Captoc - Flash Course

B1B2 FLASH COURSE
SECTION 1: LISTENING
LISTENING PART 1
I – Topics: Questions about the topic ask you to identify the subject of the conversation. Common
questions include:
What are the speakers discussing?
What is the subject of the conversation?
What--------------
problem are the speakers discussing?
What is the woman talking about?
What are the people mainly discussing?
To answer questions about the topic, it is important to recognize words and phrases connected
to a wide range of work-related topics.
Exercise B: Track 66. Listen to five conversations. Choose one statement: (A), (B), (C), or (D), that
best answers each question. Listen for KEY WORDS
1. What are the speakers discussing? 3D
(A) A play Reviews acting plot music special effects
(B) A movie
------------------
(C) A presentation (D) A concert
2. What is the woman talking about?
(A) A set of cutlery smell put table vase water (B) A pair of shoes
(C) A bouquet of flowers
--------------------------------- (D) An oil painting
3. What is the subject of the conversation?
(A) A sales campaign apply salary resume interview(B) A company merger
(C) A marketing report job sale target (D) A job vacancy
----------------------------
4. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
(A) Flight times fare flight hotel meal included deposit (B) Ticket prices
(C) Travel plans monitor screen cursor
---------------------- (D) Hotel reservations
5. What is the man’s problem?
(A)--------------------------------------------------
He cannot use his computer properly. (B) He cannot complete his work in time.
(C) He took the wrong turn. (D) He lost some important files.
II – People: Questions about people ask about relationships, positions within a company, or
occupations. Common questions include:
Who most----------
-------- likely are the------------
speakers?
Who is the man talking to?
Who is the woman?
What is the man’s occupation?
---------------------------
1
What is the woman’s position in the company?
---------------------------
To answer questions about people, it is useful if you know words and phrases that are connected to
these themes.
best answers each question.
1. Who most likely is the man?
(A) A furniture salesman veterinarian (B) An exercise instructor Nguyên tắc nghe
(C) A vet lose fur hair feather (D) A decorator - Đọc kỹ câu hỏi trước khi nghe
----------------- - Xác định ý câu hỏi và từ khóa
2. Who is the woman speaking to?
(A) A gallery attendant overdue read (B) A pharmacist Trong lúc nghe, đừng cố nghe chính
(C) A customs officer late return (D) A librarian xác, thay vì vậy cố gắng hiểu thong qua
---------------------- từ khóa.
3. What is the man’s occupation?
(A) Insurance salesman leak fix sink water (B) Plumber
------------------ Khi chọn câu trả lời, tránh chọn câu trả lời có:
(C) Police officer coverage policy (D) Chef - từ, cụm từ phát âm giống 100% sai
4. What is the woman’s position in the company? - từ của bài nghe mà k lập lại 80% sai
- chứa từ liên quan 80% sai
(A) Regional managersince i took over running the store(B) Office manager
(C) Shift supervisor (D) Store manager câu trả lời đúng:
---------------------------- - có chứa đồng nghĩa với từ của bài
5. Who is the woman?
nghe; chứa trái nghĩa là sai.
(A) A waitress seatbelt fastened bumpy (B) A flight attendant
------------------------------ - chúa rất ít từ, cụm từ của bài nghe
(C) A store clerk turbulence landing (D) A sales representative(dùng từ lạ, K xuất hiện trong bài nghe)
2
III – Activities: Questions about activities ask about actions in progress, actions in the past, future
plans, and suggestions. Common questions include:
What are the speakers doing?
What will the woman do next?
How does the man plan to spend the afternoon?
What does the woman suggest the man do?
What does the man ask the woman to do?
To answer questions about activities, it is useful if you are familiar with common collocations.
Collocations are words that are often used together.
1. What happened to the woman last week?
------------------------
---------------------
(A) She went to a concert. packed visitors (B) She attended a convention.
-----------------------------------------
(C) She moved home. booth hall new orders contacts(D) She won an award.
2. What are the speakers doing?
-------------------------
(A) Checking the time seats left 3 stops (B) Looking for a sign
(C) Traveling by car (D) Waiting for a bus
------------------------------
3. What does ----------------------------
the man decide to do? It won't do any harm will it?
(A) Go on another interview (B) Wait a little longer
------------ I guess not
(C) Contact the company (D) Try to be more positive
----------------------------------
4. What does the ---------------------------------------
woman suggest the man do?
(A) Stop playing sports (B) See his doctor
-------------------------
(C) Take medication (D) Ask for sick leave
5. What will the woman most likely do next?
---------------------------
(A) Pay her hotel bill I'd like to check out please. (B) Move to a different room
-----------------------------
(C) Speak to the manager (D) Leave a message
IV – Locations: Questions about locations ask you to identify where the conversation takes place,
where the speakers work, or specific places. Common questions include:
Where does this conversation take place?
Where are the speakers?
Where does the man probably work?
What type of company do the speakers probably work for?
Where did the woman go last week?
To answer questions about locations, it is useful to recognize words and phrases connected to a wide
range of everyday places.
1. Where does the conversation take place?
(A) In a garage (B) In a car showroom
(C) In a car rental agency (D) In a gas station
2. Where are the speakers?
(A) In an art museum (B) In a travel agency
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(C) In a bus station (D) In a department store
3. Where is the man going?
(A) To a shopping mall (B) To a sports stadium
(C) To a department store (D) To a golf course
4. Where does the woman most likely work?
(A) At an airport (B) At a concert hall
(C) At a movie theater (D) At a train station
5. Where do the speakers probably work?
(A) At a farm (B) At a factory
(C) At a clothes store (D) At a university
V - Times, Reasons, and Feelings: In Part 1, questions about conversations can ask when or
why something happens, or how someone may feel.
Times
Questions about time may begin with When, What time, How often, How soon, or How long.
When will Mrs. Jarvis leave the company?
What time does the concert begin?
How soon will the report be finished?
How long did the seminar last?
How often are the taxis serviced?
1. When will the meeting with Mr. Bartelles probably finish?
(A) 2:00 P.M. (B) 3:00 P.M.
(C) 4:00 P.M. (D) 5:00 P.M.
2. Why do the speakers want to talk to Ms. Wilson?
(A) They need her signature on some documents.
(B) They have a problem with their phone system.
(C) They think the ad campaign has been compromised.
(D) They are waiting for some important information.
3. How does the man probably feel about the situation?
(A) Doubtful (B) Embarrassed
(C) Disappointed (D) Satisfied
4. Why did the woman try to call Mr. Bashir?
(A) To confirm an appointment (B) To request a meeting
(C) To report a problem (D) To update details
5. How long has Julia been on sick leave?
(A) Two weeks (B) Four weeks
(C) Six weeks (D) Eight weeks
Opinions
Questions about opinions usually begin with What.
What is the man’s opinion of the meal?
What does the woman think of the floor plan?
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Exercise B Track 73. Listen to five conversations. Choose one statement: (A), (B), (C), or (D), that
1. What does the woman offer to do?
(A) Call back later (B) Get more supplies
(C) Give a discount (D) Confirm an order
2. What is the woman’s opinion of the storage unit?
(A) It is a bargain for the money. (B) It needs to be twice the size.
(C) It is only five years old. (D) It is expensive to rent.
3. What does the woman advise the man to do?
(A) Move back to the old office (B) Leave the lights on
(C) Reposition his desk (D) Open a window
4. What does the man decide to ask the company?
(A) To increase his salary (B) To give him more time to decide
(C) To provide more training (D) To offer him a different job
5. What do the speakers think of the presentation?
(A) It covered a lot of areas. (B) It was very useful.
(C) It was not long enough. (D) It was quite repetitive.
LISTENING _ SHORT TALKS

Listening for Main Ideas
In Part 1, you need to show that you have a good overall understanding of the short talks you hear.
Questions that test your ability to understand main ideas in a short talk may ask about the speaker, the
topic, the audience, the location, and the purpose of the talk.
Questions about the Speaker: Track 80. Listen to three short talks. Choose one statement: (A), (B),
(C), or (D), that best answers each question.
1. Who is the speaker?
(A) A college professor (B) A news presenter
(C) An airline pilot (D) A weather reporter
2. What is the speaker’s occupation?
(A) Office receptionist (B) Company secretary
(C) Hotel manager (D) Security guard
3. What is the speaker’s position in the restaurant?
(A) Cleaner (B) Manager
(C) Waiter (D) Head chef
Questions about the Topic

These questions focus on what the talk is about. They ask you to identify the subject of the talk, which
can be a person, a thing, or an activity.
Look for: Questions about the topic may include What is the message about? What is the main topic of
this talk? What is being announced?
5
Track 81. Listen to three short talks. Choose one statement: (A), (B), (C), or (D), that best answers
each question.
1. What is the main topic of this message?

(A) A presentation (B) A job vacancy
(C) A new project (D) A lecture
2. What is the talk mainly about?
(A) Cleanliness (B) Safety at work
(C) Meal times (D) Food and drink
3. What is being announced?
(A) A cheap vacation (B) A job opportunity
(C) A weekend sale (D) A store closure
Questions about the Audience

These questions focus on who is listening to the short talk. The audience may be a group of people,
such as customers, employees, students, politicians, etc. Look for: Questions about the audience may
include Who is the intended audience for this talk? Who is the speaker probably addressing? Who is
being addressed?
Questions about the Audience
each question.
1. Who is the speaker talking to?
(A) Baseball players (B) Tourists
(C) Freshmen students (D) New employees
2. Who is the audience for this announcement?
(A) Workers on a farm (B) Shoppers in a supermarket
(C) Fruit and vegetable sellers (D) Customers in a restaurant
3. Who is this message intended for?
(A) Office workers (B) Police officers
(C) Dental patients (D) Ambulance drivers
Questions about the Location

These questions focus on where the short talk is taking place. They ask you to identify the location,
such as a store, a bank, an airport, etc. Look for: Questions about the location may include Where is
the speaker? Where is this speech being made? Where can this announcement be heard?
Track 83 Listen to three short talks. Choose one statement: (A), (B), (C), or (D), that best answers
each question.
1. Where is the speaker?
(A) At a theater (B) At a hotel
(C) At a library (D) At a museum
2. Where is this announcement being made?
(A) At a bus station (B) At an airport
(C) At a train station (D) At a taxi stand
3. Where can this talk be heard?
(A) At a library (B) At a university
(C) At a company (D) At a sports center
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Questions about the Purpose
These questions focus on why the short talk is taking place. They ask you to identify the purpose. You
sometimes need to remember several details in order to identify the purpose. Look for: Questions
about the purpose may include What is the purpose of this message? What is the main purpose of the
speech?
each question.
1. What is the purpose of this public announcement?
(A) To encourage people to be more active
(B) To warn people about serious health dangers
(C) To promote participation in team sports
(D) To explain how to live longer
2. What is the main purpose of this talk?
(A) To plan a conference (B) To accept an award
(C) To thank employees (D) To discuss a meeting
3. What is the purpose of the event the speaker announces?
(A) To welcome a new employee
(B) To celebrate the retirement of a coworker
(C) To declare a research facility open
(D) To encourage staff to work harder
QUESTIONS ABOUT ANNOUNCEMENTS AND INSTRUCTIONS

1. Public announcements
Public announcements are talks that provide information to people in public places, such as airports,
planes, trains, buses, social and sporting events, stores, etc.
Exercise 1
Directions: Listen and choose the one option - A, B, C, or D - that best answers each question.
1. What information is being given?
A. The flight number has changed. B. Flight 405 will be delayed.
C. Flight 405 will arrive at a different gate. D. Flight 405 is not arriving front Seattle.
------------------------------------------------------
2. What meal will probably be served on this flight?

A. Breakfast B. Lunch
C. Dinner
--------------- D. Midnight snack
3. Where is Mr. Ozawa being asked to go?

A. To Geneva B. To his plane
C. To the Swiss Air ticket counter
--------------------------------------------- D. To the baggage claim area
4. What do the guests need to have before they can enter the ballroom?
A. Formal attire B. Programs
C. Invitations D. Assigned tables
------------------------
5. Where must the tourists go to wait for their bus?
A. In the lobby B. By the reservation desk
please gather near the entrance by the fountain 7
C. In their rooms D. Near the fountain
----------------------------
6. When does service to San Francisco usually depart?
A. -------
7:00 delayed 30 minutes B. 7:15
C. 7:30 D. 8:00
at 7.30
2. Advertisements What product/service - Price? Discount? Audience

Advertisements are talks like those you hear on radio and television. Their purpose is to persuade
listeners to buy certain goods or services. Questions about advertisements ask---------------------------
who the audience is
(what kind of people would be interested in the product or service being sold), what product is being
-----------------
advertised, how much the product costs, and--------------------
what claims are being made about the product or service.
-----------------------------------
Exercise 2
1. What audience is the advertiser trying to reach?
----------------------
A. Business executivestrade in briefcase for suitcase B. Families with children
----------------------------
C. People who like adventure travel D. Professional athletes
2. What is-----------------------
NOT mentioned as something you’ll find at the travel show?
A. Free airline tickets
---------------------------- find bargain on airline ticketsB. Discounts on cruises
C. Bargains on hotels D. Travel films
3. Which of the following people would be most interested in this -------------------------------
--------------------------- commercial message?
A. Someone planning a cruise to the Bahamas
B. Someone looking for an apartment to rent
C. Someone trying to sell a product or service
-------------------------------------------------------------
D. Someone who likes to read the newspaper
4. What-------------
claim does the speaker make about ------------------
the products?
A. They will improve sales.
B. They can be purchased at discount prices.
C. They can be made to suit a variety of times and occasions.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------
D. They can be taken on business trips.
5. What is NOT mentioned as an advantage to doing business with the Superstore?
------------------------
A. Reduced prices B. Convenient location
C. Fast local delivery D. A large selection of products
---------------------------------------------
3. News, weather bulletins and public service announcements

News and weather bulletins and public service announcements are talks that are broadcast on radio and
television. They are usually given on news programs and provide information to the public. Questions
in this section usually ask about what is being said and about details given in the bulletins and
announcements.
Exercise 3
1. What is the---------------------------------
purpose of this bulletin?
A. To provide general information on the weather
B. To warn citizens of imminent dangers from severe weather
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
C. To indicate the problems with living in southern California
D. To ask for help for people in the flooded areas
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2. What caused major delays on Highway 33?
----------------------------
A. A spilled load of tomatoes
--------------------------------------
B. A four-car accident
after a tractor spilled its loads of tomatoes
C. A ladder in the road
D. An overturned truck
3. What is the----------------------------------------------
purpose of the announcement?
A. To inform citizens about a community service
----------------------------------------------------------------
B. To warn citizens against polluting rivers and streams
C. To ask for volunteers for a neighborhood clean-up
D. To report on the local pollution problems
4. At what time of year is this bulletin most likely being given?

-----------------------------
A. Spring B. Summer
C. Autumn D. Winter
-------------
5. What are the Philippine officials asking other countries for?
---------------------------------------------------------------
A. Experienced firefighters B. Airplanes
-------------------
C. Money to repair damages D. Places to shelter endangered animals
4. Business announcements
Business announcements are talks that occur in business settings, such as at meetings, in offices, and at
business-related social events. The questions usually ask about the speaker or the audience, the
location, or details presented in the talks.
Exercise 4
1. What is the purpose of the talk?

A. To thank employees for their volunteer work
B. To encourage employees to be community volunteers
C. To announce which organizations will receive grants
D. To announce the winners of the awards
2. Who is the audience for this talk?

A. Teachers B. Managers
C. Non-management personnel D. Writers
3. What will the speaker do next?

A. Answer questions. B. Explain more about the K-1 vehicle.
C. Give a presentation about the K-1. D. Discuss the merits of the new contract.
4. When is this talk being given?

A. During a sales meeting B. At the end of the work day
C. At the start of a business luncheon D. After a Sales Improvement seminar
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5. What is the speaker’s purpose?
A. To show his colleagues how to use the data transfer system
B. To introduce his company’s product to a potential buyer
C. To discuss the future of his company
D. To thank Control Data’s employees for their excellent work
5. Recorded messages
Recorded messages are prerecorded talks that people hear over the telephone or in airports, bus
stations, train stations, stores, and many other places. They provide important information to people in
many different situations. Questions about these talks usually have to do with the location, the
situation, the audience, and the details given in the recorded message.
Exercise 5
1. What is the caller told to do if he or she needs emergency repairs?
A. Press 1 now. B. Call after 9 a.m. or before 5 p.m.
C. Leave a message. D. Dial 555-HELP.
2. What must someone have in order to exit the area with luggage?
A. A plane ticket B. A luggage can
C. A store receipt D. Luggage tags
3. To which of these would someone go to see an action-adventure film?
A. Cinema 1 B. Cinema 2
C. Cinema 3 D. A special matinee showing
4. Which of the following is NOT permitted?
A. Unloading baggage B. Picking up passengers
C. Parking a vehicle D. Stopping for a short time
5. What are callers directed to do after entering their account number and the pound (#) sign?
A. Speak to a loan representative. B. Speak to a teller.
C. Press 2. D. Enter the access code.
LISTENING PART 2 AND PART 3
1. MAIN IDEA
• stationary bike n. an exercise device resembling a bicycle that does not move
• treadmill n. an exercise device involving a rotating belt that the user runs or walks on
• facility n. something that is designed or built to serve a specific function or purpose
• valid adj. legally acceptable
• switch v. to exchange
• fill out to write the necessary information on an official document
Listen to a conversation between a staff member and a student. Track _ 1.05

PART 2: Long conversation & class discussion 10
1. Xác định lý do có cuộc đối thoại: Problem, Question, Request, Advice
Why does the student speak to the staff member?
-------
(A) To take a course on gymnastics next semester
(B) To issue a student ID card for the gym membership discount
(C) To learn the way to maximize the benefits of exercise
(D) To gain general information about the school health club
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
• migration n. the process of moving to another place PART 3: Talks/ Lectures
• spawn v. to produce or deposit eggs as fish or frogs do Cầm phải nghe: Topic marker - Câu giới thiệu chủ đề, có ở
• exhaustion n. a state of weariness and extreme fatigue đầu bài nghe
• predator n. an organism that kills and feeds on other organisms
• nourishment n. materials that are beneficial to the body’s maintenance and growth • ecosystem n. an
ecological community together with its environment, functioning as a unit
Listen to a lecture in a zoology class. Track _ 1.06
What is the main topic of the lecture?

The importance of salmon on local ecosystems
The different types of -------------------
anadromous fish
The homing instinct of salmon to spawn
-----------------------------------------------------
The predatory habits of salmon
---------------------
2. DETAILS
• condensed adj. reduced in length, volume or area

• process n. a series of actions, changes or functions bringing about a result
• involve v. to contain something as a part; include
• bullet point n. an important idea for emphasis in a presentation
• diagram n. a drawing intended to explain or demonstrate how something works
• passively adv. in a manner marked by a lack of action or active participation
Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. Track _ 1.08
Which of the following study methods is NOT mentioned by the teacher?

(A) Studying long hours to ensure maximum results
(B) Summarizing the material to consolidate understanding
(C) Making notes of confusing points and asking the teacher
(D) Using flashcards to help learn the material by heart
• curator n. someone who is in charge of the objects or works of a museum or other collection
• last v. to continue existing or happening for a particular time
• visual n. a picture, piece of film, etc. that can be used for illustration
• appreciation n. the state of knowing or being aware of something
• show up to come to or arrive at a place
• drop by to stop in for a short visit
11
Listen to a conversation between two students. Track _ 1.09
According to the conversation, what is NOT true about the special lecture?
(A) It will be given by a guest lecturer from an art museum.
(B) The cost of the lecture is the same for all attendees.
(C) It will start at 6:30 in the evening and last one and a half hours.
(D) The lecturer will use visual supplements to make it easy.
3. ORGANIZATION
• hierarchy n. a ranking system

• fundamental adj. being an essential part of; basic
• physiological adj. relating to the normal functions of living organisms
• uncertainty n. the state of being in doubt or unsure of something
• affection n. a positive feeling of strong liking or love
• esteem n. respect or high regard
• actualization n. making real or giving the appearance of reality; realization
• aesthetic n. a guiding principle in matters of artistic beauty; artistic sensibility
Listen to a lecture in a psychology class. Track _ 1.11
How does the teacher explain Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?
(A) By listing each need level from the most basic to the most advanced
(B) By correlating Maslow’s theory to actual biographical examples
(C) By pointing out the strengths and limitations of Maslow’s theory
(D) By contrasting Maslow’s theory with humanistic psychology
• glitter v. to shine with little, bright flashes of reflected light

• strike it rich to have unexpected or sudden financial success
• exaggerate v. to make something seem better or worse than it really is
• end up to finally be or do something
• miner n. a person who works in a mine producing coal or metallic ores
• competitive adj. involving rivalry
• overnight adv. very quickly; suddenly
• dramatically adv. in a very impressive manner
Listen to a lecture in a history class. Track _ 1.12
How does the teacher develop the main topic?

(A) By criticizing a variety of people mining for gold
(B) By listing what happened during the Gold Rush
(C) By talking about James W. Marshall, who first found gold
(D) By mentioning someone’s personal experience at the time
4. INFERENCE
• mandatory adj. not allowing any choice; compulsory

• hassle n. a problem brought about by pressure of time, money, inconvenience, etc.
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• deposit n. money deposited in a bank or some similar institutions
• slip n. a small strip or piece of paper
• invalidate v. to make something ineffective
• unauthorized adj. not having the right to do something
• replacement n. the act or process of replacing; substitution
Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. Track _ 1.14
What can be inferred about the school meal card system?
(A) Students must pay for a month’s meals at once.

(B) Not all items at the cafeteria can be purchased with the card.
(C) Students can avoid waiting in line at the cafeteria.
(D) A loan card will be issued until a new card is made.
• neat adj. cleverly simple

• injection n. a liquid such as medicine injected into the body
• reflection n. an image that can be seen of yourself in mirror, glass or water
• primate n. a member of the highest order of mammals including humans, monkeys and apes
• chirp n. a short, high-pitched sound
• colony n. a group of the same kind of animals or plants living and growing together
Listen to a discussion in a zoology class. CD1- Track _ 15
What is NOT compared between humans and other animals?

(A) Whether they have the ability to change their behavior
(B) Whether they are conscious of their own selves
(C) Whether they respond emotionally to their surroundings
(D) Whether they are able to communicate their thoughts
5. ATTITUDE
• star v. to appear in a film as a principal performer

• urgently adv. with great need for immediate attention or action
• shoot v. to film or take photographs of someone or something
• arrange v. to settle the plans for something
• on location engaged in filming at a place away from the studio
• supportive adj. providing support, especially active approval
• beforehand adv. in advance; before a particular time or event
Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. CD1- Track _ 1. 17
What is the teacher’s attitude toward the student?

(A) He thinks that she should get special treatment.
(B) He disapproves that she is not focusing on her studies.
(C) He wants to help her not fall behind in schoolwork.
(D) He hopes that more students will become like her.
• ruin n. the remains of something destroyed, disintegrated or decayed
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• conquer v. to acquire something by force of arms
• overlook v. to fail to notice or consider something
• testimony n. evidence in support of a fact or statement
• revenue n. money that comes into a business from the sale of goods or service
• victim n. one who is harmed by or made to suffer from a circumstance or condition
Listen to a lecture in a world history class. CD1- Track _1.18
Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question.
What is the teacher’s attitude toward Machu Picchu?

(A) He insists that it needs more tourists for the money.
(B) He believes that ancient people could not preserve it perfectly.
(C) He thinks that it is threatened by a large number of people.
(D) He questions whether it deserves to be a wonder of the world.
MOCK TEST 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: approx. 40 minutes
No. of questions: 35
Directions: In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the
recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The
recording will be played ONCE only.
PART 1- Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question
for each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then,
on the answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer that you have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
Man: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the holiday you’ve
booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and
dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of
money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information.
Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast
B. Lunch
C. Dinner
D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.
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1. According to the speaker, what can be viewed on this company's website?
A. Maps
B. Photographs
C. Menus
D. Drawings
2. What prediction does the speaker make about tonight?

A. The weather will get warmer.
B. The snow will stop.
C. Most people will not stay home.
D. The roads will be in bad condition
3. Where is Derrick Wheeler originally from?

A. Australia
B. The U.S.
C. Ireland
D. The U.K.
4. Which of the following will be closed?
A. The tennis and squash courts.
B. The indoor swimming pool.
C. The outdoor swimming pool.
D. The workout room.
5. What is the speaker's opinion of the book?

A. She thinks it contains a lot of mistakes.
B. She thinks it is not very well written.
C. She thinks there is too much restaurant information.
D. She thinks it is much too short.
6. When will Lawrence Talbot return to his office?

A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday
7. When was the peer system of evaluation introduced?

A. This year
B. One year ago
C. Two years ago
D. Ten years ago
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8. Which of these is NOT a sign of strep throat?
A. A fever
B. A sore throat
C. A cough
D. White spots in the back of throat.
PART 2 – Questions 9-20
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated.
There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C
or D.
Questions 9 to 12. Listen to a radio program.
9. __________ will like the headphones.
A. Teachers
B. Dentists
C. Doctors
D. People with ear problems
10. The fridge plays music when it is getting __________.

A. full
B. empty
C. dirty
D. hot
11. The 3D TV doesn’t have a __________.

A. plug
B. remote control
C. power switch
D. program menu
12. Lisa thinks the dishwasher __________ very well.

A. will sell
B. won’t sell
C. won’t wash the dishes
D. will wash the dishes
Questions 13 to 16. Listen to a conversation between a student and a university employee.

13. Why is the woman talking to the university employee?
A. She is interested in buying concert tickets.
B. She needs help locating the student center.
C. She is interested in joining a school club.
D. She needs to make a payment of his tuition.
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14. What is said about the ticket prices?
A. University students receive free tickets.
B. University students receive discounts.
C. University students pay fifteen dollars.
D. Non-students have free entrance into the concert.
15. What is the attitude of the student buying the tickets?

A. She feels the prices are unreasonable.
B. She thinks the employee is being unfair.
C. She is happy with the ticket prices.
D. She wants a bigger discount.
16. Why would the student need to take his ID with her?
A. To get it scanned to pay for her lunch
B. To get the tickets replaced
C. To verify that she is the person who bought the tickets
D. To verify that she is a freshman in college
Questions 17 to 20. Listen to a conversation on campus.
17. What is the conversation mainly about?

A. The student moving out of the dorm
B. The student wanting different roommates
C. The RA wanting the student to pay his housing fees
D. The Accommodation Office
18. According to the RA, what kind of refund will the student receive?
A. A full refund
B. A partial refund
C. No refund
D. None of the above
19. Why does the RA discuss the Accommodation Office?

A. To tell the student about his job
B. To tell the student where he will be able to get some of his money back
C. To give an example of where to take care of financial needs
D. Because she had no other options to give the student
20. What does the RA imply when she says this: “…although I don’t know if I can live
with my brother.”?
A. She hates his brother.
B. She thinks living with a brother can be difficult.
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C. She doesn't know if her brother has space in his home.
D. Her brother lives in a different place.
PART 3 – Questions 21-35
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be
repeated. There are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer
A, B, C or D.
Questions 21 to 25. Listen to part of a talk about Greenpeace.
21. Greenpeace works for____________.
A. the built environment
B. the world
C. the environment
D. the government
22. A key area of Greenpeace's work is__________.

A. climate change
B. social change
C. government change
D. weather change
23. Greenpeace organizes its work in _______ main ways.

A. two
B. three
C. four
D. five
24. Greenpeace is investigating the impact of climate change in ____________

A. the Arctic
B. the Atlantic
C. America
D. the Andes
25. In Indonesia and Brazil, Greenpeace is looking at ______________.

A. animal rights
B. deforestation
C. pollution
D. world temperatures
Questions 26 to 30. Listen to the lecture about who built the pyramids.
26. What is the main idea of the lecture?
A. The pyramids were not built by slaves.
B. The slaves who build the pyramids were fed well.
C. The pyramid builders worked for free.
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D. The pyramids were built by bakers and farmers.
27. According to the professor, who built the pyramids?

A. They were built only by slaves.
B. They were built only by farmers.
C. They were built by professional pyramid builders.
D. They were built by different types of seasonal workers.
28. When did the farmers work on the pyramids?

A. Spring
B. Summer
C. Fall
D. Winter
29. Why does the professor mention graffiti?

A. As evidence that the pyramids were built by slaves
B. As evidence of the art found in the pyramid
C. As evidence that workers were unhappy
D. As evidence that workers were committed to their work.
30. Why does the professor say this: “It seems that the builders ate quite well. Only
the best meat for them! But, slaves are not usually fed high quality food.”?
A. To criticize pharaohs for keeping the best meat for themselves
B. To criticize pharaohs for mistreating slaves
C. To provide evidence that the slaves were well treated
D. To provide evidence that workers were not slaves
Questions 31 to 35. Listen to a lecture in a psychology class.
31. What is this lecture mainly about?
A. Two types of motivation
B. Ways to motivate students
C. How to define motivation
D. Motivation in the classroom
32. What is an example of internal motivation?

A. Passing an achievement test
B. Getting stars for good behavior
C. Doing an activity that you enjoy
D. Receiving high grades for hard work
33. Why does the professor discuss the two studies on motivation?
A. To describe how motivation research is done
B. To explain a problem with external motivation
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C. To show how motivation research has changed over time
D. To give an example of a successful way to motivate children
34. How were the children in the two studies alike?

A. They lost interest in an activity after the rewards stopped.
B. They were asked to do activities that they did not enjoy.
C. They were paid to participate in the research.
D. They were not motivated by rewards.
35. What does the professor think of the studies that she describes?
A. They are outdated.
B. They can be disproved.
C. They require further analysis.
D. They are important to understand.
MOCK TEST 2
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: approx. 40 minutes
No. of questions: 35
PART 1: Questions 1-8
Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question for
each announcement or instruction. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer
sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you have
chosen.
Now, let's listen to an example. On the recording, you will hear:
Woman: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call You left a message about the holiday
you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay at Sunny Hotel. Lunch
and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount
of money, depending on what you order. Let me know if I can help you with any other information.
Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
1. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D.AII meals
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let's begin with the first question.
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Question 1: Where would you probably hear this announcement?
A. In a moving van B, In a school
C. In an office building D. In an office supply shop
Question 2: Where would someone hear this message?

A. Calling a newspaper company
B. Calling a journalist
C. Calling a telephone company
D. Calling a law firm Question
Question 3: How long are the classes?

A. 45 minutes B. An hour
C. An hour and a half D. Two hours
Question 4: What should Jen do tomorrow?

A. Turn her cell phone back on
B. Check her email, even if it is at home
C. Make sure she gets an office address
D. Give people her new contact information
Question 5: What is the purpose of this announcement?

A. To discuss the news B. To give information
C. To ask for help D. To demand a report
Question 6: What is the main point of this announcement?

A. To welcome visitors
B. To ask people to leave soon
C. To tell people about the exhibition
D. To ask people to come
Question 7: Who is Gary Reynolds?

A. A security officer B. An airline pilot
C. A flight attendant D. An airline employee
Question 8: What does the woman recommend the listeners to do?

A. Go to the website
B. Go back to their rooms
C. Talk to the hotel manager
D. Wait for more information
Directions: In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated
There are four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C
or D.
Questions 9 to 12 refer to the following conversation.
21
Question 9: What is the main topic of this conversation?
A. How to get a better grade in class
B. How to write a better essay
C. How to write a paragraph
D. How to organize an essay
Question 10: According to professor Smith, what is important for essay writing?
A. Many good ideas B. Strong introduction
C. Summary D. Organization
Question 11: How many parts are there in an essay?

A. Two B. Three
C, Four D. Five
Question 12: What are the functions of the body paragraphs?

A. To summarize the main ideas
B. To provide examples and ideas
C. To provide evidences and details
D. To give main ideas for an essay

A. Taking a math test B. Getting a tutor
C. Taking a midterm test D. Having a part-time job
Question 14: What does the man ask the woman to do?
A. Help him finish his homework
B. Tutor him with a subject at school
C. Teach him English
D. Find him a good math teacher
Question 15: What will happen if the students cheat?

A. They will be expelled from school.
B. They cannot take the final exam.
C. They will be fined.
D. They will have to study again.
Question 16: Which of the following the tutor CANNOT do for the student?
A. The learning strategies
B. Taking notes
C. Homework
D. Learning tips

A. Ways a student can make up for missed lectures
B. How to avoid getting sick and missing school
C. How to get a scholarship
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D. How to get high scores
Question 18: Why did the woman miss the lessons?

A. Because of her sickness
B. Because of the accident
C. Because of the severe weather
D. Because of her laziness
Question 19: What does the woman want the man to do for her?
A. Lend her his notes B. Give her an extension
C. Give her a scholarship D. Explain the lessons
Question 20: What should the woman probably do next?

A. Go on a vacation
B. Go to the library to do some research
C. Hang out with her classmates
D. Apply for a scholarship

Directions: In this part; you will hear THREE talks, lectures or conversations. The talks, lectures, or
conversations will-not be repeated. There are five questions for each talk, lecture, or conversation. For
each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 21 to 25 refer to the following lecture.
Question 21: What is the students problem?

A. He didn't do well on his final exam.
B. He didn't do all his coursework.
C. He missed too many classes,
D. He moved away from the school.
Question 22: What does the student want the professor to do?
A. He wants her to give him a new test.
B. He wants an immediate change of grade.
C. He wants her to let him take the class again.
D. He wants her to give him an incomplete in the class.
Question 23: Listen again to a part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the professor mean when she says this?
A. You have to deal with this. B. This is the solution.
C. I can't deal with this. D. Let's come to an agreement.
Question 24: What is the professor’s solution to the student’s problem?

A. He has to write 2 critical essays.
B. He has to fill out a lot of paperworks.
C. He has to re-read all of Shakespeare’s plays.
D. He has to have read all the Shakespeare’s plays.
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Question 25. What is the student’s attitude toward the solution?
A. Relieved B. Disappointed
C. Shocked D. Ungrateful
Questions 26- 30 refer to the following lecture.
Question 26: Why does the student go to the tutoring center?

A. Because she doesn’t have a clue how to use a computer
B. Because she wants to help putting her presentation together
C. Because she's never used the presentation viewer program before
D. Because she’s nervous about speaking in front of people
Question 27: Listen again to a part of the conversation. Then answer the question.
What does the man mean when he says this?
A. He wants to know if her presentation will have graphics and animation.
B. He wants to know if she needs a whistle.
C. He wants to know if she needs a timer.
D. He wants to know if she needs sound.
Question 28: What does the man say about using the presentation viewer program?
A. It is an easy program to use.
B. It is a very complicated program.
C. It is not part of the tutoring subjects at the center.
D. It doesn't have as many interesting features as the word processing.
Question 29: What is the student concerned about?

A. Researching her topic
B. Working with the computer
C. Speaking in front of other people
D. How to operate the power source on her computer
Question 30: What does the man advise the student to bring to the tutoring session?
A. Her research paper B. Her outline
C. The program D. Her laptop
Questions 31 to 35 refer to the following professor’s talk.
Question 31: What is the focus of the lecture?

A. Doug Levere's re-photography of Abbott's work
B. Berenice Abbott's Changing New York project
C. Two examples of photography supported by the FAP
D. The effect of the Depression on Berenice Abbott's work
Question 32: According to the professor, why was Abbott a good candidate for the FAP?
A. She had already been documenting America.
B. She had a fresh perspective due to her recent return.
C. She was willing to change her approach to fit the FAP.
D. She was a widely recognized figure in the art world.
Question 33: Based on the lecture, what artistic characteristics did Abbott reject in her art? -
24
A. Modem urban life
B. Depiction of older buildings
C. Meticulous composition
D. Rural settings and landscapes
Question 34: What did Abbott do to "keep the life in her shots"?
A. Use a hand-held camera
B. Include random people in the frame
C. Frame scenes of urban activity
D. Juxtapose old and new buildings
Question 35: What is the professor’s attitude toward Levere’s rephotography of Abbott’s work?
A. Concerned B. Unimpressed
C. Disappointed D. Complimentary
THIS IS THE END OF THE LISTENING PAPER NOW YOU HAVE 05 MINUTES TO TRANSFER
YOUR ANSWERS TO YOUR ANSWER SHEET.
SECTION 2: READING COMPREHENSION

PRACTICE TEST 1
PASSAGE 1
Termites
Termites are small, ant-like insects that rely on wood as a food source. While they are sometimes
called "white ants" or "flying ants," termites are not actually ants. [A] They do, however, share many
of the characteristics common to all social insects. [B] Like ants and bees, a termite colony has a
queen, workers, and soldiers. The queen lays all the eggs in the colony. Workers do most of the work
in the colony. And soldiers protect the colony from other insects. [C] Depending on the type of termite,
there can be from several thousand to several million termites in a colony. [D] When a termite colony
starts to get overcrowded, some of the termites will develop wings and fly off to create a new colony.
Termites eat dead wood because it is easier to consume than live wood. This is good news for logging
companies. However, it is bad news for home owners because the wood used to build their homes
makes a tasty meal for termites. For this reason, termites are seen as pests. The two most worrying
types of termites are dry-wood termites and subterranean termites.
Dry-wood termites are named for their ability to take all their water from the wood they eat. Therefore,
they can live in very dry climates. They make their colonies directly in the wood that they eat. As a
result, their colonies are smaller than those of subterranean termites, which have more room to build
their colonies. Like most termites, dry-wood termites only leave their colonies when it has become
25
overcrowded. Since they do not leave their colony, dry-wood termites must constantly remove waste
from their colonies. Little piles of light, sandy material below a wooden structure, are a sure sign of
these pests.
Subterranean termites live in the ground and dig tunnels to the wood they eat. Since they leave their
colony to reach the wood, they do not have to remove any waste from their colony. Therefore, they are
much harder to see. In fact, these termites are only discovered by the damage they have caused.
Subterranean termites are not found in dry climates because they require a source of fresh water. Since
they are located in the ground, subterranean termite colonies are much more likely to be attacked by
ants or other insects. Therefore, they have large numbers of soldiers.
1. The word “characteristics” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. behaviors
B. features
C. jobs
D. colonies
2. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of termites EXCEPT _______.
A. they are social insects
B. they kill many trees
C. their colonies vary widely in size
D. they have the ability to fly
3. The word “consume” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. eat
B. kill
C. damage
D. locate
4. The author mentions “home owners” in order to _______.
A. warn them about the risks of termites
B. contrast them with logging companies
C. illustrate the type of wood that termites prefer
D. introduce harmful effects of termites
5. The phrase “this reason” in paragraph 1 refers to the fact that _______.
A. termites only eat dead wood
B. termites commonly eat the wood in homes
C. termites do not damage logging companies
26
D. termites can fly to create new colonies
6. According to the passage, when do dry-wood termites leave their colonies?
A. When they remove waste from their colony.
B. When the population of a colony becomes too large.
C. When they have eaten all the wood in the colony.
D. When they are attacked by ants or other insects.
7. According to the passage, it can be inferred that termite waste ________.
A. is removed from colonies in large amounts
B. is a problem for all kinds of termites
C. has a light, sandy appearance
D. can make termites sick if it is not removed
8. Look at the 4 squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
Termites have different body shapes and sizes depending on their jobs within the colony.
Where would the sentence best fit?
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
9. Which of the following is true about dry-wood termites according to the passage?
A. They cause greater levels of damage.
B. They have more soldiers in the colonies.
C. They have smaller colonies.
D. They are more likely to create new colonies.
10. All of the following are true about dry-wood termites, EXCEPT _______.
A. they cannot live in desert environments
B. they have to constantly remove waste
C. they must travel to reach the food source
D. their colonies are harder to locate
PASSAGE 2
The Discovery of Pluto
The first six planets have been known to mankind for all of our recorded history. [A] But the final
three planets, Uranus, Neptune, and Pluto, are not visible night sky without the help of a
27
telescope. [B] Their discovery had to wait until the invention of telescopes. Uranus, the seventh planet,
was the first to be discovered in 1781 by William Herschel. [C] This proved to be an
important breakthrough. By studying unexpected changes in the planet's orbit, scientists could guess
that it was being affected by the gravity of another, unknown planet. That unknown planet proved to be
Neptune. It was found in 1846 with the help of calculations based on the abnormalities in Uranus’
orbit. These told scientists where in the sky to look for Neptune. The discovery of the two planets
proved to be easy because both are huge gas planets many times the size of the Earth. This made
them relatively easy to find, even with the telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries. [D]
Finding the ninth planet, Pluto, proved to be a much harder task. It is not even as large as our moon,
and it is over a thousand times more distant. Again, the first clues to the planet's existence came from
the orbits of other planets. After studying Neptune, it did not seem that it could explain all the changes
in the orbit of Uranus. Scientists guessed there was another planet out there, but they could not find it.
They labeled the missing planet “Planet X.” The first serious attempt to find Planet X came in 1915,
when astronomer Percival Lowell made it his mission to find the planet. Lowell spent over a year
studying the night sky. He discovered many other objects, including over 700 new stars. But he did not
find the missing planet and died a disappointed man.
Success came in 1930, when Clyde Tombaugh used a new method to search for the planet. He took
thousands of pictures of the night sky. Then he searched for any unknown objects that were moving
against the background of the stars, which remain in the same place in the night sky. Using this
method, he found a small point of light, turned out to be Pluto.
1. The word “This” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. the invention of the telescope
B. the discovery of Uranus
C. the visibility of the final three planets
D. the discovery of gravity
2. According to paragraph 1, why was the discovery of Uranus important?
A. It made scientists want to look for other planets.
B. It directly led to the discovery of Neptune and Pluto.
C. It helped scientists understand
D. this allows us to better understand how ancient farms worked
3. The word “breakthrough” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. advance
B. accident
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C. experiment
D. task
4. The word “abnormalities” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. important information
B. known facts
C. typical characteristics
D. unusual qualities
5. Which is the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage?
A. The discovery of Neptune and Uranus was only possible because they are such huge planets.
B. The fact that Uranus and Neptune are such enormous planets made finding them a relatively simple
task.
C. Huge gas giants like Uranus and Neptune are much easier to find than planets as small as the Earth.
D. It is easier to prove the existence of gas giants like Neptune and Uranus because they are so much
larger than the Earth.
6. According to the passage, what can be inferred about telescopes?
A. The first telescopes were invented by William Herschel.
B. The telescopes of the 18th and 19th centuries were not very powerful.
C. They are required to view most of the planets in the night sky.
D. They are less useful than gravity in finding new planets.
7. Why does the author discuss the Earth’s moon in paragraph 2?
A. To better explain the orbit of Pluto
B. To better illustrate why Pluto was so hard to find
C. To give an example of an object that is easily visible
D. To suggest there are many similarities between the moon and Pluto
8. According to the passage, all of the following are true of Pluto EXCEPT ________.
A. it was discovered by tracking its motion
B. it was the last planet to be discovered
C. it was discovered accidentally
D. it was discovered using new methods of searching for planets
9. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
29
While early civilizations may not have understood that these objects were planets, they were clearly
visible in the sky.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
10. According to the passage, what is true about Uranus?
A. Its existence was inferred before actual discovery.
B. It is first discovered through direct observation with a telescope.
C. It can only be seen when moving.
D. It is the most distant planet in the solar system.
PASSAGE 3
The Quest for the South Pole
The South Pole is the coldest place on Earth. In the winter, the temperature can drop as low as -100
degrees. In addition, the South Pole is surrounded by mountains, so it is very difficult to reach. For
these reasons, the South Pole was one of the last places in the world to be explored by man.
The first attempts to reach the South Pole came in the early 1900s. In 1901, Robert Falcon Scott, an
Englishman, reached the shore of Antarctica and made his base camp. After his base camp was
finished, he set off to reach the South Pole. He took along many supplies and used mules to carry his
equipment, but he only got 200 miles inland before he was forced to turn back. The severe cold killed
all of his mules, and he had no way to carry his supplies.
In 1911, two teams started off for the South Pole. One team was led by Scott, who was making his
second attempt. The other team was led by Roald Amundsen, a Norwegian. Scott decided to use
tractors to pull his supplies, but they quickly broke in the harsh weather. Amundsen had more luck.
He used dog sleds and had few problems. Amundsen reached the South Pole before Scott and returned
to Norway and gained worldwide fame. Scott also reached the South Pole, but he was disappointed to
find a Norwegian flag already planted there. With a heavy heart, he started the long trip back to his
base camp. Scot and all the men in his expedition died before reaching the base camp.
After the sad death of Scott and his men, there was little interest in exploring the South Pole.
Exploration did not restart until after the World War II, when the United States decided to build a
30
permanent camp in Antarctica. Amundsen-Scott research camp was completed in 1957. The
Americans started a new camp above the ground in 1974. This camp is still used today by scientists
from all around the world and still keeps the name of the two great explorers who opened Antarctica to
the world.
1. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true of the South Pole EXCEPT _____.
A. it is the coldest place on Earth
B. it is ringed by tall mountains
C. there were many attempts to reach the South Pole throughout history
D. it is extremely difficult to reach
2. According to the passage, why didn’t Scott reach the South Pole in 1901?
A. He had not finished his base camp.
B. His dogs were too slow.
C. His supplies ran out.
D. His mules all died in the cold.
3. The word ‘severe’ in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. extreme
B. very
C. deadly
D. frozen
4. According to paragraph 3, how did Scott know that he had lost the race to the South Pole?
A. He knew that Amundsen became world famous.
B. He found the Norwegian flag at the South Pole.
C. His tractors had broken down.
D. He knew that Amundsen had more luck than he did.
5. The word ‘they’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to ________.
A. tractors
B. supplies
C. teams
D. Scott
6. The world ‘harsh’ in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. calm
B. strong
C. unkind
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D. unpleasant
7. According to the passage, when did the exploration of the South Pole start again?
A. Just after World War II
B. In 1957
C. In 1974
D. In 1911
8. The word "he" in the 3rd paragraph refers to _________.
A. Scott
B. Amundsen
C. Norwegian
D. South Pole
9. According to the passage, why is the American research camp named the Amundsen-Scott
research camp?
A. Because they were both Americans.
B. To honor the first explorers of the South Pole.
C. Because they built the camp.
D. Because they both died.
10. Which of the sentences is NOT included in the summary of the passage?
The first attempt to reach the South Pole was done by Amundsen, but his expedition was unsuccessful.
The South Pole was one of the last places on Earth to be explored because of its difficult conditions.
In 1911, Robert Scott and Roald Amundsen led separate teams to the South Pole, and it was Amundsen
who reached there first.
After World War II, the US built a permanent camp named after Amundsen and Scott, and the
exploration restarted
PASSAGE 4
Jupiter is the largest and most massive planet and is fifth in order of distance from the sun. It is well
placed for observation for several months in every year and on average is the brightest of the planets
apart from Venus, though for relatively brief periods Mars may outshine it. Jupiter's less than 10-hour
rotation period gives it the shortest day in the solar system insofar as the principal planets are
concerned. There are no true seasons on Jupiter because the axial inclination to the perpendicular of the
orbital plane is only just over 3°-less than that for any other planet.
The most famous mark on Jupiter is the Great Red Spot. It has shown variations in both intensity and
color, and at times it has been invisible, but it always returns after a few years. At its greatest extent it
32
may be 40,000 kilometers long and 14,000 kilometers wide, so its surface area is greater than that of
Earth. Though the latitude of the Red Spot varies little, it drifts about in longitude. Over the past
century the total longitudinal drift has amounted to approximately 1200°. The latitude is generally very
close to -22°. It was once thought that the Red Spot might be a solid or semisolid body floating in
Jupiter's outer gas. However, the Pioneer and Voyager results have refuted that idea and proven the
Red Spot to be a phenomenon or Jovian meteorology. Its longevity may well be due to its exceptional
size, but there are signs that it is decreasing in size, and it may not be permanent. Several smaller red
spots have been seen occasionally but have not lasted.
1. According to the passage, Jupiter has the shortest day among the principal planets because
_________.
A. its rotation period is shorter than 10 hours
B. the axial inclination is only just over 3°
C. it is on the average the brightest of all the planets
D. there is the interference of the Great Red Spot
2. The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to the ________.
A. Jupiter
B. Venus
C. Mars
D. Red Spot
3. The author's tone in this passage is _________.
A. argumentative
B. supportive
C. enthusiastic
D. neutral
4. According to the passage, Mars outshines Jupiter _________.
A. on a regular basis
B. for a short time
C. every several months
D. less often than any other planet
5. This passage would be of most interest to _________.
A. students of anthropology
B. geologists
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C. mathematicians
D. amateur astronomers
6. It can be inferred from this passage that Jupiter's Great Red Spot _________.
A. will become brighter with time
B. will one day disappear
C. will continue expanding
D. is made of floating gases
7. The word "intensity" in the second paragraph could best be replaced with _________.
A. visibility
B. density
C. brilliance
D. surface area
8. The word "refuted" in the second paragraph could best be replaced with _________.
A. disagreed
B. confirmed
C. acknowledged
D. admitted
9. The following aspects of Jupiter are all mentioned in passage EXCEPT _________.
A. size
B. shape
C. distance
D. mark
10. The word “its” in the last paragraph refers to the _________.
A. Red Spot
B. Jupiter
C. latitude
D. gas
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PRACTICE TEST 2
PASSAGE 1
World Population and Climate Change
In many ways, the fast pace of climate change is a direct result of the development of the human
population. [A] In the last 100 years, the world population has increased more than three times. From
just under 2 billion at the beginning of the century, it is nearly 7 billion today. [B] In addition, the
average person uses more energy and natural resources than the average person 100 years ago. It
means that the rates of consumption are much higher than the increase in population would
suggest. [C] For example, it took the world 125 years to use the first one trillion barrels of oil. The
next trillion barrels be used in less than 30 years, which is almost 5 times as fast, not three. [D]
All these activities: producing food and using energy and natural resources, contribute to climate
change in some way. The greater amounts of oil and other fuels are burned to create energy. This
process releases chemicals which add to global warming. To produce more food, farmers cut down
trees to gain more land for their fields. We also cut down trees to build the houses needed for a larger
population. Those trees are an essential part of controlling global warming. These are just two
examples of the effects that the growing population has on global warming. Others are too many to
mention.
Besides, the world also has a population that wants a higher standard of living than in the past. A
higher standard of living requires the use of even more natural resources. A look at one country will
provide a clear example of this fact. China is the world's most populous nation, with 1.3 billion people.
Now the standard of living for most of those people is far below that of people in first world nations.
Therefore, the average Chinese person uses far fewer natural resources and less energy than the
average person of the US or Japan. But China is growing in power, and more and more of its people
are beginning to expect a first-world lifestyle. If every Chinese person reaches this lifestyle, the
amount of energy and natural resources needed in the world will double, even if the standard of
living in every other nation on Earth remains the same as it is today.
1. The word “pace” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. growth
B. speed
C. problem
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D. pollution
2. The word “consumption” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. development
B. usage
C. population
D. increase
3. All of the following are causes of climate change EXCEPT ________.
A. food production
B. decrease of human population
C. energy usage
D. the use of natural resources
4. According to the passage, how does food production contribute to global warming?
A. Food production requires that the forests be cleared to create farmland.
B. Producing more food leads to growth in the world population.
C. Food production uses many chemicals which add to global warming.
D. Food production decreases the ability of the air to release heat.
5. Why does the author mention the rate at which oil is being used in paragraph 1?
A. To suggest that most of the problems of global warming are associated to our fast use of oil
B. To suggest that our oil is likely to run out sometime in the next thirty years
C. To contrast the differences in lifestyle between people living 100 years ago and people living today
D. To illustrate that we are using resources faster than the speed at which the population is growing
6. The word “other” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. problems of global warming in the modern world
B. examples of the environmental consequences of population growth
C. ways in which our usage of oil will affect the world climate
D. the reasons why trees are essential in controlling global warming
7. According to the passage, how does the standard of living affect global warming?
A. Higher standards of living are better for the environment.
B. First world nations create less pollution than developing nations.
C. The use of natural resources is directly related to the standard of living
D. High standards of living lead to increases in world population.
8. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage?
36
A. If China becomes a first world nation, and all other nations keep their current standard of living, the
usage of energy and natural resources will double.
B. If China doubles its usage of natural resources, it will reach a better standard of living, but other
nations will have to remain as they are today.
C. Even if the standard of living in every other nation on Earth remains as it is today, China will still
try to reach a first world standard of living.
D. When China reaches a first world lifestyle, the amount of energy and natural resources used by
other nations to keep their current standard of living will double.
9. Why does the author discuss China, Japan, and the United States?
A. To compare the standards of living of their citizens
B. To explain why China will not be able to become a first world nation
C. To better illustrate the effects of an increase in standards of living
D. To explain why the world's use of energy will need to double soon
passage.
Obviously, this has meant that the world has needed to produce three times as much food, energy,
and other natural resources.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
PASSAGE 2
THE SEARCH FOR BEAUTY spans centuries and continents. Paintings of Egyptians dating back
over 4,000 years show both men and women painting their nails and wearing makeup. On the other
side of the globe, the ancient Maya of Central America considered crossed eyes beautiful, and hung
little balls between children’s eyes to develop this look. In 18th-century France, wealthy noblemen
wore large wigs of long white hair to make themselves attractive. In cultures throughout the world,
people have gone to extreme lengths to achieve the goal of beauty.
37
Today, people continue to devote a lot of time and money to their appearance. According to a recent
report, one out of three consumers globally say they are spending more money today on beauty and
health care products than ever before. Worldwide, sales of makeup, dieting, hair- and skin-care
products, as well as gym memberships and cosmetic surgery, generate billions of dollars every year.
And there is at least one good reason for the desire to be attractive: Beauty is power. Studies suggest
that good-looking people make more money, get called on more often in class, and are perceived as
friendlier.
But what exactly is beauty? Trying to define it is difficult, and yet we know it when we see it—or so
we think. “Beauty is health,” says one psychologist. “It’s a billboard saying ‘I’m healthy. I can pass on
your genes.’” And our awareness of it may start at a very early age. In one set of studies, six-month-old
babies were shown a series of photographs. The faces in the pictures had been rated for attractiveness
by a group of college students. In the studies, the babies spent more time looking at the attractive faces
than the unattractive ones.
The idea that even babies judge appearance makes perfect sense to many researchers. In studies done
by psychologists such as Victor Johnston at New Mexico State University and David Perrett at the
University of St. Andrews in Scotland, men regularly showed a preference for women with certain
features: larger eyes, clear skin, fuller lips, and a smaller nose and chin. Another study suggests that
women prefer men with large shoulders and a narrow waist. According to scientists, the mind
unconsciously tells men and women that these traits—the full lips, clear skin, strong shoulders—equal
health and genetic well-being. In other words, it’s a fundamental part of human nature to look for these
qualities in a mate.
Not everyone agrees with this notion, however. “Our hardwiredness can be altered by all sorts of
expectations—predominantly cultural,” says C. Loring Brace, an anthropologist at the University of
Michigan. What is considered attractive in one culture might not be in another. Look in most Western
fashion magazines, for example, and the women on the pages are thin. But is this the “perfect” body
type for women worldwide? Douglas Yu, a biologist from Great Britain, and Glenn Shepard, an
anthropologist at the University of California at Berkeley, say no; what is considered beautiful is
subjective and varies around the world. Yu and Shepard found in one study, for example, that native
peoples in southeast Peru preferred shapes regarded as overweight in Western cultures.
Take another example: In every culture, one’s hairstyle sends a clear message. In the Huli culture of
Papua New Guinea, men grow their hair long as a symbol of health and strength. Teenage boys in this
culture learn from a young age to style and decorate their hair—a behavior more commonly associated
with the opposite gender in many cultures. It is also the men in this culture who are the objects of
38
beauty. For certain festivals and celebrations, men dress up and paint their faces. The more colorful a
man is, the more masculine—and attractive—he is considered.
For better or worse, beauty plays a role in our lives. But it is extremely difficult to define exactly what
makes one person attractive to another. Although there do seem to be certain physical traits that are
considered universally appealing, it is also true that beauty does not always conform to a single,
uniform standard. A person’s cultural background, for example, may influence what he or she finds
attractive in others. In the end, beauty really is, as the saying goes, in the eye of the beholder.
1. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. people
B. consumers
C. products
D. sales
2. What is this reading mainly about?

A. what people think about beauty
B. the history of beauty
C. the world’s most beautiful people
D. how beauty is power
3. The ancient Maya hung balls between children’s eyes _________.

A. because they hoped it would improve their eyesight
B. to differentiate boys from girls
C. because they thought crossed eyes were beautiful
D. to add an attractive “third” eye
4. In paragraph 3, “perceived” can be replaced with _________.

A. known
B. seen
C. treated
D. compared.
5. In paragraph 4, the babies in the study _________.

A. were shown photos of college students
39
B. were entered in a beauty contest
C. were rated for their beauty
D. were able to tell attractive from unattractive faces
6. What determines the beauty of a Huli man in Papua New Guinea?

A. how young he is
B. how colorful he is
C. how strong he is
D. how big his mask is
7. What do you think the saying in the last sentence means?

A. Beauty is subjective and is different for different people.
B. Beauty is something that first appeals to sight.
C. Beauty is something that is held in high esteem.
D. Beauty of a person depends on their eyes.
8. According to the writer, perceptions of beauty _________.

A. change over time
B. are the same for every person
C. have little influence on a person’s success
D. can be easily defined.
9. Who thinks that people’ s perceptions of beauty depend on their own culture?
A. Loring Brace
B. Victor Johnston
C. David Perrett
D. Egyptians
10. In which culture, men are considered healthy and strong if they have long hair?
A. In the culture of the ancient Maya of Central America
B. In Egyptian culture
C. In the Huli culture
D. In the Western culture
40
PASSAGE 3
Before the age of the smartphone, aspiring photographers had to learn how to use high-tech cameras
and photographic techniques. Not everyone had cameras, and it took skill and a good eye to capture
and create a great photograph. Today, with the huge range of camera apps on our smartphones, we’re
all amateur photographers, and pretty good ones at that, since the quality of smartphone images now
nearly equals that of digital cameras.
The new ease of photography has given us a tremendous appetite for capturing the magical and the
ordinary. We are obsessed with documenting everyday moments, whether it’s a shot of our breakfast,
our cat—or the cat’s breakfast. And rather than collect pictures in scrapbooks, we share, like, and
comment on them with friends and strangers around the globe. Even photojournalists are
experimenting with mobile phones because their near invisibility makes it easier to
capture unguarded moments. And the Internet allows them to avoid traditional media, to act as their
own publishers—reaching huge audiences via social media sites such as Instagram. A photograph
taken in New York can get a response from someone in Lagos within seconds of being uploaded.[A]
In the past, magazines published unforgettable photos of important people and global events that
captured our imaginations. These photos had the power to change public opinion and even the course
of history. But if there are fewer memorable images today, it’s not because there are fewer good
images. It’s because there are so many, and no one image gets to be special for long.
Cameras are everywhere—a situation that is transforming the way we experience dramatic events.
With surveillance cameras observing most urban centers, have we gotten to the point where cameras
don’t need photographers and photographers don’t even need cameras? When there are political events
or natural disasters, it is ordinary citizens with cell phones—not photojournalists—who often provide
the first news images. Quality still matters, but it’s less important than what’s relevant and instantly
shared.
As people everywhere embrace photography and the media make use of citizen
journalists, professional standards appear to be shifting. Before digital images, most people trusted
photographs to accurately reflect reality. Today, images can be altered in ways the naked eye might
never notice. Photojournalists are trained to accurately represent what they witness. Yet any image can
be altered to create an “improved” picture of reality. The average viewer is left with no way to assess
the accuracy of an image except through trust in a news organization or photographer.
The question of the accuracy of images gets even trickier when photojournalists start experimenting
with camera apps—like Hipstamatic or Instagram—which encourage the use of filters. Images can be
41
colored, brightened, faded, and scratched to make photographs more artistic, or to give them an antique
look. Photographers using camera apps to cover wars and conflicts have created powerful images—but
also controversy. Critics worry that antique-looking photographs romanticize war, while distancing us
from those who fight in them.[B]
Yet photography has always been more subjective than we assume. Each picture is a result of a series
of decisions—where to stand, what lens to use, what to leave in and what to leave out of the frame.
Does altering photographs with camera app filters make them less true? There’s something powerful
and exciting about the experiment the digital age has forced upon us. These new tools make it easier to
tell our own stories—and they give others the power to do the same. Many members of the media get
stuck on the same stories, focusing on elections, governments, wars, and disasters, and in the process,
miss out on the less dramatic images of daily life that can be as revealing.
The increase in the number of photographs and photographers might even be good for democracy
itself. Hundreds of millions of potential citizen journalists make the world smaller and help keep
leaders honest. People can now show what they are up against, making it increasingly difficult for
governments to hide their actions. If everyone has a camera, Big Brother isn’t the only one watching.
Who knows? Our obsession with documentation and constantly being connected could lead to a radical
change in our way of being. Perhaps we are witnessing the development of a universal visual language,
one that could change the way we relate to each other and the world. Of course, as with any language,
there will be those who produce poetry and those who make shopping lists. [C]
It’s not clear whether this flowering of image-making will lead to a public that better appreciates and
understands images—or simply numb us to the profound effects a well-made image can have. But the
change is irreversible. Let’s hope the millions of new photographs made today help us see what we all
have in common, rather than what sets us apart.[D]
1. According to the author, why are there fewer memorable photographs today?
A. Because the quality of many images is still poor.
B. Because most images are not interesting to a global audience.
C. Because traditional media refuse to allow amateur photos.
D. Because there are so many good images these days.
2. What kinds of images does the author think matter most these days?
A. images that are important to people and that can be shared quickly
B. images that are of a high quality that help show dramatic events
42
C. images that reflect reality but are presented in a traditional way
D. images that can be altered to improve one’s sense of reality
3. Why does the author put the word improved in quotation marks in paragraph 5?
A. The writer is using the exact word from another source.
B. The writer wishes to stress that the picture of reality is greatly improved.
C. The writer believes it is arguable whether the picture is truly improved.
D. The writer is not sure the reader understands the word, so draws attention to it.
4. Who does the author criticize in this reading?

A. citizen journalists
B. people who use surveillance cameras
C. some members of today’s media
D. people who alter photos
5. What does their refer to in the passage?

A. mobile phones
B. photojournalists
C. publishers
D. scrapbooks
6. The word “unguarded” in the passage is closest in the meaning to _________.

A. spontaneous
B. unthinking
C. unsafe
D. honest
7. What is the main idea of paragraph 8?

A. Big Brother is no longer watching us.
B. Democratic governments are the only governments that allow cameras.
C. People with cameras can help show how things really are in the world.
D. More governments are trying to ban the use of cameras in their countries.
43
8. When referring to visual language, what does the author mean by as with any language, there
will be those who produce poetry and those who make shopping lists?
A. It will be most useful for shopping and for writing beautiful poetry.
B. It will be better because it can be used for a wide variety of things.
C. We can do the same thing with visual language as written language.
D. Some people will use it for everyday things and others for more creative things.
passage.
Such images may be more useful in communicating how the person behind the camera felt
than in documenting what was actually in front of the camera.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
10. What is the main purpose of the last paragraph?

A. To explain why image-making is popular.
B. To make people understand the role of image-making.
C. To demonstrate that image-making is useful.
D. To give author’s opinion about the benefits of photographs.
PASSAGE 4
THE X-PLANES
By the end of World War II, it was obvious that the days of propeller-driven aircraft were over. The
British and the Germans had already developed jet-powered fighters that were much faster. There was
only one problem: the new planes were not strong enough to travel faster than the speed of sound.
Aircraft engineers had encountered something that they called the “sound barrier.” As aircraft
approach the speed of sound (a little less than 700 mph), the air becomes very rough. This rough air
was literally shaking planes apart. Before jet aircraft could advance any further, engineers had to solve
the problem of the sound barrier.
44
In 1945, the American government started the X-program to solve this problem. The goal of the
program was to build an aircraft strong enough to fly faster than the speed of sound and to test what
happened to an aircraft at those speeds. [A] The first X-plane, the X-1, was shaped like a bullet with
short thin wings. [B] It did not take off on its own. It was lifted into the air by a larger airplane and
then dropped. [C] Then it started its rocket engine and picked up speed.
The X-1 was a very successful aircraft. In 1947, just two years after the program started, Chuck
Yeager became the first man to break the sound barrier at an altitude of 43,000 feet. [D] Over the next
years, more X-planes were built, each flying faster and higher. Furthermore, each X-plane looked less
and less like a plane. Their wings got shorter and shorter. By 1961, when the X-15 was built, there
were no wings on the aircraft at all, just three fins at the back. This was a result of the changing
mission of the X-planes. Having solved the problem of the sound barrier, engineers had turned their
attention to the problems of space flight. The later X-planes, such as the X-15, were designed
to investigate these problems.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?

A. The greatest challenge to aircraft engineers
B. The disappearance of propeller-driven aircraft
C. The development of jet-powered fighters
D. The causes of the problem “sound barrier”
2. According to paragraph 1, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

A. Propeller aircraft were becoming unnecessary after World War II.
B. Both the Germans and the British had built planes that flew faster than the speed of sound.
C. The first jet planes were not strong enough to fly at very high speeds.
D. Travelling near the speed of sound was destroying airplanes.
3. Based on the information in paragraph 1, the term “sound barrier” can best be explained
as _________.
A. a problem that engineers had to solve
B. an aircraft that had shaken apart
C. the problem caused by rough air near the speed of sound
D. the program to travel faster than the speed of sound
45
4. The word “advance” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. fly
B. progress
C. change
D. go
5. According to the passage, what was the original objective of the X-program?
A. To end the days of propeller-driven aircraft
B. To solve the problems of the sound barrier
C. To build a new fighter plane
D. To make planes more like missiles
passage.
Actually, the X-1 was more like a missile with wings than a real plane.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
7. According to the passage, why was it necessary for later X-planes to fly much higher?
A. They had smaller wings.
B. They were used to investigate space flight.
C. They flew much faster.
D. The air was too rough.
8. The word “this” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

A. the construction of X-15
B. wings of X-planes getting shorter
C. replacing wings of X-15 with fins
D. three fins at the back
46
9. The word “investigate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. solve
B. discover
C. study
D. develop
10. What is the mission of the X-15?

A. To overcome the sound barrier problem
B. To research space flight problems
C. To test what occurred to an aircraft at the speed of sound
D. To deliver Chuck Yeager to the space
PRACTICE TEST 3
PASSAGE 1
ECLIPSES
The word eclipse refers to astronomical occasion when the light of one celestial object is partly or
completely blocked by the shadow of another object. Eclipses are usually classified as solar or lunar.
They occur as often as seven times in a year.
A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun. It partly or totally blocks
the Earth's view of the Sun. This happens when the Moon is exactly between the Sun and the Earth. A
solar eclipse can only occur when the Moon is a new moon. Thousands of years ago, solar eclipses
were terrifying events because everything went dark, and no one could understand why. Today, solar
eclipses are no longer frightening, and hundreds of people do travel to areas where a solar
eclipse is occurring. A total solar eclipse occurs when the Sun is completely blocked by the Moon,
and only a faint corona can be seen. It is rare and usually lasts for a few minutes. A partial eclipse
occurs when the Moon covers parts of the Sun. The longest solar eclipses occur when the Earth is
farthest from the Sun, making the solar disc smaller and the Moon is at closest to the Earth, making the
Moon's diameter larger.
A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes through a part of the Earth's shadow. The earliest
recorded lunar eclipse happened on March 19, 721 B.C. A lunar eclipse can only occur with a full
moon and when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are in a single line. [A] The shadow of the Earth is divided
47
into two parts. [B] The outer part of the shadow is called the penumbra. In the penumbra, the Earth
can block only part of the Sun's rays which reach the Moon. A penumbral eclipse occurs when the
Moon passes through the Earth's penumbra. [C] The inner part is the umbra, a region where the Earth
blocks all the direct sunlight. [D] When the Moon travels completely under the Earth's umbra, the
Moon partly disappears or has a red glow.
Note:
celestial: belonging or relating to the sky
corona: the outermost region of the Sun’s atmosphere

A. Eclipses are heavenly events involving the Sun, Moon and Earth.
B. Solar eclipses do not occur as often as lunar eclipses.
C. Solar and lunar eclipses cannot occur unless the Moon is full.
D. Celestial objects are visible in the sky when an eclipse occurs.
2. The word “blocked” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.

A. tied
B. found
C. hidden
D. colored
3. According to the passage, which of the following is a reason why solar eclipses terrified ancient
people?
A. The Moon appeared bigger than the Sun.
B. Both the Moon and the Sun were visible in the sky.
C. People did not know the reason why everything grew dark.
D. The Sun was not as bright as it used to be.
4. Which of the sentences best expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence?
Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. People travel to see solar eclipses for a religious reason.
B. People are not afraid of solar eclipses, and they want to see them.
48
C. Solar eclipses are now the most important events of the year.
D. People travel to see solar eclipses because they are terrified.
5. All of the following are mentioned in paragraph 2 as a possible consequence of a solar eclipse
EXCEPT that ________
A. the Sun appears as a shining band.
B. the Sun's rays are completely blocked out.
C. the Sun partly disappears for a short time.
D. the Sun's corona can be seen.
6. The word “rare” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. complex
B. cold
C. uncommon
D. dangerous
7. What can be inferred about solar eclipses?

A. They are not as attractive as they were in the past.
B. They are harder to study than lunar eclipses.
C. They are interesting events for a lot of people.
D. They occur only in the daytime.
8. The phrase “outer part” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.

A. the Earth's shadow
B. a single line
C. umbra
D. penumbra
9. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the
passage.
The penumbra does not cause any noticeable darkening of the Moon's surface.
A. [A]
49
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
10. According to the passage, what is true about lunar eclipse?

A. It has a reddish color when it passes under umbra.
B. It occurs when the Moon is in the middle of the Earth and Sun
C. It happens when light is blocked by the Moon.
D. Happens when the Moon is a new moon.
PASSAGE 2
Pandemic Diseases
Diseases are a natural part of life on Earth. If there were no disease, the population would grow too
quickly, and there would not be enough food or other resources. So in a way, diseases are nature’s way
of keeping the Earth in balance. But sometimes they spread very quickly and kill large numbers of
people. For example, in 1918, an outbreak of the flu spread across the world, killing over 25 million
people in only six months. Such terrible outbreaks of a disease are called pandemics.
Pandemics happen when a disease changes in a way that our bodies are not prepared to fight. In 1918,
a new type of flu virus appeared. Our bodies had no way to fight this new flu virus, and so it spread
very quickly and killed large numbers of people. While there have been many different pandemic
diseases throughout history all of them have a few things in common.
First, all pandemic diseases spread from one person to another very easily. Secondly, while they may
kill many people, they generally do not kill people very quickly. A good example of this would be the
Marburg virus. The Marburg virus is an extremely infectious disease. In addition, it is deadly. About
70-80% of all the people who get the Marburg virus die from the disease. However, the Marburg virus
has not become a pandemic because most people die within three days of getting the disease. This
means that the virus does not have enough time to spread to a large number of people. The flu virus of
1918, on the other hand, generally took about a week to ten days to kill its victims, so it had more time
to spread.
While we may never be able to completely stop pandemics, we can make them less common. Doctors
carefully monitor new diseases that they fear could become pandemics. For example, in 2002 and
2003, doctors carefully watched SARS. Their health warnings may have prevented SARS from
becoming a pandemic.
50
11. According to paragraph 1, how are diseases a natural part of life on Earth?
A. They prevent pandemics.
B. They help control the population.
C. They help the world grow quickly.
D. They kill too many people.
12. Based on the information in the passage, the term ‘pandemic’ can best be explained as
_______.
A. diseases with no cure
B. a deadly kind of flu
C. diseases that spread quickly and kill large numbers of people
D. new diseases like SARS or the Marburg virus
13. According to the passage, what causes pandemics?

A. Changes in a disease that the body cannot fight.
B. Careless doctors who do not watch the spread of diseases.
C. Population growth that the world cannot support.
D. The failure to make new medicine.
14. According to the passage, all of the following are true of the 1918 flu pandemic EXCEPT that
________.
A. it involved a new kind of flu virus
B. it killed over 25 million people
C. it was the last pandemic in history
D. it took a little over a week to kill its victims
C
15. The word ‘it’ in the 2nd paragraph refers to _______.
A. disease
B. flu virus
C. pandemics
D. bodies
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16. The word ‘they’ in the 3rd paragraph refers to _______.
A. doctors
B. diseases
C. pandemics
D. victims
17. According to paragraph 3, why hasn’t the Marburg virus become a pandemic?
A. It is not a deadly disease.
B. It does not spread from person to person easily.
C. Doctors have presented it from becoming a pandemic.
D. It kills people too quickly.
18. The word ‘monitor’ in the 3rd paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. fight
B. prevent
C. watch
D. avoid
19. The author mentions SARS in order to _________.

A. give an example of a highly dangerous disease
B. suggest that SARS will never become a pandemic
C. give an example of the successful prevention of a pandemic
D. suggest that there may be a new pandemic soon
20. Which of the information is NOT true according to the passage?

A. Pandemics are diseases that spread quickly and kill many people.
B. The Marburg virus became a pandemic in ten days.
C. In order to become a pandemic, a disease must spread quickly and kill its victims relatively slowly.
D. Doctors can help prevent pandemic disease by closely watching the spread of diseases and giving
health warnings.
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PASSAGE 3
A Tropical Cyclone
A tropical cyclone is a violent low pressure storm that usually occurs over warm oceans of over 80°F
or 27°C. It winds counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern
Hemisphere as it is described for the term, cyclone itself. This powerful storm is fueled by the heat
energy that is released when water vapor condenses at high altitudes, the heat ultimately derived
from the sun.
The center of a tropical cyclone, called the eye, is relatively calm and warm. The eye, which is roughly
20 to 30 miles wide, is clear, mainly because of subsiding air within it. The ring of clouds around the
eye is the eyewall, where clouds reach highest, and precipitation is heaviest. The strong wind, gusting
up to 360 kilometers per hour, occurs when a tropical cyclone's eyewall passes over land.
There are various names for a tropical cyclone depending on its location and strength. [A] In Asia, a
tropical cyclone is named according to its strength. [B] The strongest is a typhoon; its winds move at
more than 117 kilometers per hour. [C] In India, it is called a cyclone. Over the North Atlantic and in
the South Pacific, they call it a hurricane. [D]
On average, there are about 100 tropical cyclones worldwide each year. A tropical cyclone peaks in
late summer when the difference between temperature in the air and sea surface is the greatest.
However, it has its own seasonal patterns. May is the least active month, while September is the most
active.
The destruction associated with a tropical cyclone results not only from the force of the wind, but also
from the storm surge and the waves it generates. It is born and sustained over large bodies of warm
water. And then it loses its strength over inland regions that are comparatively safe from receiving
strong winds. Although the track of a tropical cyclone is very erratic, the Weather Service can still
issue timely warnings to the public if a tropical cyclone is approaching densely populated areas. If
people ever experience a cyclone, they would know how strong it could be.
*altitude: the height of anything above sea level on the earth
*precipitation: the amount of rainfall
*torrential: flowing with rapidity and violence
A. The tropical cyclone is the most powerful force on the earth.
B. The tropical cyclone can cause flooding and damage to structures.
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C. A tropical cyclone forms over the oceans and has great power.
D. The tropical cyclone is called by different names around the world.
22. Which of the sentences below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in the passage? Incorrect choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out
essential information.
A. Water vapor reduces the sun's energy during strong storms.
B. Water vapor and the sun's heating are the ingredients of strong storms.
C. Water vapor disappears at higher altitudes because of the hot sun.
D. The energy of the storm decreases at higher altitudes.
23. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is true about the eyewall?
A. The eyewall is formed in cold weather.
B. When the eyewall passes overhead, the wind weakens.
C. The temperature is highest around the eye.
D. The eyewall is a cloud band that surrounds the eye.
24. Look at the four squares [ ] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to
paragraph 3.
The weakest is a tropical depression, with winds of less than 62 kilometers per hour.
A. [A]
B. [B]
C. [C]
D. [D]
25. What can be inferred about typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes?

A. Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes form together above the oceans.
B. A typhoon is stronger than both the cyclone and the hurricane.
C. Typhoons, cyclones and hurricanes are all most powerful over a humid ocean.
D. Although tropical cyclones have different names, they are basically same.
26. The word “peaks” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
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A. hits the bottom
B. reaches the highest point
C. falls down
D. is the most passive
27. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to ________.

A. a tropical cyclone
B. the wind
C. torrential rain
D. the storm surge
28. The word “erratic” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ________.

A. complicated
B. unpredictable
C. disastrous
D. explosive
29. All of the following are true about a tropical cyclone, EXCEPT that ________.
A. tropical cyclones are known by various names around the world.
B. there is the eye that has little or no rain, and the eyewall, which has the violent storm.
C. tropical cyclones can be very dangerous, especially in the coastal areas.
D. a tropical cyclone can grow as wide as fifty miles.
30. Which paragraph contains the information about the average number of cyclones every
year?
A. Paragraph 1
B. Paragraph 2
C. Paragraph 3
D. Paragraph 4
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PASSAGE 4
NEGOTIATION
The increase in international business and in foreign investment has created a need for executives with
knowledge of foreign languages and skills in cross-cultural communication. Americans, however,
have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed the same level of
success in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterparts.
Negotiating is the process of communicating back and forth for the purpose of reaching an agreement.
It involves persuasion and compromise, but in order to participate in either one, the negotiators must
understand the ways in which people are persuaded and how compromise is reached within the
culture of the negotiation.
In many international business negotiations abroad, Americans are perceived as wealthy
and impersonal. It often appears to the foreign negotiator that the American represents a large
multimillion- dollar corporation that can afford to pay the price without bargaining further. The
American negotiator’s role becomes that of an impersonal purveyor of information and cash, an image
that succeeds only in undermining the negotiation.
In studies of American negotiators abroad, several traits have been identified that may serve to confirm
this stereotypical perception, while subverting the negotiator’s position. Two traits in particular that
cause cross-cultural misunderstanding are directness and impatience on the part of the American
negotiator. Furthermore, American negotiators often insist on realizing short-term goals.
Foreign negotiators, on the other hand, may value the relationship established between negotiators and
may be willing to invest time in it for long-term benefits. In order to solidify the relationship, they may
opt for indirect interactions without regard for the time involved in getting to know the other
negotiator.
Clearly, perceptions and differences in values affect the outcomes of negotiations and the success of
negotiators. For Americans to play a more effective role in international business negotiations, they
must put forth more effort to improve cross-cultural understanding.
31. What is the author’s main point?

A. Negotiation is the process of reaching an agreement.
B. Foreign languages are important for international business.
C. Foreign perceptions of American negotiators are based on stereotypes.
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D. American negotiators need to learn more about other cultures.
32. According to the author, what is the purpose of negotiation?

A. To undermine the other negotiator’s position
B. To communicate back and forth
C. To reach an agreement
D. To understand the culture of the negotiators
33. The word “persuaded” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________

A. respected
B. accused
C. informed
D. convinced
34. The word “impersonal” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. indifferent
B. friendly
C. confident
D. humorous
35. The word “undermining” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.

A. making known
B. making clear
C. making brief
D. making weak
36. The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to _________.

A. bargaining
B. role
C. corporation
D. price
37. What does the author mean by the statement in paragraph 1?
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“Americans, however, have not been well trained in either area and, consequently, have not enjoyed
the same level of success in negotiation in an international arena as have their foreign counterparts”
A. Training is not available for Americans who must interact in international negotiations.
B. Foreign businesspersons negotiate less effectively than Americans because of their training.
C. Because their training is not as good, Americans are less successful as negotiators than their
international counterparts.
D. Foreign businesspersons do not like to negotiate with Americans, who are not well trained.
38. According to the passage, how can American businesspersons improve their negotiation
skills?
A. By living in a foreign culture
B. By getting to know the negotiators
C. By compromising more often
D. By explaining the goals more clearly
39. The American negotiator is described as all of the following EXCEPT _________.
A. perceived by foreign negotiators as wealthy
B. willing to invest time in relationships
C. known for direct interactions
D. interested in short-term goals
40. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses _________.
A. ways to increase cross-cultural understanding
B. traits that cause cross-cultural misunderstanding
C. knowledge of foreign languages
D. relationships between negotiators
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SECTION 3: WRITING
PART 1
LETTER/ EMAIL WRITING
In Task 1, you have to write a letter or an email in response to a given task.
There are many different kinds of letters, depending on why you are writing and who you are writing
to. In general, a letter has this basic structure: the greeting; the introduction; the body; the closing, the
ending/sign-off, and signature.
The way you begin, close, and the style you write will depend on:
- The overall purpose of the letter/email,
- The tone of the message you want to get across, and
- Your relationship to the person receiving the letter.
I. THE MAIN PARTS OF A LETTER

I.1 The greeting
The greeting depends on who the letter is being written to. The most common greetings are:
I.2 The introduction

In the introduction, you introduce yourself (if necessary), say why you are writing, and explain your
situation.
The most common way to begin a letter is with the sentence I am writing to …
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I.3 The body
The body is the main part of a letter, where you give further details. Your letter should be divided into
paragraphs and each paragraph should have one main point.
I.4 The closing

The closing is where you finish your letter and request a response, if appropriate. Like the greeting, the
closing you choose also depends on who you are writing to:
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II. WRITING STYLES
Letters/emails are classified into three styles: formal, semi-formal, and informal. The tone of your
letter depends on who you are writing to and how well you know them.
You have to use appropriate style of writing and vocabulary as well as accurate grammar,
capitalization, and punctuation.
The three letters below have the same content, but they are sent to different readers. They, thus, have
different vocabulary and writing styles.
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PART 2
ESSAY WRITING
A typical Task 2 question will look like this:
TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Read the following topic:
Convenience foods will become increasingly prevalent and eventually replace traditional
foods and traditional methods of food preparation.
To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement?
Write an essay to express your point of view. Give reasons for your answer and include any
relevant examples from your knowledge or experience.
You should write at least 250 words.
Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary, and
Grammar.
I. WRITING PROCESS
In Task 2, you need to write an academic essay on the topic given. In order to get a high score for your
essay, you should take the following steps:
1.1 Reading and understanding the task

1.2 Planning
1.3 Writing your essay (introduction, body, and conclusion)
1.4 Checking and editing
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I.1 Reading and understanding the task
The first step in writing any essay is to read and understand the task correctly.
Every year there are reports of serious injuries that occur not only to professional sports people but
also young amateurs playing sports like football and ice hockey.
Do you agree that some sports are simply too dangerous?
I.2. Planning
After analyzing the question, you must make a detailed outline for your essay. Remember the
following suggestions when making an outline:
▪ Make sure your essay has an introduction, a body with supporting paragraphs, and a conclusion to
sum up the main points.
▪ Write a thesis statement that introduces the main idea of the whole essay.
▪ Use academic vocabulary.
▪ Use different sentence structures, not only simple sentences but also compound and complex
sentences.
There are no absolute rules regarding what an outline should be. It does not need to be lengthy – it is
simply an organized list of ideas for your essay.
Task 2
Read the following essay topic.
Every year there are reports of serious injuries that occur not only to professional sports people but
also young amateurs playing sports like football and ice hockey.
Do you agree that some sports are simply too dangerous?
First, you should find out the key words to know the topic and the type of essay you should write.
Once you are sure you have understood the question, you should brainstorm some ideas.
For this task, your ideas can be divided into FOR and AGAINST:
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It is also a good idea to brainstorm some relevant vocabulary.
I. 3 Planning
For each of the writing topics below, work out an outline for your essay. The first one is given as an
example.
1. People have various ways of relieving stress. What are some of the ways that you find most effective
in relieving stress? Give reasons and examples to support your response.
64
I.3. Writing your essay
I.3.1 Introduction
The introduction is the first paragraph of an essay. It introduces the topic and arouses the reader’s
interest. Your introduction begins with a few general statements, then last comes the thesis statement.
(1) Purpose
The introduction helps the reader know:
▪ the topic
▪ the aspect of the topic being dealt with
▪ the viewpoint/attitude taken by the writer to the topic
(2) Parts of the introduction
The introduction usually has two parts:
▪ General statements: These give the reader the background information about the topic of your
essay. They should lead the reader gradually from a general idea to a very specific one.
▪ A thesis statement: This introduces the main idea of your essay. Very often, the topic and thesis
statement can be written in one sentence to state the purpose of the essay, which is also seen as your
response to the instructions given to you.
I.3.2 Body
The body is the main part of your essay and must have at least two paragraphs, each with a central
topic.
Every paragraph in the body should have this general structure:
- A topic sentence: Each body paragraph starts with a topic sentence. A good topic sentence has
controlling ideas. Although topic sentences may appear anywhere in paragraphs, in academic essays
they often appear at the beginning.
- Supporting sentences: Different facts or points supporting the main idea of the essay must be
followed to support the topic sentence.
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- A concluding sentence: Each body paragraph should have a concluding sentence in order to make
connection to the next paragraph. This link is a must-have element as this is what makes the essay
logically structured.
I.3.3 Conclusion
A conclusion is the last paragraph of an essay. The conclusion signals the end of the essay by
summarizing the main points, or restating the thesis, or leaving the reader with the writer's thought on
the subject; however, it should not bring up a new one.
A conclusion should
- stress the importance of the thesis statement,
- give the essay a sense of completeness, and
- leave a final impression on the reader.
Below are some common connectors starting a conclusion paragraph:
In conclusion In sum To sum up Altogether

In all On the whole In a word All this suggests that ...
It can be concluded that In conclusion, it can be said that ...
I.4. Checking and Editing
When planning your essay, you should spare some last minutes for checking and editing. Before
handing in your paper, you have to read it through to check for vocabulary mistakes like spelling and
capitalization as well as grammar mistakes such as punctuation, subject-verb agreement, or verb
tenses.
When writing at home, you will, of course, have more time to check your writing style and
organization. You can do the following:
- Make sure your essay has an introduction, supporting paragraphs, and a conclusion.
- Check that you have a thesis statement that introduces the main idea of the essay.
- Check that all your paragraphs follow the proper paragraph format.
- Make sure that each sentence makes sense.
- See if your essay is interesting.
II. COMMON ESSAY TYPES
II.1 Agree/Disagree essay
For this kind of essay, you can choose to completely agree, to completely disagree, or to partly agree.
However, if you choose to partly agree, you have to be very specific about which parts of the statement
you agree with and which you don't. This can make writing your essay more complicated.
An example outline for an agree/disagree essay:
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II.2 Advantage/Disadvantage Essays
An advantage/disadvantage essay is the one which is based on facts and weighs the options to come to
a conclusion.
When you write this type of essay, remember that you are not going to persuade the reader but simply
provide a simple analysis of both sides of an issue and give appropriate consideration.
Introduction
Start your essay by giving a general description of the topic. You should also clearly explain that the
essay is going to provide information on the advantages and disadvantages of the topic described.
Body
The advantages and disadvantages you have already outlined should now be expanded in the body of
the essay. Do not just list the point, rather give some explanation and where possible, back it up with
evidence. For instance, if the advantage of coal mining is employment, provide the figure on the
number of jobs it provides to people in the area under discussion.
Conclusion
In the conclusion, you simply restate the main advantages and disadvantages of the topic being
detailed.
II.3 Cause/Effect Essays
This type of essay has a number of variations. Sometimes you may be asked just to discuss the causes
of a problem or situation, such as:
Many couples these days are choosing to have fewer children. Why is this the case?
In other cases, you may be asked to discuss only effects, such as:
Migration between countries is becoming increasingly common. Discuss any consequences this might
have, whether positive or negative.
Sometimes the two might be combined and you could be asked to discuss both causes and effects. For
example:
An increasing number of adults in their twenties or even thirties are moving back into their parents’
homes. What are the factors that lead to this situation, and how can it affect everybody involved?
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When writing a cause/effect essay, you have to write about:
- causes of the problem
- effects of the problem
- solutions to the problem, focusing on reducing/eliminating the causes, NOT the effects
1. Making an outline
Here are possible outlines:
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2. The next step in writing a cause/effect essay is developing your thesis statement and body
paragraphs. When doing this, you should pay attention to the logical order of your arguments. Usually,
there are three ways of organizing your thoughts: chronological order, order of importance, and
categorical order. Use the one which corresponds to your arguments.
3. Use connectors when writing your body paragraphs, such as because, due to the fact, since that,
secondly, firstly, as a result, therefore, that is why, and so on.
4. Summarize the main points in the conclusion.
5. Reread it and correct mistakes. Make sure you use appropriate language and writing style.
II.4 Problem-Solution Essays
For this type of task, you are given a problem and asked to suggest possible ways to solve the problem.
For example:
It is common nowadays for people to accumulate large credit card debts, which they are unable to deal
with. What can be done about this?
To write effectively, you need to organize your essay carefully by:
- interesting your reader in the problem,
- convincing your reader that the problem is important and needs to be solved,
- explaining your solution clearly,
- convincing the reader that your solution is cost-effective, feasible and workable,
- convincing your reader that your solution is better than others' solution.
Here is a possible outline for this kind of essay:
III. COHERENCE & COHESION

Coherence is how clear and easy to understand your writing is. Cohesion is how well your writing
“sticks” together.
To judge these criteria, the examiner will look more specifically at your overall structure (introduction
> body > conclusion), the structure within your paragraphs and the linking words and devices you use.
Linking words and phrases can be put into a number of categories according to their function.
IV. GRAMMAR CHECK
To get a high score for your writing, you have to use not only accurate grammar but also various
structures. In other words, you must pay attention to correct countable and uncountable nouns,
appropriate tenses; subject-verb agreement; simple, compound and complex sentences (e.g.
conditionals, relative clauses, passive voice…)
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V. LEXICAL RESOURCE
You should use a wide range of academic vocabulary.
VI. SUMMARY
- Do not learn sample answers and then rewrite them in the exam. The examiners can recognize your
prepared answer and you will lose a lot of marks.
- Do not copy out the words in the task but use your own words.
- Allow 5 minutes at the start for planning and another 3–4 minutes at the end for checking.
Below are some useful suggestions you should apply during your practice stage:
BEFORE YOU WRITE

1. Read the task carefully,
2. Underline the important parts of the task,
3. Think about vocabulary you can use to paraphrase the topic,
4. Make a rough plan, and
5. Write your essay.
AFTER YOU WRITE

Read through your writing and check for:
overall structure – Have you addressed all parts of the task?
paragraphing – Did you start a new paragraph for each new idea? Have you grouped your ideas
logically in paragraphs?
grammar, spelling and punctuation – Have you used articles (a/an/the), tenses, spelling, capitals,
commas, full stops or apostrophes correctly?
coherence – Have you used connectors to link your ideas?
style – Have you used a formal style of English?
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SECTION 4: SPEAKING
PART 1: SOCIAL INTERACTION

You have 3 minutes to answer 3-6 questions. No preparation time.
Questions are divided into 2 topics.
Points to remember:
- Try to give some extra information when you answer the question.
I like reading books. Particularly, I love reading history books.
- Link ideas by using linking words such as: because, as, if , when, before, after…
I like reading history books because I know a lot about people’s history.
- For Yes/No questions, don’t just answer Yes or No. Try to give some information.
 Do you like travelling?
 Yes, I love travelling a lot because I can know many new places.
Useful structures
Expressing Frequency
always / usually / often / sometimes / rarely / hardly ever / never
Notes:
- Adverbs of frequency come after to be.
They are always on time for class.
- Adverbs of frequency come before ordinary verbs.

My parents usually come for dinner at weekends.
- Adverbs of frequency come between auxiliary and main verb.

We will always remember your contributions.
once
twice a day / a week / a month / a year
three times…
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Expressing Like and Favourite Activities
- S + like / love / enjoy + Noun

I like K-pop music.
I enjoy adventure movies.
- S + like / love /enjoy + V-ing

I like listening to K-pop music.
I enjoy watching adventure movies.
Expressing Preference
- S + prefer + Noun
I prefer outdoor sports.
- S + prefer + Noun + to + Noun

I prefer outdoor sports to indoor sports.
- S + prefer + V-ing to V-ing

I prefer watching movies to listening to music.
PRACTICE
Let’s talk about your hobbies and interests.

- What do you like doing in your free time?
- Do you like playing chess?
- What sports or hobby do you think you might like to try in the future?
Let’s talk about music.

- What type of music do you like?
- When do you often listen to music?
- What kind of musical instrument do you like playing?
Let’s talk about food.

- What is your favourite food?
- What are some kinds of food you have never eaten?
- Do you prefer home-cooked food or food in restaurant? Why?
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Let’s talk about travelling.
- How often do you travel with your family?
- Do you prefer travelling with your family or your friends?
- Which foreign country do you like to visit? Why?
Let’s talk about TV show.

- Do you often watch TV shows?
- What type of TV show do you like watching?
- Would you prefer to watch that show alone or with someone else? Why?
Let’s talk about summer.

- Is summer your favorite time of the year? Why or why not?
- What do you do in summer when the weather is very hot?
- Do you often go on holiday every summer? Why or why not?
PART 2: SOLUTION DISCUSSION

You have 3 minutes to respond to the task.
You have 1 minute to prepare your notes. Do not write long sentences.
Task Question
- You are given a situation with 3 options.
- You are asked to choose 1 option and give reasons for your choice.
Points to remember:
- Pick up 1 option and give reasons for your choice.
- Say why you don’t choose the other 2 options.
Useful structures
Expressing your opinions

- I think ……
- In my opinion, ……
- From my opinion, ……
- From my point of view, ……
Giving reasons
- …… because / as / since ……
- …… because of ……
- …… This is because ……
- One reason is that ……… Another reason is that ……
- The first reason for my choice is that ……… Another reason is that ……
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Giving example
- For example, ……
- One example is that ……
- …… such as …
Example:
Situation: This weekend your family is planning to play sports together. Which sport do you think
might be most suitable and enjoyable: football, swimming, running?
Sample Response:
This weekend my family is planning to play sports together. Of the three given sports, I would
vote for football for some reasons. First of all, football is so popular and easy to play. We can
play in a large group, including our parents, nieces and nephews, and even our grandparents. The
rules of football are simple and there are no special skills required, so I believe a family football
match would be enjoyable.
Talking about swimming, I think it is quite dangerous for children as it requires basic swimming
skills to balance underwater. What about running? It never seems to be a good choice at all
since it’s an individual sport. There will be less interaction between family members.
Taking everything into consideration, football is the perfect choice for my family sport this
weekend.
PRACTICE
Part 2: Solution Discussion (4’)
Situation: The national holidays are coming. Your family members want to travel somewhere to relax,
but they cannot decide where to go. You are the person who makes the final decision. Which place would
you convince other family members to go: visiting a different city, going to the beach or travelling to the
countryside? Why?
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Situation: Your close friend is considering some possible presents for her parents’ wedding anniversary.
She does not know whether to choose a bunch of flowers, a cake or a handmade photo album. Which
present do you think is the best choice?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Situation: Your friend invites you to go to the cinema. Three kinds of film are suggested: documentary,
action and romantic film. Which one do you think is the best option?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2. Solution Discussion (4’)

Situation: Your mother’s birthday is coming and you are planning a party for her. You have three
options in mind: have a party at a restaurant, have a party at home with home-cooked meals, and have
a party with food ordered from the restaurant. Which do you think is the best option?
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
PART 3: TOPIC DEVELOPMENT

You have 4 minutes to respond to the task.
You have 1 minute to prepare your notes. Do not write long sentences.
Task Question
- You are given a map including a topic with 3 main ideas related to the topic.
- You are given 3 follow-up questions.
Points to remember:
- Discuss the topic by talking about the main ideas given in the map.
- Develop the main ideas by giving extra information.
- Answer the follow-up questions as much as you can after developing the ideas
Useful structure
Organizing ideas
- First, …… / Firstly, ……
- Second, …… / Secondly, ……
- Next, ……
- Finally, ……
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Adding more information
- Furthermore, ……
- Moreover, ……
- In addition, ……
- Additionally, ……
- Besides, ……
Example:
Part 3. Topic Development (5’)
Topic: Students gain a lot of benefits from doing part-time jobs.
Experience
Interpersonal skills Part-time jobs [Your own idea]
Extra income
Notes: You don’t have to answer all the questions.

- Why is it difficult for new graduate students to find a good job?
- Is high salary the most important thing when choosing a job?
- Do you think most people will work from home in the future? Why (not)?
Sample response
I think doing part-time jobs is very useful for students because they can gain a lot of benefits from it.
First, students can improve their interpersonal skills. When students do a part-time job, they have to
deal with different kinds of customers and colleagues every day. As a result, they will know how to
handle conversations or negotiations with people of different ages.
Second, students will gain hands-on experience when working part-time. For example, if they work as a
waiter for a restaurant, they will know what most important factors are to attract customers, or they will
learn to pay attention to details such as how to set the table, how to talk to customers, etc., the things
that they cannot learn from school.
Last but not least, working part-time can help students earn an amount of money, which helps them pay
partly for their monthly expenses, teaches them how to manage their finances well and become more
independent.
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PRACTICE
Part 3: Topic Development (5’)

Topic: Vietnam is a famous destination for foreigners.
A lot of tourist sites
Nice weather Vietnam [your own idea]
Delicious foods

- What do you think are the positive impacts of tourism on a country?
- How can tourism have negative effects on the natural environment
- How do you think travel will be different in the future?
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Part 3: Topic Development (5’)
Topic: Playing sports regularly brings many benefits.
Making you feel happier
Reducing risks of Playing sports [your own idea]

diseases regularly
Increasing energy levels

- How can sports bring people from different countries closer together?
- What benefits do international sporting events bring?
- Should athletes be better role models?
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COMPLETE SPEAKING PRACTICE 1
PART 1: Social Interaction (3’)

Let’s talk about the city.
- Do you live in a small town or a big city?
- Is there anything to do in your city/countryside?
- What do you like most when living in the city? Why?
Let’s talk about the countryside.
- Have you ever lived in the countryside? If yes, where did you live?
- Will you move to the countryside in the future? Why/ Why not?
- Would you say your city/countryside is a good place to live in?
PART 2: Solution Discussion (4’)

Situation: Some foreign friends ask you for advice on the best time to visit Vietnam. Which season do
you think is the best time to go to Vietnam: spring, autumn, or summer? Why do you think so?
PART 3: Topic Development (5’)

Topic: There are many benefits of going on a holiday.
Learning new things
Making new friends Benefits of [your own idea]

going on a holiday
Relaxing

- Do you prefer holidays which include a lot of activities or more relaxing ones? Why?
- Do you think that your country should have more or less holidays? Why?
- Do you plan your holiday over the internet or do you use a travel agent? What are the
advantages and disadvantages?
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Let’s talk about festivals in your country.
- What is the most important festival in your country?
- What activities do people usually do in that festival?
- Do you enjoy it? Why (not)?
Let’s talk about your holidays.
- Do you prefer spending your holiday at home or somewhere else? Why?
- Where are you going to go in the next holiday?
- Which do you prefer, travelling alone or travelling with friends?

Situation: Your friend is going to visit you next weekend. There are three suggestions for the place
where you can invite him/her for a dinner: buffet restaurant, traditional sit-down restaurant, and in your
house. Which option do you think is the best choice? Why?

Topic: Healthy eating brings a lot of benefits.
Managing a healthy weight
Helping people live

Healthy eating [your own idea]
longer
Improving sleep quality

- Why do you think some people choose to be vegetarians?
- Is the food that people eat today different to the food that people used to eat in the past? If yes,
in what ways has it changed?
- How do you think the way we eat will change in the future?
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Let’s talk about sports.
- Do you like playing sports?
- What sports are popular in your country?
- Is it important to play sports?
Now let’s talk about games.
- What indoor games did you play when you were a child?
- Do you prefer to play indoor games or outdoor games?
- What sorts of indoor games do children play now?

Situation: Your close friends and you are planning to go on the next summer holiday. You all have not
decided whether you should go to other cities, the beach, or the mountains. Which place do you think is
the best choice?

Topic: Problems of living in big cities.
Traffic jams
Pollution Big city [your own idea]

problems
Expensive housing cost
Notes: You don’t have to answer all the questions

- What are some differences between living in the city and living in the countryside?
- Do young people in your country prefer living in the countryside? Why or why not?
- What advantages does living in the countryside have?
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B1B2 FLASH COURSE

LISTENING _ SHORT TALKS

Questions about the Topic

1. What is the main topic of this message?

Questions about the Audience

Questions about the Location

QUESTIONS ABOUT ANNOUNCEMENTS AND INSTRUCTIONS

2. What meal will probably be served on this flight?

3. Where is Mr. Ozawa being asked to go?

2. Advertisements What product/service - Price? Discount? Audience

3. News, weather bulletins and public service announcements

4. At what time of year is this bulletin most likely being given?

1. What is the purpose of the talk?

2. Who is the audience for this talk?

3. What will the speaker do next?

4. When is this talk being given?

LISTENING PART 2 AND PART 3

Listen to a conversation between a staff member and a student. Track _ 1.05

Listen to a lecture in a zoology class. Track _ 1.06

What is the main topic of the lecture?

• condensed adj. reduced in length, volume or area

Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. Track _ 1.08

Which of the following study methods is NOT mentioned by the teacher?

• hierarchy n. a ranking system

Listen to a lecture in a psychology class. Track _ 1.11

How does the teacher explain Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

• glitter v. to shine with little, bright flashes of reflected light

Listen to a lecture in a history class. Track _ 1.12

How does the teacher develop the main topic?

• mandatory adj. not allowing any choice; compulsory

Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. Track _ 1.14

What can be inferred about the school meal card system?

(A) Students must pay for a month’s meals at once.

• neat adj. cleverly simple

Listen to a discussion in a zoology class. CD1- Track _ 15

What is NOT compared between humans and other animals?

• star v. to appear in a film as a principal performer

Listen to a conversation between a teacher and a student. CD1- Track _ 1. 17

What is the teacher’s attitude toward the student?

• ruin n. the remains of something destroyed, disintegrated or decayed

Listen to a lecture in a world history class. CD1- Track _1.18

Listen again to part of the lecture. Then answer the question.

What is the teacher’s attitude toward Machu Picchu?

2. What prediction does the speaker make about tonight?

3. Where is Derrick Wheeler originally from?

5. What is the speaker's opinion of the book?

6. When will Lawrence Talbot return to his office?

7. When was the peer system of evaluation introduced?

10. The fridge plays music when it is getting __________.

11. The 3D TV doesn’t have a __________.

12. Lisa thinks the dishwasher __________ very well.

Questions 13 to 16. Listen to a conversation between a student and a university employee.

15. What is the attitude of the student buying the tickets?

Questions 17 to 20. Listen to a conversation on campus.

17. What is the conversation mainly about?

19. Why does the RA discuss the Accommodation Office?

22. A key area of Greenpeace's work is__________.

23. Greenpeace organizes its work in _______ main ways.

24. Greenpeace is investigating the impact of climate change in ____________

25. In Indonesia and Brazil, Greenpeace is looking at ______________.

27. According to the professor, who built the pyramids?

28. When did the farmers work on the pyramids?

29. Why does the professor mention graffiti?