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Index
• Group C Page 2
o Forensic Page 2
o Anesthesia Page 6
o Dermatology Page 9
o Radiology Page 14

• Group B Page 24
o Forensic Page 24
o Anesthesia Page 28
o Dermatology Page 31
o Radiology Page 36

• Group A Page 46
o Forensic Page 46
o Anesthesia Page 50
o Dermatology Page 53
o Radiology Page 57

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 Group C
Forensic MiniOSCE

1) All true About traumatic Asphyxia except:

a. due to mechanical fixation of the chest
b. Petechial hemorrhages
c. congestion of the face
d. swollen of lips and tongue
e. laryngeal cartilage fracture
Answer: E
2) Mechanism of CO poisoning:
a. Replace the O2 in alveoli
b. prevent release of O2 from hemoglobin into tissue
c. depression of cardiorespiratory center
d. all of the following
e. bronchoconstriction due to irritation
Answer: b
3) All are suffocation except:
a. Gagging
b. Choking
c. Throttling
d. Entrapped
e. Smothering
Answer: c
4) Sure, signs of Drawing:
a. Washerwomen
b. Pulmonary edema
c. Cadaveric spasm
Answer: c
5) Which one is true?
a. Elimination of Alcohol follows first order kinetics
b. Dry beriberi is Dilated cardiomyopathy
c. Ethanol increase Glutamate
d. Blood sample for measure alcohol con is preserved in sodium citrate
e. Old man has higher Elimination rate
Answer: e
6) All are true except:
a. High con of alcohol has high Elimination rate
b. Chronic consumption of alcohol may not produce chronic effect
c. Acute sign of alcohol is dilated pupils
d. Chronic effect of Alcohol is loss of libido
Answer: a

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7) All are signs of Battered child syndrome except:
a. Bruising
b. Burn mark
c. Bite mark
d. Stab
e. Marked with different color
Answer: d
8) Which one of the following Q doesn’t ask to abused child ‫وخمطوف‬:
a. Do you remember the shape of car
b. Who do
c. Why did not you say no
Answer: c
9) Case about SBS:
a. Subdural Hemorrhage
b. Retinal Hemorrhage
c. Bruise on the upper arm
d. Fracture of lower limb
Answer: d
10) Organophosphates inhibit:
Answer: AChE
11) Case about organophosphate poising and ask about the least to do:
a. Atropine is given as bolus following by continuous infusion
b. Started with pralidoxime infusion
c. Cloth removal
d. Send toxicological to confirm
Answer: d
12) False except:
a. Postmortem abrasion may not be differentiated from antemortem abrasion
b. Hold on flat surface cause tram line bruise
Answer: b
13) Sharpe wound except:
a. Incised wound
b. Stab
c. Puncture
d. Laceration
Answer: d
14) False About bruise:
a. Love bite is an example of bruises
b. Black eye is example of shifting of bruise
c. They found always over dependent area
d. They appear more on bony prominence
Answer: c

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15) Layer of skin that Has varies thickness from one part to another and Has forensic relevance
Answer: Stratum corneum

16) TRUE about suspended animation:

a. Take second to several min
b. Voluntary
c. Occurs in neonate and drowning
d. Can be resuscitated
e. All of the above
Answer: e
17) The best to describe cellular death:
a. Progressive loss of cell and tissue function after somatic
Answer: a
18) Case About dead women in summer (hot weather) that found with greenish of RIF and
bloating with marbling PMI:
a. 5-6 D
b. 1 W
c. 24_48 H *or 36 I am not sure
Answer: c
19) Late postmortem changes in Dry (dehydration) environment:
a. Mummification
b. Adipocere
Answer: a
20) Case About dead female medical students with one stab wound on her neck, knife in her
Right hand and she leave suicide Letter (Can't stand the pressure of exams) What your
primary assume (murder or suicide):
a. Murder because she has one stab wound
b. Suicide because her suicide Letter
c. Suicide because the knife in Right her hand
Answer: a
21) In firearm injuries tattooing caused by:
a. Projectile
b. Propellant
c. Hot gas
Answer: b
22) In firearm injuries, the cause of cruciate or satellite skin tear:
a. Contact wound
b. Intermittent
c. Long distance
d. Short distance
Answer: a

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23) Infanticide, you need to determine All except:
a. Identification mother
b. Determine if the age of mother less than 15 years
c. Still birth or live born
d. Period of survival
e. Cause of death
Answer: b
24) From the umbilical stump you can determine:
a. Cause of death
b. Still birth or live born
c. Age of Infant
d. estimate time since death
Answer: c
25) Term to describe sudden death from known disease that doesn’t explain death:
a. Unnatural
b. Unexpected
Answer: b
26) Best to describe Myocardial bridging:
a. blood vessel grows over the muscles
b. Surgical putting piece of blood vessels over the muscles
c. piece of Myocardium grows over the blood vessel that supply the heart
d. piece of Myocardium grows over another piece of cardiac muscles
e. none
Answer: c
27) False about PE:
a. they always associated with sign and symptoms
b. Increase incidence with age and obesity
c. Associated with trauma and immobility
d. Significant associated with non-traumatic cause
e. It cause acute heart failure
Answer: a
28) Cooling of the human body after death is RETARDED by the following except
a. heavy clothing
b. good ventilation with moving cold air
c. poorly ventilated surrounding
d. obesity
e. A warm atmosphere
Answer: b
29) True About carbamate:
a. Has same postmortem changes as organophosphate
b. Derived from phosphoric acid
Answer: a

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30) Two identical twins, Joshua and Ulysses go out for dinner to a restaurant. Jousha was very
hungry and ate meal of mansaf and Ulyss didn't eat anything. Later they went to bar and
split a glass of wine in half, What is the correct statement about them:
a. ulysses has high absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
b. Jousha has high absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
c. ulysses has lower absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
d. Jousha has high absorption and reaches a lower BAC peak
Answer: a

Anesthesia MiniOSCE
1) All the following are contraindications to spinal anesthesia except:
a. Septicemia.
b. Total knee replacement surgery
c. Hypovolemia.
d. Clotting disorder.
e. Patient refusal.
Answer: b

2) In the epidural anesthesia, puncture pass all except one:

a. Dura mater
b. Interspinous ligament
c. Supraspinous ligament
d. Skin
e. Ligamentous flavum
Answer: a

3) Central cyanosis occurs when:

a. presence of 5 g/d1, of deoxygenated hemoglobin
b. presence of 3 m/d1, of deoxygenated hemoglobin
c. PO2 = 80
d. O2 saturation = 90%
e. O2 saturation = 94%
Answer: a

4) Which of the following is not an amide LA:

a. Chloroprocaine.
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine
Answer: a

5) Which one is incorrect about NPO:

a. Food and drink = 8 hours
b. breast feed = 4 hours
c. Chicken soup = 2 hours
Answer: c

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6) All the following true About chronic pain except:
a. Persists longer than 6 month
b. Continue even after healed
c. Example of chronic pain migarin
d. Last only 2 weeks
e. associated with depression
Answer: d

7) According to ASA classification system, Which is false:

a. Grade 1 a patient with Moderate systemic disease
b. Grade 3 a patient with severe systemic disease that not immediate life threating, with no
incapacitating
c. Grade 4 incapacitating patient with sever systemic disease which is consider a threat to
life
d. Grade 5 a patient with end stage disease and not expected to survive within 24 hours
Answer: a

8) All of the following are true according propofol except:

a. causes postoperatively nausea and vomiting
b. Pain on injection
c. Cause profound respiratory depression
d. Decrease cerebral blood flow
Answer: a

9) All of the following Increase MAC except:

a. Hyperthyroidism
b. Hyperthermia
c. Chronic drug abuse
d. Hypothyroidism
e. Acute use of amphetamine
Answer: d

10) Wrong about MAC:

a. Halothane 0.75%.
b. Desflurane 6%.
c. Sevoflurane 3%.
d. N2O 105%.
Answer: c

11) The incorrect about sevoflurane:

a. Low blood /gas coefficient
b. Irritant
c. pleasant smell
d. MAC = 2%
Answer: b

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12) All are best site to monitor temperature, except:
a. Tympanic
b. upper third of esophagus
c. Lower third of esophagus
d. Rectum
e. Nasopharynx
Answer: b

13) All are signs of inadequate anesthesia except:

a. tachycardia
b. HTN
c. Tearing
d. sweating
e. bradycardia
Answer: e

14) Wrong about Ringer lactate:

a. Sodium 131
b. Chloride 112
c. calcium 5
d. Osmolarity 400
e. potassium 5
Answer: d

15) All signs of dehydration except:

a. Decrease skin turgor
b. decrease blood urea
c. Dry mucus membrane
d. Tachycardia
Answer: b

16) blood transfusion in a young healthy man, if he lose:

a. more than 30%
b. more than 20%
c. more than 15 %
Answer: a

17) All are effects of atropine except:

a. Mydriasis
b. meiosis
c. tachycardia
Answer: b
18) One of the following are false about local anesthesia
a. 0.1% lidocaine equal to 10 mg
b. 2% Lidocaine equal to 20 mg
c. 1 % lidocaine equal to 10 mg
Answer: a

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19) All true about ketamine except:
a. Has no analgesic effect
b. IV dose = 2 mg/kg
c. IM = 5 mg/ kg
d. analgesic dose = 0.5 mg /kg
e. metabolized by the liver
Answer: a

20) which can be used in case of Malignant hyperthermia:

a. propofol
b. Halothane
c. Isoflurane
d. sevoflurane
Answer: a

Dermatology miniOSCE
1) A streak-like linear atrophic lesion of skin caused by changes in the connective tissue, is the
definition of:
a. Lichenification
b. Fissure
c. Erosion
d. Petechia
e. Ulcer
Answer: d (Wrong Qs)

2) Choose the incorrect statement about the dermis:

a. Thicker in palms and soles
b. It supports the epidermis structurally and nutritionally
c. The main cells are fibroblasts
d. The ground substance acts as lubricant during skin movement
e. The collagen fiber in the reticular layer is finer than collagen in the dermal papillae
Answer: e

3) This bed-side test is a useful tool in the differentiation of all the

following conditions, except:
a. Erythrasma vs tinea cruris
b. Tinea corporis vs Seborrheic eczema
c. Vitiligo vs post inflammatory hypopigmentation
d. Pitryasis versicolor vs pitryasis rosea

Answer: b

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4) The best differentials for this flat brown rash over the face that
increase in summer. Your differentials mostly:
a. Freckles vs melanoma
b. Lentigo vs Freckles
c. Melasma vs post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH)
d. Freckles vs vitiligo

Answer: b

5) This chronic itchy rash presented as seen below, which is

true?

a. Mostly complicated with streptococcus infection

b. Mostly likely diagnosis is psoriasis
c. Emollient and soap detergents are sufficient for treatment
d. Diascopy test is not helpful
e. It is treated with systemic steroid
Answer: d
6) The least likely diagnosis for this raised rash of 8 months duration bilateral and generalized
over body of 20 years old male:
a. Eczema
b. psoriasis
c. Lichen planus
d. Urticaria
e. Cutaneous T cell lymphoma

Answer: d

7) A 30 years old pregnant woman has brown pigmentation on her face of 2 months duration,
she reported previous scaly red rash on the same area that preceded this brownish
discoloration. Which one of the following is correct:
a. Poor enhancement under wood's light indicates a good
prognosis
b. Lasers can be safely used to treat this condition in all patients
c. Hydroquinone cream can be safely used to treat it
d. Renal failure can cause for this condition
e. No need to treatment, it resolves spontaneously after
pregnancy

Answer: e

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8) This bed-side test is useful in which of the following
conditions:
a. Pityriasis versicolor
b. Pityriasis rosea
c. Erythema multiform
d. Scabies

Answer: c
9) This case was about a woman with an intensely itchy scalp and
recurrent impetigo of the scalp, the most likely cause of her
condition is:
a. head lice infection
b. Seborrheic eczema

Answer: a
10) This patient has this asymptomatic scaly rash all over his body with nail changes, which of
the following is false regarding this disorder:
a. Patients develop mostly post-inflammatory
hypopigmentation that last for long time.
b. Patients have a higher prevalence of the metabolic
syndrome.
c. Inverse pattern is the commonest pattern of adult psoriasis.
d. oncholysis is the second common nail changes.
e. Patients may develop erythroderma.
Answer: b
11) 25 years old patient presented with this mildly pruritic rash of 6 days duration that did
NOT disappear, raised without scales. Which is true?
a. The most common cause is streptococcus
b. Diascopy result is non blanchable
c. HPV is the most likely underlying cause
d. Vasculitis is the most likely diagnosis
e. Usually complicated by swelling around the mouth

Answer: e

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12) A 20 years old woman presents with skin colored papules for 4 months duration. Which of
the following is false?

a. Usually caused by HPV-1,2 and 4

b. Electrocautery is the first line of treatment
c. Often multiple
d. Resolve spontaneously in the healthy as the
immune response overcome
e. Painless

Answer: b
13) Regarding this female who presented with this excessive hair over her chin with irregular
cycle every 50 days, which is the most correct statement?
a. This is called hypertrichosis
b. It does not follow androgen- dependent areas
c. No need to do investigations in all cases
d. The most common cause is PSOS
Answer: D OR C (Not sure)
14) A 6 year old child presented with this scalp hair loss for 1 week duration. One of the
following can help in the diagnosis of this condition:
a. Fungal culture
b. Diascopy
c. Woods light
d. KOH smear
e. Dermatoscpe

Answer: e
15) 36 years old female presented with intensely itchy skin rash bilateral over both wrests &
hands with mouth ulceration, which of the following statement is true regarding this
condition?
a. Scalp hair can be affected in more than 70%
b. Individual lesions called target lesions
c. The diagnosis is confirmed by using wood's light
d. The nails are usually abnormal
e. Tip of diagnosis is light reflection out of shiny papules

Answer: e

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16) A 25 YO female, single, presented with this rash on her face for
2 months. All the lesions are elevated Without depth. What is
the treatment of choice?
a. Doxycycline and retinoid cream.
b. Erythromycin lotion
c. Topical retinoid only
d. oral isotretinoin

Answer: a
17) This Asian woman presented whitish discoloration all over her
body with remaining normal color of less than 10% only can be
seen on her face. which is the most correct statement?
a. Altered tyrosine metabolism is the most likely mechanism
b. The best treatment option in this condition is Monobenzyl ether
of hydroquinone 20% for the normal skin
c. Cyclosporine is very effective in this condition
d. Wood's light gives pale color
e. 25% of her offspring will have the disease as it is autosomal
recessive disorder
Answer: b
18) Case about infant with fever and known to have
atopic eczema, what is the drug that use in
management:
a. Acyclovir
b. Fusidic acid

Answer: a
19) A case of Tinea, which of following is true:
1) KOH will not be helpful in the diagnosis.
2) This is tinea cruris.
3) Wood’s light immunofluorescence would be negative
(not helpful)

Answer: c

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20) Which one about picture is the incorrect statement:
a. It is caused by HSV -1
b. It may cause encephalitis without obvious skin
lesion
c. The culture is always needed to confirm the
diagnosis

Answer: c

Radio miniOSCE
1) This is a thyroid scan with 24 hours radioiodine uptake of 28% all
are true except:
a. There is thyroid Adenoma
b. It is ablated with radioactive I131
c. This is a cold benign lesion

Answer: C

2) Child with down syndrome, what the diagnosis?

Answer: Esophageal Atresia with TE Fistula

3) The sign pointed by white arrow:

a. Football sign
b. Rigler’s sign
c. Falciform ligament

Answer: a

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4) The Part that is pointed by arrow:
a. DJJ
b. Duodenal Bulb

Answer: a

5) The diagnosis in this picture:

a. Acute pancreatitis
b. acute cholecystitis
c. Chronic pancreatitis

Answer: c

6) The diagnosis in this picture:

a. Intestine obstruction
b. acute cholecystitis
c. Chronic pancreatitis

Answer: a

7) The artery that pointed by arrow:

a. Anterior tibial artery
b. Posterior tibial artery
c. Peroneal artery
d. popliteal artery

Answer: c

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8) All are true except:
a. no stone
b. No UPJ stenosis
c. There are three normal infundibulum
d. it is nephogram

Answer: d

9) All of the following true about this picture except:

a. It more common in male
b. Smoking
c. It affects carotid artery
d. string of beads appearance

Answer: a

10) Patient Complained fever and CT appear normal, 2 months later was admitted to the
hospital complaining of fever and convulsion, the Diagnosis is:
a. Metastatic brain lesion.
b. Low grade Glioma.
c. Brain Abscess.
d. Multiple Sclerosis.
e. Acute intracerebral hematoma.

Answer: c
11) All are true except:
a. Picture A: T1 without contrast
b. Picture C : there is an enhancing lesion
c. The diagnosis may be squamous cell
carcinoma
d. Picture b: T2 shows filling defect
e. The next step do cytology

Answer: c

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12) The origin of this changes:
a. Thyroid
b. lung epithelial cell

Answer: a
13) The structures that is pointed by arrow:
a. Left pulmonary artery
b. Right pulmonary artery
c. Left pulmonary VEIN
d. Right pulmonary vein
e. Main pulmonary trunk

Answer: a
14) This structure is:
a. Common bile duct
b. Common hepatic duct
c. Duodenum
d. Pancreatic duct
e. Gallbladder

Answer: c
15) Case about child with bloody stool, what is the diagnosis?
*Same this image with X ray*
a. intussusceptions
b. Pyloric stenosis

Answer: a

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16) The structures that is pointed by red arrow:
a. Azygous vein
b. Descending Aorta

Answer: a
17) question about varicocele embolization, which of following is
correct:
a. We enter from right common femoral artery
b. It has higher recurrence than surgical treatment
c. Used to treat infertility
d. It is done under general anesthesia

Answer: c
18) Signs of settle fractures except:
a. disruption of trabecular markings
b. joint effusion.
c. Angulation
d. Cortical step sign

Answer: c
19) This fracture represent:
a. Acute avulsion fracture
b. chronic avulsion fracture

Answer: a

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20) This figure represent:
a. Fatigue fracture
b. Insufficiency fracture

Answer: a
21) This case is associated with:
a. DM
b. Gout
c. Hypertension

Answer: a
22) What's the type of calcification shown in the mammogram:
a. vascular calcification
b. Secretory calcification
c. dermal calcification

Answer: a
23) 45 year old breast mass diagnosis?
a. fibroadenoma.
b. Breast cyst.
c. Hamartoma.
d. Sebaceous cyst.
e. Fat necrosis.

Answer: b
24) Sign of malignancy here?
a. Speculated mass.
b. Containing pop corn calcifications.
c. Regular smooth border.
d. Nipple retraction.
e. Well circumscribed.

Answer: a

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25) One is false:
a. The diagnosis is Aneurysm
b. The diagnosis is Arteriovenous
Malformation
c. The procedure of treatment
was by interventional coiling of
the vascular pathology
d. It is cerebral angiography

Answer: a
26) What is the diagnosis?
a. GBM
b. Meningioma
c. Multiple sclerosis

Answer: a

27) Which is this view?

a. Mediolateral oblique
b. Craniocaudal

Answer: a
28) Regarding the kidney split function, which is
incorrect:
a. The right kidney has multiple cortical defect
b. This test is done after 2 weeks from acute
pyelonephritis
c. Right kidney has VUR
d. These scars happened several months post-
acute pyelonephritis

Answer: b

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29) What is this procedure called?
a. Barium follow through
b. Barium enema
c. Barium meal
d. Barium swallow

Answer: a
30) Which one of the following is incorrect:
a. There is liver metastasis
b. There is Lung metastasis
c. it is rectal cancer
d. There is a bladder metastasis
e. There is normal uptake by the kidney

Answer: d
31) Which one is incorrect:
a. It may be multiple myeloma
b. There are mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic lesion
c. Bone metastasis

Answer: a
32) what is the diagnosis:
a. Pneumothorax
b. Pneumopericardium
c. Pneumoperitoneum

Answer: c

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33) What is the prominent in this x-ray?
a. Rib fracture
b. Left sided pneumothorax
c. Emphysema
d. Left sided pulmonary contusion & hemorrhage
e. Splenic rupture

Answer: a
34) We used the procedure in this image to treat all of the following
except:
a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
c. Urinary bladder malignancy
d. Ureteric stones

Answer: a
35) Which one of the following is true:
a. Subdural hematoma
b. Epidural hematoma

Answer: a
36) Which is false?
a. Epidural Hemorrhage
b. Subdural Hemorrhage
c. Midline shifts to the left
d. Lateral ventricles are shifted to the left
e. Neurosurgical intervention should be performed urgently to
drain the hemorrhage

Answer: b

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37) The lesion represent by the arrow located in segment:
a. II
b. III
c. IV
d. v

Answer: a
38) Case about symptoms of stroke and ask
about the diagnosis:
a. Infraction
b. Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

Answer: a
39) The Lobe that presented by yellow color:
a. Right upper lobe
b. Left lower lobe
c. Left Upper lobe
d. Right lower lobe

Answer: c
40) Which is correct:
a. A and B are cystic lesion
b. A is solid, B is cystic
c. B is solid, A is cystic

A B
Answer: c

Done By:
‫ يم صامدي‬-
‫ ش اميء جوارنة‬-

Page | 23
 Group B
Forensic MiniOSCE
1) All are causes of negative autopsy except:
a. Peritonitis
b. DKA
c. Thyrotoxicosis
d. arrhythmia
Answer: a

2) All of the following can reduce infanticide punishment from the capital punishment
except:
a. Commission or ommission by father
b. the infant resulted from illegal relationship
c. negative effects of lactation
d. infant is less than 12 months age
e. negative effects of labor
Answer: a

3) Which method of abortion results in inflammation in GIT, urinary tract, vagina:

a. Rupture of amniotic sac
b. Dilatation of cervix
c. Suction and Curettage
d. toxic drug
Answer: d

4) A wound is complete breaching of :

a. Skin and mucous membranes
b. Bone
c. Blood Vessels
d. Muscles
Answer: a

5) Not legal cause for abortion

a. 2 doctors agree that pregnancy makes danger on the fetus
b. 2 doctors agree that pregnancy causes harm for the mother health of life
c. done in obs gyne department in a licensed hospital
d. done in a licensed hospital
e. documented for ten years
Answer: a

6) Nontraumatic cause of Acute alcoholic death:

a. Brain stem depression
b. DKA
c. RTA

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 d. Hyperthermia
e. Wet Berberi
Answer: a

7) Fibrofatty change right ventricle on biopsy;

a. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy
b. aging process
c. viral infection of right ventricle
Answer: a

8) Case about 2 identical twins, one has BAC of 200 and the other has a BAC of 70. Which of
the following is correct:
a. diseased liver in the one with higher BAC
b. bypass surgery in the one with low BAC
c. the one with high BAC ate a meal with alcohol
d. the one with low BAC drank a carbonated beverage with alcohol
Answer: a

9) Complete rigor mortis is examined by :

a. closing the eyelids
b. flexion of thigh and legs
c. Opening the lower jaw
d. flexion of forearm on elbow
Answer: b

10) Not considered a manner of death

a. coma
b. natural
c. accidental
d. suicidal
Answer: a

11) Which one is caused by dehydration of the autopsy:

a. putrefaction
b. mumifacation
c. maceration
Answer: b

12) Cellular death is:

a. death of individual cells and tissues
b. cessation of cardiopulmonary functions
Answer: a

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13) All can cause death by vagal inhibition except:
a. cafe coronary
b. CO poisoning
c. sudden dipping in cold water
d. mugging
Answer: b

14) All can be referred to forensic department except:

a. burn
b. fall from height
c. preterm normal delivery
d. sexual abuse
Answer: c

15) Best fluid to determine the postmortem interval:

a. blood
b. CSF
c. vitreous humor
d. pericardial fluid
Answer: c

16) Second most common cause of death in child abuse:

a. Multiple bone fracture
b. visceral injury
c. intracranial hemorrhage
Answer: b

17) Berry aneurysm causes which type of hemorrhage:

a. subarachnoid
b. extradural
c. subdural
Answer: a

18) Which type of hemorrhage in SBS:

a. subdural
b. epidural
c. subarachnoid
Answer: a
19) Which is a sign of failure of atropinization:
a. tachycardia
b. wet axilla
c. BP 110/90
d. HR 90
e. clear lungs
Answer: b

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20) Regarding firearm entry wound, which is true?
a. everted
b. inner table of skull is beveled
c. bleeds more than exit wound
Answer: b

21) Death with no known past medical history or with a disease that doesn't explain death
- Natural unexpected death

22) Which of the following is not a nicotinic effect of organophosphates:

a. Tachypnea
b. Mydriasis
c. bradycardia
Answer: c

23) Long case, which of the following is wrong about wounds:

a. defense wounds are found on the victim
b. suicidal wound is single and deep
Answer: b

24) Wrong statement about causes of sudden natural death:

a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a common cause of death in young athletes
b. brain edema is an important diagnostic sign for epilepsy
c. Crib death occurs in children of age less than a year
d. Can result from atherosclerosis plaque rupture
Answer: b

(Note: crib death = SIDS)

25) Long case, found mutiple bruises and neck scratches that are multiple and parallel, which
of the following is most accurate:
a. the bruises and scratches indicate that he was in a quarrel with another male
b. multiple bruises indicate road traffic accident RTA
c. scratches indicate that it is mostly not accidental
Answer: c

26) Wrong about suicidal wounds:

a. there will be a stab wound in neck
b. there are usually multiple wounds
c. mostly on throat or wrists
Answer: a

27) Tattooing is caused by:

a. hot gases
b. projectile

Page | 27
 c. smoke
d. gunpowder
Answer: d

28) Long case, multiple stabs in chest with different shape, depth and orientation, some are
spindle and others are wedge in shape, which is most accurate:
a. The criminal must have used two different weapons
b. May be from one criminal with one knife
c. There must have been two criminals
Answer: b

(Note: the first choice is wrong because it is not a must)

29) Women died from abortion with bronze color and enlarged spleen, the causative agent is:
a. Clostridial septicemia
b. staph aureus
Answer: a

30) Umbilical cord is used in forensics to

a. Estimate the age of the infant
b. know the time of death
c. know if stillborn or live born
Answer: a

Anesthesia MiniOSCE

1) All are true about halothane except:

a. Poorly lipid soluble
b. Contains bromine
c. MAC = 0.75%
d. 20% metabolized by oxidative pathway in the liver
Answer: a

2) All are advantages of spinal anesthesia except:

a. Minimal cost
b. Contraction of the sphincters while relaxation of bowel
c. Bowel is contracted and sphincters are relaxed
d. Increased splanchnic blood flow.
e. Less bleeding
Answer: b

3) False about Ringer’s lactate:

a. Chloride 112 mEq/L
b. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
c. Calcium 1.8 mEq/L

Page | 28
 d. Sodium 131 mEq/L
e. Osmolality 281 mOsm/kg
Answer: e (C is correct, see the slides for the correct values)

4) All increase ETCO2 except:

a. Hyperthermia
b. Hypoventilation
c. Amniotic fluid embolism
d. Rebreathing
Answer: c

5) All decrease ETCO2 except:

a. Hypothermia
b. Hyperventilation
c. Pulmonary embolism
d. Release of the tourniquet
Answer: d

6) All of the following are complications of N2O except:

a. Anti-emetic effect
b. Folate dificiency
c. B12 dificiency
d. Second gas effect
e. Diffusion hypoxia
Answer: a

7) All are true about fentanyl except:

a. 100 times potent than morphine
b. Peak effect in 5 minutes
c. Causes respiratory depression
d. Causes tachycardia
Answer: d

8) Which of the following increases MAC:

a. Female gender
b. Increased temperature
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Metabolic acidosis
e. Hyperkalemia
Answer: b

9) Which is the incorrect dose:

a. Ketamine: 2 mg/kg IV
b. Propofol 2.5-3 mg/kg
c. Ketamine: 5 mg/kg IM

Page | 29
 d. Thiopental 3-5 mg/kg
e. Ketamine subanesthetic level: 4 mg/kg
Answer: e

10) Incorrect about NPO:

a. Breast milk: 4 hrs
b. Clear juice: 2 hrs
c. Meal includes meat: 8 hrs
d. Infant formula milk: 4 hrs
Answer: d

11) According to ASA classification system, which of the following is wrong:

a. Class II: a patient with mild systemic disease
b. Class III: a patient with severe systemic disease
c. Class IV: a patient with severe systemic disease which is consider a threat to life
d. Class I: a patient with moderate systemic disease
e. Class V: a patient with end stage disease and not expected to survive within 24 hours
Answer: d

12) All are complications of massive blood transfusion except:

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypothermia
d. Hypocalcemia
Answer: a

13) All are properties of the ideal anesthetic agent except:

a. No venous sequelae
b. No pain upon injection
c. No emetic effect
d. Potentiates effect of muscle relaxants
e. No toxic effect on other organs
Answer: d

14) All cause right shift except:

a. High altitude
b. Hyperthermia
c. Acidosis
d. Methemoglobinemia
Answer: d
15) All are correct about central cyanosis except:
a. Presence of 5gm/dl of deoxygenated hemoglobin
b. Color similar to methemoglobinemia
c. Occurs when O2 sat is less than 90%
Answer: c

Page | 30
16) One of the following is false about lidocaine:
a. 0.1% lidocaine is equal to 10 mg
b. 2.5% lidocaine is equal to 25 mg
c. 10% lidocaine is equal to 100 mg
Answer: a

17) All are properties of atropine except:

a. Doesn't cross BBB
b. Causes bradycardia then tachycardia
c. Mydriasis
d. Reduce lacrimal secretions
e. Causes post-op confusion
Answer: a

18) Which of the following is not an amide LA:

a. Chloroprocaine
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine
Answer: a

19) All are characteristics of general anesthesia except:

a. Intact upper airway reflexes
b. Gag reflex absent
c. Comatose
d. Risk of aspiration
Answer: a

20) All of the following are true except:

a. Biphasic AED maximum is 360J
b. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest
c. Brain damage occurs 4-6 minutes after cardiac arrest
d. In a biphasic waveform, the current initially flows in one direction then reverses.
e. Loss of consciousness occurs after 15 seconds of cardiac arrest.
Answer: a

Dermatology MiniOSCE

1) Which one is not a characteristic of this cell?

a. neural crest derived
b. Antigen presenting
c. Sun protection

Answer: b

Page | 31
2) What is not considered a cause of this lesion?
a. Hyperlipidemia
b. Eczema
c. Scabies
d. Diabetes
e. Insect Bite

Answer: a

3) Patient with psoriasis on 12% of his body, which one is not

used?
a. methotrexate
b. hydroxychloroquine
c. cyclosporine
d. acitretin
e. UV
Answer: b

4) What is DOC?
a. H1 antihistamine
b. H2 antihistamine

Answer: a
nd
Explanation: H1 is used but 2 generation, H2 receptors are in the stomach

5) Coral pink is caused by?

a. Erythasma
b. Tinea capitis
c. Carbuncle

Answer: a

Page | 32
6) What is the treatment?
a. Adapaline
b. Fusidic Acid
c. Mucoporin

Answer: a

7) Which of the following is false?

a. antibody titer is not increased in recurrence
b. Systemic acyclovir eradicates causative agent
c. Erythema multiforme seen with recurrence

Answer: b

8) Which one is wrong? (not exact picture)

a. can be acrofacial
b. Tzank smear from the center may show multinucleate
giant cell
c. can be recurrent

Answer: b
Explanation: it becomes a correct statement if it is caused by HSV, but here it’s wrong “from
doctor”

9) picture of alopecia, which doesn't indicate poor prognosis?

a. atopy
b. down syndrome
c. exclamation mark
d. ophiasiform type
e. thyroid disease

Answer: c

Page | 33
10) Which is wrong?
a. precipitated by trauma or sunburn
b. majority associated with positive family history
c. usually after second decade

Answer: b

11) Which test is indicated for this case?

a. KOH Test
b. Wood’s light
c. Dermatoscopy

Answer: a
12) Which is a mismatch?
a. plaque = depth
b. erosion = partial loss of epidermis
c. vesicle = fluid filled
d. patch = more than 5 mm
Answer: a

13) Bilateral itchy scaly lesion

with oral ulceration, what
is not a characteristic of
this case?
a. hyperkeratosis
b. colloid body
c. Parakeratosis

Answer: c

Page | 34
14) picture of hirsutism, which doesn't indicate
investigations?
a. breast atrophy
b. oligomenorrhea
c. positive family history

Answer: c

15) Which one is correct regarding the following case?

a. inflammation of subcutaneous fat
b. management by removal of underlying cause and
immunosuppressant
c. doppler ultrasound
d. urine analysis

Answer: a
16) Which one is wrong about psoriasis?
a. causes scarring alopecia
b. well defined
c. 5-10% complain of arthritis
Answer: a

17) What is used for management? (not exact picture)

a. salicylic acid
b. topical retinoid
c. cryotherapy

Answer: b
Explanation: (because salicylic acid is not used on the face)

18) Which one is wrong?

a. increase number of melanocytes
b. sun protection is mandatory

Answer: a

Page | 35
19) Which one is not in the pathogenesis of acne?
a. Oily creams
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Propioni bacterium
d. Poral occlusion
Answer: b
20) In scabies, which is correct? PYQ
a. indefinite if left untreated
Answer: a

Radiology MiniOSCE

1) The type of this fracture is:

a. Transverse
b. Linear
c. Spiral/comminuted

ANS: C

2) Which one of the following is incorrect:

a. There is liver metastasis
b. There is Lung metastasis
c. it is rectal cancer
d. There is a bladder metastasis
e. There is normal uptake by the kidney

ANS: D

3) This liver abscess is located in which segment:

a. 7
b. 8
c. 4b
d. 3

ANS: B

Page | 36
4) In this case, what is the next step:
a. CT
b. MRI
c. send patient home
d. Ultrasound
e. casting

ANS: A

5) All of the following are true regarding TIPSS except:

a. The shunt connects between the portal vein and the hepatic vein
b. It can't be done in patients with hepatic vein thrombosis
c. The shunt connects between the portal vein and the inferior vena
cava
d. Indicated for patients having large esophageal varices

ANS: B (from the doctor)

6) Regarding this case, all are true except:

a. This imaging is called MRCP
b. contrast is needed
c. The duodenum is shown in the image
d. There is a stone in the common bile duct
e. The next step is ERCP

ANS: B

7) Which view is this:

a. mediolateral oblique
b. Craniocaudal

ANS: B

Page | 37
8) What is the name of this calcification?
a. Vascular
b. Secretory
c. Popcorn
d. Eggshell

ANS: C

9) Regarding this PET/CT scan, which is wrong:

a. There are mixed osteolytic and osteoblastic lesion
b. It can be multiple myeloma
c. Bone metastasis

ANS: B

10) What is the name of this calcification:

a. Vascular
b. Secretory
c. Polymorphic microcalcifications
d. Eggshell

ANS: C

11) What is the structure labeled:

a. common bile duct
b. Portal vein
c. Pancreas
d. Right hepatic vein

ANS: B

Page | 38
12) Which is the diagnosis in this case:

ANS: Renal cell carcinoma with left para-aortic lymphadenopathy.

13) What are the views of these

radiographs:
a. AP & left lateral decubitus
b. PA & left lateral decubitus
c. AP & right lateral decubitus

ANS: C

14) According to BIRADS score, this lesion is classified as:

a. Category 1
b. Category 2
c. Category 3
d. Category 4
e. Category 5

ANS: E

15) Which lobe is the colored yellow:

ANS: Left upper lobe

Page | 39
16) What is the diagnosis:
a. intussusception
b. inguinal hernia
c. necrotizing enterocolitis

ANS: B

17) Which of the following pairs match with this radiograph:

a. Corkscrew sign - midgut volvulus
b. Caterpillar sign - hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
c. Reversed rectosigmoid ratio - Hirschprung’s disease
d. Bird’s beak sign - Esophageal achalasia

ANS: A

18) This is a thyroid scan with 24 hours radioiodine uptake of 30%.

Which is correct:
a. It is a cold nodule
b. It's a thyroid toxic adenoma
c. It can be ablated by I-123

ANS: B

19) Which part is the red arrow:

ANS: aortic knuckle

20) Which part is the blue arrow:

ANS: cardiophrenic angle

Page | 40
21) What is the diagnosis:
a. acute cholecystitis
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Colon cancer

ANS: A

22) Which of these can NOT be done by percutaneous liver

interventions:
a. Breakdown and extraction of gallstones
b. Inserting a metallic stent
c. Taking biopsy from the common bile duct
d. Drain the bile
e. inserting a T-tube

ANS: E

23) Which part is number 4:

a. Greater tuberousity
b. Lesser tuberousity
c. Acromion process
d. Coracoid process

ANS: B

24) What is the diagnosis:

a. Epidural hemorrhage
b. Subdural hemorrhage
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. Pneumocephalus

ANS: B

Page | 41
25) Regarding the kidney split function, which is incorrect
a. the right kidney has multiple cortical defects
b. This test must be done 2 days after acute
pyelonephritis
c. The right kidney may have VUR
d. These scars happened several months after acute
pyelonephritis

ANS: B

26) What is the finding:

a. Cytotoxic edema
b. Glioblastoma multiforme
c. Subdural hemorrhage

ANS: A

27) What is the diagnosis:

a. Cytotoxic edema
b. Glioblastoma multiforme
c. Subdural hemorrhage

ANS: B

28) Regarding this image, which of the following is wrong:

a. Lateral ventricles are shifted to the left
b. It can be caused by trauma
c. surgical intervention should be performed urgently
d. this is a left meningeoma

ANS: D

Page | 42
29) Which of the following is incorrect:
a. The fluid in the stomach is seen
b. The first picture shows hamburger sign
c. The gallbladder and liver are seen
d. This is a hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

ANS: B

30) Which of the following is correct:

a. the image (A) is T2-weighted MRI
b. the image (B) is T1-weighted MRI
c. The mass is not enhancing in (C)
d. Can be a transitional cell carcinoma

ANS: D

31) All are correct except:

a. This is a pyelogram
b. No filling defects present
c. There are three infundibula
d. There is PUJ stenosis

ANS: D

32) All of the following are true except:

a. Can be dilated by angioplasty
b. The artery is acutely closed due to presence of collaterals
c. Can be treated by inserting a stent

ANS: B

33) Which of the following is seen here:

a. Osteoarthritis
b. Chondrocalcification
c. Tophi

ANS: B

Page | 43
34) What is this sign called:

ANS: Air bronchogram

35) All of the following are correct except:

a. obstruction of A is mainly caused by pelvic
inflammatory disease
b. The part (E) is the site of fertilization
c. This procedure is best done on day 10 of
menstruation
d. The commonest indication for this test is infertility
e. The part (B) is the ampulla

ANS: E (from the doctor)

36) All of the following are true except:

a. Bowel loops are seen herniated into the left hemithorax
b. The heart and mediastinum are shifted to the right side
c. The left lung is hypoplastic
d. The gastric bubble is normally located
e. The baby is intubated

ANS: D

37) All are true except:

a. The diagnosis is Arteriovenous malformation
b. The procedure of treatment was by interventional
coiling of the vascular pathology.
c. The diagnosis is brain aneurysm
d. The imaging method is cerebral angiography.

ANS: C

Page | 44
38) What is the diagnosis:
a. Abscess
b. Infarction
c. Hemorrhage

ANS: B

39) All of the following are true about IVC filter except:
a. Indicated when pulmonary
embolism occurs despite taking
anticoagulants
b. can be used regardless of the
diameter of the IVC
c. Can be inserted through jugular,
subclavian, or femoral veins
d. Can be removed
e. Deployed below the level of renal veins
ANS: B

40) What is shown here:

a. Pneumothorax
b. pneumoperitoneum
c. Pneumopericardium

ANS: B

Done By:
‫ محمد ش ناعة‬-
‫ محمد أمين النجار‬-

Group A
Forensic MiniOSCE
1) One statement is FALSE concerning postural (positional) asphyxia:
a. the victim shows asphyxial changes
b. the cough reflex is suppressed
c. the victim is often intoxicated
d. mechanism of death is by reflex cardiac arrest

Page | 45
 e. the victim is often epileptic
Answer: D
2) A 55-year-old man has a history of diabetes mellitus, type II. He has the sudden onset of
severe chest pain and is admitted to the hospital. Vital signs reveal temperature 36.9 C,
pulse 88/minute, respirations 23/minute, and blood pressure 155/110 mm Hg. A chest
radiograph reveals widening of the mediastinum. An angiogram reveals a tear of the
proximal aorta. He is taken to surgery, and a hemopericardium is evacuated, but then he
dies during the operative procedure. Which of the following is the most appropriate as the
immediate cause of death given on the death certificate of this man?
a. Cardiopulmonary arrest
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Aortic dissection
d. Hypertension
e. Operation misadventure
Answer: C
3) A patient died suddenly and unexpectedly within six hours of admission to the hospital. At
autopsy the external surface of brain shows exudates obscuring the sulci. Which of the
following statements on the death certificate is the most appropriate?
a. Heat stroke
b. Meningitis
c. Pulmonary tuberculosis
d. Accidental
Answer: B
4) One statement is TRUE in manual strangulation:
a. It is often homicidal
b. Trace marks are rarely seen
c. Female are seldom assaulted
d. Is usually motiveless
e. The laryngeal skeleton is rarely seen
Answer: A
5) All of the following are medico-legal facilities except:
a. CO poisoning
b. Suicide
c. Metastatic cancer
d. Drowning
e. Burns
Answer: C
6) All of the following are examples of tangential abrasion except:
a. Getting bite from your sibling
b. Sliding into the floor with your bare knee
c. Get injured when you flip the book pages
d. You get injured by the thorn of flower
Answer: A
7) All are signs of Battered child syndrome except:
a. Bruising

Page | 46
 b. Burn mark
c. Bite mark
d. Stab wound
Answer: D
8) One is FALSE in cadaveric spasm:
a. it occurs immediately after death
b. often following a last voluntary act performed under mental status
c. usually seen in hands
d. is a form of rigor mortis
e. localized to a group of muscles
Answer: A
9) Before examining the body of a cadaver, one should identify:
a. The police officer
b. The relative
Answer: B
10) Grease collar of the skin in a firearm injury is due to?
a. Propellant
b. smoke
c. plastic wad
d. soot
e. sooty bullet
Answer: E
11) All of the following are muscuranic effect of organophosphate except:
a. Meiosis
b. Bradycardia
c. Increased salivation
d. Diaphragmatic failure
e. Bronchospasm
Answer: D
12) One of the following is NOT a non- accidental injury:
a. Multiple bruises of different ages
b. Burn clearly demarcated above the level of the knee
c. Tibia fracture
d. Hair pulling mark
Answer: C

13) All of the following can be used to measure alcohol level post-mortem except:
a. Blood test
b. Breath test
c. Urine test
d. Vitreous humerus fluid
e. All of the following can be used
Answer: B

Page | 47
14) A 10- year-old child comes to ER complaining of sever right flank pain. He has accidentally
ingested antifreez, what's the proper management?
a. Ethanol, sodium bicarbonate, leucovorin calcium
b. Ethanol, fomepizole, calcium salt
c. Ethanol, sodium bicarbonate, calcium salt
Answer: C
15) All of the following are acts of omission in infanticide except:
a. Failure to tie the cord
b. Drowning
c. Blunt head injury
d. Burning or poisoning
Answer: A
16) All of the following can produce patterned bruises except:
a. Smooth rock
b. Weaved rope
c. Radiated grid
d. Motor wheels
Answer: A
17) All of the following can be caused by firearm projectile except:
a. crushing
b. yawing
c. soiling
d. stretching
Answer: C
18) All of the following are true regarding senile heart except:
a. The myocardium is soft and brown
b. There is heart atrophy
c. Occurs in 50-60 years old individuals
d. Lipofuscin accumulation
e. Causes sudden death with no specific lesion
Answer: C
19) Rupture of myocardial infarction starts to occur:
a. After 6 hours
b. After Third day
c. After one month
d. After 2 weeks
Answer: B

20) Stiffening of the muscles caused by depletion of ATP after death?

a. Algor mortis
b. Rigor mortis
c. Liver mortis
d. Pallor mortis
e. Adiopocere

Page | 48
 Answer: B
21) Post-mortem stating differs from bruises in all of the following except:
a. Extravasation of blood
b. Clearly defined margins
c. Blanchable
Answer: A
22) One of the following is true regarding bruises?
a. Love Bites does not necessarily indicate sexual abuse
b. Subcutaneous bruise is sharply defined
c. Tram-lined bruises are an example of shifting bruise
d. extravasation of blood from damaged large blood vessels
e. Starts to heal from the center
Answer: A
23) All of the following are complications of abortion EXCEPT:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Amniotic fluid embolism
c. Hemorrhage
d. Primary infertility
Answer: D
24) The green discoloration in marbling caused by:
a. Carboxyhemoglobin
b. Sulfahemoglobin
c. Bilirubin
d. Biliverdin
Answer: B
25) What is the meaning of incest?
a. Intercourse with a first degree relative
b. Intercourse with a friend
c. Intercourse with children
d. Intercourse with a married woman
Answer: A
26) What is the definition of typical hanging?
a. The knot is found on the occiput.
b. The knot is found anywhere other than occiput.
c. The feet or knees clear of the floor.
d. The feet or knees touches the ground.
e. Liver mortis found in lower extremities.
Answer: A
27) You are writing a report about domestic violence. The man stated that his wife hit him on
the head with the handle of a broom. Upon examining his head, there was longitudinal cut
and there was tenderness around it with minimal bleeding, but no black eyes, or hair loss.
What is correct?
a. It is not a wound since the instrument used is not sharp.
b. It is a wound since there is tenderness.
c. It is not a wound because there is no hair loss.

Page | 49
 d. It is not a wound since there is bleeding with no black eyes.
e. Cannot determined from the given information.
Answer: E
28) You are writing a forensic report about a quarrel. The prosecutor has a facial wound. The
prosecutor claims that the instrument used was a blade, while the assailant argues it was a
metal rod. You are asked to determine which one is correct?
a. The prosecutor is correct if the wound ends by a scratch
Answer: A
29) Two patients come to the ER, claiming they have been exposed to organophosphates.
Upon examination, the first patient has meiosis, while the second patient has mydriasis.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The first patient has inhaled organophosphates, while the second has ingested them.
b. The first patient does not have organophosphate toxicity.
c. The second patient does not have organophosphate toxicity.
d. The second patient was exposed to organophosphates earlier than the first one.
e. The first patient has organophosphate toxicity, while the second has carbamate toxicity
Answer: D
30) Two identical twins, Joshua and Ulysses go out for dinner to a restaurant. Jousha was very
hungry and ate meal of mansaf and Ulyss didn't eat anything later they went to bar and
split a glass of wine in half, What is the correct statement about them:
a. ulysses has high absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
b. Jousha has high absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
c. ulysses has lower absorption and reaches a higher BAC peak
d. Jousha has high absorption and reaches a lower BAC peak
Answer: A
Anesthesia MiniOSCE
1) All the following are contraindications to spinal anesthesia except:
a. Septicemia.
b. DM patient
c. Hypovolemia.
d. Clotting disorder.
e. Patient refusal.
Answer: B
2) All of the following decrease ICP except:
a. Ketamine
b. Mannitol
c. Hyperventilation
d. Propofol
e. Sodium Thiopental
Answer: A
3) All of the following are indications for inhalational anesthesia except:
a. Bronchopleural fistula
b. Partial upper airway obstruction (epiglottitis)
c. Lower airway obstruction with foreign body
d. IV cannulated co-operative adult patient

Page | 50
 e. Young children
Answer: D

4) One of the following is most likely associated with hepatitis:

a. Halothane
b. Enflurane
c. Isoflurane
d. Methoxylflurane
Answer: A
5) One of the following is wrong regarding sodium THIOPENTAL:
a. It decreases ICP
b. It can be safely used in porphyria
c. It is a yellow powder with Sulphuric acid
d. Sodium thiopental has an anti-analgesic effect
Answer: B
6) Which of the following is not an amide LA?
a. Procaine.
b. Lidocaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Prilocaine
e. Mepivacaine
Answer: A
7) One of the following is an early sign of LA toxicity:
a. Circumoral numbness
b. Cardiac instability
c. Seizures
d. Loss of consciousness
Answer: A
8) All of the following muscles adduct vocal cord except:
a. Posterior cricoarytenoid
b. Lateral cricoarytenoid
c. Thyroarytenoid
d. transverse Arytenoid
e. Oblique Arytenoid
Answer: A
9) All of the following are true regarding Glycopyrrolate except:
a. Does not cross BBB
b. Has longer duration of action than atropine.
c. Causes less confusion than atropine
d. Causes more tachycardia than atropine
e. Causes less tachycardia than atropine
Answer: D
10) One of the following drug can be used in malignant hyperthermia:
a. Propofol
b. Halothan

Page | 51
 c. Enfularane
Answer: A
11) One of the following is incorrect about sevoflurane:
a. Low blood /gas coefficient
b. Irritant
c. pleasant smell
d. MAC = 2%
Answer: B
12) One of the is wrong about MAC:
a. Halothane %0.75
b. Desflurane %3
c. Sevoflurane %2
d. N2O 105%
e. Isoflurane 1.16%
Answer: B
13) One of the following is wrong about nitrous oxide:
a. Its MAC 105%
b. It is a non-analgesic agent
c. It can diffuse into closed spaces
d. It can produce second gas effect
Answer: B
14) All of the following are correct regarding spinal anesthesia except:
a. Can cause headache
b. Patient refusal is an absolute contraindication
c. injection of small amounts of LA into the CSF at level below the L2
d. injection of small amounts of LA into the CSF at level above the L1
e. Can cause hypotension
Answer: D
15) The daily fluid requirement for a 50 kg patient is:
a. 1500 ml/ day
b. 2500ml / day
c. 2100ml / day
d. 3100ml /day
e. 3500ml/day
Answer: C
16) One of the following can affect MAC:
a. Hypothermia
b. Gender
c. Hyperkalemia
d. Hypertension
Answer: A
17) In all of the following we do ECG preoperatively except:
a. Patient with ischemic heart disease
b. A 40-year-old diabetic patient
c. A 50-year-old male

Page | 52
 d. A 20-year-old fit male
Answer: D
18) One of the following is wrong about ketamine:
a. It decreases the blood pressure.
b. It is a phencyclidine.
c. It’s a DISSOCIATIVE anesthetic agent.
Answer: A
19) All are signs of dehydration except:
a. Poor skin turgor and elasticity
b. Decreased blood urea
c. Dry mucus membrane
d. Tachycardia
Answer: B
20) All of the following are characteristics of ideal IV anesthesthatic EXCEPT:
a. High lipid solubility
b. High water solubility
c. No pain on injection
Answer: B

Dermatology MiniOSCE
1) One of the following is wrong:
a. A vesicle is a circumscribed elevation of skin, more than 0.5 cm in diameter, and
containing fluid.
b. Stria is a streak-like linear atrophic pink, purple or white lesion of the skin caused by
changes in the connective tissue.
c. Erosions and ulcers are secondary lesions.
d. Plaque is a small solid elevation of skin, less than 0.5 cm in diameter without depth.
Answer: A
2) One of the following is false about Merkel cell:
a. Dendritic cell.
b. Contains neurosecretory granules.
c. Lies in or near the basal layer.
d. Act as transducer for fine touch.
Answer: A
3) One of the following is wrong:
a. It is a harmless device. It uses short wavelength
ultraviolet light type B.
b. Microsporum species produce blue-green
fluorescence.
c. Porphyria produces red-pink fluorescence.
d. Erythrasma produces coral pink fluorescence.

Answer: A

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4) All the following are topical agents for acne treatment except:
a. Benzoyl benzoate.
b. Topical clindamycin.
c. Salicylic acid.
d. Adapalene.
Answer: A
5) When is it not important to investigate regarding this
picture:
a. Sudden onset of hirsutism.
b. Onset in childhood.
c. Patient with Oligomenorrhea and breast atrophy.
d. Strong positive family history.

Answer: D

6) All the following are causes of localized alopecia except:

a. Androgenetic alopecia.
b. Sarcoidosis.
c. Lupus erythematosus.
Answer: A
7) All the following are causes of physical urticaria except
a. Cold.
b. Heat.
c. Delayed pressure.
d. Solar.
e. Autoimmune.
Answer: E

8) What is the diagnosis?

Answer: Erythema Multiforme.

9) All the following can cause erythema nodosum except:

a. Chlamydia.
b. Staphylococcus.
c. Streptococcus.
d. Malignancy.
e. Pregnancy.
Answer: B

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10) The most important investigation to be done:
a. Chest x-ray.
b. Urine analysis.
c. Liver function test.

Answer: B
11) The pathogenesis of vitiligo is:
a. Autoimmune destruction of melanocyte.
b. Increased melanin production by melanocyte.
c. Congenital loss of melanocytes.
d. Increased number of melanocyte dendrites.
Answer: A

12) A 7-year-old female comes with this skin rash. One

is true:
a. Is treatable with antihistamines.
b. More common in boys.
c. Causes white dermographism.
d. Inherited in a simple Mendelian manner.
e. Pimercolimus is the first line therapy.
Answer: C

13) One of the following is wrong:

a. In seborrheic eczema the scalp appears less
lumpy, and the alopecia is more diffuse.
b. A child with one parent affected has a 50%
chance of developing the disease.
c. The most likely diagnosis is scalp psoriasis.

Answer: B

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14) One of the following is true:
a. Griseofulvin is the drug of choice for
Trichophyton and Microsporum species. It is
typically used for 6-8 weeks continuously.
b. Terbinafine is fungistatic antifungal and
interferes with CP450.
c. It causes non-scarring alopecia.
d. We do swab for bacterial culture.
e. Imidazole cream can be used for the
treatment.
Answer: A

15) Which of the following tests aid in the diagnosis?

a. KOH preparation of scale.
b. Patch test.
c. Prick test.
d. Gram Stain.
e. Bacteria culture.

Answer: A

16) One of the following is wrong

a. An adult female louse lives for about 1 week and
during that time lays 5– 10 eggs per day.
b. Typical infested scalp will carry about 10 adult lice,
which measure 1–3 mm in length.
c. Dimeticone is non-neurotoxic agent. It is rubbed
into dry hair and scalp and left for 8 hours then
repeated 1 week later.
d. A systemic antibiotic can be used in secondary
bacterial infection.
e. Lice are flattened wingless insects that suck blood.
Answer: A

17) One of the following is wrong about viral warts:

a. Condyloma lata refers to the anogenital warts caused by HPV.
b. Seventy per cent of patients with renal transplants will develop wart in the next 5 years.
c. Presence of genital wart in child should raise the suspicion of sexual assault.
d. HPV 16 & HPV 18 cause anogenital warts.
e. Tretinoin gel can be used in the treatment of plane warts.
Answer: A

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18) Which of the following is used for the treatment of this
condition?
a. Famciclovir.
b. Prednisolone.

Answer: A

19) One of the following is wrong:

a. The nails abnormal in about 90% of patients show
changes ranging from fine longitudinal grooves to
destruction of the entire nail fold and bed.
b. The ulcerative form of lichen planus in the mouth
may lead to squamous cell carcinoma.
c. The hypertrophic variant of the disease, with thick
warty lesions usually around the ankles lasts for
many years.
d. The histology is very distinctive.
Answer: A

20) This patient is at increasing risk of developing:

a. SCC.
b. Vasculitis.
c. Blepharitis.

Answer: C

Radiology MiniOSCE
1) Patient present to emergency room with abdominal pain and vomiting. One is false:
a. Barium follow through is relative contraindication.
b. Colon is collapsed.
c. Patient is in supine position.
d. No evidence of perforation on this radiograph.

Answer: C

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2) What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Pulmonary effusion of the right side.
b. Pulmonary edema of the right side.
c. Pulmonary effusion of the left side.
d. Pulmonary embolism.

Answer: A
3) All the following are true regarding IVU image except:
a. Moderate hydronephrosis.
b. No stone or filling defect.
c. Infundibula are normal.
d. About 5-15 min film (secretory phase).

Answer: C

4) A 60-year-old male patient came to emergency unit complaining of right sided weakness,
MRI brain scan was with Gd contrast enhancement done as shown below:
a. Left sided meningioma.
b. Global brain hypoxic change.
c. Left frontoparietal subacute infarction.
d. Right frontoparietal subdural hematoma.
e. Right glioblastoma multiforme.
Answer: A

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5) Regarding the provided image. One is false:

Answer: Images are acquired as T2 images

6) A 50-year-old male patient was complaining of fever and neck stiffness, CT scan was
performed and was normal, after 3 months the patient has high grade fever. Regarding
that, which is false?
a. There is no marked shifting of midline to the opposite side.
b. The diagnosis is low grade glioma.
c. There is a wall enhancing lesion surrounded by edema.
d. The type of edema is vasogenic edema.
e. The diagnosis is brain abscess.
Answer: B

7) What is the name of the following calcifications?

a. Secretory.
b. Linear and branching.
c. Egg shell.
d. Amorphous.
e. Vascular.

Answer: B

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8) What is the diagnosis?
a. Ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.
b. Pneumoperitoneum.
c. Ruptured popliteal artery aneurysm.
d. Pneumatosis intestinal.
e. Ruptured thoracic aortic aneurysm.

Answer: A
9) This is PET/CT for a 50-year-old female with difficulty swallowing. Which is wrong:
a. There is liver metastasis.
b. There is brain metastasis.
Answer: B (Image Not Found)

10) What is the least likely diagnosis?

a. Terrible lymphoma.
b. Thyroid ca.
c. Fibrous dysplasia.
d. Teratoma.
e. Thymoma.

Answer: C
11) All the following are true regarding this study except?
a. The part labeled b is the isthmus of left tube.
b. This is study is usually done at day 15 of the
menstrual cycle.
c. Fertilization usually occurs at the portion labeled E.
d. Obstruction at level label d can be treated by
fallopian tube Recanalization (ftr).
e. Obstruction at level label c is usually caused by pelvic
inflammatory disease.

Answer: A

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12) What is the diagnosis:
a. Acute appendicitis
b. Mediastinitis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Cholecystitis
e. Acute diverticulitis

Answer: A

13) All the following correct except one:

a. Could be metastatic breast cancer.
b. There are multiple mixed osteoblastic/lytic bone Lesion.

Answer: B

14) What is the BIRAD score of this mammogram?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 4
e. 1

Answer: A

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15) Name the labeled structure:
a. Radial head neck.
b. Lateral humeral epicondyle.
c. Medial humeral epicondyle.
d. Ulnar coronoid process.

Answer: A
16) The White arrow represents:
a. Hepatic flexure with the gas foci intermixed
with contrast.
b. The right ureter, which appears dilated and
tortuous.
c. Contrast in the stomach.
d. Reflex of contrast into the ileal loop with
multiple feeling defect.

Answer: D

17) One is false:

a. Image B is t2 weighted.
b. Image c shows tumor enhancement.
c. The most likely diagnosis is Transitional cell
carcinoma.
d. The most likely diagnosis is benign prostatic
hyperplasia images.
e. Image a is axial T1.

Answer: D

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18) One is False:
a. Extra articular
b. FOOSH
c. Usually with osteoporosis
d. Ventral angulation

Answer: D

19) One of the following is false:

a. The diagnosis is arteriovenous
malformation (AVM).
b. The arterial system in the image below is
vertebra-basilar artery.
c. The modality of treatment is
Interventional coiling.
d. The exam is cerebral angiography (DSA).

Answer: A
20) Name the sign labeled with white arrows:
a. Hamburger sign
b. Rigler sign
c. Caterpillar sign
d. Falciform ligament sign

Answer: B

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21) A patient presented with abdominal pain and underwent non-contrast CT what is the most
likely diagnosis?
a. Liver metastasis
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Chronic pancreatitis
d. Inflammatory bowel disease

Answer: C

22) Name the part of the lung in green color:

a. Right upper lobe.
b. Left lower lobe.
c. Right middle lobe.

Answer: C

23) This is a 65-year-old man with a painless

hematuria, no fever, most likely diagnosis is:
a. Pyelonephritis.
b. Transitional cell carcinoma.
c. Renal cell carcinoma without metastasis.
d. Renal cell carcinoma with IVC invasion.
e. Renal cell carcinoma with a left paraaortic
lymphadenopathy.

Answer: E

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24) A 35 year old women did screening mammogram what is your diagnosis
a. Multiple cysts.
b. Multiple fibroadenomas.
c. Multiple Hamartomas.
d. Multiple malignant Masses.
e. Multiple sebaceous cysts.
Answer: B

25) What is the anatomical structure that found

around the pointed arrow:
a. Clavicle.
b. Acromial process.
c. Aortic knuckle.
d. Coracoid process.
e. Sternum.
Answer: D

26) This is a DMSA renal scan in child with a history of UTI which statement is wrong
a. This child has renal scar in the right kidney.
b. This child could have VUR in the right side.
c. This child could have suffered from
pyelonephritis several months ago.
d. There is a focal cortical defect in the right
upper pole.
e. This can be performed 2 days after acute
attack of pyelonephritis.

Answer: E

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27) Patient has history of colon cancer and found to
have a single metastasis to the liver the lesion
located in which segment?
a. 4a
b. 2
c. 3
d. 7
e. 8

Answer: D
28) One of the following should be
surgical removed:
a. Cloaca
b. Involucrum
c. sequestrum
d. Periosteal reaction

Answer: C

29) What is your diagnosis?

a. Distal intestinal obstruction.
b. Duodenal atresia.
c. Midgut valveless.
d. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia.

Answer: D
30) Brain CT scan axial image without contrast what is the diagnosis?
a. Acute right brain infarction.
b. Acute right subdural hemorrhage.
c. Acute sub-arachnoid hemorrhage.
d. Right meningioma.
e. Acute left epidural hemorrhage.

Answer: B

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31) Name the labelled structure:
a. Left arterial Appendage.
b. Left pulmonary artery.
c. Aortic knuckle.
d. Left helium.

Answer: C

32) What is the main sign of malignancy in this

mass:
a. Regular smooth border.
b. Speculated masses.
c. Containing popcorn calcification.
d. Well circumscribed.

Answer: B

33) This is a whole-body iodine scan after I131 ablation post total thyroidectomy for papillary
thyroid cancer one is correct:
a. There is remnant thyroid tissue and bowel
metastasis.
b. There is remnant thyroid tissue and thyroid bed with
no metastasis.
c. There is remnant thyroid tissue and metastatic
cervical lymph nodes.
d. There is Remnant thyroid tissue and urinary bladder
metastasis.
e. There is Remnant thyroid tissue and salivary gland
metastasis.

Answer: B

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34) Ferro-magnetic contrast media can be used for:
a. Fistuiography
b. Angiography
c. Arthrography
d. Cisternography
e. MRCP

Answer: E
35) The arrowed fracture can be caused by an avulsion of which tendon:
a. Triceps
b. Brachialis
c. Coracobrachialis
d. Biceps

Answer: A

36) The marked structure is:

a. Common hepatic duct.
b. Left hepatic duct.
c. Right hepatic duct.
d. Common pile duct.
e. Gallbladder.

Answer: E

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37) What is your diagnosis?
a. Foreign body ingestion
b. Foreign body aspiration
c. Normal barium swallow
d. Metallic artifact from patient clothes

Answer: A

38) Regarding this procedure all are true except:

a. Is an access for ureteric dilatation.
b. Is performed percutaneously.
c. Is an access for nephrostomy insertion.
d. Is antegrade pyelogram.
e. Is an access to remove lower ureteric stone.

Answer: E

39) What is the diagnosis?

a. Epidural Hemorrhage
b. Brain infarction
c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
d. Pneumocephalus

Answer: D

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40) What is the structure with the pointed arrow?
a. Descending aorta
b. Ascending aorta
c. SVC
d. IVC
e. Azygous vein

Answer: E

Done By:
‫ ارساء عكور‬-
‫ أنس أبو وردة‬-

Good Luck!

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