FINAL MODULE Edited

HEMATOLOGY
1- A high reticulocyte count with low RBCs, low

haemoglobin and low hematocrit indicate:
a. Iron deficiency anemia

b. Bleeding or hemolysis *****
c. Bone marrow failure
d. Aplastic anemia
_________________________________________
2- Auer rods are characteristic for:
a. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia*****

b. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
c. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia
d. Chronic Lymophoid Leukemia
_________________________________________
3- A lack of which of these will result in
abnormally large red blood cells and a condition
called megaloblastic anemia
a. Oxygen
b.Carbon dioxide
c. Vitamin C
d.Vitamin B - 12 and folic acid *****
_________________________________________
4- Stage II Non – Hodgkin’s lymphoma is :
a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the

diaphragm ;
b. Only one group of lymph nodes affected
anywhere in the body ;
c. Lymphoma either in organs outside the
lymphatic system or in the bone marrow
d. Two or more groups of lymph nodes
affected on the same side of the diaphragm
***
_________________________________________
5- Differential Diagnosis of Aplastic anemia
should be done except :
a. Acute leukemias
b. Primery myelofibrosis
c. Iron deficiency anemia***
d. Megaloblastic anemia
_________________________________________
6- What may be felt in the nech or under the
arms in aperson with non - hodgkins lymphoma ?
a. Pain and stiffness

b. Muscle tension
c. Excessive sweaing
d. Swollen lymph nodes****
_________________________________________
7- Hodgkins lymphoma can be except :
a. Lymphocyte rich
b. Follicular****
c. Nodular sclerosis
d. Mixed cellularity
_________________________________________
8- In the breakdown of RBC bilirubin is :
a. Oxidized to bilverdin
b. Excreted****
c. Returned to the pool
d. Reused by new red cell
_________________________________________
9- Stage IV Non - hodgkins lymphopma is :
a. Two or more groups of lymph nodes

anywhere in the body
c. Lymphoma either in organs outside the
lymphatic system or in the bone marrow***
d. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the
diaphragm
_________________________________________
10- Where does non - hodgkin lymphoma
originate ?
a. In the colon
b. In the limbic system
c. In the alimentary canal
d. In the lymphatic system****
_________________________________________
11- Stage Ill Non - hodgkins lymphopma is:
a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the

diaphragm *****
anywhere in the body
c. Two or more groups of lymph nodes
d. Lymphoma either in organs outside the
_________________________________________
12- Megaloblastic anemia is suspected in anemic
patients with :
a. Microcytosis and pancytopenia

b. Hypochromia and leukopenia
c. Macrocytosis and pancytopenia****
d. Normochromia and thrombocytopenia
_________________________________________
13- lymphoma belongs to :
a. Solid tumors
b. Membranopathies
c. Lymphoproliferative disease ****
d. Myeloproliferative disease
14- Mature T cells marker is
a. CD8 ***
b. CD20
c. CD117
d. CD30
_________________________________________
15- Which of the following is a possible sign or
symptom of non - Hodgkin lymphoma?
a. fever
b. Night sweats
c. All of the answers are possible signs or
symptoms****
d. Fatigue
_________________________________________
16- The cells that carry out acquired immune
response are
a. Platelet
b. Granulocyte Neutrophils
c. B Lymphocytes ****
d. Eosinophils
_________________________________________
17- Posthemorrhagic anemia can be:
a. Acute and Chronic****
b. Regenerative
c. Auoimmune haemolytic
d. Deficiency
_________________________________________
18- Anemia by the color index can be:
a. Hypochromic****
b.Microcytic
c. Normocytic
d.Regenerative
_________________________________________
19- For iron deficiency anemia is not right:
a. Can cause neurological symptoms

b. Treatment is iron supplements
c. Is Hypochromic Microcytic anemia
d. It is absorbed in duodenum and small
intestine****
_________________________________________
20- Diffuse large B cell lymphoma belongs to:
a. Aggressive lymphoma***
b. Hodgkins lymphoma
c. Very aggressive lymphoma
d. Indolent lymphoma
_________________________________________
21- Reed-Sternberg cells are present:
Select one
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma****
b. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
_________________________________________
22- WHO Criteria for ET diagnosis include all
except:
a. Megakaryocyte proliferation in the bone
marrow
b. Not meeting the criteria of other
myeloproliferative disorders
c. Platelets count more than 450 000/cumm
d. Hemoglobin elevation more than 16.5
g/dl****
_________________________________________
23- Which translocation is typical for Chronic
myeloid leukemia:
a. MLL-AF4
b. E2A-PBX1
c. PLM-RARA
d. BRC-ABL****
_________________________________________
24- If the patient has extremely low levels of B12
in the body , what could happen?
a. Severe rages
b. Liver cancer
c. Stomach cancer
d. Mental confusion and dementia***
_________________________________________
25- Isoimmune hemolytic anemia is caused by:
a. When antibodies from mother who is

suffering from autoimmune haemolytic
anemia passes fetus blood stream
b. Transfusion of no compatible blood
group****
c. Antibody is produced against foreign
antigens, it can be chemical , virus , bacteria
and so on
d. When antibodies are produced against own
erythrocytes
_________________________________________
26- Specific symptom of AML is
a. Fatigue
b. No specific symptoms****
c. Weight loss
d. Fever
_________________________________________
27- Which of the following is a good prognostic
indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukemia?
a. B-lineage immunophenotype****
b. CNS involvement
c. Age ˂ 1
d. A WBC ˃ 20,000
_________________________________________
28- Primary lymphoid organs are:
a. Thymus gland
b. Bone marrow
c. Both****
d. None of them
_________________________________________
29- A 60-year-old man presents with headaches
and anaemia . Investigations reveal an IgM
paraprotein of 30 g/L . What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a. Waldenstrem macroglobilinemia****
b. Mycosis fungoides
c. Follicular lymphoma
d. Burkitt’s lymphoma
_________________________________________
30- Erythropoietin is secreted by:
a. Bone marrow
b. Hupophysis
c. Kidney****
d. Adrenal gland
_________________________________________
31- Granulocytes are all except:
a. Basophill
b. Platelet***
c. Eosinophill
d. Segmented Neurophils
_________________________________________
32- Which of the following is a bad prognostic
indicator in acute myeloid leukemia :
a. Normal cytogenetics
b. ˃3 clonal chromosomal abnormalities***
c. Rapid response to therapy
d. No CNS involvement
_________________________________________
33- Mature B cells are:
a. Plasma cell****
b. Cd4+ lymphocyte
c. Mast cell
d. Cd8+ lymphocyte
_________________________________________
34- Tear-drop shaped erythrocytes are
characterstics for:
a. Primary Myelofibrosis****
b. Thalassemia
c. Multiple Myeloma
d. Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
_________________________________________
35- Hiatus Leukemicus is typical for :
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Chronic Leukemias
c. Myeloprolypherative disorders
d. Acute leukemias***
_________________________________________
36- What the WBC (leukocytes) indicates :
a. Secrete a variety of growth factors essential

for growth and repair of tissue, particularly
connective tissue
b.Pick up inhaled oxygen from the lungs and
transport to the body’s tissues
c. They release chemicals from their granules
that destroy pathogens; they are also
capable of phagocytosis , the monocyte , an
agranular leukocyte, differentiates into a
macrophage that then phagocytizes the
pathogens *****
d.Control of platelet plug formation
_________________________________________
37- Progenitor cell for basophils is:
a. Monoblast
b. Lymphoblast
c. Myeloblast****
d. Megakaryoblast
_________________________________________
38- M0 type of AML by FAB classification is:
a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
b. Undifferentiated acute myeloblastic
leukemia****
c. Myelomonocytic
d. Megacarioblastic
_________________________________________
39- CML means
a. All above
b. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia****
c. Chronic Megacaryoblastic Leukemia
d. Chronic Myeloblastic Leukemia
_________________________________________
40- Myloprolypherative disorders include:
a. Essential Thrombocythemia for the platelets
b.Polycythaemia ver ‘PRV’ in RBC
c. Primary Myelofibrosis
d.All above****
_________________________________________
41- A person can develop iron-deficiency anemia
despite eating food that contains adequate iron :
a. True
b. False
_________________________________________
42- Lymphocytosis can be caused by:
a. Autoimmune disorders
b. Myelodysplastic syndrome
c. Acute viral infections***
d. Immune deficiency
_________________________________________
43- Non-Hodgkin lymphoma:
a. Mixed cellularity
b. Lymphocyte rich
c. Follicular****
d. Nodular sclerosis
_________________________________________
44- In warm antibody haemolytic anemia
antibodies are mostly:
a. Ig E
b. Ig G****
c. Ig D
d. Ig M
_________________________________________
45- The hemoglobin types found in a normal
adult are:
a. A , A2 ; F****
b. A2 , F
c. A , A2 , C
d. S , A , F
_________________________________________
46- Stage I Non - hodgkins lymphopma is :
a. Lymphoma either in organs outside the

b. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the
diaphragm
c. Two or more groups of lymph nodes
affected on the same side of the
diaphragm
d. Only one group of lymph nodes affected
anywhere in the body******
_________________________________________
47- Secondary lymphoid organs are:
A. Lymph nodes
B. Spleen
C. All above
D. Lymphoid tissues
_________________________________________
48- Mature T cells marker is :
A. CD20.
B. CD117.
C. CD4.
D. CD30.
49- Anemia due to deficiency of iron or vitamin

B12 can be differentiated based on the
examination of the blood cells:
A. True.
B. False.
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
LABORTATORY MEDICINE
1- Hyperglycemia. At what concentration of

glucose can we talk about hyperglycemia?
A. 4.89 mmol/L;
B. 5.1 mmol/L;
C. 3,5;
D. ≥ 6.1mmol/L;
_________________________________________
2- Urea is a waste product formed in
A. muscles
B. liver
C. heart
D. Kidneys
_________________________________________
3- Which test is the new gold standard for

diagnosis of viral infections?
A. viral antigen detection
B. viral culture
C. ELISA
D. Nucleic acid testing (PCR)
_________________________________________
4- Reticulocytes are
A. immature red cell that contain RNA
B. immature monocytes that contain RNA
C. immature lymphocytes that contain RNA
D. immature eosinophils that contain RNA
_________________________________________
5- The most commonly ordered and most specific
marker of heart damage which is positive within
a few hours of damage and remains elevated for
up to two weeks is
A. Creatine Kinase
B. Cardiac troponin
C. AST
D. Myoglobine
_________________________________________
6- What is pancytopenia?
A. Decreased RBCs
B. Decreased PLTS
C. Decreased WBCs, RBCs and PLTS
D. Decreased WBCs 34.
_________________________________________
7- The preferred initial test for thyroid disorders
is :
A. T4 test
B. TSH test
C. T3 test
D. Free T4
_________________________________________
8- Erythropoietin stimulates production of
Select one:
A. Granulocyte;
B. Platelet
C. Lymphocyte
D. Red blood cell;
_________________________________________
9- Which dietary component(s) is/are needed for
DNA synthesis, and thus greatly influence the
production of red blood cells:
A. Calcium;
B. Vitamin B12 and folic acid;
C. Protein;
D. Iron;
_________________________________________
10- Which test is considered to be the most
specific test for identifying iron deficiency
anemia, unless infection or inflammation are
present?
Select one:
A. ESR
B. CBC
C. Ferritin
D. Reticulocyte count
11- Anemia arises due to deficiency of:
A. Iron;
B. Folic acid;
C. All of the above;
D. Vitamin B12;
_________________________________________
12- Full Blood Count (FBC) - test evaluates:
A. Kidney function;
B. Infectious disease;
C. Liver function;
D. The general condition of the body, with
pathological changes in the blood, requires
additional studies;
_________________________________________
13- What parameters indicate anemia?
A. RBC;
B. RBC, Hb, Hct, PLT;
C. RBC, Hb, Hct;
D. WBC;
_________________________________________
14- What you can be the cause?
A. Clumps;
B. Increase number of large PLT;
C. Schistocytes or microcytic RBCs;
D. EDTA-induce thrombocytopenia;
_________________________________________
15- T cells develop into several distinct type in:
A. Spleen
B. Bone marrow
C. Thymus
D. Lymph node
_________________________________________
16- Which additional parameters will help us
make a more accurate diagnosis?
A. Transferrin saturation,
B. Iron, serum
C. Vitamin B12
D. Glucose concentration."
E. C and D.
_________________________________________
17- How to calculate INR?
A. (PT patient/PT control plasma) ISI.
B. PT patient-PT control plasma.
C. PT patient ISI.
D. PT patient/PT control plasma.
_________________________________________
18- what is the INR?
A. ACTIVATED PARTIAL THROMBOPLASTIN
TIME.
B. Thrombin time.
C. International normalized ratio.
D. Prothrombin activity by index.
_________________________________________
19- about what pathology we can think?
A. Pernicious anemia.
B. Iron deficiency anemia.
C. Aplastic anemia.
D. Hemolytic anemia.
_________________________________________
20- which of the following signifies anemia:
select one
A. A low hemoglobin level.
B. A low platelet level.
C. A low white blood cell count.
D. A low sodium level.
_________________________________________
21- what parameters indicate anisocytosis:
A. WBC.
B. RDW.
C. MCV.
D. MCH.
_________________________________________
22- what is oligouria:
A. 780 ml/day.
B. 2200 ml/day.
C. Less than 500 ml/day.
D. Less than 100 ml/day.
_________________________________________
23- MCV and RDW are indicating on pathology
of:
select one
A. PLT.
B. NEUTROPHILS.
C. RBC.
D. EOSINOPHILS.
_________________________________________
24- a chosen concentration (mg/L) of an
antibiotic which defines whether a species of
bacteria is susceptible or resistant to the
antibiotic:
select one
A. A breakpoint.
B. Cut off value.
C. Sensitivity.
D. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
_________________________________________
25- Variation in erythrocyte shape is called ?

A. spherocytosis
B. anisocytosis
C. anisochromia
D. poikolocytosis.
_________________________________________
26- In which phase of laboratory testing do the
most errors occur ?
A. postanalysis
B. all are correct
C. preanalysis.
D. analysis
_________________________________________
27- The yellow color of urine is due to:
A. transferin
B. hemoglobin
C. urobilin.
D. Bilirubin.
_________________________________________
28- Normal pH range for urine is:
A. 5.4-7
B. 4.5-9
C. 4.6–8
D. 3.5-6
_________________________________________
29- Which is the example of organism in BSL3?
A. Staphylococcus
B. HIV
C. Ebola.
D. TB.
_________________________________________
30- The mean and normal range of Hemoglobin
for an adult male ?
A. 15.7 ( 14.0-17.5 ) g / dL.
B. 13.0 ( 12.0-14.0 ) g / dL
C. 13.0 ( 11.0-15.0 ) g / dL
D. 17.0 ( 16.0-18.0 ) g / dL
_________________________________________
31- Plasma is about 45 % of the total blood
volume?
select one
A. True.
B. False.
_________________________________________
32- Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine
with?
select one
A. Increased volume and decreased specific
gravity.
B. Decreased volume and decreased
specific gravity.
C. Decreased volume and increased specific
gravity.
D. Increased volume and increased specific
gravity.
_________________________________________
33- Select the statement about red blood cells

that is incorrect:
select one
A. Mature red blood cells lack nuclei
B. Red blood cells lack mitochondria
C. Deoxyhemoglobin carries oxygen.
D. Red blood cells contain hemoglobin.
_________________________________________
34- The type of white blood cell that often
arrives at the site of infection first , is a
granulocyte , and contains granules that stain
light purple is a ?
select one
A. Monocytes.
B. Neutrophils.
C. Basophils.
D. Eosinophils.
_________________________________________
35- Which is the example of organism in BSL 4 :

A. Staphylococcus
B. HIV.
C. TB.
D. Ebola.
_________________________________________
36- Normal value for INR in healthy people is ?
A. 2.5 or below.
B. 4.5 or below.
C. 1.1 or below.
D. 1.5 or higher.
_________________________________________
37- which test is used to screen for neural
defects such as spina bifida ?
A. Hcg.
B. AFP.
C. progesterone.
D. estradiol.
_________________________________________
38- Which pattern is characteristic for
hyperthyroidism ?
select one
A. T3-normal, T4-normal, TSH-low.
B. T3-high or normal, T4-high or normal,
TSH-low.
C. T3-high, T4-high, TSH-high.
D. only T4-high.
_________________________________________
39- Positive results for both CCP antibody and RF,
means ?
select one
A. most likely a patient has lupus.
B. a patient has osteoarthritis.
C. it is very likely that a patient has RA.
D. a patient does not have RA.
_________________________________________
40- In MTB testing culture Negative is reported

after ?
A. six weeks.
B. four weeks.
C. two weeks.
D. one week.
_________________________________________
41- Normal range of hematocrit (Hct) for an adult
male is ?
a. 41-51%
b. 61-71%
c. 51-61%
d. 71-81%
_________________________________________
42- Hematocrit (Hct) is ?
a. the average concentration of HB in a given
volume of packed red cell.
b. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to
the whole blood.
c. the content of haemoglobin inside a single
red cell.
d. the average volume of a single red cell.
43- Polyuria is ?
a. production of more than 2000 ml of urine
in 24 hrs.
b. production of more than 1000 ml of urine
in 24 hrs.
c. production of more than 800 ml of urine in
24 hrs.
d. production of more than 1500 ml of urine
in 24 hrs.
_________________________________________
44- Shortened aPTT tests may be due to ?
a. Von Willebrand disease.
b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC).
c. lack of vitamin K.
d. haemophilia A and B.
_________________________________________
45- The term primary hemostasis refers to ?
a. all answers are correct.
b. platelet reactivity at the site of injury.
c. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that
results in the conversion of fibrinogen to
fibrin monomers.
d. all answers are wrong.
_________________________________________
46- Lymphopenia can be caused by ?
a. acute viral infections.
b. lymphocytic leukemia.
c. HIV.
d. lymphoma.
_________________________________________
47- the blood urea nitrogen or BUN test is
primarily used ?
a. to evaluate heart injury.
b. to evaluate liver function.
c. to evaluate kidney function.
D. to rule out diabetes.
_________________________________________
48- Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) test evaluates ?
select one
A. haemoglobin concentration over the past
6 monthes.
b. haemoglobin concentration over the past
1 month.
c. the average amount of glucose in the
blood over the past 2 to 4 months.
d. the average amount of glucose in the
blood over the past 1 month.
_________________________________________
49- Concentration of antibiotic that inhibits the
visible growth of an organisim in an in vitro
system is ?
a. minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC).
b. a breakpoint.
c. cut off value
d. sensitivity.
_________________________________________
50- Mean cell haemoglobin concentration
(MCHC) is ?
a. the average volume of a single red cell.
b. the average concentration of Hb in a given
volume of packed red cells.
c. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to
that of the whole blood.
d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single
red cell.
_________________________________________
51- Mean cell volume (MCV) is ?
a. the average volume of a single red cell.
b. the ratio of the volume of erythrocytes to
that of the whole blood.
c. the average concentration of Hb in a given
volume of packed red cells.
d. the content (weight) of Hb inside a single
red cell.
_________________________________________
52- The mean normal range for platelet count is ?
a. 311 (172-450) × 1012/L.
b. 250 (150-350) × 109 /L.
c. 311 (172-450) × 109/L.
d. 250 (150-350) × 1012/L.
_________________________________________
53- The term secondary hemostasis refers to ?
a. all answers are wrong.
b. all answers are correct.
c. platelet reactivity at the site of vessel
injury.
d. the cascade of enzymatic reactions that
results in the conversion of fibrinogen to
fibrin monomers.
_________________________________________
54- Initial screening for coronary risk panel may
involve ?
A. only a LDL test and not a full lipid profile.
b. only a single test for total cholesterol and
not a full lipid profile.
c. only a HDL test and not a full lipid profile.
d. full lipid panel should be used.
_________________________________________
55- Reference intervals or "normal range" are
defined as the range of values into which ?
a. 100% of nondiseased ("normal")
individuals will fall.
b. 95% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals
will fall.
c. 75% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals
will fall.
d. 50% of nondiseased ("normal") individuals
will fall.
_________________________________________
56- Refractory periodontitis ?
a. develops due to a complete remission
after therapy, followed by recurrence of the
disease as a result of reformation of plague,
and calculus.
b. periodontitis unresponsive to any
treatment provided.
_________________________________________
57- Which is the lipid profile test ?
a. creatinine.
b. cholesterol total, HDL-cholesterol, LDL-
cholesterol, VLDL-cholesterol, triglycerides.
c. HbA1c.
d. total bilirubin.
_________________________________________
58- fasting plasma glucose level more than 126
mg/dL (more than 7mmol/L) indicates ?
a. indicates diabetes mellitus.
b. is a normal value.
c. indicates prediabetes.
d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant
women.
59- the ability of a test to discriminate disease
from no disease is described by ?
a. positive predictive value.
b. sensitivity and specificity of the test.
c. specificity of the test.
d. sensitivity of the test.
_________________________________________
60- Negative results for both CCP antibody and
RF, means ?
a. most likely a patient has lupus.
b. a patient has osteoarthritis.
c. it is less likely that the person has RA.
d. it is very likely that a patient has RA.
_________________________________________
61- Prolonged aPTT tests may be due to ?
a. extensive cancer.
b. disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC).
c. an acute phase reaction.
d. Von Wilebrand disease.
_________________________________________
62- excretion of more than 4 g/day protein in
urine is ?
a. minimal proteinuria.
b. heavy proteinuria.
c. normal value.
d. moderate proteinuria.
_________________________________________
63- "Schuffner's granules" are characteristics of ?
a. malaria.
b. megaloblastic anemia.
c. iron deficiency anemia.
d. pernicious anemia.
_________________________________________
64- a normal eGFR for adults is ?
a. greater than 90 mL/min/1.73m2
b. greater than 70 mL/min/1.73m2
c. greater than 50 mL/min/1.73m2
d. greater than 35 mL/min/1.73m2
_________________________________________
65- creatinine is a waste product produced by ?
a. liver.
b. kidneys.
c. muscles.
d. heart.
_________________________________________
66- Fasting plasma glucose level < 100 mg/dl (<
5.6 mmol/L) ?
a. is a normal value.
b. indicates diabetes mellitus.
c. indicates prediabetes.
d. indicates gestational diabetes in pregnant
women.
_________________________________________
67- healthy adults with no other risk factors for
heart disease should be tested with a fasting
lipid panel :
a. there is no need for lipid testing in this
population.
b. once every four to six years.
c. once every two years.
d. once a year.
_________________________________________
68- In hypochromia :
a. MCH and MCHC are usually decreased.
b. MCH and MCHC do not change.
c. MCH decreases but MCHC does not
change.
d. MCH and MCHC are usually increased.
_________________________________________
69- the mean and normal range for white blood
cell count is :
A. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x 1012/L
B. 11.5 (8.5-14.5) x 109/L
C. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 109/L
D. 7.8 (4.4-11.3) x 1012/L
_________________________________________
70- circle the correct answer :
A. precipitation immunoassays use
radioisotopes as labels.
B. precipitation immunoassays provide
the simplest method for antigens and
antibodies to react with each other using
inert particles as labels.
C. precipitation immunoassays provide
the simplest method for antigens and
antibodies to react with each other
without involving the detection of any
labels.
D. precipitation immunoassays use inert
particles as labels.
_________________________________________
71- In congenital viral infection :
A. maternal IgA and IgM antibodies
passively transfer across the placenta
into the fetal circulation.
B. maternal IgG antibodies do not
passively transfer across the placenta
into the fetal circulation.
C. maternal IgM antibodies passively
transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation.
D. maternal IgG antibodies passively
transfer across the placenta into the fetal
circulation.
_________________________________________
72- A very high level of ALT is frequently seen
with :
A. people with blocked bile ducts.
B. liver cancer.
C. cirrhosis.
D. acute hepatitis.
_________________________________________
73- Gross hematuria is :
A. presence of an increased number of
red blood cells in urine visible to the
naked eye.
B. presence of free hemoglobin in
urine.
C. presence of 3 or greater red blood cells
in urine per high-powered field.
D. all answers are wrong.
_________________________________________
74- The presence of hypochromic and
normochromic cells in the same film is called :
A. spherocytosis.
B. anisocytosis.
C. anisochromia or dimorphic anemia.
D. poikolocytosis.
_________________________________________
75- Based on cytochemistry myeloblasts are
positive for :
A. glycogen.
B. acid phosphatase.
C. MPO.
D. non specific esterase.
_________________________________________
76- coagulation basic tests. which parameters
indicate intrinsic pathways :
A. PT by quick method.
B. fibrinogen.
C. INR.
D. aPTT.
_________________________________________
77- What the WBC (leukocytes) indicate :
A. control of platelet plug formation.
B. they release chemicals from their
granules that destroy pathogens; they
are also capable of phagocytosis. The
monocyte an agranular leukocyte,
differentiates into a macrophage that
then phagocytizes the pathogens.
C. pick up inhaled oxygen from the lungs
and transport it to the body's tissues.
D. secrete a variety of growth factors
essential for growth and repair of tissue.
Particuraly connective tissue.
_________________________________________
78- Nocturnia is :
A. excretion of more than 400 mL of
urine at night with specific gravity <1.010
B. excretion of more than 1500 mL of
C. excretion of more than 500 mL of urine
at night with specific gravity <1.018.
D. excretion of more than 1000 mL of
_________________________________________
79- The specific gravity of a specimen indicates :
A. both answeres are wrong.
B. both answers are correct.
C. the number of particles of solute per
unit of solution.
D. the relative proportions of dissolved
solid components to total volume of the
specimen.
_________________________________________
80- Osmolality of a specimen indicates:
A. the relative proportions of dissolved
solid components to total volume of the
specimen.
B. both answers are correct.
C. both answers are wrong.
D. the number of particles of solute per
unit of solution.
_________________________________________
81- Which is the most accurate "gold standard"
test in diagnosing MTB :
A. serology.
B. molecular testing.
C. AF staining.
D. culture.
_________________________________________
82- Circle the correct statement:
A. up to 2 mg/dL acetoacetic acid in
urine is normal.
B. up to 20 mg/dL acetoacetic acid in
urine is normal.
C. up to 50 mg/dL acetoacetic acid in
urine is normal.
D. normally there is no acetoacitic acid
in urine.
_________________________________________
83- Measuring potassium is especially important:
A. in diabetec patients.
B. when a patient has jaundice.
C. all answers are wrong.
D. when there are symptoms involving
the heart.
_________________________________________
84- in FBC got leukocytosis with neutrophilia, left
shift. what process is indicated :
A. acute bacterial infection.
B. hepatitis of C.
C. viral infection.
D. diabetes mellitus.
85- What is polyuria:
A. 1780 mL/day.
B. &gt: 2500 mL/day.
C. 200 mL/day.
D. 560 mL/day.
_________________________________________
86- A relative increase of leukocytes is :
A. an increase in percentage and
absolute concentration.
B. an increase only in lymphocyte
concentration.
C. an increase in absolute concentration.
D. an increase in percentage only.
_________________________________________
86- If the platelet count is normal :
A. about 10 platelets are found per 10-
30 red cell.
B. about one platelets is found per 10-
30 red cell.
C. no single platelets is found per 10-30
red cell.
D. about one platelet is found per 100
red cells.
87- Microbes in BSL 3 :
A. are not known to consistently cause
disease in healthy adults and present
minimal potential hazard to personnel
and the environment.
B. pose a moderate hazard to personnel
C. can cause serious or potentially fatal
disease through inhalation.
D. are very easily transmitted and cause
serious or fatal disease for which there
are no vaccines or treatments.
_________________________________________
A. pose a moderate hazard to personnel
B. are not known to consistently cause
C. are very easily transmitted and cause
D. c. can cause serious or potentially
fatal disease through inhalation.
_________________________________________
89- Differential leukocyte count is :
A. ratio of leukocytes to thrombocytes.
B. percentage distribution of the
different types of leukocytes.
D. ratio of leukocytes to erythrocytes.
_________________________________________
90- eGFR should be calculated :
A. every time a creatinine blood test is
done.
B. only in patients on dialysis.
C. every time basic examination of urine
is done.
D. with CBC test
_________________________________________
91- red blood cells survive around ______days :
A. 10.
B. 120.
C. 360.
D. 240.
_________________________________________
92- Patient has HBsAg (-), anti-HBc (-), anti-HBs
(+). Patient is:
A. chronically infected.
B. acutely infected.
C. immune due to natural infection.
D. immune due to hepatitis B
vaccination.
_________________________________________
93- Specific IgM is usually found in blood within
the :
A. few hours after infection.
B. first week of primary infection and
typically becomes undetectable within 1
to 3 monthes.
C. all answeres are wrong.
D. after 6 months of primary infection.
_________________________________________
A. pose a moderate hazard to personnel
B. are not known to consistently cause
C. are very easily transmitted and cause
D. c. can cause serious or potentially
fatal disease through inhalation.
_________________________________________
A. are not known to consistently cause
B. pose a moderate hazard to personnel
C. can cause serious or potentially fatal
disease through inhalation.
D. are very easily transmitted and cause
_________________________________________
96- How do transferring level and total iron-
binding capacity (TIBC) change in iron deficiency
anemia?
A. transferring level and TIBC are high.
B. transferring level and TIBC do not
change.
D. transferring level and TIBC are low.
97- Which parameter in urine test indicates

infection:
A. Ketones.
B. Leukocytes, nitrite.
C. Specific gravity.
D. Bilirubin.
98- Progenitor cell for platelets is:

A. Megalocyte.
B. Erythroblast.
C. Megakaryocyte.
D. Megaloblast.
99- How to use glycohemoglobin parameters:

A. Gestational diabetes.
B. Further evaluation of borderline elevations of
fasting or post prandial blood sugar.
C. The amount of glycosylation is determined
byglucose concentration present over the two
or three months before obtaining the plasma
sample.
D. Oral glucse tolerance test.
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
_________________________________________
ONCOLOGY
1- Which of the following are good prognostic
factors in breast cancer?
a. HER 2 receptor overexpression
b. Grade III tumour
c. Lymph node involvement
d. Oestrogen receptor positivity
_________________________________________
2- Which one of the following best describe
follicular carcinoma of the thyroid ?
a. High risk spread to liver
b. Associated with poor prognosis
c. Best treated with surgery and radioisotope
therapy
d. Rapidly growing
_________________________________________
3- a 45 years old man has a positive stool guaiac
test during a routine physical examination. A
colonoscopy is performed and a 0.9 cm
circumscribed,pedunculated mass on a short
stalk is found in the upper rectum. Which of the
following terms best describes this lesion?
select one
A. Hamartoma.
B. Adenoma.
C. Choristroma.
D. Hyperplasia.
_________________________________________
4- Which of the following is associated with the
highest risk of breast cancer?
A. Nulipanty
B. Dense breasts on mammogram
C. Postmenopausal estrogen plus progestin
therapy
D. Postmenopausal obesity
_________________________________________
5- A 53-year-old woman presents with a palpable
mass in the upper outer quadrant of her left
breast. Breast imaging confirms the presence of
a 2.0-cm mass, and a core needle biopsy finds
invasive ductal carcinoma, grade 3, ER < 5%, PR <
5%, HER2 IHC 0. She proceeded with breast
conserving surgery and a sentinel lymph node
biopsy. Pathology showed a 2.2-cm invasive
cancer with negative margins. A total of two
sentinel lymph nodes were recovered, one of
which contained a 0.8-cm macrometastasis.
Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiotherapy are
planned. What is the preferred next step in
locoregional management?
Select one:
A. Completion axillary lymph node
dissection
B. Completion mastectomy with axillary
lymph node dissection
C.Completion mastectomy
D. No further axillary surgery
E. Ultrasound of the axilla to evaluate for
residual disease
6- in cancer of the ovary which of the following is
true?
A. The level of CEA is used to monitor
response
B. Teratomas are usually malignant
C.Common types are cystic
D. The common histology is a squamous
carcinoma
E. Blood-borne spread is an early feature
_________________________________________
7- Which of the following statements is/are
CORRECT regarding molecular abnormalities
observed in lung cancer?
A. C-Kit expression is seen in most NSCLCS
B. Chromosome 3p allele foss is one the
most common events in lung cancer
pathogenesis
C.all given options are correct
D. Chromosomal translocations have not
been seen in NSCLC
_________________________________________
8- Which of the following statements is correct
regarding pulmonary carcinoid tumors?
A. Adjuvant chemotherapy is the standard
of care following complete surgical resection
B. Surgery has a curative potential for
resectable localized tumors.
C. Most pulmonary carcinoids are atypical
carcinoids
D. Patients usually present with carcinoid
syndrome.
_________________________________________
9- Which of the following is true of cancer of the
cervix?
A. Surface ulceration is common
B. Lymph node spread is rare
C.The common form is an adenocarcinoma
D. The usual path of spread is into the
uterine cavity
E. Squamous cancers typically arise from the
endocervical canal
_________________________________________
10- A 55-year-old man with a 30 pack-year
history of smoking, presents to the emergency
room with shortness of breath. Chest radiograph
demonstrates a right upper lobe opacity.
Computed tomography scan reveals a 3.5-cm
spiculated mass in the peripheral right upper
lobe, which is suspicious for malignancy, without
any hilar or mediastinal lymphadenopathy. What
is the next best step in management?
A. Brain MRI
B. Refer to thoracic surgeon for resection.
C. CT-guided biopsy of the mass
D. Bronchoscopy and biopsy of the mass
_________________________________________
11- Which of the following parts of pancreas is
most common site for cancers?
A. Head of pancreas
B. Body of pancreas
C. Tail of pancreas
D. Diffuse
_________________________________________
12- Which three of the following are true in the
treatment of endometrial cancer?
A. Hormone replacement therapy should be
encouraged after treatment
B. Radiotherapy is not useful as the cancer
is radioresistant
C.Advanced disease may respond to
antioestrogen therapy
D. Most cases are cured after radical
hysterectomy
E. Chemotherapy is effective for advanced
disease
_________________________________________
13- Which of the following increases the risk of a
woman developing ovarian cancer?
A. Nulliparity
B. Use of oral contraceptives for >5
consecutive years
C. Tubal ligation
D. Breastfeeding
_________________________________________
13- CA-125 is most useful in what aspect of
ovarian cancer management?
A. Screening
B. Monitoring treatment
C. Diagnosis
D. Prediction of metastasis
_________________________________________
14- Characteristic features of BRCA1-associated
breast cancers include the following except
Select one
A. Young age at presentation
B. Estrogen receptor (ER) positive
C. Aggressive features
D. HER 2 negative
_________________________________________
15- A 28-year-old woman presented to her
primary care doctor with a right breast mass that
persisted through three menstrual cycles. A
mammogram was not interpretable due to dense
breast tissue, and an ultrasound showed a 2.5-
cm breast mass with associated left axillary
lymphadenopathy. A core biopsy of the breast
mass was obtained, showing invasive ductal
carcinoma, grade 3, ER/PR negative, HER2 2+ by
immunohistochemistry, with a FISH ratio of 4.3
and a HER2 copy number of 9.5. She reports a
family history of breast cancer in a paternal aunt
at age 35, a history of a brain tumor in that
aunt's child at age 10, and a history of a bone
cancer in a paternal grandmother. She is referred
for genetic testing. What is the most likely
genetic abnormality identified?
Select one:
A. PALB2 mutation
B. BRCA2 mutation
C. P53 mutation
D. APC mutation
_________________________________________
16- Colorectal cancer:

A. most commonly occurs in the caecum.
B. is the most common cancer in the US and
Western Countries.
C. is more common in males.
D. commonly arises from pre-existing
adenomas.
_________________________________________
17- Risk factors associated with colorectal cancer
include which one of the following?
A. Chronic aspirin therapy
B. Low intake of dietary fibre
C. Low intake of red meat
D. Irritable bowel syndrome
_________________________________________
18- Which one of the following is true regarding
the management of NSCLC?
Select one:
A. NSCLC is more chemosensitive than SCLC
B. 5 year survival rates of 15-20% have been
reported in selected patients treated with
chemo- and radiotherapy
C. Adjuvant radiotherapy should be used in
patients following surgical resection
D. Palliative radiotherapy is rarely used
_________________________________________
19- Which one of the following statements is
true of lung cancer?
Select one:
A. Screening has proved beneficial
B. Most are small cell in type
C. Approximately 25% of lung cancers are
large cell anaplastic in histological type
D. 80% are due to smoking
_________________________________________
20- As regards prognosis of NSCLC:
A. stage II disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 50%
B. stage IV disease is associated with 5 year
C. stage Illa disease is associated with 5 year
D. stage I disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 60-80%
_________________________________________
21- Mrs. Hanna is a 42-year-old woman who has
breast cancer metastatic to bone and liver. Her
pain has been well controlled on sustained-
release morphine, 120 mg PO bid, for 3 months.
Which of the following is most likely to occur as a
result of this treatment?
A. pharmacologic tolerance.
B. physical dependence.
C. respiratory depression.
D. psychological dependence.
_________________________________________
22- The following statements regarding screening

for breast cancer are correct?
A. Mammography is offered to all women
between the ages of 50 and 75 years in the
US and EU.
B. Most radiographically suspicious lesions
are subsequently confirmed as malignant.
C. Mammography is less sensitive in
postmenopausal women.
D. Studies have shown an approximate 30%
reduction in mortality with screening using
mammography.
_________________________________________
23- Which of the following is a rare site of breast
cancer metastases?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Kidney
D. Bone
_________________________________________
true of small cell lung cancer (SCLC)?
Select one:
A. Approximately 80% of patients respond
to chemotherapy
B. Limited stage disease describes disease
less than T2 N1 MO
C. Prophylactic cranial irradiation has been
shown to prolong survival
D. Surgery is the most important treatment
modality
_________________________________________
25- Characteristic presenting features of left
sided colorectal tumours include:
A. foul smelling stools which are difficult to
flush.
B. iron deficiency anaemia.
C. painless abdominal mass.
D. acute large bowel obstruction.
_________________________________________
true of systemic treatment of NSCLC?
A. Adjuvant platinum-based chemotherapy
confers no survival benefit
B. EGFR-TKI have a higher chance of
response in male smokers
C. Epidermal growth factor receptor tyrosine
kinase inhibitors (EGFR-TKI) such as erlotinib
have proven active in previously treated
patients with advanced NSCLC
D. Chemotherapy has no effect on survival
in advanced NSCLC
_________________________________________
27- Which of the following statements is
INCORRECT regarding large cell neuroendocrine
tumors (LCNEC)?
A. Paraneoplastic syndromes are commonly
associated with LCNEC
B. LCNEC are treated in the same manner as
NSCLC (non-small cell lung cancer), with the
same treatment algorithm, stage for stage
C. LCNEC are less chemosensitive than SCLC
D. Like SCLC (small cell lung cancer), LCNEC
have an aggressive natural history and
propensity to metastasize
_________________________________________
28- All of the following statements regarding
ovarian cancer are true,EXCEPT
A. Mucinous tumor types are resistant to
chemotherapy
B. Clear cell variant is associated with
hypocalcema
C. Endometroid variants are sometimes
associated with endometriosis
D. Immunostains on ovarian cancers
positivee typical cytokerate 7 and
cytokeratin 20 negative
_________________________________________
29- Which of the following statements about

HER2 is FALSE?
A. The addition of trastuzumab to
chemotherapy in the adjuvant setting
reduces the rate of recurrence by over 50%.
B. All given options are false
C.Lapatinib is a strong HER inhibitor
D. HER2 signaling is effected through
homodimer formation
_________________________________________
30- Risk factors for the development of NSCLC
(non small cell lung cancer) include:
A. Obesity.
B. Diet.
C. Occupational radon exposure.
D. Family hx.
E. Genetic susceptibility.
_________________________________________
31- which syndrome is characterized by the
presence of breast cancer, soft tissue sarcoma,
leukemia and prostate cancer?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia.
B. Peutz-jeghers syndrome.
C. Li- fraumeni syndrome.
D. Cowden syndrome
_________________________________________
32- Which of the following is not necessary
when a patient first presents with a breast lump
A. Examination of axillary lymph nodes
B. Chest x – ray.
C. Examination of breasts with patient
supine
D. Fine needle aspiration ( FNA )
_________________________________________
33- Which of the following is the most common
site of distant metastasis from head and neck
cancers :
A. Bone
B. Liver
C. Lung.
D. Thyroid
_________________________________________
34- Which one of the following symptoms is rare
in patients with progressive lung cancer ?
a) Headache
b) Urinary retention
c) Haemoptysis
d) Hypercalcaemia
_________________________________________
true of surgery for non - small cell lung cancer
( NSCLC ) ?
a) Pneumonectomy is the most commonly
performed operation
b) Surgery offers the best chance of cure.
c) About 30 % of patients are suitable for
resection at diagnosis.
d) Post - operative mortality rate is
approximately 10 %.
_________________________________________
36- As regards prognosis of NSCLC ?

a) stage IV disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 8 %
b) stage I disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 60-80 %
c) stage Il disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 50 %
d) stage Illa disease is associated with 5 year
survival rates of 40 %.
_________________________________________
37- Which of the following statements is true
regarding adjuvant treatment for early breast
cancer ?
a) No survival benefit has been
demonstrated with use of trastuzumab
( herceptin ) in the adjuvant setting.
b) Combination chemotherapy reduces
recurrence and improves survival in selected
patient groups .
c) Aromatase inhibitors are replacing
tamoxifen in premenopausal women due to
better outcomes and greater tolerability .
d) Radiotherapy is indicated after breast
conserving surgery only if > 4 nodes positive
or tumour close to the resection margin .
_________________________________________
38- Which of the following is true about head
and neck lymph node levels : Select one :
a) Levels II to IV : internal jugular vein lymph
nodes.
b) All of the above.
c) Level V : posterior triangle
d) Level I : submental and submandibular
areas.
_________________________________________
39- In treatment of metastatic breast cancer ?
a) bisphosphonates are used to control
hypocalcaemia .
b) chemotherapy is superior to endocrine
therapy.
c) responses to endocrine therapy tend to
occur within 2 months of starting treatment .
d) trastuzumab ( herceptin ) in combination
with chemotherapy improves survival in
patients who have tumours that overexpress
HER 2.
_________________________________________
true of small cell lung cancer ( SCLC ) ?
a) Approximately 80 % of patients respond to
chemotherapy.
b) Prophylactic cranial irradiation has been
shown to prolong survival.
c) Limited stage disease describes disease
less than T2 N1 MO.
d) Surgery is the most important treatment
modality.
_________________________________________
40- Which of the following is a rare site of breast
cancer metastases ?
a) Bone
b) Liver
c) Brain
d) Kidney.
_________________________________________
41- Which one of the following is true regarding

lung cancer:
a) Adenocarcinomas tend to grow quickly.
b) 5% of patients with lung cancer present
with, or develop complications of
nonmetastatic paraneoplastic syndromes.
c) Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone (SIADH) is associated with
hypernatraemia.
D) 80-90% of small cell carcinomas have
spread beyond the thorax at the time of
diagnosis.
_________________________________________
42- Which of the following is not an effective
treatment of breathlessness associated with lung
cancer?
a) Pleurodesis
B) Nebulised opioids
C) Regular doses of short acting oral
morphine
D) Endobronchial stenting
_________________________________________
true of mesothelioma?
A. Incidence is decreasing, reflecting the ban
on use of asbestos.
B. The disease is more common in females.
C. All deaths due to mesothelioma should be
discussed with the coroner
D. Radical surgery is the treatment of choice.
_________________________________________
44- risk factors associated with colorectal cancer
a) irritable bowl syndrome.
b) low intake of dietry fibre.
c) low intake of red meat.
d) chronic aspirin therapy.
45- characteristics presenting features of left

sided colorectal tumours include:
a) acute large bowel obstruction.
B) iron deficiency anemia.
c) painless abdominal mass.
d) foul smelling stools which are difficult to
flush.
46- features associated with poor prognosis in

colorectal cancer Include?
A) Adenocarcinoma cell type.
B) Rectal bleeding at presentation.
C) Presence of involved lymph nodes.
_________________________________________
47- Surgery for liver metastasis from colorectal
cancer is?
A) Associated with a 10% mortality.
B) Contraindicated if more than 1 lesion is
present.
C) Associated with 16-40% 5 year survival.
D) Usually followed with consolidation
radiation.
48- 5 fluorouracil based chemotherapy?

A) Is indicated for all Patients with Duke’s B
tumours.
B) In combination with capecitabine
improves survival to around 18 months in
metastasis disease.
C) Is likely to impair quality of life when used
in the metastatic setting.
D) Improves 5 year survival rates for patients
with Duke’s C tumours by approximately 7%.
49- which of the following is a feature of

colorectal cancer?
A) In Duke’s A disease >90% patients are
cured by surgery alone.
B) Distant metastasis are present in less than
5% of patients at presentation.
C) Chemotherapy has no effect on survival.
D) In Duke’s C disease.
50- Bevacizumab:
A) Is a monoclonal antibody that targets
vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF).
B) Is a monoclonal antibody that targets
epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR).
C) Has no proven survival benefit in the
metastatic setting.
D) Is standard treatment for metastatic
colorectal cancer in UK.
_________________________________________
51- regarding metastasis from colorectal cancer
and symptomatic management of them:
A) Liver metastasis are a rare feature.
B) Hyperproteinemia is common.
C) Liver capsular pain usually responds well
to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
D) Cerebral metastasis are common.
52- acute bowel obstruction in advanced
colorectal cancer:
A) Is usually managed by surgery.
B) Is usually caused by obstruction at a single
site in the bowel.
C) Should be treated with regular oral anti-
emetics, analgesics and antispasmodics.
D) Should be treated with using a syringe
driver containing a mixture of anti-emetics,
analgesics and anti-spasmodics.
53- which of the following are true of breast

cancer?
A) The life time risk for a woman of
developing breast cancer is 1/9.
B) For most women a specific cause of their
breast cancer is known.
C) Prognosis is worse for affluent women.
D) Incidence of breast cancer is decreasing.
_________________________________________
54- 30- risk factors for breast cancer Include?
A) Young age.
B) Young age at menopause.
C) Young age at first birth.
D) Young age at menarche.
55- the following statements regarding

screening for breast cancer are correct?
A) Mammography is offered to all women
between the ages of 50 and 75 years in the
UK.
B) Studies have shown an approximately 30%
reduction in mortality with screening using
Mammography.
C) Most radiographically suspicious lesions
are subsequently confirmed as malignant.
D) Mammography is less sensitive in
postmenopausal women.
56- which of the following are good prognostic

factors in breast cancer?
A) Oestrogen receptor positivity .
B) Grade lll tumours.
C) HER 2 receptor overexpression.
D) Lymph node involvement.
_________________________________________
57- which of the following statements is true of
breast cancer treatment?
A) Mastectomy is superior to breast
conserving surgery.
B) Chemotherapy can be used safely in the
first trimester of pregnancy.
C) Radiotherapy should be given to all male
breast cancer patients after Mastectomy.
D) Paget’s disease of the nipple should be
treated with wide local excision.
58- which of the following statements is true of

palliative treatment of metastatic breast cancer?
A) Hypercalcemia should be treated with
increased oral fluids and oral
bisphosphonates.
B) Increased back pain and weak legs
requires prompt investigation.
C) Bisphosphonates are used in treatment of
liver metastasis.
D) Neuropathic pain usually responds quickly
to opioid analgesics.
59- Which of the following may lead to oral

tongue cancers in individuals younger than 40
years of age:
A) TP53 (Li-Fraumeni syndrome).
B) Fanconi anemia.
C) Familial atypical multiple mole melanoma
(FAMMM) syndrome.
D) All of the above
60- HPV-positive oropharyngeal cancers show

improved response to therapy when compared
to HPV-negative cancers of the same site. HPV-
16 is responsible for what fraction of these
patients.
a) 90%
b) 80%
c) 70%
d) 60%
_________________________________________
61- HPV-positive cancers show improved
response to therapy when compared to HPV-
negative cancers of which sites:
a) Oral cavity
b) Oropharynx
c) Nasopharynx
d) All of the above
_________________________________________
62- Which of the following is true about head
and neck lymph node levels:
a) Level I : submental and submandibular
areas
b) Levels II to IV : internal jugular vein lymph
nodes
c) Level V : posterior triangle
d) All of the above
_________________________________________
63- Which of the following is a variant of
squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck
region:
a) Lymphoepithelioma
b) Spindle cell carcinoma
c) Verrucous carcinoma
d) Undifferentiated carcinoma
e) All of the above
64- All of the following cancers have the

tendency to spread to bilateral neck nodes
except :
a) Tongue base
b) Soft palate
c) Nasopharynx
d) Hard palate
65- Which of the following head and neck region

cancer has the highest risk of lymph node
metastasis:
a) Salivary gland tumors
b) Sarcomas
c) Squamous cell carcinoma
d) All have similar risk
_________________________________________
66- Which of the following is the most common
site of distant metastasis from head and neck
cancers:
a) Bone
b) Lung
c) Thyroid
d) Liver
_________________________________________
67- Panendoscopy is recommended for head and
neck cancers because the risk of synchronous
primary cancers is the upper aerodigestive tract
is:
a) 20%
b. <1%
c. 1- 10%
_________________________________________
68- In the treatment of head and neck cancers,
all of the following are advantages of surgery
compared with radiotherapy except:
a) More amount of tissue can be addressed
with surgery
b) Surgery takes considerably less time
c) The toxicities inherent to radiation therapy
can be circumvented
d) Radiation may salvage tumor recurrences
not amenable to surgery
_________________________________________
69- In the treatment of head and neck cancers,
all of the following are advantages of radiation
therapy compared with surgery except:
a) Post procedural surgical complications
may be avoided with radiation therapy
b) Radiation may result in better cosmetic
outcomes as no tissue is actually removed
c) Elective radiation of neck is potentially a
less morbid procedure than surgery
d) Salvage of a surgical failure with radiation
is easier than salvaging a radiation therapy
failure with surgery.
70- Conventional radiation therapy in head and
neck cancer primary site is once-daily
fractionation, 66 to 70 Gy per fraction, 5 days a
week. There are alternatives schedules available
too, which of the alternative schedules leads to
survival benefit compared with conventional
schedule:
a) Hyperfractionation
b) Concomitant boost schedule
c) Both of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2.
_________________________________________
71- Intensity-modulated RT (IMRT) provides a
more conformal does distribution compared to
conventional techniques of RT and it reduces the
does to the normal tissues. Which of the
following is not a disadvantage of IMRT:
a) It is more time consuming
b) Risk of late complications is increased on
“hot spots”
c) The risk of marginal miss may be higher
d) The “beam on” time is decreased
_________________________________________
72- Radical neck dissection is potentially a very
morbid procedure. To avoid the complications
associated with it, while maintaining the good
ontological outcome, modified radical neck
dissections (MRND) are performed. Which of the
following is a type of MRND:
a) Type I : cranial nerve (CN) XI is spared
b) Type II : CN XI and internal jugular vein are
spared
c) Type III : CN XI, the internal jugular vein,
and the sternocleidomastoid muscles are
spared
d) All of the above
_________________________________________
73- Which of the following modality is more
effective in the management of clinically node
negative (N0) neck :
a) Radiation
b) Surgery
c) Both are equally effective
d) Neither radiation nor surgery is
recommended in management of clinically
N0 neck.
74- Which of the following immunotherapy

molecules are approved in platinum refractory,
recurrent or metastatic head and neck cancer
a) Pembrolizumab
b) Nivolumab
c) Both of the above
d) Neither 1 nor 2
_________________________________________
75- Radiation therapy is combination with
surgery is indicated in many head and neck
cancer subsites. All of the following clinical
situations are indications for pre-operative
rather than postoperative RT, except:
a) Mobile-neck nodes
b) Expected delayed initiation of
postoperative RT by > 8 weeks
c) Gastric pull-up for reconstruction
d) Open biopsy of a positive neck node
_________________________________________
76- Which of the following are indications of
postoperative RT in head and neck cancers:
a) Close (< 5 mm) or positive margins
b) Extracapsular extension (ECE)
c) N2a or greater cervical node classification
d) Invasion of the soft tissues of the neck
e) Lymph-vascular invasion
f) Perineural invasion (PNI)
g) T3 to T4 tumor classification
h) > 5 mm of subglottic invasion
i) all of the above
_________________________________________
77- Chemotherapy in combination with
radiation is employed in the management of
various head and neck cancer sites. This
approach when used without surgery leads to
organ preservation and good oncological
outcomes. Which of the following are methods
of delivering chemotherapy with radiation:
a) Concurrent chemotherapy and radiation
b) Induction chemotherapy followed by
radiation therapy
c) Induction chemotherapy followed by
concurrent chemoradiation
d) All of the above Answer : all of the above
_________________________________________
78- Which of the following is the most accepted
management protocol advanced nasopharyngeal
cancers:
a) Concurrent chemoradiation
b) Induction chemotherapy followed by
concurrent chemoradiation
c) Concurrent chemoradiation followed by
maintenance chemotherapy
d) Surgery followed by concurrent
chemoradiation
_________________________________________
79- In larynx cancer management, organ
preservation is desired by both patients and
physicians. The seminal trials done on this
subject like VA trail and EORTC trail have shown
feasibility and good oncological outcomes of
radiation with or without chemotherapy in the
management of larynx cancers. Which of the
following is false regarding organ preservation
approaches in the management of larynx cancer:
a) Over 60% of patients in the CRT arm
avoided total laryngectomy in the VA trail
b) Patients in the combination
chemoradiation arm in the VA trail showed
better emotional well being and freedom
from pain compared with those being
treated surgically
c) In a meta analysis of VA, EORTC and
GETTEC trials of larynx cancer, there was a
non-significant trend towards improved
survival in the chemoradiation arm
d) In the RTOG 91 – 11 trial long term
mortality, not related to larynx cancer was
highest in the concurrent chemoradiation
arm compared with induction chemo
followed by RT and RT aloe groups
_________________________________________
80- All of the following are true regarding
squamous cell cancers of lips except :
a) Vermillion border of lower lip is the most
common site of origin
b) Surgery or radiation can both be used for
their management, surgery is preferable for
lesions larger than 2 cm in size
c) Upper lip cancers have worse prognosis
d) For small lesions interstitial brachytherapy
may provide excellent outcomes
_________________________________________
81- Which of the following is not true regarding
cancers of the floor of mouth:
a) Majority of cancers occurs in the anterior
part of FOM
b) Mandible invasion is a fairly early feature
c) For T1 and superficial T2 tumors the risk of
occult neck node mets is 10-15%
d) If the lesion is invading mucosa is
adherent to mandible but not grossly
invading it then marginal mandibulectomy is
to be done
_________________________________________
82- All of the following are true regarding
cancers of oral tongue except:
a) Granular cell myoblastoma is a rare by
highly malignant tumor involving oral tongue
b) Occult cervical lymph node mets occur in
around 30% of patients
c) Elective nodal dissection is indicated in
lesions of oral tongue with a depth of
invasion ≥ 4 mm
d) The PENTOCLO protocol is used in the
management of osteoradionecrosis
_________________________________________
83- Which of the following the therapeutic
modality of choice for discrete early lesions of
retromolar trigone:
a) Surgery
b) Radiation
c) Surgery followed by radiation
d) Combined chemoradiation
_________________________________________
84- Which of the following is not anatomically a
part of oropharynx :
a) Tonsillar pillars and tonsillar fossae
b) Pyriform fossa
c) Base of tongue
d) Soft palate and posterior pharyngeal wall
_________________________________________
85- For early lesions of oropharynx, which of the
following provides the best oncological outcome:
a) RT
b) Open surgery
c) TORS/TLM
d) All of the above
_________________________________________
86- The treatment of choice for BOT squamous
cell carcinoma is:
a) RT
b) Surgery
c) TORS
d) TLM
_________________________________________
87- Which of the following is the treatment of
choice for soft palate carcinoma :
a) RT
b) Surgery
c) TORS
d) TLM
_________________________________________
88- Which of the laryngeal cancer subsite has
the highest propensity for cervical lymph node
spread :
a) Glottis
b) Subglottis
c) Supraglottis
d) All have almost the same probability
_________________________________________
89- In which of the following situation in larynx
cancer, hemilaryngectomy which is potentially a
voice preserving surgery, can not be done:
a) Involvement of one cord and up to 5 mm
of the opposite cord
b) Partial fixation of one cord
c) Up to 9 mm of subglottic extension
anteriorly and 5 mm posteriorly
d) Extension to the supraglottic or
interarytenoid area
_________________________________________
90- Which of the following cancers of

supraglottis are better suited for surgery by
partial or total laryngectomy (what should be
their volume) :
a) > 6 mL
b) < 6 mL
c) None of the above
_________________________________________
91- Which of the following is not anatomically a
part of hypopharynx
a) Pharyngeal walls
b) Pyriform sinus
c) Post cricoid pharynx
d) Valleculae
_________________________________________
92- Retropharyngeal lymph node involvement is
frequent in pharyngeal wall tumors, which of the
following is the preferred modality of treatment
for these tumors:
a) RT
b) Surgery
c) TLM
d) TORS.
93- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma affects
individuals slightly younger age than other head
and neck squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the
following is not a type of nasopharyngeal
carcinoma :
a) Keratinizing
b) Nonkeratinizing
c) Undifferentiated
d) Basaloid Answer
e) all of the above
_________________________________________
94- For cancers of the nasal vestibule, which is
the preferred treatment :
a) Surgery
b) Radiation
c) Robotic surgery
d) None of the above
_________________________________________
95- For cancers of the nasal cavity, which is the
preferred curative modality : a) Surgery b)
Radiation c) Robotic surgery d) None of the
above Question 38 : For cancers of maxillary
sinus which is the preferred curative modality :
a) Surgery
b) Radiation
c) Robotic surgery
d) None of the above
_________________________________________
96- Which of the following is not true regarding
malignancies of salivary glands :
a) One fourth of parotid tumors and half of
submandibular tumors are malignant
b) Warthin Tumor generally occurs in older
men who are smokers
c) Perineural invasion and local recurrences
are hallmarks of adenoid cystic carcinoma
d) In the management of parotid gland
tumors, facial nerve needs to be sacrificed
often
_________________________________________
97- c-kit is commonly expressed in :

a) Pleomorphic adenoma
b) Adenoid cystic cancer
c) Lymphoepithelioma
d) Eskimoma
_________________________________________
98- Minor salivary gland tumors are most
commonly found on :
a) Buccal mucosa
b) Hard palate
c) Soft palate
d) Nasopharynx
_________________________________________
99- Which of the following is goal of oral cavity
reconstruction :
a) Obliteration of the oral cavity
b) Maintaining premaxillary contact
c) Maintaining the finger function of the
tongue
d) Facilitate retention and movement of
sections within the oral cavity
e) Optimize sensation of the remaining
native tissue and the revascularized free
tissue transfer
F) all of the above.
_________________________________________
100- Which of the following is true of ovarian
cancer?
a) It is the most common gynaecological
cancer in the UK
b) It is the second commonest cancer in
females
c) Approximately 10% are familial
d) Median age of diagnosis is 53 years.
_________________________________________
101- Risk factors for ovarian cancer include
which of the following?
a) Young age
b) Nulliparity
c) Multiple pregnancies
d) Prolonged use of oral contraceptive pill.
_________________________________________
102- Which one of the following statements
regarding screening for ovarian cancer is correct?
a) Screening using CA-125 is offered to all
women between the ages of 50 and 75 years
in the UK
b) Studies have shown an approximate 40%
reduction in mortality with screening
c) Serum CA-125 has a sensitivity of 50% and
a specificity of 20%
d) Trials of potential screening methods for
ovarian cancer are ongoing.
_________________________________________
103- Which one of the following symptoms is an
uncommon presentation of ovarian cancer?
a) Abdominal pain
b) Chest pain
c) Weight loss
d) Abdominal distension
_________________________________________
104- Which of the following is true of staging of
ovarian cancer?
a) Stage III describes disease which has
spread to the peritoneum beyond the pelvis
b) Stage I tumours are common
c) Any pleural effusion equals stage IV
disease
_________________________________________
regarding prognosis of ovarian cancer?
a) Stage I disease has a median 5 year
survival of
b) Stage II disease has a median 5 year
survival of 60%
c) Stage III disease has a median 5 year
survival of 20%
d) Stage IV disease has a median 5 year
survival of 10%
_________________________________________
106- In treatment of ovarian cancer:
a) Germ cell ovarian tumours require total
abdominal hysterectomy (TAH), bilateral
salpingo-oopherectomy (BSO), omentectomy
and lymph node biopsies
b) Chemotherapy is the most important
modality in the treatment of epithelial
ovarian cancer
c) Optimal debulking describes surgery
where no tumour remains which
measures >2cm
d) Optimal debulking surgery has been
demonstrated to significantly improve
survival
_________________________________________
of first line chemotherapy for epithelial ovarian
cancer?
a) Following platinum/taxane chemotherapy
5 year survival is >40%
b) Response rates to platinum/taxane
chemotherapy are approximately 50%
c) Median survival following
platinum/taxane chemotherapy is 2-3 years
d) The most commonly used chemotherapy
is a combination of docetaxel and oxaliplatin
_________________________________________
108- Which of the following is true of treatment

for relapsed epithelial ovarian cancer?
a) Platinum chemotherapy is the optimum
therapy for patients who relapse less than 6
months after completion of platinum based
chemotherapy
b) The response rate to platinum
chemotherapy is approximately 60% in those
who relapse more than 2 years after
completion of platinum based first line
chemotherapy
c) Most patients can be cured with further
chemotherapy
d) Most patients can be cured with further
surgery
_________________________________________
109- In metastatic epithelial ovarian cancer:
a) ascities usually responds well to diuretics
b) bowel obstruction is common and is
usually managed medically using
subcutaneous medication given via a syringe
driver
c) opioid analgesics should be avoided
d) lymphoedema is rare and treatment of it
is generally ineffective
_________________________________________
110- Risk factors for prostate cancer include
which one of the following?
a) Castration before age 40 years
b) Black race
c) Asian race
d) Young age
_________________________________________
111- Which of the following is true regarding
prostate cancer?
a) The lifetime risk of developing it is 10%
b) It is the most common cause of cancer
death in men
c) Incidence is falling
d) It accounts for approximately 30% of all
cancers in men
_________________________________________
112- In diagnosis of prostate cancer:

a) all patients should have a digital rectal
examination (DRE)
b) most patients with a PSA>4ng/ml will
have prostate cancer
c) urinary obstructive symptoms are highly
suggestive
d) biopsy is usually by fine needle aspiration
(FNA)
_________________________________________
true of prostate cancer?
a) Gleason score 3 describes a poorly
differentiated tumour
b) 65% of patients with Gleason score 5-7
will die from prostate cancer within 15 years
c) PSA >50ng/ml is often associated with
distant bone metastases
d) T2 describes a tumour that has extended
through the capsule
_________________________________________
114- Which of the following statements is true in
management of prostate cancer which is
confined to the prostate gland?
a) Active surveillance is a valid approach
b) Prostatectomy has been shown to be
superior to radiotherapy
c) Radiotherapy causes impotence in 50% of
patients
d) Prostatectomy leads to long term
incontinence in 5% of patients
_________________________________________
115- In metastatic prostate cancer:
a) median survival is 18 months
b) hormone therapy will produce responses
in around 70% of men with bone metastases
c) the median response duration of hormone
therapy is 8 months
d) chemotherapy is the most commonly used
systemic treatment used
_________________________________________
116- Side effects of hormone treatment rarely

a) Hot flushes
b) Loss of libido and potency
c) Osteoporosis
d) Myelopsuppression
_________________________________________
117- In treatment of hormone refractory
prostate cancer:
a) docetaxel and prednisolone have been
shown to increase median survival by 2
months
b) mitoxantrone and prednisolone have been
shown to increase median survival by 1
month
c) withdrawing anti-androgen therapy
confers no benefit
d) intravenous radio-isotope therapy has
been shown to increase median survival by 3
months
_________________________________________
true of prostate bone metastases and their
complications?
a) Most fractures occur as the result of
trauma
b) Spinal cord compression is usually
managed surgically
c) Prophylactic orthopaedic intervention may
be required for bone lesions at high risk of
fracture
d) Bisphosphonates may help to reduce bone
pain but do not reduce the number of
cancer-associated skeletal events
_________________________________________
119- Which one of the following symptoms is
rare in patients with progressive prostate
cancer?
a) Symptomatic anaemia
b) Urinary retention
c) Sexual dysfunction
d) Haematemesis.
120- Which of the following is true of

endometrial cancer?
A. It is related to infection with the
HPV virus.
B.It can be prevented by cervical smear
screening programs.
C. It is most common in
premenopausal women.
D. It can be caused by treatment for
breast cancer.
121- Cancer staging has several purposes. All

statements are correct regarding cancer staging
except?
A. It defines the regional and distant
extend of disease.
B. All given statements are true.
C. Staging may be clinical, non clinical
and pathological.
D. It helps to determine optimum
treatment and provides prognostic
information.

about the pathology of breast cancer?
A. Most are squamous carcinomas.
B. Paget's disease of the nipple is
always associated with an underlying
cancer.
C. Inflammatory cancers account for
10 per cent of cases.
D. LCIS is frequently detected by
mammogram.
E. Lobular carcinomas are more
commn than ductal.
123- Which one of the following is not a
presenting feature of oesophageal cancer:
A. Dysphagia.
B. Weight loss.
C. Acid reflux.
D. Regurgitation of food.
E. Pulmonary aspiration.
124- In the above 76 year old gentleman, a PET

scan does not reveal any other sites of
metastatic disease and a mediastinoscopy does
not reveal the presence of carcinoma cells in
the mediastinal or hilar lymph nodes. What
stage is the patient's lung cancer with 3 cm in
diameter?
A. Stage IIB.
B. Stage IV.
C. Stage I.
D. Stage IIA.
E.Stage III.
125- A 35 year old postmenopausal woman of
Ashkenazi jewish ancestry presents to you
because her 60-year-old paternal aunt was
recently diagnosed with ovarian cancer, and
she is concerned about her own risk for
ovarian cancer. She has no siblings, and there
is no other family history of cancer. She has
two living children and is in good health, and
her pelvic examination is unremarkable. You
should advise her that:
a. She should visit a genetic counselor.
b. Annual transvaginal ultrasound and CA-125
screening can reduce her risk of mortality.
126- a 58-year-old man with a 700-pack-

peryear smoking history presents to the
emergency department with shortness of
breath and hemoptysis. Portable chest
radiography demonstrates a large mass
centrally located within the left lung field. The
serum calcium is 13.0 mg/dl (normal 8.5 to
10.2). the metabolic abnormality described
here is likely due to elaboration of which
substance:
a. carcinoembryonic antigen.
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone-like substance.
c. Parathyroid-related hormone.
d. Antidiuretic hormone.
127- Brachytherapy is type of radiotherapy

which uses several types of source besides:
a. Enteral treatment with radioactive capsules.
b. Radioactive source placed directly over
superficial tumor of the skin.
c. Interstitial brachytherapy this uses
radioactive needles or wire inserted directly in
the tumor.
d. Intracavity treatment this uses radioactive
sources (tubes or containers) placed within a
body cavity.

true about the prognosis of lung cancer?
a. Non-small cell lung cancer cannot be cured by
radiotherapy.
b. 10-20 per cent will be cured.
c. Small cell histology is a poor prognostic
factor.
d. The median survival of untreated small cell
lung cancer is 12 months.
e. Adenocarcinomas have a particularly poor
prognosis.
129- Which one of the following is true about

the treatment of colorectal cancer:
a. Preoperative radiotherapy for rectal cancer
substantially increases the risk of operative
complications.
b. Those having a colostomy have a worse
prognosis.
c. Advanced stages of the disease responds to
VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor)
inhibitors.
d. Surgery alone is not curative.
e. Platinum compounds have no significant
activity in this disease.
130- Surgical management of malignant

primary tumors have several components
besides:
A. Tissue biopsy to establish morphological
diagnosis.
B. Control of hemorrhage, control of
obstructive symptoms, fracture reduction and
fixation.
C. Removal of malignant tumor with a clear
margin of normal tissue.
D. Repair, reconstruction and restoration of
function.
131- External beam radiotherapy is the most

common of treatment in clinical use. There are
several types of external beam machines
besides:
A. Orthovoltage machine.
B. Superficial voltage machine.
C. Macrovoltage machine.
D. Megavitage machine.
132- Which of the following is true of the

treatment of ovary cancer?
A. Chemotherapy with cisplatin And paclitaxil
is standard in stage III.
B. Radical surgery is usually curative.
C. Unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is the
usual operation for stage I.
D. Hormone replacement therapy is
contraindicated.
E. Postoperative radiotherapy is indicated for
high-risk stage I disease.
133- Which of the following tumors of the liver

is most common hepatic tumor of childhood?
A. Cavernous hemangioma.
B. Hepatocellular carcinoma.
C. Hepatoblastoma.
D. Hepatic adenoma.
134- A 50-year-old woman has a stage 2 HER2-

positive breast cancer and will recieive a
trastuzumab-based regimen. She asks you
about the toxicity profile. You reply that
trastuzumab is generally safe, but rare adverse
effects can include:
A. Lower seizure threshold, rash, long QT
interval.
B. Renal impairment, lowering of cardiac
ejection fraction, infusion reaction.
C. Infusion reaction, lowering of cardiac ejection
fraction interstitial pneumonitis.
D. Hypertention, vomiting, renal impairment.
E. Rash diarrhea stomatitis.
135- Which of the following applies to cancer
of the ovary:
A. It is common in japan and the far east.
B. It is usually diagnosed with symptoms at an
early age.
C. There is 50 per cent risk in patients with the
BRCA1 gene.
D. It is most common in women under 40 years
of age.
136- Which of the following statements are

true about mesothelioma?
A. There is with asbestos.
B. Distant metastases are uncommon.
C. Presents with haemoptysis.
D. Chemotherapy is mainstay of treatment.
137- Which of the following liver tumors is

benign?
A. Cavernous hemangiomas.
B.Angiosarcoma.
C. All given options are benign.
D. Hepatocellular carcinomas.
138- Which of the following is true of
choriocarcinoma:
A. Future pregnancy is contraindicated.
B. It typically occurs in women aged 20-40
years.
C. Surgical excision is the best treatment.
D. Metastases are present in a third of women
at presentation.
_______________________________________
_______________________________________
_____________________________________
PALLIATIVE CARE
1- Pharmacologic tolerance develops to all of the

following side effects of opioid analgesics except:
a. respiratory depression
b. sedation
c. nausea
d. Constipation
_________________________________________
2- The mixed opioid agonist-antagonists, such as
pentazocine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, and
dezocine, should not be used in the patient
already taking a pure agonist opioid as there is a
high risk they will precipitate withdrawal.
A. only for delirious patients
B. not true
C. true
D. for moderate to severe pain
3- If pain remains uncontrolled after 24 hours:
A. never increase the routine dose, rescue
medication used during the previous 24
hours by 10 to 15%;
B. increase the routine dose by an amount
at least equal to the total dose of rescue
hours and rotate the medication another
opioid;
C. never increase the routine dose, stop
medications and try the non pharmacology
intervention;
D. increase the routine dose by an amount
at least equal to the total dose of rescue
hours, or by 25% to 50% for mild to
moderate pain, and 50% to 100% for severe
to uncontrolled pain
_________________________________________
4- For each breakthrough dose:
A. offer 1% to 5% of the total 24-hour dose
of opioid at a frequency equal to Cmax for
the choser
B. offer 20% of the total 24-hour dose of
opioid at a frequency equal to Cmax for the
chosen route
C. offer 5% to 15% of the total 24-hour dose
of opioid at a frequency equal to Cmax for
the chosen route of administration.
D. offer 25% of the total 24-hour dose of
opioid at a frequency equal to Cmax for the
chosen route
5- The nonopioid analgesics that characterize

step 1 of the WHO ladder (acetaminophen,
NSAIDs) all h moderate to maximal doses to
achieve optimal efficacy quickly.
A. True for only for nociceptic pain
B. True for all cases
C.True, but not for geriatric cases
D. True for only for cases with mixed pain
6- The route of administration for strong opioids

is preferable for chronic pain management is:
Select one
A. IV
B. OP
C.IM
D. SC
_________________________________________
7- Neuropathic pain is:
A. Usually treated with anti- inflammatory
agents.
B. A result of disorderd nerve function.
C.Due to direct stimulation of intact not.
D. Rarely responsive to opioid analgesics.
_________________________________________
8- All of the following are key elements of
palliative care EXCEPT:
A. Pain and symptom management.
B. Psychological and spiritual support.
C.Getting the patient to be DNR.
D. Coordination of care.
_________________________________________
9- The single MOST IMPORTANT feature that
defines opioid drug addiction (psychological
dependence) is :
A. An increasing need for the drug over
time.
B. Complaint of pain exceeding that
expected for a given medical problem.
C.Development of withdrawal when the drug is
stopped.
D. Evidence of adverse life consequences
from drug use.
_________________________________________
10- Every 12 hours, Mr. Kelly has been taking 60
mg of long-acting morphine. The best initial
order for breakthrough short-acting morphine is:
A. 10 mg q4
B. 15 mg q4
C.30mg q4
D. 45mg q4
_________________________________________
11- The single MOST IMPORTANT supplemental
therapy to consider at the time of starting
patients on opioids for pain is:
A. NSAIDs for adjuvant pain.
B. Laxatives for constipation.
C.Anti depressants to supplement pain relief.
D. Anti emetic to treat nausea.
_________________________________________
12- You are completing a family meeting for a
patient with moderately advanced Alzheimer’s
type dementia in which you have been
describing the nature and likely course of the
disease. The patient is unable to participate. In
concluding the meeting, it is MOST IMPORTANT
to:
A. Summarize the plan for care.
B. Tell the family all is gonna be okay.
C.Make them feel strong.
D. None of these.
_________________________________________
13- Mrs. DeGilio is an 84-year-old woman with
rheumatoid arthritis affecting her hands, feet,
and knees. Today she notes increased swelling
and pain in her knees.
An important question in pain assessment is:
A. Have you noticed a fever?
B. How does it affect your life?
C.Have you lost weight?
D. How are you feeling overall?
_________________________________________
14- Mr. Martin has locally advanced transitional
cell cancer of the bladder with chronic pelvic and
abdominal pain. Which of in determining the
maximum dose of oral morphine during dose
titration?
Select one:
A. respiratory depression
B. strength of pill
C.pain relief.
D. risk of overstepping regulatory limits
15- There is no reason to delay the use of

analgesics while diagnosing and treating the
underlying cause of the pain:
A. True only for chronic pain.
B. True.
C. False.
D. Not always.

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HEMATOLOGY

1- A high reticulocyte count with low RBCs, low

a. Iron deficiency anemia

a. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia*****

a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the

a. Pain and stiffness

a. Two or more groups of lymph nodes

a. lymph nodes affected on both sides of the

a. Microcytosis and pancytopenia

a. Can cause neurological symptoms

a. When antibodies from mother who is

a. Secrete a variety of growth factors essential

a. Lymphoma either in organs outside the

49- Anemia due to deficiency of iron or vitamin

1- Hyperglycemia. At what concentration of

3- Which test is the new gold standard for

25- Variation in erythrocyte shape is called ?

33- Select the statement about red blood cells

35- Which is the example of organism in BSL 4 :

40- In MTB testing culture Negative is reported

97- Which parameter in urine test indicates

98- Progenitor cell for platelets is:

99- How to use glycohemoglobin parameters:

D. Oral glucse tolerance test.

16- Colorectal cancer:

22- The following statements regarding screening

29- Which of the following statements about

36- As regards prognosis of NSCLC ?

41- Which one of the following is true regarding

45- characteristics presenting features of left

46- features associated with poor prognosis in

48- 5 fluorouracil based chemotherapy?

49- which of the following is a feature of

53- which of the following are true of breast

55- the following statements regarding

56- which of the following are good prognostic

58- which of the following statements is true of

59- Which of the following may lead to oral

60- HPV-positive oropharyngeal cancers show

64- All of the following cancers have the

65- Which of the following head and neck region

74- Which of the following immunotherapy

90- Which of the following cancers of

97- c-kit is commonly expressed in :

108- Which of the following is true of treatment

112- In diagnosis of prostate cancer:

116- Side effects of hormone treatment rarely

120- Which of the following is true of

121- Cancer staging has several purposes. All

122- Which of the following statements is true

124- In the above 76 year old gentleman, a PET

126- a 58-year-old man with a 700-pack-

127- Brachytherapy is type of radiotherapy

128- Which one of the following statements is

129- Which one of the following is true about

130- Surgical management of malignant

131- External beam radiotherapy is the most

132- Which of the following is true of the

133- Which of the following tumors of the liver

134- A 50-year-old woman has a stage 2 HER2-

136- Which of the following statements are

137- Which of the following liver tumors is

1- Pharmacologic tolerance develops to all of the