REAL EXAM 1

1. A substance that is composed of only one type of atom is called a(n)

a. compound. c. element.
b. cell. d. molecule.
2. All matter is composed of
a. cells. c. atoms.
b. molecules. d. carbon.
3. Surface area is an important factor in limiting cell growth because
a. the cell can burst if the membrane becomes too large.
b. materials cannot enter the cell if it is too large.
c. the cell may become too large to take in enough food and to remove enough wastes.
d. waste products cannot leave the cell if it is too small.
4. The size to which cells can grow is limited by their
a. location. c. function.
b. structure. d. surface area-to-volume ratio.
5. Which of the following organisms do not carry out photosynthesis?
a. plants c. certain prokaryotes
b. algae d. animals
6. The carbon cycle makes carbon compounds continuously available in an ecosystem and delivers
a. light energy to autotrophs.
b. water to all organisms.
c. carbon dioxide to animals within the ecosystem.
d. chemical energy to organisms within the ecosystem.
7. Chromatids are
a. dense patches within the nucleus.
b. bacterial chromosomes.
c. joined strands of duplicated genetic material.
d. prokaryotic nuclei.
8. When a chromosome condenses,
a. a histone wraps around chromatin.
b. beads form on the DNA double helix.
c. its centromere splits.
d. looped domains coil into a structure.
9. The simplest and most primitive method of reproduction is
a. sexual. c. haploid.
b. diploid. d. asexual.
10. Binary fission
a. occurs when two cells collide with each other.
b. produces excess energy.
c. creates new species.
d. is the process by which bacteria reproduce.
11. The “father” of genetics was
a. A. Knight. c. Gregor Mendel.
b. Hans Krebs. d. Charles Darwin.
12. Garden peas are good subjects for studying heredity because they
a. are difficult to grow. c. produce few offspring.
b. mature quickly. d. have few traits.
13. Avery and his research team concluded that
a. RNA was the genetic material.
b. protein bases were the genetic material.
c. DNA and RNA were found in the human nucleus.
d. DNA was responsible for transformation.
14. Using radioactive tracers to determine the interactions of bacteriophages and their host bacteria, Hershey and
Chase demonstrated without question that
a. genes are composed of protein molecules.
b. DNA and proteins are actually the same molecules located in different parts of cells.
c. bacteria inject their DNA into the cytoplasm of bacteriophages.
d. DNA is the molecule that stores genetic information in cells.
15. genetic engineering : human health ::
a. vaccine production : anticoagulant production
b. genetic counseling : preventing genetic diseases
c. vaccine production : genetic engineering
d. curing diabetes : insulin research
16. A strand of DNA formed by the combining DNA from two different species is called
a. determinant RNA. c. plasmid DNA.
b. recombinant DNA. d. restriction RNA.
17. Evolution can be defined as a genetic change in
a. species. c. chromosomal drift.
b. environmental variation. d. natural selection.
18. Darwin thought that the plants and animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those of the nearby coast
of South America because
a. their ancestors had migrated from South America to the Galápagos Islands.
b. other scientists in South America had written about similar species.
c. the island organisms had the same nucleotide sequences in their DNA as the mainland
organisms.
d. he found fossils, proving that the animals and plants had common ancestors.
19. The energy that was needed for the chemical reactions that formed the earliest organic molecules is thought to
have come from
a. the gases in the air and lightning.
b. heat from the ozone layer and water.
c. fires started by meteors and comets.
d. the sun or heat from hydrothermal vents.
20. Meteorites have provided evidence that supports the possibility that organic compounds
a. consist of amino acids.
b. are the building blocks of life.
 c. came to Earth from space.
d. could not have formed naturally on Earth.
21. In which of the following could one not reasonably measure biodiversity?
a. ecosystem c. population
b. habitat d. community

22. Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in the diagram is known as
a. competitive exclusion. c. symbiosis.
b. succession. d. oligotrophy.
23. Refer to the illustration above. The process shown in the diagram is known as
a. competitive exclusion. c. symbiosis.
b. succession. d. oligotrophy.

Population Growth Over Time

24. Refer to the illustration above. During which time period are the birthrate and death rate equal?
a. period A c. period C
b. period B d. period D
25. physical location : habitat ::
a. function : niche c. biodiversity : community
b. consumers : trophic level d. trophic level : food zone
26. In which of the following could one not reasonably measure biodiversity?
 a. ecosystem c. population
b. habitat d. community

27. Refer to the illustration above. According to the graph, the human population
a. changed very little for thousands of years.
b. doubled in size from 4000 to 1000 BCE.
c. reached 1 billion in 1000 CE.
d. will stop growing in the year 2000.
28. Renewable sources of energy
a. can replenish themselves naturally.
b. must be created in laboratories.
c. are manufactured from fossil fuels.
d. were never utilized until the 20th century.
29. All scientific names of organisms must be
a. unique and have two Latin words.
b. general and use the species name.
c. different and repeat the phylum name.
d. similar and include the common name.
30. Linnaeus’s two-word system for naming organisms is called
a. taxonomic evolution. c. Greek polynomials.
b. Genus species. d. binomial nomenclature.
31. In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
a. kingdom. c. genus.
b. family. d. species.
32. Structures found in bacterial cells but not in eukaryotic cells are
a. nuclei. c. membrane-bound organelles.
b. linear chromosomes. d. circular chromosomes.
33. Refer to the illustration above. Organism B has a shape similar to that of
a. Micrococcus. c. Streptococcus.
b. Bacillus. d. Leptospira.
34. Refer to the illustration above. The shape represented by Organism A applies to the bacterial genus
a. Streptococcus, which causes strep throat.
b. Leptospira, which can cause urinary tract infections in humans.
c. Bacillus, which produces antibiotics.
d. Penicillium, which produces penicillin.
35. Which of the following characteristics did not evolve in the Kingdom Protista?
a. unicellularity c. membrane-bound organelles
b. gametes d. complex cilia and flagella
36. sexual reproduction : diversity ::
a. flagella : cilia c. green algae : flagella
b. multicellularity : tissues d. unicellularity : protists
37. Eukaryotes that lack the features of animals, plants, or fungi are classified in the kingdom
a. Archaebacteria. c. Protista.
b. Plantae. d. Animalia.
38. The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a. cuticle. c. rhizome.
b. capsule. d. stoma.
39. Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a. cuticles. c. a circulatory system.
b. nonvascular canals. d. vascular tissue.
40. sporophytes : spores ::
a. sporophytes : gametophytes c. gametes : gametophytes
b. gametophytes : gametes d. sporophytes : gametes
41. The xylem in a plant
a. transports food from the leaves.
b. transports water and minerals.
c. exchanges carbon dioxide with the atmosphere.
d. exchanges sugars and starches with leaves.
42. The phloem in a plant
a. transports sugars.
b. transports water and minerals.
c. exchanges carbon dioxide and oxygen with the atmosphere.
d. exchanges water and oxygen with the soil.
43. The conducting cells of phloem are called
a. tracheids. c. sieve plates.
b. sieve-tube members. d. vessel-element cells.
44. The waxy protective covering of a land plant is called a
a. cuticle. c. rhizome.
b. capsule. d. stoma.
45. Some land plants developed an internal system of interconnected tubes and vessels called
a. cuticles. c. a circulatory system.
b. nonvascular canals. d. vascular tissue.
46. sporophytes : spores ::
a. sporophytes : gametophytes c. gametes : gametophytes
b. gametophytes : gametes d. sporophytes : gametes
47. Which is not a determining factor for whether an animal is an invertebrate or a vertebrate?
a. skeletal structure c. chordate characteristics
b. complexity d. evolutionary heritage
48. Kingdom Animalia includes
a. about 12 subkingdoms. c. the protists and bacteria.
b. about 35 major phyla. d. only large mammals.
49. The internal skeleton of vertebrates
a. allows vertebrates to grow larger than invertebrates.
b. plays an important role in the digestive system.
c. allows vertebrates to carry out asexual reproduction.
d. plays an important role in mate selection.
50. Which of the following has a true coelom?
a. flatworm c. rotifer
b. roundworm d. mollusk
51. mollusks : foot ::
a. gut with one opening : worms c. mollusks : pseudocoelom
b. earthworms : setae d. earthworms : pseudocoelom
52. In addition to a true coelom, mollusks and annelids both have
a. the same type of circulatory system. c. the same type of respiratory system.
b. a trochophore larval stage. d. an asexual reproductive stage.
53. Both arthropods and annelids have
a. jointed appendages. c. hydrostatic skeletons.
b. protective exoskeletons. d. segmented bodies.
54. Spiders, scorpions, and mites belong to the subphylum
a. Arthropoda. c. Hexapoda.
b. Crustacea. d. Chelicerata.
55. The exoskeleton of an insect
a. does not have any muscles attached to it.
b. is moved by muscles that are attached to the inside of the exoskeleton.
c. is thickest where the joints of the appendages are located.
 d. is moved only by muscles attached to the wings.
56. Which is not a determining factor for whether an animal is an invertebrate or a vertebrate?
a. skeletal structure c. chordate characteristics
b. complexity d. evolutionary heritage
57. Kingdom Animalia includes
a. about 12 subkingdoms. c. the protists and bacteria.
b. about 35 major phyla. d. only large mammals.
58. The internal skeleton of vertebrates
a. allows vertebrates to grow larger than invertebrates.
b. plays an important role in the digestive system.
c. allows vertebrates to carry out asexual reproduction.
d. plays an important role in mate selection.
59. Amphibian : moist ::
a. birds : heavy-boned c. reptile : scaly
b. reptiles : jellylike eggs d. bird : three-chambered heart
60. The heat-sensing organs between each eye and nostril of a rattlesnake are the
a. tracheal organs. c. thermal organs.
b. Jacobson’s organs. d. pit organs.
61. Reptiles are least active when the weather is
a. hot. c. cool.
b. warm. d. very cold.
62. Natural selection favors traits that benefit the
a. species. c. group.
b. individual. d. order.
63. Innate animal behaviors are primarily influenced by
a. genes. c. reasoning.
b. age. d. experience.
64. Trial-and-error learning is also called
a. classical conditioning. c. imprinting.
b. operant conditioning. d. habituation.
65. The heart and lungs are protected by the
a. pectoral girdle. c. rib cage.
b. pelvic girdle. d. periosteum.
66. Of the following, the structure that is not part of the axial skeleton is the
a. backbone. c. rib cage.
b. pectoral girdle. d. skull.
67. Refer to the illustration above. The material labeled D is known as
a. exocrine material. c. spongy bone.
b. cartilage. d. bone marrow.
68. Most of the body’s energy needs should be supplied by dietary
a. carbohydrates. c. vitamins.
 b. fats. d. proteins.
69. All essential amino acids
a. must be obtained from the foods we eat.
b. are made in our body.
c. are found in gelatin.
d. come from enzymes.
70. carbohydrates : energy ::
a. proteins : insulation for nerve tissue c. fats : protein
b. amino acids : enzymes d. fats : muscle
71. Blood, bone, and cartilage are examples of
a. three different tissue types found in the body.
b. connective tissue.
c. epithelial tissue.
d. organs of the body.
72. The skin is made up of
a. connective tissue. c. muscle tissue.
b. nervous tissue. d. epithelial tissue.
73. From the smallest functional units to the largest, the body is organized as follows:
a. cells, systems, organs, tissues. c. cells, tissues, organs, systems.
b. organs, cells, tissues, systems. d. systems, organs, tissues, cells.
74. Production of sperm and testosterone is regulated by luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone,
which are produced by the
a. testes. c. bulbourethral gland.
b. hypothalamus. d. pituitary gland.

75. Refer to the illustration above. Sperm are produced in

a. A. c. F.
b. E. d. H.
76. Refer to the illustration above. The scrotum is indicated by label
a. E. c. H.
b. G. d. I.
 REAL EXAM 1
Answer Section
1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.1
2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 3.1.1
3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 7.1.2
4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 7.1.2
5. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 9.1.1
6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 9.1.2
7. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 10.1.2
8. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 10.1.2
9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 11.1.1
10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 11.1.1
11. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 12.1.1
12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 12.1.2
13. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 13.1.2
14. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 13.1.2
15. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 15.1.2
16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 15.2.1
17. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 16.1.1
18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 16.1.2
19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 19.1.2
20. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 19.1.2
21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.1.1
22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 4.1.2
23. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 4.1.2
24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 5.1.2
25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 4.1.1
26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 4.1.1
27. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 6.1.1
28. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 6.1.2
29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 18.1.2
30. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 18.1.3
31. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 18.1.3
32. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 20.1.1
33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 20.1.1
34. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 20.1.1
35. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 21.1.1
36. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 21.1.1
37. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 21.1.1
38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 23.1.2
39. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 23.1.2
40. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 23.1.3
41. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 24.1.3
42. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 24.1.3
43. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 24.1.3
44. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 23.1.2
45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 23.1.2
46. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 23.1.3
47. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.1.2
48. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.1.2
49. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.2.1
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 28.1.1
51. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 28.1.2 | 28.2.1
52. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 28.1.2 | 28.2.1
53. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 29.1.1
54. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 29.1.3
55. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 29.1.1
56. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.1.2
57. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.1.2
58. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 26.2.1
59. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 31.1.1
60. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 31.1.2
61. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 31.1.2
62. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 33.1.3
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 33.1.4
64. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 33.1.5
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 20.2.1
66. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 20.2.1
67. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 20.2.1
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 36.1.2
69. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 36.1.2
70. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 36.1.2
71. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: I OBJ: 34.1.2
72. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 34.1.2
73. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: III OBJ: 34.1.3
74. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 40.1.1
75. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 40.1.1
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: II OBJ: 40.1.1