mesenchyme, that is designated with the
letter A:
a. mesenchyme
b. vessel
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
e. calcified intercellular substance of the bone
letter Б:
a. mesenchyme
b. vessel
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
letter B:
111
a. mesenchyme
b. vessel
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
letter Г:
a. mesenchyme
b. vessel
c. osteoblasts
d. osteocytes
1

Рис 7.9 Вопросы с 7-38 по 7-42
Fig. 7.9 Questions from 38 to 42
7-38. Structure of articulation (joint) that is designated with the letter A:

a. articular cartilage
b. capsula articularis
c. articular cavity
d. synovial membrane
e. fibrous coat
7-39. Structure of articulation (joint) that is designated with the letter Б:
c. articular cavity
e. fibrous coat
7-40. Structure of articulation (joint) that is designated with the letter B:
c. articular cavity
e. fibrous coat
7-41. Structure of articulation (joint) that is designated with the letter Г:
112
c. articular cavity
e. fibrous coat
7-42. Structure of articulation (joint) that is designated with the letter Д:
c. articular cavity
e. fibrous coat

Fig. 7.10 Questions from 43 to 46
7-43. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter A:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
c. superficial collagen-elastic layer
d. deep collagen-elastic layer
e. cartilaginous layer
7-44. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter Б:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
7-45. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter B:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
7-46. Structure of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the letter Г:
a. surface layer
b. synovial villi
113
7-47. Structure of surface layer of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the
letter A:
a. phagocytic synoviocyte
b. secretory synovial cell
c. mast cell
d. lymphocyte
e. neutrophil
7-48. Structure of surface layer of articular synovial membrane that is designated with the
letter Б:
a. phagocytic synoviocyte
b. secretory synovial cell
c. mast cell
d. lymphocyte
e. neutrophil

7.12 Суретте 7-49-дан 7-54-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
114
7-49. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter A:
a. tangential layer
b. transitional layer
c. layer of isogenous cell groups
d. layer chondrocytes distributed in rows
e. layer of noncalcific cartilage
7-50. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter Б:
a. tangential layer
d. layer of chondrocytes distributed in rows
7-51. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter B:
a. tangential layer
7-52. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter Г:
a. tangential layer
7-53. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter Д:
a. tangential layer
7-54. Layer of articular cartilage and underlying tissue, that is designated with the letter E:
a. tangential layer
d. layer of lamellar bone
7. «Қаңқа дәнекер тіндері» тақырыбы бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс

жауаптары
7. Правильные ответы на тесты по теме: «Скелетные ткани»
7. Correct answers to the tests on the subject “Skeletal tissue”
7-1 a 7-28 d
7-2 b 7-29 b
7-3 c 7-30 a
7-4 d 7-31d
7-5 e 7-32 b
7-6 c 7-33 e
115
7-7 b 7-34 c
7-8 c 7-35 d
7-9 e 7-36 a
7-10 d 7-37 e
7-11 b 7-38 b
7-12 a 7-39 a
7-13 c 7-40 c
7-14 d 7-41 d
7-15 e 7-42 e
7-16 c 7-43 b
7-17 a 7-44 a
7-18 c 7-45 c
7-19 b 7-46 d
7-20 d 7-47 a
7-21 e 7-48 b
7-22 d 7-49 a
7-23 c 7-50 b
7-24 b 7-51 c
7-25 a 7-52 d
7-26 e 7-53 e
7-27 c 7-54 d
8. ЕТ ТІНДЕРІ
116
8-1. Structure of smooth muscle that is designated with the letter A:

a. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
b. longitudinal section of the smooth muscle cell
c. transverse section of the smooth muscle cell
d. vessel
e. fibroblast
8-2. Structure of smooth muscle that is designated with the letter Б:
d. vessel
e. fibroblast
8-3. Structure of smooth muscle that is designated with the letter B:
d. vessel
e. fibroblast

8- 4. Structure of the smooth muscle cell that is designated with the letter A:
a. actin filaments
b. cell centre
c. dense corpuscles
d. myolemma
e. granular endoplasmic reticulum
8-5. Structure of the smooth muscle cell that is designated with the letter Б:
a. actin filaments
b. cell centre
c. dense corpuscles
117
d. myolemma
8-6. Structure of the smooth muscle cell that is designated with the letter B:
a. actin filaments
b. cell centre
c. dense corpuscles
d. myolemma
8-7. Structure of the smooth muscle cell that is designated with the letter Г:
a. actin filaments
b. cell centre
c. dense corpuscles
d. myolemma
8-8. Structure of the smooth muscle cell that is designated with the letter Д:
a. actin filaments
b. cell centre
c. dense corpuscles
d. myolemma
Сурет 8.3 Сұрақтары 8-9-дан 8-12-ге дейін

8.3 Суретте 8-9-дан 8-12-ге дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Fig 8.3. Questions from 8-9 to 8-12
8-9. Structure of the striated muscle that is designated with the letter A:
a. longitudinal sections of the striated muscle fibres
b. transverse sections of the striated muscle fibres
c. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
d. nuclei of the muscle fibres
e. fibroblasts
8-10. Structure of the striated muscle that is designated with the letter Б:
e. fibroblasts
8-11. Structure of the striated muscle that is designated with the letter B:
118
e. fibroblasts
8-12. Structure of the striated muscle that is designated with the letter Г:
e. fibroblasts

86 8-13. Structure of the sarcomere that is designated with the letter A:

a. H-zone
b. Z-band
c. M-band
d. actin filaments
e. myosin filaments
8-14. Structure of the sarcomere that is designated with the letter Б:
a. H-zone
b. Z-band
c. M-band
d. actin filaments
e. myosin filaments
8-15. Structure of the sarcomere that is designated with the letter B:
a. H-zone
b. Z-band
c. M-band
d. actin filamements
e. myosin filaments
8-16. Structure of the sarcomere that is designated with the letter Г:
a. H-zone
b. Z-band
c. M-band
d. actin filaments
e. myosin filaments
119
8.6 Рис. 8.5 Вопросы с 8-17 по 8-19

86
8-17. Structure of the cardiac muscle that is designated with the letter A:
a. intercalated discs
b. Purkinje’s fibres
c. contractile cardiac myocytes
d. vessels
e. connective tissue
8-18. Structure of the cardiac muscle that is designated with the letter Б:
d. vessels
8-19. Structure of the cardiac muscle that is designated with the letter B:
d. vessels

8.7 Суретте 8-20-дан 8-23-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
8-20. Structure of the cardiac myocyte that is designated with the letter A:
a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
120
c. myofibrils
d. intercalated disc
e. trophic apparatus
8-21. Structure of the cardiac myocyte that is designated with the letter Б:
a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
c. myofibrils
8-22. Structure of the cardiac myocyte that is designated with the letter B:
a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
c. myofibrils
8-23. Structure of the cardiac myocyte that is designated with the letter Г:
a. mitochondria
b. nucleus
c. myofibrils
8. «Бұлшық ет тіндері» тақырыбы бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс

жауаптары
8. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме: «Мышечные ткани».
8. Correct answers to the tests on the subject “Muscular tissues”.
8-1 c 8-13 b
8-2 a 8-14 d
8-3 b 8-15 c
8-4 d 8-16 e
8-5 b 8-17 a
8-6 c 8-18 b
8-7 a 8-19 c
8-8 e 8-20 d
8-9 c 8-21 b
8-10 a 8-22 c
8-11 d 8-23 e
8-12 b
121
9 НЕРВ ТІНІ

9-1. Type of necroglia that is designated with the letter A:

a. protoplasmatic astrocyte
c. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocyte
e. microglia
9-2. Type of necroglia that is designated with the letter Б:
a. protoplasmic astrocyte
c. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocyte
e. microglia
9-3. Type of neuroglia that is designated with the letter B:
a. protoplasmatic astrocyte
c. ependymocytes
d. oligodendrocyte
e. microglia

122
9-4. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter A:

a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
d. granular endoplasmic reticulum
e. axon
9-5. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter Б:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
e. axon
9-6. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter B:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
e. axon
9-7. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter Г:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
e. axon
9-8. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter Д:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
e. axon
9-9. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter E:
a. perikaryon
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
e. axon
9-10. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter Ж:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. nucleus
d. Golgi complex
e. axon
9-11. Structure of nerve cell that is designated with the letter З:
a. dendrites
b. mitochondria
c. granules of glycogen
e. axon
123
9-12. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter A:
a. node of Ranvier
b. myelin sheath
c. axon
d. Schwann cell nucleus
e. Schwann’s sheath
9-13. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter Б:
a. node of Ranvier
b. myelin sheath
c. axon
9-14. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter B:
a. node of Ranvier
b. myelin sheath
c. axon
9-15. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter Г:
a. node of Ranvier
b. myelin sheath
c. axon
d. Shwann cell nucleus
e. Shwann’s sheath
9-16. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter Д:
a. node of Ranvier
b. myelin sheath
c. axon
e. Shwann’s sheath
9-17. Structure of myelinated nerve fibre that is designated with the letter E:
a. node of Ranvier
b. incisures of Schmidt-Lantermann
c. axon
124
9-18. Structure of the pancreatic Vater-Pacini corpuscle that is designated with the letter A:
a. sheath of the corpuscle
b. inner bulb
c. outer bulb
d. loose irregular fibrous connective tissue
e. acini
9-19. Structure of the pancreatic Vater-Pacini corpuscle that is designated with the letter Б:
b. inner bulb
c. outer bulb
e. acini
9-20. Structure of the pancreatic Vater-Pacini corpuscle that is designated with the letter В:
b. inner bulb
c. outer bulb
e. acini

9.5 Cуретте 9-21-ден 9-24-ке дейінгі сұрақтар бас әріптермен белгіленген.
Вопросы 9-21 по 9-24 обозначены прописными буквами на Рис. 9.5

9-21. Structure of the motor nerve ending on smooth muscle, that is designated with the
letter A:
a. axon of motoneuron
b. synaptic vesicles
c. mitochondria
d. lemmocyte
e. synaptic cleft
125
letter Б:
c. mitochondria
d. lemmocyte
e. synaptic cleft
letter B:
c. mitochondria
d. lemmocyte
e. synaptic cleft
letter Г:
c. mitochondria
d. lemmocyte
e. synaptic cleft
9. «Нерв тіні» тақырыбы бойынша берілген тесттердің дұрыс жауаптары
9. Правильные ответы к тестам по теме: «Нервная ткань».
9. Correct answers to the tests on the subject: “Nerve tissue”.
9-1 c 9-13 a
9-2 b 9-14 c
9-3 e 9-15 d
9-4 a 9-16 e
9-5 b 9-17 b
9-6 c 9-18 b
9-7 d 9-19 c
9-8 e 9-20 a
9-9 a 9-21 d
9-10 d 9-22 a
9-11 c 9-23 b
9-12 b 9-24 e
126

Histo Answer File

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Histo Answer File

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Histo Answer File

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

1.

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

SELECTION OF THE CORRECT ANSWER IN ACCORDANCE WITH THE PICTURES OR

The ordinal number … of the stages of making histologic specimens …

Methods of microscopy … are used for the investigation of …

1. Correct answers on the subject «Histologic technique»

1-1 a 18- d 1-15 a 1-22 c

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Cells organelles … participate in …

Intracellular synthesis of … takes place in:

2. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of «Cytology»

2-1 d 2-24 e 2-47 b 2-70 d

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Principal events of embryogenesis … are the processes of …

Primordia of … are derived from …

Extraembryonic organs … perform the function of …

Placental structures … are characterized by the fact that …

Structural elements of the following are …

3. Correct answers to the tests on the subject of «Embryology»

3-1 d 3-34 e 3-67 b 3-100 a 3-133 b

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Epithelium … arises from …

4. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Epithelium»

4-1 d 4-17 b 4-33 e 4-49 a

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Granules of leukocytes … are characterized by …

Formed elements of blood … perform function …

Leucocytes … in the blood smear their diameter is …

5. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Blood. Hematopoiesis»

5-1 e 5-29 c 5-57 d 5-85 a

6-24. What type of connective tissue contains a large number or melanocytes:

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Cells of loose irregular fibrous connective are characterized by …

Cells of loose irregular fibrous connective perform the following functions …

General connective tissue … is characterized by …

General connective tissue … constitutes …

6. Correct answers to the questions on the subject «Connective tissues»

6-1 e 6-21 b 6-41 e

7-1. Cartilaginous tissue arises from:

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Cellular elements of cartilaginous tissue are characterized by the fact that …

Structures of the diaphysis of tubular are characterized by the fact that …

Type of skeletal tissue … consists of …

Cells of skeletal tissue … are situated …

Unions of bones … they are …

Structural components of articulation consist of …

7. Correct answers to the questions on the subject «Skeletal tissues»

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Muscular tissue … develop from …

Muscular tissues and cells … are responsible for …

Cells of myocardium … are found in …

Structures of the muscular tissues … are characterized by the fact that …

8. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Muscular tissues».

8-1 a 8-19 e 8-37 c 8-55 c

SELECT CORRESPONDING (PAIRS) ANSWERS:

Neuroglia cells … perform the following function …

Structures that make up the myelinated represent …

Structures of nerve tissue … are characterized by the fact that …

9. Correct answers to the tests on the subject «Nerve tissue»