lot Noy OS311L Qvonilon Boo! Paper Coto Noo M8 ib NTRANCE EXAMINATION: 2018 MASTER OF LAWS (LL.M. Regular) -ou.s0 (TTT i if PART-A: 40 Marks PART =H: 100 Marks PART-C: 60 Marks A Total Marks:200 Loatructions (9 Candidates ime: 2 Mours 0 Nantes 1. Bo not waite your name or put any ether mark of Mdentiflation anywhere inthe OMR Response Sheet, If ANY MARK OF IDENTIFICATIONS IS DISCOVERED ANYWHERE IN OMR RESPONSE SHER, the OM sheet will be cancelled, ‘and will not be evaluated, ‘vis Question Nooklet contains the cover page wna « (ot oF 140 Multiple Cholee Questions of Imark ene (Part-A & Parte Bond Parte fs descriptive tyne amestions of 60 yar, 3. Space for rough work has been provided at the beginning and ery Available ypace on each page may also be used for rough work. 4. There is negative marking in Multiple Cholve Questions, or each wrong answer 0.25 marks will be deducted, 5, USE OF CALCULATOR IS NOT PERMITTED, 6. USE/POSSESSION OF ELECTRONIC GADGETS LIKE MOBILE PHONE, iphone, iPad, pager ETC. are strictly PROMIBITED, 7. Candidate should check the serial order of questions a the beginning of the test, IF any question is found missing in the serial ‘onder, it should be immediately brought tothe notice ofthe Lnvilator, No pages should be torn out from this question booklet, 8, Answers must be marked in the OMR Response sheet which is provided separately, OMR Response sheet must be handed over {o1the invigilator before you leave the seat, 9, The OMR Response sheet should not be folded or wrinkled, The folded or wrinkled OMI. Response Sheet will not be evaluated, 10. Write your Roll Number in the appropriate space (above) and on the OMR Response Sheet, Any other details, if asked for, should be written only in the space provided. 11, There are four options t0 each question marked A, B, C and D, Selest one of the most appropriate option and fll up th corresponding oval/circe in the OMR. Response Sheet provided to you, The correct procedure for filling up the OMR Response Sheet is mentioned below. 12, Use Black or Blue Ball Pen only for filling the ovals/cireles. in OMR Response Sheet, Darken the correct ovalicircle ‘completely. If the correct answer is ‘B’, the corresponding ovalcircle should be completely filled and darkened as shown below. ee coRRECT. WRONG METHODPART-A ENGLISH Find the ALTERNATIVE for the given sentences: One person is liable for the act of other A. Vicarious liability B. Strict liabi Cavisetaony — SI a D. None of the above nl 2. Statement made by the accused before the police officer A. Admission B. Declaration . Confession D. None of the above ke part in somet ‘A. Slap dagh B. Atacanter . Skate on thin iee D. None of the above 12, which is likely to fail In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom underlined: 4. He is always with hat in hands A. Performing work of easy going B. Enhancing the reputation C. Poor D. Making more money 5. Mr. X was call the shots of hospital A. Make important announcements B. Make important decisions C. Bein charge D. None of the above Pick out the SYNONYM of the word: 6. Mar A. Blight B. Tarnish C. deface D. Alllof the above M53 LL.M/2 SETA 20187. Oblation Gi D. None of the above Pick out the APPROPRIATE ANTONYM of the word: 8. Acrimony Friends . Alimony i D. Goons 9. Surrogate: A. Crater B. Delegate C. Proxy D. Fighter Fill in the Blanks: 10. The karta of the__ A. Business B. Household C. Family D. Neighborhood 11. The Indian leopard is a species found all A. Over B. Around C. Inside D. Beside 12. The Indian constitution was__ A. Made B. Enacted C. Formed D. Created 13. their origin to the state ‘A. Locate B. Trace C. Find D. Call M53 LL.M/2 SETA 2018Spellings 14. Which of the folk A. Abscond B. Agrievea a Alluring D. Ambiguous lowing spelling is INCORRECT in the given contex 15. Choose the CORRECT spelling: A. Appraise B. Apprise D. Apathy 16. Find the CORRECT SPELLED word: A. Anamulous B. Anomalous C. Anamalos D. Anamoulous Change the voice: 17. He is flying a kite A. A kite flied by him B. A kite was fly by him C. A kite is being flown by him D. A kite has been flied by him 18. Robber killed A. He was killed by the robber B. He was kill by the robber C. He is kill by the robber D. He had killed by the robber ‘Choose the CORRECT ALTERNATIVE: 19. One who is perfectly sound in body, mind or both A. Sounding brass B. Sound as a bell C. Empty vessel D. A sop to Cerberus 20. Make an unpleasant thing appear better than it is A. Gild the pill B. From the horse mouth C. Castles in the D, Laughing remarks M53 LL.M/2 SETA 20186 v1 Gi AL KNOWLED*! ; OS ee ‘ourt of Justice (ICI) since resident of the International C 21. The respective President & Vice-P' 6" February 2018 are A. Abdulgawi Yusuf & D: B. Abdulgawi Yusuf & Xue Hanquin C. Xue Hanquin & Christopher Greenhood D. Dalveer Bhandari & Xue Hanquin alveer Bhandari and Rs1000/ was 22, Demonetization of all the high value currency notes of Rs500/ and Rs ANNOUNCED on A. 7" Nov.2016 at 08.00 PM B. 9% Nov.2016 at 09.00 PM C. 8" Nov.2016 at 08.00 PM D. 8" Dec. 2016 at 08.00 PM. the Cess on the income tax was to be increased from 23. In the 2018 Union Budget of Indit A. 3% to 4% B. 4% to 5% C. 3% to 6% D. 2% to 8% 24, Total revenue under the 2018 Union Budget of India estimated to Rs__Crores A. 28,66,147 B. 23,99,147 - coco Ko D. 33,99,147 25, Total allocation to the Ministry of Defence, under the 2018 Union Budget of India, is estimated toRs___Crores A. 404,365 B. 504,365 C. 604,365 D. 704,365 26. On the 26" January 2018, India celebrated her_ anniversary of Republic Day A. 67" B. 68 exes D. 66" 27. The current Chairman of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO), in 2018, is A. Kailasava Divoo Sivan B. AS. Kiran Kumar C. G. Maday Nair D. Shailesh Nayak M53 LL.M/2 ae sats7 28. On the 12" January, ISRO, through its PSLV, launched ___ satellites in a single go A. 28 B. 29 _ oo Ei D. 103 = 29. The Cauvery River Dispute is between the states of A. Karnataka & Tamil Nadu B. Andhra Pradesh & Karnataka CC. Tamil Nadu & Andhra Pradesh D. Kerala & Andhra Pradesh 30. The distinguished ‘Jyanpith Award’ for 2017 was awarded to A. Shankar Ghosh B. Krishna Sobti C, Kedarnath Singh D. Balchandra Nemade 31. First individual to be honored “Posthumously” was A. C. Rajgopalachari B. C.V.Raman C. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. Madan Mohan Malviya highly acclaimed Indian ‘Bharat Ratna Award’ 32. The 2017 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to A. The international campaign to abolish nuclear weapons B. The office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees C. International Physicians for the Prevention of Nuclear War D. International Atomic Energy Agency 33. “Project 751” relates to indigenously building of most advanced A. Fighter jets B. Submarine C. Surface to Air Supersonic Missiles D. Main Battle Tanks 34. ‘Aadhaar Linked Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme’ was launched on A. 26" Noy. 2012 B. 26" Nov. 2013 C, 25" Noy. 2010 D. 26" Noy. 2011 M53 LL.M/2 SETA 201835, The present 24" Governor of RBI A. Urjit Patel B. Dr.Raghuram G. Rajan . Dr. Y.V.Reddy D. Dr. D. Subbarao j Narendra Modi addressed _ 36. Indian Prime Minister S Assembly on 27" Sept.2014 A. 67 B. 69" i D, 6s 37. 64" Dada Saheb Phalke Award (2016) was awarded to A. K.Vishwanath B. Manoj Kumar €. Shasi Kapoor D. Gulzar 38. Nobel prize 2017 for Chemistry was awarded to ‘A. Jacques Dubochet & Joa Chim Frank B. Jacques Dubochet only C. Richard Henderson D. Both (A) &(C) neral session of the U.N. 39. Who were NOT amongst the four Supreme Court Judges who addressed press conference, on 12" Jan 2018, pointing out irregularities in the functioning of the Apex Court of India. A. Justice Kurian Joseph B. Justice Chelameswar C. Justice Madan B. Lokur D. None of the above 40. Distinguished Award ‘Kirti Chakra’ was awarded to on the Republic Day of 2018 A. Lt.Gen. Sarath Chand B. Maj. Vijayant Bist. C. Lt. Gen, Arup Kumar Das D. L. Gen. Suresh Sharma ‘M53 LL.M/2 SETA 20189 PART-B LAW (MCO) : Constitution of India b 41. The maxim “nemo debet bis vexari” find its expression in the Case A. S.A.Venkatraman v Union of India B. State of W.B. v Asutosh Lahiri C. Dr. M. Ismail Faruqui v Union of India D. Satya y Teja Singh 42. “It is a well-recognized prin le that private i countries. There is no system in private international law which can claim universal recognition”. The observation found expressed in the Case A. Dr. M. Ismail Faruqui v Union of India B. Satya v Teja Singh C. Union of India v H.R. Patankar D. Kumar Padma Prasad v Union of India 43. The Supreme Court had held that an amendment in the constitution under Article 368 is ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13 in the Case A. Golaknath v State of Punjab B. Sajjan Singh v State of Rajasthan C. Sankari Prasad v UOT D. Keshvananda Bharti v State of Kerala 44, Under the ‘doctrine of immunity of instrumentality’, ‘A. Union and state cannot tax each other’s properties B. Union cannot levy taxes on states C. Union cannot levy custom duties on the states D. Both (B) and (c) 45. Part IV-A was added to the constitution of India by the _ Amendment 46. The jutional Amendment was challenged in the Case A. Golaknath y State of Punjab ingh y State of Rajasthan C. Sankari Prasad v UOT D. Keshvananda Bharti y State of Kerala M53 LL.M/2 SERS ar10 a jssion for States is enshrined in service Commission Service Pul Article 319-324 47. Provision of having a UPSC ‘A. Part XIV Chapter Tl, siae B, Part XIV Chapter Hl, Article 315-90 €. Part XIV Chapter I, Article 315324 D. Part XIV Chapter II, Article 318-32 violated fundamental rights mal law which di danas ati bora or dead, and could not be re 48.dustice Wanchoo eld th * conferred by aril 191) on etzen vas st spring the doctrine of eclipse? 2: Mahendra Lal Jak Case B. AteAnttey Case C. Vishata Case D. Suni Batra Case 49. Panchayats were given the constitutional status by Amendment aR” . cy a Cat D. 74® 50. The provision whereby Indian citizen, who is a parent or guardian, shall have the duty to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of 6 and 14 years has been provided under Amendment A. 86" B, 42" eri D. 82" SI. Which among the following pertains to ‘National Anthem Case”? A. Vishak’s Case B. Bijoe Emamanual’s case C. Shyam Narayan’s case D. Both (B) & (C) 52. The power of judicial review in India is enjoyed by A. The Supreme Court alone B. All Courts C. Both supreme court as well as High Court D. The High Court alone 53. The Supreme Court had held that the minority e 7 “ommunity has i ‘educational institutions in the Case pga 4. DAY College Bhatinda v State of Punjab 4. LMA. Pai Foundation v State of Karnataka © Amrit Kaur v Union of India D. None of the above i ek) 2018in 54. Fee Tiara? Bren eater ccinlion and ‘Secular’ were inserted in the Preamble by the Amendment B. 39% Cc. 42 D. 44" 55. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of Indi A. Parliament by resolution B. The President C. Parliament by law D. The President in consultation with the Chief Justice of Indi may be enlarged by 56. In the Case of Golak Nath v State of Punjab, it was remarked that ‘our preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. The judge was A. Subba Rao, J. - B. Krishna Iyer, J. D. H.R. Khanna, J. 57. It has been said in many Cases viz, Devdasan v Union of India, that Article 16 should be read with A. Article 45 & 332 B. Article 46 & 335 C. Article 47 & 333 D. Article 49 & 336 58. In Case of A.K. Gopalan v State of Madras, the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found conflicting with the two Articles A. 19&21 B. 23 &25 C. 23 & 32 D. 14&17 the 59. The observation, that Article 30 (1) is not a Charter of mal-administration, was mad Case of A. Saiffudin v State of Bombay B. Mittal vy UOL C. Menaka Gandhi v UOL D. St.Xavier’s College Society v State of Gujarat 60. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on ground of exceeding the jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of A. Certiorari B. Mandamus C. Quo warranto D. Habeas corpus M53 LL.M/2 SETA 2018a Law of Crimes ry there is either theft or © extortion? 1. Which section of the IPC says “in all robber tir of IPC 62. Dishonest misappropriation of property has been dealt under Section __‘ D. 408 ieee Z 63. Section ..... under the IPC that exempts the doer of an innocent or lawful act in an innocem or lawful manner and without any criminal intention or knowledge from any unforeseen evil result that may ensue from accident or misfortune is A. 82 B. 76 ein D. 80 64. The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is contained under Section _of IPC A. 92 B. 94 C95 D. 93 65. The right to private defence under IPC is A. Unrestricted B. Subject to restrictions contained C. Subject to restrictions contained it D. Both (B) and (©) Chapter. IV Section 99 66. woman ran toa well stating she would jump in it but she was caught before she could reach it. She is guilty of A. Attempt of suicide B. Attempt of culpable homicide C. No offence D. Attempt of murder 67. The right granted under section 100, IPC to the extent of causing death can be exercised against an assault which reasonably causes the apprehension that death will otherwise be the consequence of the assault, The above rule has been explained by the Supreme Court in one of the famous cases; A. Amzad khan v State B. Brij Kishore v State of U.P. €. Ramaswamy v State of Madras D. Sunil Batra v Delhi Administration MS3 LL.M2 SETA 2018ll . 68. Y inserts bis hand into the pocket of X only to find it to be empty. Y is guilty of A. Mischief B. No offen! C. Attempt to comn D. Theft d the o' rema 'S the pocket was empty a uncompleted theft ood Faith” has been defined under Section __of IPC A. 37 D. 52 69. 70. General exceptions has been laid down under the respective Chapter and Sei A. IV & 53075 B. IV & 76 (0 106 C. V & 107 to 120 D. VITI & 141 to 160 71. Under IPC, for the offence of ‘unlawful assembly’, minimum number of person required to be present are A. Four or more B. Six or more C. Five or more D. Seven or more ‘72. The expression ‘harm’ is used under Section 81 of the IPC in the sense of A. Moral wrong or evil B. Physical injury C. Hurt D. Injury or damage 73. Criminal breach of trust bas been defined under Section of the IPC A. 405 B. 404 C. 403 D. 406 74. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a women is punishable under Section __ of the ec A. 509 B. 363 C. 354 D. SIL 75. During the fight between two ladies A & B, ‘A’ pulls ‘B? by hair and removes some of is guilty of an offence causing ‘A. Simple hurt by rash and negligent act B, Simple hurt C. Grievous hurt by rash and negligent act D. Grievous hurt M53 LL.M/2 SETA 201814 A finds a watch on the floor ofa State Transport bus while he was leaving it as a last in his pocket instead of returning it to the State passenger, He picked it up and put i Yransport Authorities, Next day he sold it. ‘A A ©. Criminal misappropr D. No offenee 77. The offfence of theft becomes robbery under IPC when it A. Coupled with force B. Committed by 2 or more but less than S person C. Committed by 5 or more persons D. Coupled with imminent danger to life nuisance has been considered under Section of IPC A. 275 * B. 273 Cc. 268 D. 270 Jurisprudence 79. ‘The declaratory theory of precedent’ is supported by; A. Mathew Hale B. Blackstone C. Dr. Carter D. All of the above 80. Who is being referred as a Father of ‘Historical school of jurisprudence’? A. Duguit B. Austin C. Savigny D. Salmond 81. Who asserted that “the science of jurisprudence is concerned with positive laws without regards to their goodness and badness”? A. Jeremy Bentham B. Jobn Austin C. Sir John Salmond D. David Hume ‘82. Suppose Mr. X has a right to recover a loan from a poor person Y but seeing a pitiable ight. Such type of behavior of Mr. X will be known as condition of Y, Mr. X waived his in the Feinberg’s analysis A. Duty B. Liability C. Super arrogatory D. None of the above 2018 MS3 LL.M/2 SETA1s 83. Who among the follon A. Stammler ng, Was an exponent of natural law with variable contents? B. Ehriich 2 D. Inbering 84. Great jurist Maine said that: A. Law fsa command of soversign The judgments of the ki S of ngs under divine inspiration were the basis of customs C. Morals are the test of law D. None of the above 85. Norm is the meaning of an act by whi A B. ed, commanded or authorized C. Forbidden D. None of the above certain behavior is 86. The term right in rem means A. Right against the state B. Right of citizen against the government C. A right available against the whole world or against the people D. Right available to a pauper 87. Kelsen’s theory of law is called pure theory because he has ‘A. Purely discussed jurisprudence only B. Defined law in accordance with morality and purity C. Discussed law purely in terms of justice D. Separated laws from religion, ethics, sociology, and history 88. A corporation aggregate is ‘A. An incorporated group of Co-existing persons B. An incorporated series of successive persons C. A group of legal persons D. A group of natural persons 89. Which jurist had A. Gray B, Salmond C. Inhering D. Holland id “legal rights are legally protected interest”? 90. ‘acquisition of res nullius’ implies ‘A. Original acquisition of ownership B. Derivative acquisition of ownership C. Mere custody of the thing D. Accessory acquisition of ownership M53 LL.M/2 SETA 201816 Human Rights 7 91, “It is clear that in the practice of st of certain sacrifices; claims are for expose the offender to serious criticism and are relations”. The above statement was made by A. Prof. HL. A. Hart B. Hugo Grotious . Holland D. Austin y respected even at the cost _ breaches of the rules ‘for compensation and certain rules are regular nce to them, 92. “Universal declaration of human rights” was made on A. 6" Dee, 1948 B. 9" Dec. 1948 C. 10" Dec. 1948 D. 11" Dee. 1948 93. The international law doctrine of ‘pacta sunt servanda’ was propounded by A. Stark B. Grotious C. Anzilotti D. Salmond 94. The General principles of law recognized by the civilized nations is A. The basis of international law B. Philosophy of international law C. Source of internati D. None of the above ‘95. Portugal v India is related to A. Right of passage B. Right of self determination C. Right of compensation D. None of the above 96. The book “De Jure Belli ac Pacis” is written by A. Anzilotti B, Hugo Grotious C. Oppenheim D. None of the above 97. ‘Collective Intervention’ is provided under Chapter ___ of the UN Charter AY B, VI Cc vi D. VOL M53 LL.M/2 SETA 20187 98. ‘Estrada \ eaicks, ctrine? was propounded by Mr. Estrada who was the Foreign Minister of A. Egypt 99. “Man must rise above the earth—to the top of atmosphere and beyond __ for only thus will he fully understand the world in which he lives.” The statement has been said by A. Socrates B. Aristotle Cc. Pluto D. None of the above .ed in General Assembly while the ‘Universal Declaration of 100. The country that abs! Human Right” was being adopted A. Poland B. Brazil C. Egypt D. Belgium 101. The ‘Right To Life’ has been guaranteed under Article on Human Right 1969” A3 of ‘American Convention 4 CNS 6 102. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights was established in the year A. 1956 B. 1976 C. 1966 D. 1986 Family Law 103. Which of the following is NOT the primary source of Muslim Law? ‘A. JUDICIAL DECISIONS B. QURAN Cc. HADITH D. IMA M53 LL.M/2 SETA 2018a sub-set of Mustims within RB. Shia C Both D. None of the above 105, “Marriage isa Civil Contract”. [was primarily held in AS Abdul Quadir v Satin, Hyde v Hyde ~ Mst Zainab y Abdul Rahman D, None of the above 106. ‘The period of Khya-ul-Bulugh under Mustim Law is_Years AB - BR D. 16 107, Period of *Zddac’” in case of Death of a Muslim Male is A. 3 Months B, 4 Months & 10 Days C. Only 4 Months D. 3 Months & 10 Days 108. A married Muslim lady can deny the access of her husband to her person A. If prompt dower is not paid B. Ifdeferred dower is not paid C. If Mahr-i-mis! is not paid D. None of the above 109. Under the ‘Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 A. A Muslim male may go to the Court for dissolution of Marriage B. A Muslim female may go to the Court for dissolution of Marriage C. Both may go to the Court for dissolution of Marriage D. None of the above 110. The share of a daughter and son in the property of a deceased Muslim A. In an equal proportion B. Daughter gets double of son C. Son gets double of daughter D. Either (A) or (B) 111. Which one of the following is NOT the modern source of Hindu Law? A. Digest & Commentaries B, Legislation C. Precedent D. Equity, justice & good conscience MS3 LL.M/2 SETA 20189 112. The . A Meneame! Is asgoriated with B. Dayabhaga Schoo! ©. Both (A) & (B) D. None of the above 113. Which form of marriages is not approved under the Hindu law A. Brahma B. Prajapatya G Aha D. None of the above 114, Which Section of Hindu Marriage Act 1955 reduces the ‘Spinda’ relationships by two degrees? A. Section 9 B. Section 5 (V) C. Section 13 D. Section 17 115. The nature of Hindu Marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955 is A. Sacrament B. Contract C. Partly sacrament & partly contract D. Purely sacrament & not contract 116. Under which Section of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956, a registered document raises a presumption that the adoption has been made in compliance with the provisions of the Act? A. Section 14 B. Section 16 C. Section 15, D. Section 17 117. General powers of natural guardian of a child under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956 is laid down under Section__ A. 8(1) B. 9(1) cc. 10(1) D. 11) 118. A de facto guardian under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act 1956 implies A. Guardian appointed by the Court B. Guardian appointed by will C. Self-appointed Guardian D. None of the above MS3 LL.M/2 SETA 201820 Succession been done away by vir 119. The concept of pious obligation has b (Amendment ) Act A. 2014 2011 c. 2004 D. 2008 120. The provision for ‘Divorce’ has been provided under S Marriage Act 1955 AW BW GB D. 10 of the Hindu Law of Contract 121. Indian Contract Act 1872 came into force on ‘A. 28 April 1872 B, 26" April 1872 ©. 1° September 1872 D. 5" September 1872 122. The word ‘Contract’ has been defined under Section of the Indian Contract Act 1872 A. 2@ B. 2() Cc. 2@) D. 20) 123. Canlill v Carbolie Smoke Ball Co. Case was decided by A. Privy Council B. Indian Supreme Court C. Queen Bench D. King Bench 124, The communication of an acceptance is complete against the proposer ‘A. When it is put in course of transmission to him B, When it reaches to the proposer C. When proposer confirms its acceptance by offeree D. None of the above 125. “Consideration is the price for which the promise of the other is bought, and the Promise thus given for value is enforceable”. The above definition is given by A. Blackstone B. Pollock C. Patterson D. Salmond MS3 LL.M2asa aaa aE CTs ones134, How A B G, D. 135. “To towar dama many iMlustrations have be 16 17 18 19 ious liability arises from the breach of a duty prin Jressible by rds persons gi ges”. This definition is given by A. Salmod CC. Pollock 136. Provisions relating to strike and lock-outs have been provided under D. Hart Labour Law Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 A Chapter V & Sections 22 To 25 B. Chapter VA & Sections 25ATo 25F C. Chapter VI & Sections 28 A To 28 F D. Chapter VII & Sections 32 A To 35F 137. Unfair Labour Practices is considered under ‘A. The First Schedule & Section 2 (a) (vi) B. The Second Schedule & Section 7 C. The Third Schedule & Section 74 D. The Fifth Schedule & Section 2 (ra) 138. The patents bi A. B. c. D. 139. The copyright on the works of Artistic Craftsmanship has been conferred by Section Int Justice Mathur Justice Krishna Aiyyar Justice N. Rajgopala Ayyangar Justice A. N. Roy of Copyright Act 1957 A B. & D. M53 LL.M/2 13 (1) i 1S 16 lectual Prope 1965 was based mainly on the recommendations submitted by SETA rily fixed by law. This duty is an action for un-liquidated of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 201823 Environmental Law 140. The Supreme Court has applied the ‘polluter pay’ principle in the Case A. Indian Council for Environ-Legal Action v Union of India 1996(3)SCC212 B. Vellore Citizen’s Welfare Forum v Union of India 1996(5)SCC647 C. (The Oleum Gas Leak Case) M.C. Mehta v Union of India 1987 SC 1086 D. All of the abovePaper Code No- MS3 ENTRANCE EXAMINATION-2018 MASTER OF LAWS (LL.M. Regular) PART -C (SUBJECTIVE /DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS) Max Marks: 60 Answer any SIX questions (in S00 words). All questions carry equal marks. 10. What are the stages of commission of crime? Explain. ‘Write short notes on Vicarious Liability in criminal law. Discuss the root aspects of Austin’s conception of Analytical Positivism. Distinguish between the Dayabhaga Joint Family and Mitakshara Joint Family. Explain the concept and salient features of a Hindu coparcenary. What are the different forms of divorce available to a Muslim under the Mohammadan Law? When does Talag become irrevocable? Discuss the conception that “International law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence”, What are the provisions for strike in the public utility services under the Industrial Disputes Act 1947? Define contract as provided under the Indian Contract Act. State the essential elements ofa valid contract. State the Preamble to the Constitution of India, Explain its significance in the judicial and legislative system of India.