SHOULDER

1. Shoulder consists of the following areas-

a. Axillary, Supraclavicular, deltoid, scapular
b. Axillary, Scapular, Supraclavicular, humeral
c. Deltoid, scapular, axillary, subclavial
d. Axillary, humeral, scapular, deltoid

2. Neurovascular structures of the axillary fossa are-

a. An axillary artery, an axillary vein and a brachial plexus
b. A subclavial artery, a subclavial vein and a brachial plexus
c. A brachial artery, brachial veins and a humeral plexus
d. An axillary artery, an axillary vein and a cervical plexus

3. At what level must be ligated an axillary artery-

a. At all levels
b. Proximally to a subscapular artery
c. Below an exit of a subscapular artery
d. At level of bottom edge of the big thoracal muscle

4. At front of axillary artery are located-

a. An axillary nerve
b. An ulnar nerve
c. A musculocutaneous nerve
d. An median nerve

5. Deep muscular layer of scapular region-

a. Big and small rhomboidal muscles
b. Big and small rhomboidal muscles, the top back gear muscle
c. Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, the teres major and
d. teres minor muscles
e. The big and small round muscles, a lateral direct muscle of a head
6. In deltoid-pectoral sulcus passes-
a. A basilic vein
b. A cephalic vein
c. An axillary vein
d. A subclavial vein

7. How the axillary vein is located to the artery-

a. At front and medially
b. At front and laterally
c. Behind and laterally
d. Behind and medially

8. How creates the median nerve in an axillary fossa-

a. From a lateral cord of a brachial plexus
b. From a medial cord of a brachial plexus
c. From lateral and medial cords of a brachial plexus
d. From lateral and back cords
9. In deltoid-pectoral sulcus passes-
a. A basilic vein
b. A cephalic vein
c. An axillary vein
d. A subclavial vein

10. The medial wall of the axilla is formed by which of the following
muscules
a. Teres minor
b. Serratus anterior
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
12. On the level of a triangle subpectorlis from an axillary artery it is
allocated
a. A subscapular artery, artery circumplexa humeri anterior and
posterior
b. A lateral artery of a breast and a subscapular artery
c. Artery circumflexa anterior and posterior and artery suprema
thoracica
d. Artery thoraco acromialis and subscapular artery

13. The projective line of an axillary artery consists

a. A long boundary of the growth of the hair
b. The horizontal line spent between an average and back third of an
axillary hollow
c. The top continuation of a projective line of an ulcer artery
d. Downward the spent line from a scapula coracoids

14. In triangular foramen passes:

a. Circumflex scapular artery
b. A subscapular artery and axillary nerve
c. Superior thoracic artery
d. Subscapular and posterior circumflex humeral artery

15. How many parts distinguish in an axillary artery on all length of an axillary
fossa:
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

16. The superficial muscular layer of area of the scapular region are:

a. Big and small rhombhoid and trapezius muscle

b. Big and small rhomboid muscle
c. A trapezius muscle, erector spinae muscle, latissimus dorsi
muscle
d. A trapezius muscle, the lastissimus dorsi muscle and deltoid
muscles
 17. Main neurovascular structures of deltoid region contains:

a. An axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeri artery anterior and

posterior
b. An axillary nerve and circumflex humeri artery anterior and posterior
c. A radial nerve and posterior circumflex humeri artery
d. An axillary artery and a subscapular

18. Location of a median nerve to the brachial artery in the lower third of the
arm:
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally

19. The medial wall of the axilla is formed by which of the following
muscles:
a. Teres minor
b. Serratus anterior
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor

FOREARM

1. Median nerve in the lower third of foramen is located-

a.Between flexor carpi radialis muscle and flexor digitorium superfitialis muscle
b.Between brachioradiali and flexor carpi ulnaris
c. Between the brachioradialis and brachialis
d.Between flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
2. Which of low listed formations are located in the middle a fascial compartment
of a palm
a. Musculocutaneous nerve
b. Ulnar nerve
c. Interosseous dorsal arteries of a metacarpus
d. A superficial arterial arch of a palm

3. The median nerve innervates

a. Palmar superficial skin I, II, III fingers and a lateral half palmar surfaces of IV
finger
b. Palmar superficial skin I, II fingers and half palmar surfaces of III finger
c. I both II finger and half of dorsal surface of III finger
d. IV and V finger and half III finger from the dorsal party

4. What sulcus are located in forearm

a. Radial and median
b. Ulnar and radial
c. Median and axillary
d. Spiral and radial

5. Where passes a median nerve in the middle third of forearm:

a. Between heads of a round pronator
b. Between superficial and deep flexors of fingers
c. Between a radial wrist and superficial flexors of fingers
d. Between an interosseous membrane and long flexors of a thumb

6. Radial artery on a forearm skin is projected:

a. From an average point of an axillary hollow to a tendon of long muscle palmaris
longus on the line
b. From the medial margin of the bicipitalis tendon or middle of the cubital fossa
to medial and radia styloid process of the radius
c. From a medial condyle of a humeral bone to a media tendon of a styliform
process tibia bones on the spent line.
d. From a medial condyle of humeral bone to a tendon
palmaris longus on the spent line
 ARM

1. At the front of the elbow, which of the following

lies superficial to the bicipital aponeuroses-

a. Cephalic vein
b. Median cubital vein
c. Brachial artery
d. Ulnar nerve

2. Specify a projection line of a brachial artery-

a. From the top of axillary fossa along the medial bicipital sulcus to the
midpoint between the medial epicondyle and bicipital tendon
b. From a coronoid humeral process to a medial surface of a
clavicle
c. With acromion to a medial epicondyle of a clavicle
d. Along the lateral channel of a two-headed muscle.

3. The brachial artery passes In the elbow-

a. In the anterior medial sulcus
b. In the anterior lateral sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral sulcus
d. In the back medial canal

4. From which cord of brachial plexus a radial nerve is formed

e. The lateral
f. The medial
g. The posterior
h. The forward

5. In what branches the radial nerve divides in the anterior lateral canal of a
cubital fossa
a. Superficial and deep
b. Anterior and medial
c. Anterior and lateral
d. Anterior and back
6. In the elbow region an ulnar nerve passes
a. In the anterior and medial sulcus
b. In the anterior lateral sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral sulcus
d. In the posterior medial sulcus

7. How is the brachial plexus located in the pectoclavicular triangle to the

axillary artery
a. Laterally and behind
b. Laterally and in front
c. Medially and in front
d. Medially and behind

8. Between which muscles the musculocutaneous nerve is located

a. Between the coracobrachialis and triceps muscle
b. Between biceps and brachialis muscle
c. Between triceps and brachial muscle
d. Between triceps and is coracobrachialis

9. Radial nerve in the lower third of the arm is located

a. Between brachialis and brachioradialis
b. Between brachialis muscle and brachial bone
c. Between a lateral head of the triceps muscle and brachial muscle
d. Between triceps muscle and brachialis muscle

10.Where the brachial artery is located in the elbow region:

a. In the anterior lateral cubital sulcus

b. In the anterior medial cubital sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral cubital sulcus
d. In the posterior cubital medial sulcus
 HEAD

1. The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus Is also part of the medial wall of the-
a. Nasal cavity
b. Orbit
c. Anterior cranial fossa
d. Oropharynx

2. The calavaria includes?

a. Frontal, Paterial, Occipital and maatoid process regions
b. Frontal, Pariental, Temporal and mastoid process regions
c. Fronto-parieto-occipital, temporal and mastoid process regions
d. Orbital, Temporal and fronto-parieto-occipital regions

3. The foramen spinosum-

a. Is closed by a cartilaginous disc in life
b. Is found in the petrous temporal bone
c. Usually transmits the maxillary nerve
d. Transmits the middle meningeal artery

4. The borders of the front-parieto-occipital region are represented by-

a. Inferior orbital edge, external occipital protuberance and superior nuchal
line, inferior temporal line
b. Superior orbital edge, zygomatic arch, external occipital protuberance and
superior nuchal line
c. Superior orbital edge, external occipital protuberance, superior nuchal line
and superior temporal line
d. Inferior orbital edge, external auditory meatus, mastoid process and superior
temporal line

5. The frontal region is supplied by the following arteries and nerves?

a. Maxillary artery and nerve
b. Supratrochlear and supraorbital arteries and nerves
c. Frontal and supratrochlear artery and nerve
d. Facial artery and nerve
6. Which of the following meningeal structures is located between the cerebral
hemispheres?
a. Diaphragma selli
b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. Falx cerebri

7. The parietal region is supplied by the following arteries and nerves?

a. Frontal artery and supraorbital nerve
b. Temporal artery and nerve
c. Anterior auricular artery and nerve
d. Superficial temporal artery and auriculotemporal nerve

8. The occipital region is supplied by the following arteries and nerves?

a. Posterior parietal and occipital arteries, lesser occipital and auriculotemporal
nerves
b. Posterior auricular and occipital arteries, lesser and greater occipital nerves
c. Superficial temporal artery and auriculotemporal nerve
d. Occipital and ascend laryngeal arteries, branches of the cervical plexus

9. Impaired function of which of the following muscles wound result in difficulty in

protruding the lower jaw?
a. Digastric
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Masseter

10. The scalp consists of the following 5 layer-

a. Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin, epicranium, pericranium and bone
b. Skin, fibro-fatty layer, epicranium, pericranium and bone
c. Skin, pericranium, internal and external lamina and dura mater
d. Skin, connective tissue beneath the skin, aponeuroses, loose areolar tissue and
pericranium
11. The superior sagittal sinus-
a. Drains into the straight sinus
b. Is attached to the petrous temporal bone
c. Receives emissary veins from the scalp
d. Communicates with the cavernous sinus

12. The diplotic channels are located in the

sponginous substance and contain-
a. Diploic veins
b. Venous sinuses
c. Venules and arterioles
d. Arterial-venous anastomoses

13. The emissary veins are connecting with each other-

a. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the brain veins
b. The arteries of the soft tissue of the skull to the venous sinuses of the dura
mater
c. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the cereal ventricles
d. The veins of the soft tissue of the skull to the venous sinuses of the dura mater

14. All of the following structures are located within the walls or cavity of the
cavernous sinus except for the-
a. Oculomotor nerve
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
d. Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve

15. Which of the following statement is incorrect concerning the lymph drainage
of the scalp?
a. The lymphoid vessels in the anterior part of the scalp and forehead drain into
the submandibular lymph node
b. Drainage from the lateral part of the scalp above the ear is into the superficial
parotid nodes
c. The lymph vessels of the scalp drain into the cervical and subclavicular lymph
nodes
d. The lymph vessels in the part of the scalp above and behind the ear drain into
the mastoid nodes
16. What can be considered as an approved action while bleeding control from
the soft tissues of fronto- parieto-occipital region?
a. Clamping, pressure by the finger, application of the hemostatic suture
b. Shifting of the tissues
c. Application of the wax
d. Application of the tissue glue

17. What can be considered as an approved action while bleeding control from
the sponginous substance of the cranial bone?
a. Clamping, and application of the hemostatic suture
b. Insertion of the shift in the lumens of the vessels
c. Application of the wax
d. Application of the tissue glue

18. What is the criterion for consideration the cranial

wound as penetrated?
a. Injury of the cranial bones
b. Injury of the brain substance
c. Injury of the dura mater
d. Injury of the tunica arachnoidea

19. Pulsations felt just above the zygomatic arch and in front of the adre from
which vessel?
a. Facial
b. Internal jugular vein
c. superficial temporal artery
d. Retromandibular vein

20. which layers of the cranial bone are suffering more frequently during the head
injuries?
a. All layers
b. External lamina
c. Internal lamina
d. Diploe
21. Which of the following accompanies the optic nerve through the optic canal?
a. Cranial nerves III, IV and VI
b. Ophthalmic nerve
c. Meninges and ophthalmic artery
d. Ophthalmic veins

22. The following anatomical elements are passing in the depth of the parotid
gland-
a. External carotid artery, facial artery, facial and buccal nerves
b. External carotid adretry, retromandibular vein, auriculotemporal and
infraalveolar nerves
c. External carotid adretry, facial vein, lingual and auriculo-temporal nerves
d. External carotid artery, retromandibular vein, facial and auriculo-temporal
nerves

23. Which of the following anatomical structure passed through the external
surface of the buccinators muscle?
a. Maxillar artery, vein and nerve
b. Facial artery, vein and nerve
c. Buccinators artery, vein and nerve
d. Infraalveloar artery, vein and nerve

24. The facial nerve leaves the cranial cavity through-

a. Foramen ovale
b. Stylomastoid foramen
c. Foramen spinosum
d. Foramen rotundum

25. The middle meningeal artery is the branch of the-

a. Internal carotid artery
b. Maxillar artery
c. Facial artery
d. Occipital artery
26. From which anatomical foramen enters the middle meningeal artery in the
cranial artery?
a. Ovale
b. Rotundum
c. Temporal
d. Spinosum

27. The coronoid process belongs to which bone in the head?

a. Maxillary
b. Mandible
c. Sphenoid
d. Occipital

28. Which of the following does not open into the middle cranial fossa?
a. Foramen lacerum
b. Foramen ovale
c. Foramen rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure

29. What is the typical feature of the hematoma localized under the galea
aponeurotica of the fronto-parieto-occipital region?
a. It pulsates
b. Has an oval shape while located longitudinally
c. Freely moves to the whole fronto-parieto-occipital region
d. Impossible to characteristic accurately

30. The tickling sensation felt in the nasal cavity, just prior to a sneeze is probably
carried in which of the following nerves?
a. Facial
b. Maxillary division of trigeminal
c. Mandibular division of the trigeminal
d. Glossopharyngeal

31. What are the tissues in the composition of the scalp

a. Skin and sub dermal and fatty tissue
b. Skin, sub dermal fatty tissue and aponeurosis
c. All the layers represented by the soft tissue and pericranium
d. The soft tissues of the fromto-parieto-occiptial region and the bone
32. The cough reflex, as do all reflexes, bas a sensory and motor part to it. What
nerve carries the sensory part of the cough reflex?
a. Internal laryngeal artery
b. External laryngeal artery
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Facial nerve

38. How many layers are distinguished in the cranial bone?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

39. Upon examining a sick child, you notice pus draining from the middle meatus
of the nose. You might suspect and look for further evidence of an infection
originating from the
a. Nasolacrimal
b. Sphenoid sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Mastoid sinus

40. The venous sinuses of the dura mater are collecting the blood from
a. From the brain, from the ventricles of the brain, from the blood of the cranium
from the subarachnoid system
b. Froom the brain, from the veins of the soft tissues of the skull, from the cranial
bones
c. Only from the brain layer
d. From the brain and from the cranial bones

41. The superior sagittal sinus is located at

a. At the inferior edge of the falx cerebri
b. At the superior edge of the falx cerebri
c. In the transverse sulcus
d. In the sigmoid sulscus
42. The sensory supply to skin over the lower eyelid comes from the
a. Mental nerve
b. Maxillary division
c. Auriculotemporal nerve
d. Buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve

43. The superior sagittal sinus is extended

a. From the blind to the internal occipital protuberance
b. From the nasion to the sella turcica
c. From the glabella to the inferior nuchal line
d. From the blind hole to the occipital bone

44. The superior sagittal sinus is connected by the emissary veins with
a. Sub-dermal veins of the temporal regions
b. Sub-dermal veins of the occipital region
c. Sub-dermal veins of the parietal region
d. Cavernous sinus

45. The inferior sagittal sinus is situated

a. In the transverse sinus
b. In the superior edge of the falx cerebri
c. At the meeting point of the falx cerebri and cerebellum
d. At the lower edge of falx cerebri

46. The lower horizontal line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the Cranio-
cerebral topography is made
a. On the superior orbital margin
b. On the inferior orbital edge and superior margin of the external auditory
meatus
c. On the superior temporal line
d. On the inferior temporal line

47. Which nerve innervates the muscle for tight closure of the eyelids?
a. Facial
b. Oculomotor
c. Sympathetic
d. Trigeminal
48. The lower horizontal line as from the R.U. Kronlein scheme of the Cranio-
cerebral topography is made
a. On the inferior orbital margin
b. Across the zygomatic arch
c. On the inferior temporal line
d. At the superior orbital margin parallel to the inferior horizontal line

49. A gag reflex overcomes your patient as you lightly swab an area
of the oropharynx
a. Mandibular
b. Maxillary
c. Facial
d. Glossopharyngeal

50. The following structure in the middle posteriorly, can be palpated above
downward
a. External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process
of the sixth cervical vertebra (vertebra prominens)
b. External occipital protuberance, suprasternal notch, clavicle
c. External occipital protuberance, nuchal groove, the spinous process
of the seventh cervical vertebra (vertebra prominens)
d. Thyroid cartilage, Adam’s apple, suprasternal motch

51. Select the large salivary glands?

a. Parotid, submandibular, sublingual
b. Parotid, buccinators, sublingual
c. Submandibular, masseter, buccinators
d. Sublingual, submental period

52. On what level the recurrent laryngeal nerve is branched off from the vagus?
a. At the lower margin of the thyroid cartilage
b. Below the subclavian artery (right) and at the level of the aortic arch (left)
c. Inferior thyroid artery
d. Superior thyroid artery
53. The superior carotid, or carotid triangle in bounded
a. Behind the sternocleidomastoideus
b. Below, by the superior belly of the omohyoideus
c. Above, by the stylohyoideus and the posterior belly of the digastricus
d. All of the above statements are correct

54. The muscles of mastication, their nerves and their vessels are
located primarity in which part of the head?
a. Pterygopalatine fossa
b. Jugular fossa
c. Incisive fossa
d. Infratemporal fossa

55. Which of the following statement concerning the occipital triangle is correct?
a. The occipital triangle represents the larger division of the posterior triangle
b. The occipital triangle is bounded in front by the sternocleidomastoidues
c. The occipital triangle is bounded behind by the trapezius
d. All the above statements are correct

56.The floor of the sella turcica is also the

a. Diaphragma sella
b. Roof of the sphenoid sinus
c. Medical wall of the temporal fossa
d. Roof of the nasal cavity

57. The facial artery gives rise to branches that supply each of the
regions listed below except for the
a. Medial angle of the orbit
b. Lateral nose
c. Region of the eyebrow
d. Upper lip

58. During sinus attack, painful sensation from the ethmoid cells is carried in
which nerve?
a. Meningeal
b. Greater petrosal
c. Pterygoid
d. Nasociliary
59. Each of the following is characteristic of the maxillary sinus except that:
a. It is lined with mucous membrane
b. It drains through an opening under superior concha (turbinate)
c. It many become infected from an abscessed tooth
d. Its roof is the floor of the orbit

60. The sella turcica (turks saddle) is a part of which bone:

a. Temporal
b. Sphenoid
c. Ethmoid
d. Occipital

61. The main parts of the brain are as follows:

a. Forebrain; Dienccephalon and Cerebellum
b. Forebrain; Midbrain and Cerebellum
c. Forebrain; Midbrain and Hindbrain
d. Forebrain; Pons and Cerebellum

62. All of the following paranasal sinuses drain into the middle meatus, except
the:
a. Frontal
b. Maxillary
c. Sphenoid
d. Anterior ethmoid

63. When trying to locate the parotid duct a physician would consider each of the
following relationships except:
a. Its opening can be seen in the vestibule of the mouth opposite the upper 2 nd
premolar tooth
b. It extends from the anterior border of the parotid gland
c. It can be palpated as it crosses the face, superficial to the masseter muscle
d. It is superior to the zygomatic arch
64. What are the directions of the typical calvarian incisions?
a. Transversal
b. Sagittal
c. Radial
d. Cruciate

65. Loss of lacrimination (dry eye) can be due to an injury to which nerve?
a. Nasociliary
b. Greater petrosal
c. Supraorbital
d. Anterior ethmoid

66. Which of the following statements best describes the facial vein?
a. It is located within the substance of the parotid gland
b. It communicates superiorly with the ophthalmic vein
c. It is more tortuous than facial artery
d. It lies anterior to the facial artery ad it passes through the face

67. What is the typical feature of the sub-cutaneous hematoma in the fronto-
parieto-occipital region?
a. It is bump shaped
b. Spreads only in the borders of one bone
c. Freely spreads in the whole borders of fronto-parieto- occipital region
d. Freely spreads in the temporal region and sub cutaneous tissue of the face

68. What is the typical feature of the sub-epicranial hematoma in the fronto-
parieto-occipital region?
a. It is bump shaped
b. Spreads only in the borders of one bone
c. Freely spreads in the whole borders of fronto-parieto-occipital region
d. Freely spreads in the temporal region and sub cutaneous tissue of the face

69. Which of the following does not open into the middle cranial fossa?
a. Foramen lacerum
b. Foramen Ovale
c. Foramen Rotundum
d. Superior orbital fissure
70. What is the typical feature of the hematoma localized under the galea
aponeurotica of the fronto-parieto-occipital region?
a. It pulsates
b. Has an oval shape while located longitudinally
c. Freely moves to the whole fronto-parieto-occipital region
d. Impossible to characterize accurately

71. The tickling sensation felt in the nasal cavity just prior sneeze is probably
carried in which of the following nerves?
a. Facial
b. Maxillary division of trigeminal
c. Mandibular division of trigeminal
d. glossopharyngeal

72. The lateral wall of the ethmoid sinus Is also part of the medial wall of the-
a. Nasal cavity
b. Orbit
c. Anterior cranial fossa
d. Oropharynx

73. The inferior, carotid, or muscular triangle is bounded:

a. In front, by the median line of the neck from hyoid bone to the
sternum
b. Behind, by the anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoideus
c. Above, by the superior belly of the omohydodeus
d. All the above statement are correct

NECK

1. The superficial group of the neck muscles includes?

a. a. m.sternohyoideus, m.sternothyroideus, m,stylohyoideus
b. m.sternocleidomastoideus, platisma, m.trapezius
c. m,trapezius, m,mylohyoideus, m.thyrohyoideus
d. d.m.omohyoideus, m.thyroideus, m.mylohyoideus
2. During a physical examination, you have apatient stick out his/her tongue and
say AAH. The muscle that is responsible for this movement is the-
a. Geniohyoid
b. Styloglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Genioglossus

3. In order to locate the approximate position of the bifurcation of the

common carotid artery, you would feel for its pulse at or above which of
the following?
a. At the level of the cricothyroid membrane
b. At the level of the hyoid bone
c. At the level of the upper border of the cricoid cartilage
d. At the level of the upper border of the thyroid cartilage

4. Which of the item from the details of thethyroidectomy procedure is

incorrect?
a. The operation is based on creful dissection of various tissue planes between the
muscles, vessels and thyroid gland
b. The handle of the scalpet is used as a dissecting tool to develop the correct
plane of cleavage between the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the outer
boundaries of the sternothyroid muscle
c. The parathyroid glands might be removed together with the thyroid tissue
d. The muscle clamps are applied over the surgeon’s finger as a guide to avoid
including any part of the contents of the carotid bundle

5. Which of the following statement concerning the position of the patient on the
table during the subtotal thyroidectomy is incorrect?
a. The patient is placed in a semi-erect position with a folder sheet underneath
the shoulders so that the head is sharply angulated bachward
b. The head rest of the table can be lowered to hyperextend the neck further
c. Any deviation to the side may cause the surgeon to make an inaccurately
placed incision
d. In the case of the active bleeding or potential danger of air embolism, the
position the patient should be change immediately
6. What forms a lateral wall of a quadrangular foramen
a. A long head of the triceps muscle
b. A surgical neck of humerous
c. A teres minor muscle
d. A subscapular muscle

7. What projective line of an axillary artery on Pirogov

a. Along bounding of growth of the hair
b. The spent line between a forward and average third of axillary hollow
c. Continuation upwards a projective line of rachial artery
d. From a brachial coracoid downwards the spent vertical line

8. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve?

a. Tensor tympani
b. Superior constrictor of the pharynx
c. Tensor veli palatine
d. Stylopharengeus

9. What are the borders of the neck?

a. The line made from the mandibular margin to the top of the mastoid process
b. External occipital protuberance
c. Jugular fossa (suprasternal notch), clavicle and the line made between the
acromion to the spinous process of the 7 th vertebra
d. All the above statements are correct

10. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The submaxillary or diagastric triangle correspond to the region of the neck
immediately beneath the body of the mandible
b. The suprahyoid triangle is limited behind by the anterior belly of the digastricus
c. The suprahyoid triangle is limited in front by the middle line of the neck
between the mandible and hyoid bone
d. The suprahyoid triangle is limited by the both bellies of the digastricus muscle
11. Which of the following statements concerning in the subclavian triangle is
correct?
a. The subclavian triangle represents the larger division of the posterior triangle
b. The subclavian triangle is bounded above by the inferior belly of the
omohyoideus
c. The subclavian triangle is bounded below by the clavicle
d. All the above statements are correct

12. The superficial cervical veins include

a. Braciocephal and facial veins
b. External jugular, anterior jugular, middle cervical and transverse cervical
c. Superior thyroid vein
d. Internal jugular vein

13. Identify the boundaries of the posterolateral triangle

a. Anteriorly, it is bounded by the posterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid
muscle.
b. Posteriorly, it is bound by the anterior edge of trapezius muscle
c. Inferiorly it is bounded by the clavicle
d. All the statements above are correct

14. Which of the following statements concerning the omohyoid muscle is

incorrect?
a. The omohyoid muscle is flattened and strap-like. It consists of a superior belly
and an inferior belly.
b. The two bellies of this muscle are connected by an intermuscular tendon that is
tied by connective tissue to the anterior surface of the internal jugular vein to
prevent the vein from collapsing under negative pressure
c. The position of the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle divides the posterior
triangle into an subclavian and supraclavian triangles
d. The position of the inferior belly of the omohyoid muscle divides the posterior
triangle into an upper occipital triangle and subclavian (or supraclavicular) triangle
15. Which of the following statements about the innominate artery are correct?
a. The thyreoidea ima (a. thyrodea ima) ascends in front of the trachea to the
lower part of the thyroid gland, which it supplies.
b. A. thyreoidea ima varies greatly in size and appears to compensate for
deficiency or absence of one of the order thyroid vessels.
c. A. thyreoidea ima occasionally arises from the aorta, the right common carotid,
the subclavian or the internal mammary.
d. All the above statements are correct

16. the thyroid and parathyroid glands got the innervations from the
a. Superior laryngeal nerve
b. Recurrence laryngeal nerves and sympathetic trunk
c. All of the above

17. How many fascias are in the neck region?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five

18. The thyrohyoid membrane is pierced by the

a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Internal branch of the superior laryngeal a nerve
c. External branch of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
d. Ansa cervicalis

19. List the incisions for access to the cervical organs

a. Middle incision
b. Incision across the anterior edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
c. Transversal incision
d. All the above listed incisions

20. How many parts of the subclavian artery can be distinguished on the neck?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
21. Where is projected the cervical plexus?
a. At the angle of the mandibular bone
b. At the midpoint of the superior margin of the clavicle
c. At the midpoint of the medial margin of the sternohyoid muscle
d. At the midpoint of the lateral margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

22. Where are projected the origins of the superficial

cervival nerves on the cervical surface?
a. Upper edge of the thyroid cartilage
b. On the level of the hyoid bone
c. At the midpoint of the external edge of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
d. There is no any place with concentrated cervical nerve origins

23. Which of the cervical connective tissue is connected with the anterior
mediastinum?
a. Suprasternal connective-tissue space
b. Previsceral
c. Retrovisceral
d. Prevertebral

24. Which of the cervical connective tissue space is connected with the posterior
mediastinum?
a. Suprasternal connective-tissue space
b. Previsceral
c. Retrovisceral
d. Prevertebral

25. The inferior, carotid, or muscular triangle is bounded:

a. In front, by the median line of the neck from hyoid bone to the sternum
b. Behind, by the anterior margin of the sternocleidomastoideus
c. Above, by the superior belly of the omohydodeus
d. All the above statement are correct
26. On what level does the common carotid artery
bifurcate?
a. On the level of the inferior margin of the mandible
b. Superior margin of the thyroid cartilage
c. On the level of the hyoid bone
d. Middle level of the thyroid cartilage

27. What are the signs to distinguish the internal and external carotid arteries in
the wound?
a. The pulsation on the internal carotid artery is lesser compares to the external
carotid artery
b. Absence of the branches
c. External Carotid Artery is located medially
d. External Carotid Artery is located laterally

28. The lingual artery is the branch of the:

a. External Carotid Artery
b. internal Carotid Artery
c. Facial artery
d. Superior thyroid artery

29. The thyroid gland can be examined in which of the following triangles of the
neck?
a. Submental
b. Glandular
c. Carotid
d. Muscular (or visceral)

30. The pharyngeal plexus of nerves contain both motor and sensory
components. The motor nerves are to come from which of the following
a. Hypoglossal nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vagus nerve
d. Trigeminal nerve
31. Which of the following statements concerning the tracheostomy is incorrect?
a. The emergency tracheostomy is done when there is no time to prepare for a
routine tracheostomy. These may be not sterile surgical instruments available and
no assistance
b. Elective tracheostomy is done by making the vertical incision in the midline of
the neck from the middle of the thyroid cartilage to just above the suprasternal
notch
c. Special and frequent attention is not desirable after the few postoperative
days. The inner tube must be cleaned rarely.
d. During the elective tracheostomy, after the cricoid cartilage is identified the
trachea is opened vertically through its third and fourth rings

LEG

1. In anterior compartment of leg is located-

a. A tibial posterior artery
b. A common peroneal nerves profunda branch
c. A tibial anterior artery, common peroneal nerves deep branch
d. A superficial branch of a common peroneal nerve

2. The lateral osteo-fascial compartment of leg consists of following muscles-

a. Extensor digitorium longus and extensor halluces longus
b. Flexor digitorium longus and tibial posterior muscles
c. Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis
d. Extensor digitorium longus and peroneus brevis muscles

3.The back wall of tibial cruropopliteal canalis created by-

a. A soleus muscle
b. Superficial sheet of a fascia of
c. A popliteal muscle
d. Tricep muscle
4. Posterior deep fascial compartment of the leg contains.
a. Extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorium longus.
b. Tibialis anterior, extensor hallucic longus, extensor digitorium longus
c. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorium longus, flexor hallucis longus
d. Tibialis anterior, flexor digitorium longus, extensor digitorium breves

5. What leaves from the anterior foramen of the adductor canal-

a. A femoral artery
b. A hypodermic nerve
c. A saphenous nerve and a descending genus artery
d. A descending genicular artery

6. Femoral artery on a skin is projected-

a. From a point between an external and average third of inguinal ligament to a
medial condyle of a bone on the spent line
b. From the midpoint of the inguinal ligament to the adductor tubercle of the
medial epicondyle of the femur
c. From an average point of inguinal ligament to a whirlbone on the spent line
d. From a point between an external and medial third of inguinal ligament to a
whirlbone on the spent line

7. How the femoral vein is located to the artery in the lower third of the thigh-
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally

8. Which muscles are located in the posterior compartment of the thigh-

a. Semimembranous, semitendinous, biceps
b. Biceps, Sartorius, semimembranous
c. Adductor longus, pectineus, biceps
d. Sartorius, illipsoas, pectineus

9. In a popliteal fossa in front of a popliteal vein and also medially is located-

a. Superior lateral geniculate artery
b. A popliteal inferior lateral artery
c. A popliteal artery
d. Superior medial genicular artery
10. Specify walls of femoral canals
a. A femoral vein, superficial and deep sheats of a fascia lata
b. Inguinal ligaments, pectineus ligament and femoral vein
c. A superficial fascia and a femoral vein
d. Inguinal ligaments, pectineus ligament, deep sheat of fascia lata

11. At what level it is better to ligate a ligate a femoral artery in the upper third of
thigh
a. It is immediate behind inguinal ligament
b. Below the exit of deep femoral artery
c. Under an exit of a deep artery of a hip
d. On 1 cm below inguinal ligament

12. The femoral ring is bounded

a. Inguinal ligament, (Cooper’s) pectineus ligaments, lacunar ligaments
(Jimbernat’s) a medial wall of a femoral vein
b. Pectineus ligaments, lacunar ligaments, round ligaments
c. Inguinal ligament, a sartorius muscle, a pectineus muscle, a iliac- pectineus ring
d. A psoas muscle, a iliac muscle, lacunar ligament, inguinal ligament

13. Blood vessels in the upper third of thigh are located

a. In a femoral triangle
b. Canalis adductorius the resulting channel
c. In a fossa of Joberr
d. In the forward canal of a hip

14. Where is the saphenous nerve is located in the adductor canal

a. Behind a femoral artery and laterally
b. Behind a femoral artery and medially
c. At front and laterally from femoral artery
d. Before a femoral artery and medially

15. What arises from the anterior foramen of the adductor canal
a. A femoral artery
b. A femoral nerve
c. A saphenous nerve and a descending genicular artery
d. A descending genicular artery and a femoral nerve
16. Separation of a sciatic nerve into tibial and common peroneal
nerves occurs
a. Below the popliteal fossa
b. In the center of a popliteal possa
c. Above the popliteal fossa
d. After the exit from infra piriformi foramen

17. Superficial ring of the femoral canal is bounded

a. Falciform margin of the fascia lata
b. Inguinal ligament
c. Lacunar ligament
d. Pectineus ligament

18. Deep femoral artery leaves

a. From an internal artery of a hip below inguinal ligament on 4-6 sm
b. From a femoral artery below inguinal ligament on 1-2 sm
c. From the epigastric artery below inguinal ligament on 1-2 sm
d. From a femoral artery below inguinal ligament on 4-6 sm

19. In the adductor canal passes

a. A femoral artery, a femoral vein and a sciatic neve
b. A femoral artey, a femoral vein and a saphenous nerve
c. An external artery of a thigh, an external vein of a thigh and a
femoral lateral nerve
d. A femoral artery, a femoral vein and a posterior cutaneous nerve of a thigh

20. In a popliteal fossa in front of the femoral (tibial) nerve and medial is located
a. A popliteal artery
b. A popliteal vein
c. Femoral artery
d. Superior medial genicular artery

21. In a popliteal fossa common peroneal nerve follows

a. Medial edge of a semitendinous muscle
b. Medial edge of the biceps
c. Medial edge of the semitendinosus muscle
d. Medial edge gastrocnemius muscle
22. Tibial artery and deep branch of the common peroneal nerve are located in
the inferior space of the leg
a. Between gastrocnemius muscle and a plantar muscle
b. Between a plantar and soleus muscle
c. Between flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus
d. Between the anterior tibial and extensor halluces longus muscles

23. Medial sural nerve seperates from

a. From commo peroneal nerve
b. From a tibial nerve
c. From a femoral nerve
d. From a hypodermic nerve

24. The anterior Osteo-fascial compartment of the leg consists

a. Tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor halluces longus
b. Peroneous longus, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus
c. Flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus
d. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus longus and brevis

25. The projection line of the tibial anterior artery:

a. To the middle of a point of the spent line, between a tuberosity of the leg and
head
b. From the middle of a point of the spent line between medial condyles and the
leg spent head
c. From the middle of a point of the spent line between a tuberosity tibia and a
head of a. anticnemion to a line spent to a lateral head
d. From the middle between the head of fibula and tibial tuberosity to the middle
between lateral malleolus

26. Anterior wall of the cruruopopliteal canal is made by:

a. Posterior tibial muscle
b. Extensor digitiorum longus
c. Extensor hallucis longus
d. Peroneous longus muscle
27. The femoral triangle (Scarps) is limited:
a. Inguinal ligament, a satorius muscle and adductor longus muscle
b. Inguinal ligament, a iliopsoas muscle and adductor longus muscle
c. Inguinal ligament, a pectineus muscle and adductor brevis muscle
d. Inguinal ligament, a satorius muscle and adductor magnus muscle

28. How is the femoral vein located to the artery in the upper third part of the
thigh?
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally

29. From the infra piriformi foramen arises.

a. Internal pudendal artery, pudendal nerve, inferior gluteus artery and nerve,
sciatic nerve
b. A tibial nerve, a tibial artery, an artery, a femoral artery, a
popliteal artery
c. A popliteal artery, a anterior tibial artery, a hypodermic nerve, a femoral nerve
d. Iliac artery and a nerve, a superficial femoral artery, a sciatic nerve

30. In what intervals are divided the space under inguinal

ligament.
a. Muscular and vascular
b. Muscular and hernia
c. Hernia and vascular-vascular
d. Between aponevrous and vascular-vascular

31. What is located in the lacuna musculorum:

a. Femoral artery and vein
b. Femoral vein and muscle
c. Femoral nerve and a long adductor muscle
d. Iliopsoas muscles and a femoral nerve
32. From femoral arteriey arises suoerificial arteries:
a. inferior epigastric artery, superficial circumflex iliac artery and an external
pudendal artery
b. epigastric artery, circumflex iliac artery and an internal pudendal artery
c. a superficial circumflex artery and medial circumflex iliac artery and an external
pudendal artery
d. a superficial epigastric artery and a superficial circumflex illiac artery and an
external pudendal artery

33. femoral artery on a skin is projected:

a. From a point between an external and average third of inguinal ligament to
medial epicondyle bones
b. Passes obliquely from the midpoint of the inguinal ligament to the adductor
tuberculum of the medial epicondyle of the femur
c. From an average point of inguinal ligament to a patella
d. From a point between an average and medial third inguinal ligament to a
patella

34. Adductor Canal is located:

a. In the upper third of thigh on medial surface of the thigh
b. In the upper third of thigh on lateral surface of the thigh
c. In the lower third of thigh on frontal medial surface of the thigh
d. In the lower third of thigh on posterior surface of the thigh

35. By which muscles are made a popliteal fossa:

a. Semitendinous, semimembranous, gastrocnemius, biceos femoris
b. semimembranous, lumbar, iliopsoas, Sartorius
c. biceps femoris, triceps, quadriceps
d. gastrocnemius, saartorius

36. Cruro.popliteal canal passes:

a. A tibial posterior artery and a tibial nerve
b. A popliteal artery and a tibial nerve
c. A sapheneous nerve and tibial anterior artery
d. Tibial anterior artery, the great saphenous vein
37. Which muscles are located in posterior a superficial fascial compartment of
the leg:
a. Flexor digitorum longus, Sartorius
b. Posterior tibialis, flexor digitorum longus, plantaris
c. Gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris
d. Flexor digitorum longus, popliteal, gastrocnemius

38. How is the femoral vein located to the artery in the lower third of the thigh:
a. In front
b. Behind
c. Medially
d. Laterally

39. Which muscles are located in the posterior compartment of the thigh?
a. Semimembranous, semitendonous, biceps
b. Bicebs, Sartorius, semimembranous
c. Adductor longus, pectineus biceps
d. Sartorius, ilipsoas, pectineus

40. In a popliteal fossa in front of a popliteal vein and also medially located:
a. Superior lateral genicular artery
b. A popliteal inferior lateral artery
c. A popliteal artery
d. Superior medial gencicular artery

AMPUTATION

1. Aim of Amputation-
a. Saving of human life and creation of a stump suitable for prosthetics
b. Partial improvement of a condition of the patient
c. Creation of a stable condition of the patient
d. Deducing of the patient from cardiogenic shock
2.The stump defines Suitability-
a. The general condition of the patient
b. A floor of the patient
c. Age of the patient
d. Length a stump, the form of the stump

3. Special instruments which are applied during amputation-

a. Amputation knifes, saws, raspatories, a rasp
b. Scissors, probes, holders
c. Mirrors, scapulas, electro trepans
d. Forceps, a forceps, probes, manual trepans

4. During guillotine produce extremity is cut-

a. All soft tissues are cut at once to a bone and at the same level the bone is sawn
b. The bone at first is cut, then muscles and in the end the bone is sawn
c. The skin and muscles are cut and at level of the reduced muscles the bone is
sawn
d. The skin, superficial muscles and then deep muscles is cut and at the end the
bone is sawn

5. What is dissected during double-stage amputation during the second moment-

a. At level of the dissect and replaced skin muscles are dissected
b. At level of a dissect skin the fascia is dissected
c. At level of a dissect skin the bone is sawn
d. At level of the removed skin muscles are dissected

6. After circular amputation the cicatrix is located-

a. On a medial of a stump
b. On a supporting surface of a stump
c. On a literal surface of a stump
d. On the top surface of a stump

7. During amputation at what level the nerve from the bone extremity is
dissected-
a. 1-2 sm
b. 5-6 sm
c. 8-10 sm
d. 10-12 sm
8.What means an exarticulation-
a. Joint disclosing
b. A joint immobilization
c. An arthroplasty
d. Amputation of the exremity on the level of the joint

9. Indication of late amputation-

a. Elongated period of wound repair
b. Heavy breathing
c. A pneumonia
d. Shock

10. The guillotine method of amputation is used-

a. During an acute pneumonia
b. During a hypertonia
c. During a streptococcal infection
d. During a mephitic ganagrene

11. During three moments amputation at the second moment is dissected-

a. A skin, a hypodermic fascia to a bone
b. All muscles to a bone
c. Both fascias to a bone
d. A skin to a bone

12. How the main blood vessels after amputation are ligated-
a. The artery and a vein are ligated together
b. The artery and vein are ligated separeatly
c. The artery and a vein are ligated together with a nerve
d. The artery and a vein are ligated together with a bone

13. In accordance with form of a section of the soft tissues-

a. One stage, two stage, three stage
b. Circular, ellips, flap
c. Aperiostal, subperiostal
d. Guillotine, double-stage, third moments and many- stage amputation
14. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. “Amputation” means- removal of the peripheral part of the limb or other organ
b. “resection” means-partial removal of the organ
c. All the above statements are correct
d. All the above statements are incorrect

15. What designates the term “reamputation”

a. A section a stump across for the purpose of the approach to a bone
b. Partial excision a stump
c. Repeated excision of a stump
d. A section a stump for the purpose of the approach to is vascular- vascular
system

16. Methods of flap amputation

a. One-flap and two flap
b. Two-flap and three flap
c. Three flap and for flap
d. For flap and five flap

17. During third-moments amputation at the first moment is

dissected
a. Skin, a hypodermic tissue, a hypodermic fascia and deep fascia
b. A hypodermic fascia, muscles, a bone
c. A skin, a fascia, a bone
d. A skin, own fascia, a bone

18. During amputation by a method of processing of a bone are

a. Aperiostal and subperiosteal
b. Epiperiostal and subperiosteal
c. Epiperiostalny and endoperiostal
d. Paraperiosteal and endoperiostal

19. What means amputation

a. An immobilization of a peripheric part of an extremity
b. Bandage applying on an extremity
c. Excision of a peripherial part of an extremity
d. Applying plaster on an extremity
20. On term of performance and indication of amputation
a. Timely, as much possible timely and late
b. Primarily, late and repeated
c. Preschedule, as much as possible preschedule and urgent
d. Early, preschedule and urgent

21. During amputation the bleeding stopping occurs

a. By applying a bandage on a proximal part of an extremity
b. A splinting on an extremity
c. Extremity bracing
d. Clamp applying on an extremity

22. During three moments amputation by the third moment is dissected.

a. At level of the reduces and removed skin all muscles are repeatedly cut and the
bone is sawn
b. At level of the reduces and removed skin the superficial fascia is cut
c. At level of the reduces and removed skin the deep fascia is cut
d. At level of the reduces and removed skin the bone is sawn

23. In what the role of processing of a nerve consists during amputatuions:

a. The nerve is cut by the razor, over 4-5cm from the extremity of the cut bone
b. The nerve is knifed electro, over 7-8cm from the extremity of the cut bone
c. The nerve is cut by the razor, over 1-2cm from the extremity of the cut bone
d. The nerve is cut by the scalpel, over 1.5-2cm from the extremity of the cut
bone

24. Specify an absolute amputation of the extremity.

a. Traumatic fracture of an extremity
b. Fragmentation of bones with rupture of muscles, blood vessels and nerves
c. A gangrene of muscles of a various etiology
d. All above listed

25. . Indication of the reamputation:

a. A sepsis
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. The tubercular shock
d. An unsuitable stump
26. Special instruments applied during amputations
a. Knifes for amputation, saws, raspatories, rasps
b. Forceps, scalpels, Deshan needle
c. Mirrors, scalpels, electro and manual trepans
d. Scalpel, forceps, mirrors

27. During amputations the blood flow is stopped.

a. An applying bandage on an extremity
b. An extremity immobilization
c. Applying on an extremity of packages with ice
d. Clamps applying on a extremity

28. What is dissected during double-stage amputation at the first moment:

a. The skin, a hypodermic fatty tissue and a fascia is dissected
b. A fascia and muscles
c. Muscles and a bone
d. A skin and fascia

29. How many ligatures are required for a dress of the main artery during
amputation:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

30. Where the brachial artery is located in the elbow region:

a. In the anterior lateral cubital sulcus
b. In the anterior medial cubital sulcus
c. In the posterior lateral cubital sulcus
d. In the posterior cubital medial sulcus

31. In accordance with form of a section of the soft tissues:

a. One-stage, two-stage, three-stage
b. Circular, ellips, flap
c. Aperiostal, subperiostal
d. Guillotine, double-stage, thord moments and,amy-stage amputation
 SURGERY

1. What instrument is used for cutting nerve:

a. Scalpel
b. An electroknife
c. A knife for ablation
d. A razor

2. Special instruments applied during amputations

a. Knifes for amputation, saws, raspatories, rasps
b. Forceps, scalpels, Deshan needle
c. Mirrors, scalpels, electro and manual trepans
d. Scalpel, forceps, mirrors

3. What is the name of the scheme that is introduced for

the craniocrebral projectin topograpgy?
a. Delitsin scheme
b. Kronlein scheme
c. Strermerg scheme

4. A lesion of the facial nerve just after it exosts from

stylomastoid foramen would result in:
a. An ipsilateral (same side) loss of taste to the anterior
tongue
b. A decrease in saliva production in the floor of the mouth
c. A sensory loss to the tongue
d. An ipsilateral paralysis of facial muscles

5. In addition to the General Surgical Kit of the

Instruments, what are the specific instruments for
tracheostomy?
a. Sharp pointed retractors
b. Tracheostomy cannula
c. Trachea retractor
d. All of the above listed instruments

6. That is position of the patient on the table during the

tracheostomy:
a. Patient laying on the back
b. A sandbag or folder sheet under the shoulder
c. The neck is extended for lowering the head rest of the
opening table
d. All of the above statements are correct

7. List the indications for tracheostomy:

a. The tracheostomy is performed for the patient , those with
an obstraction of the airway at or above the level of the
larynx
b. Patients with chronic or long term respiratory problems
c. Inability to cough out tracheobronchial secretions in
paralyzed or weekend patients
d. All of the above mentioned

8. When it is possible to use aa wad for a bleeding

stopping:
a. When thin veins are damaged
b. When arteries of thick callibre of a vein
c. When are damaged thick caliber of a vein
d. When there is no technical possibility to dress blood
vessels

9. List rules of manual sewing of blood vessels:

a. Karel, Morozova
b. Morozova, Vakhtangov
c. Horsley, Kuntelia
d. Chubinidze, Kuntelia

10. During sewing, in which clamp the needle is fixed:

a. In a needle holder
b. In a Pean’s forceps
c. In a Kocher’s forceps
d. In a Bilrot’s forceps
11. Usually, in what day remove sutures:
a. For the third day of operation
b. For the second days of operation
c. For the eighth days of operation
d. For the fifteen days of operation

12. The instruments for stopping a blood flow are:

a. Kocher’s, Spasokuketsky and Chachava forceps
b. Bilrot’s, Pean’s and Kocher’s forceps
c. Bilrot’s, Pean’s and Pirogov’s forceps

13. On what distance (in sm) from wound edge prick a

needle for skin suturing:
a. 1.0-1.5sm
b. 1.5-2.0sm
c. 2.0-2.5sm
d. 2.5-3.0sm

14. What stitch is used for skin suturing:

a. Continuous
b. Knoted
c. Multanovsky
d. Purse String Suture

15. That means the term tomia:

a. Creating of through channel
b. Organ cutting
c. Organ excision
d. Organ mending

16. From the specified kinds of anesthesia which belong to

a local anesthesia:
a. Intramuskulary narcosis and intravenous anesthesia
b. A venous narcosis and inhalation
c. A rectal narcosis and both inhalation
d. Infiltration and regional anesthesia
17. List of models of needle holders:
a. Matye’s, Hegar’s
b. Hegar’s, Bilirot’s
c. Troyanov’s, Hegar’s
d. Anrelava’s, Chachava’s

18. Which needles are used to suture the blood vessels?

a. Needle of Deshan’s
b. Three-trailer cutting needles
c. Needles of reverden
d. Atraumatic needles

19. During the ligation when the second knot becomes:

a. After a declamping
b. To a declamping
c. After a raising of an end of a clamp upwards
d. After a lowering of an end of a clamp downwards

20. When it is possible to use a wad for a bleeding stopping

a. When thin veins are damaged
b. When arteries of thick calibre are damaged
c. When are damaged thick calibre of a vein
d. When there is no technical possibility to dress blood
vessels

21. The instruments for stopping a blood flow

a. Kokher’s, Spasokurotsky and Chachava
b. Billroates, Pean’s and Kocher’s
c. Pean’s, Sapejko and Pipia
d. Billroates, Pean’s and Pirigovs

22. In what case it is convenient to have control over a

knife in a position of a table knife
a. For exact performance of the refined manipulation
b. For allocation of bloody veins
c. For cutting of rasping tissues
d. For carrying out of a superficial cut
23. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. Suffix “-tomy” means –making the incision
b. Suffix “-ectomy” means – full removal
c. Suffix “-stomy” means – formation of connection
d. All the above statements are correct

24. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. “Amputation” means – removal of the peripheral part of
the limb or other organ
b. “Resection” means – partial removal of an organ
c. Suffix- “lysis” means- deattachment
d. All of the above statements are correct

25. What does the gastrectomy mean:

a. A gastrectomy is a full surgical removal of the stomach
b. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
duodenem
c. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
gallbladder
d. A gastrectomy is the partial or full surgical removal of the
liver

26. The following instrument belong to the ‘tissue incision

instruments” group except
a. Scalpel handles and blades
b. Cooper Scissors
c. Allis intestinal forceps
d. Jigle file (saw)

27. What is the definition of surgical operation?

a. Application of the pharmacological agents in order to treat
the emergencies
b. Application of interventions for the purpose of diagnose
making
c. Mechanical action on the human body for the purpose of
diagnose making or treatment
d. Physical, chemical and biological action on the body for
the purpose of treatment
28. Mark the bloody operation
a. Reposition of the dislocated mandible
b. Endoscopic removal of the foreign body from the trachea
c. Reposition of the fractured bones & fixation by putting the
arm in plaster (cast)
d. Upknee Amputation

29. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. The aim of the radical operation is the complete and
definite liquidation of the disease
b. The aim of the radical operation is to achieve temporary
results
c. The aim of the palliative operation is to improve
(temporarily)the state of the patient, because due to the
advanced disease the radical intervention is not
accessible.
d. The statements 1 and 3 are correct

30. The surgical instruments can be classified by the

following groups, except:
a. Tissue incision instruments (scalpel, scissors, sawes)
b. Bleeding control instruments (clamps, ligature needles
etc)
c. Assisting instruments (forceps, retractors, probes etc)
d. Tissue restoring instruments (Deshamp needle, Alice
forceps, Needle holders etc)

31. In what case use an uninerapted suture

a. At operations on a stomach and intestines
b. For aponeurosis mending
c. For skin mending
d. For mending of muscles

32. That means the term ectomia or extirpation

a. Organ excision
b. Organ mending
c. Removal of an organ
33. During suturing, for the purpose of prevention of occurrence of a
thrombus as bridge among themselves the terminations of blood
vessels
a. The terminations of blood vessels are bridged with each other by
intima
b. The terminations of blood vessels are bridged with each other by
an adventia
c. From the central and periphery extremities it is necessary to remove
intima
d. At the terminations of blood vessels will take an adventitia at a rate
of 2sm

34. During regional anesthesia where the anesthesia substances is

entered
a. Immediately in a nervous stalk, distally areas of an operational
intervention
b. In the connecting tissue existing round a nerve, proximally area of
an operational intervention
c. 75. Immediately in a nervous stalk on a place of an operational
intervention
d. In the tissues which are in area of a operational intervention

35. List kinds of scissors

a. Bent towards (richier)
b. Acuminate
c. Directly bent (cooper)
d. All listed

36. What retension stich becomes at a muscle cross-section, on its

both extremeties
a. Steam Multanovsky
b. Continuous
c. Purse-string suture
d. Russian π-like
37. At a dressing of thick blood vessels, for the purpose of sliding
and flooding deduction, how many ligatures are used and how are they
imposed on blood vessels
a. Three ligatures: first central: the second – in the middle: the third –
peripheric
b. Four ligatures: two central, two – peripheric
c. Two ligatures: central – a ligature for mending, peripheric – also for
mending
d. Two ligatures: central – ordinary, peripheric – for suturing

38. By which threads are sutures the tissues when it is necessary to

absorbiate the thread
a. Silk
b. Kapron
c. A catgut
d. Female hair

39. Specify scalpel instructions for use in hands

a. Specify scalpel instructions for use in hands
b. The writing handle, lanceolated, in the form of a bow
c. The table knife, the writing handle and bow
d. Bow, arrows and saws

40. Why during war a bullet wound does not sew up after a primary
surgical treatment
a. Because of strong trauma
b. Because of shock
c. To prevent the anaerobic infection
d. Because of a collapse

41. That means the term resection

a. Organ incision completely
b. Organ cutting
c. Organ mending
d. Excision of a part of an organ
42. When spinal anesthesia is contraindicative
a. During an osteomyelitis
b. During a gangrene of extremities
c.
d. Answer

43. Usually during operation, in what direction cut tissues

a. From left to right
b. On the right upwards
c. On the right downwards
d. At the left obliquely and upward

44. For what purpose on the extremity in which of the crossed

muscle it is imposed π – shaped retension stich
a. On purpose with ease to find the crossed extremities of a muscle
b. For the purpose of formation gentle cicatrix
c. For the purpose of nerve savings
d. For the purpose of artery savings

45. In case the deligation on the damaged blood vessels is

accomplished, or its separation is undesirable, how the hemostasis is
carried out
a. Blood vessel will leave without binding
b. The bleeding center will impose a Kocher’s forceps
c. The bleeding center will wrap a gauze bandage
d. Round the bleeding center will sew up tissues and will impose purse
– string suture

46. When it is convenient to hold a knife in a position

a. For performance of a graphic manipulations
b. During amputation
c. For cutting of rough fabrics
d. For carrying out of a superficial cut
47. What basic demands should be executed during a primary
surgical treatment
a. Extraction of lifeless tissues and opening of pockets
b. Extraction of foreign matters
c. Bleeding stopping
d. Listed all above

48. How many stages are allocated in bloody operations

a. Only one stage
b. Two stages
c. Three stages
d. Set of stages (more than three)

49. On purposefulness choose following operations

a. Medical and diagnostic
b. Repeated
c. The urgent
d. It is a lot of moments

50. From the basic surgical instruments specify, which are

instruments for suturing of tissues
a. Needles, clamps
b. Needle holders, needles
c. Deshan’s needle, vascularly – Blelok’s vascular plug
d. All aforesaid

51. How probably to cut a fascia

a. On the grooved probe
b. On a forceps
c. On a blunt retractor
d.

52. What is called as a ligature

a. Thread which stiches blood vessels
b. A thread which stitch a nerve or tendons
c. A thread which dresses the blood vessels
d. A part of a thread which remains in the heart of tissues
53. List rules of suturing blood vessels by hand
a. Karel’s. Janelidze
b. Morozova. Karel’s
c. Horsley’s, Albert’s
d. Multanovsky’s. Jirar’s

54. Kinds of uninterrupted sutures

a. Uninterrupted (overhand), multanovsky, mattress suture
b. Nodal, P-shaped, Z-shaped
c. Purse-string, matress, interrupted stitch
d. Kinds of uninterrupted, Z-shaped

55. Which instrument takes out a periosteum from a bone ?

a. Raspatory
b. A gouge for a bone
c. A scalpel
d. A knife for an ablating

56. That means the operational approach

a. Revealing of object of an intervention by a tissue cut
b. Cutting of a skin in the field of operation and a hypodermic tissue
c. Cutting of a skin in the field of operation and a hypodermic tissue
d. Position of a patient on an operating table

57. According to the terms of surgical intervensions are chosen

a. Urgent, emergency and planned
b. Urgent, early and late
c. Planned, primary and secondary
d. Urgent, repeated and late

58. Rules of a continence of a scalpel in hand

a. The writing handle, razors, a table knife
b. The table knife, the writing handle, an edge
c. A bow, the writing handle, a table knife
d. A bow, a spear, a table knife
59. During cutting on cross-section striate fascia. The scalper edge is
referred to as wat party
a. Upwards
b. Downwards
c. Sideways
d. Towards muscles

60. During a ligation when the first knot becomes

a. To a declamping
b. At clamp opening
c. After a declamping
d. After a capture a clamp of the tissues surrounding blood vessels

61. The following instruments belong to the

“assisting instruments group” except.
a. Farabefretrator/U.S army pattern
b. Grooved probe
c. Mathieu-olsen needleholder
d. Surgical and anatomical forceps

62. Identify the following.

a. A-Round needle; B-Atraumatic needle; CTriahedral
needle
b. A-Arraumatic needle; B-Cuttino-Needle; CStraight
needle
c. A-Round Needle; B-Straight needle; C-Cuttinoneedle
d. A-Cutting Needle; B-Straight Needle; C-Straight
needle
63. The types of the suture materials are a follows.
a. Absorbable and non-absorbable
b. Monofilament and multifilament
c. Synthetic and natural
d. All the statements are correct

64. When making an incision- the following items are

correct except.
a. Plan the incision to give adequate exposure
b. Stabilize the skin with one hand and, using the
belly of the scalpel blade
c. Open the skin in a continuous motion
d. Use the scissor for retracting the skin

65. The above presented technique of hemostasis

consists of two steps. Mark a right name for the
procedure.
a. Suture ligature technique
b. Clamp and ligate technique
c. Pressure and traction technique
d. Clamp and twist technique
66. Describe the picture
a. On the picture the sutures approximating the
tissues, no strangle them
b. Knots are not tied gently and securely to avoid a
noose effect and to ensure that the knots stay
tied
c. The wound is sutured by layers
d. All the above items are correct

67. What means the term stomia.

a. To make a hole drain or fistula
b. Organ excision
c. The approach to an organ
d. To sew up an organ

68. During local anesthesia the substance of

anesthesia irritates.
a. Only nerves
b. Only the nervous terminations
c. Nerves and the nervous terminations together
d. On a cerebral cortex

69. List kinds of forceps.

a. Anatomic, surgical, gripping forceps
b. Surgical, gynecologic, urological
c. Web-footed, unciform, sheet
d. Kocher’s forceps, cooper, richter
70. At a bleeding from what blood vessels it is
possible to bend blood vessels for.
a. From arteries of thick caliber
b. From veins of thick caliber
c. From arteries of average caliber
d. From thin blood vessels (mainly from veins)

71. How are the ends of the threads lenghthes

correlation whith each other in the needle?
a. 4/5 lengths of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 1/5- on another
b. 3/5 lengths of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 2/5- on another
c. Half of length of a thread are located on one
party of a needle, half-on another
d. 1/3 of length of a thread are located on one party
of a needle, 2/3- on another

72. What is the definition of surgical operation?

a. Application of the pharmacological agents in
order to treat the emergencies
b. Application of interventions for the purpose of
diagnose making
c. Mechanical action on the human body for the
purpose of diagnose making or treatment
d. Physical, chemical and biological action on the
body for the purpose of treatment
e. Incision of the body in order to make revision of
underlying anatomical elements
73. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The aim of the radical operation is the complete
and definite liquidation of the disease
b. The aim of the radical operation is to achieve
temporary result
c. The aim of the palliative operation is to improve
(temporarily) the state of the patient, because
due to the advanced disease the radical
intervention is not accessible
d. The statements a and c are correct

74. The following instruments belong to the

“bleeding control instruments group” except.
a. Billroth clamp
b. Kocher straight clamp
c. Luer clamp
d. Pean clamp

75. The following instruments belong to the

“suturing instruments group” except.
a. Castroviejo needleholder
b. Richardson retractors
c. Mathiew and olsen-hegar needle holders
d. Round and cutting needles

76. Pean clamp.

a. It is used to occlude or clamp vessels to control
bleeding
b. The jaw is fully serrated
c. Belongs to the instruments for bleeding control
d. All the statements are correct

77. Mayo-hegar needleholder.

a. Is used for driving suture needles
b. The anatomy of the instrument consists of:
Shanks, the ratchet, neck, rings and box lock
c. Has the serrated jaws
d. All the statements are correct
78. Identify the following.
a. A-Pen Position; B-Bow Position; C-Table knife
Position
a. A-Drop Passage; B-Table knife position; C-Table
Knife Position
c. A-Drop Passage; B-Table knife position; C-Pen
Position
b. A-Pen Position; B-Table knife Position; C-Drop
Passage

79. Find the appropriate answer to describe the

picture.
a. Ligature of ‘feeding’ vessels
b. Clamping
c. Embolization of ‘feeding’ vessels
d. Pressure by the finger

80. What kind of surgical operations do you know?

a. Only bloody
b. Only a bloodless
c. Bloody and bloodless
d. Only the radical
81. How to set up a separate operation name.
a. Merge of the name of an organ to the surgical
intervention name
b. Merge of the name of an organ to the name of
an area of a surgical intervention
c. With the indicating of the name of a surgical
intervention

82. List the instruments necessary for cutting of

tissues.
a. Knifes, Scissors, saws
b. Knifes, gouge and forceps
c. Saws, forceps and scissors
d. Scissors, saws and clamps for blood vessels

83. How the soft tissues are cutted.

a. Layerwise
b. Longitudinally
c. At width
d. Obiquel

84. After a dressing of blood vessels what is possible

to wait complication, from the point of view of a ligature.
a. Slipping a ligature
b. Muscle damage
c. Damage of a nervous hinge
d. Joint damage