All India Test Series (JEE–2024)

AVJLA1/21 Test- 21 Lakshya JEE

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 15/05/2024 M.MARKS : 180

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 51 questions. The maximum marks are 180.
SECTION-1 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains THREE (03) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are)
correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

• For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get –2 marks.
SECTION-2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
• This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
[1]
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.

SECTION-3 (Maximum Marks: 24)

This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
• For each question, enter the correct integer corresponding to the answer using the mouse and the onscreen
• virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

SECTION-4 (Maximum Marks: 12)

• This section contains FOUR (04) Matching List Sets.
• Each set has ONE Multiple Choice Question.
• Each set has TWO lists: List-I and List-II.
• List-I has Four entries (1), (2), (3) and (4) and List-II has Entries (P), (Q), (R) ………
• FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and ONLY ONE of these
four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice Question.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 ONLY if the option corresponding to the correct combination is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered)
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
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[2]
 IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1

Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.

❑❑❑

[3]
 PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-1 (A) Work done by external agent is
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions qR 2
1. In the given circuit, the AC source has angular k if d = 2 R
4
frequency  = 50 rad/s considering the inductor
(B) Work done by external agent is
and capacitor to be ideal, the correct choice(s)
is/are qR 2
k if d = 4 R
8
(C) Work done by external agent is
qR 2
k if d = 4 R
4
(D) Work done by external agent is
qR 2
(A) The voltage across 100  resistor = 20 2 k if d = 6 R
volt 4
(B) The voltage across 50  resistor = 20 2 volt
SECTION-2
2 Single Correct Type Questions
(C) The current through the circuit is I = A
5 4. Point A on the rod AB has an acceleration of
(D) The current through the circuit is I = 1.2A 5 m/s2 and a velocity of 6 m/s at an instant as
shown in the figure. The acceleration of the end B
2. A composite slab consisting of different media is at the same moment is:
placed in front of a concave mirror of radius of
curvature 150 cm. The whole arrangement is
placed in water ( µW = 4/3). An object O is placed
at a distance 20 cm from the slab. The refractive
indices are µ1 = 1.5, µ2 = 1, µ3 = 1.5. The position
of final image formed is
80 ˆ 80 ˆ
(A) − i m/s2 (B) i m/s2
3 3
40 75
(C) − iˆ m/s2 (D) − iˆ m/s2
3 6

5. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of molecules

of hydrogen and helium which are at temperatures
27°C and 127°C respectively will be :
(A) 130 cm on left of mirror
4 8
(B) 153 cm on left of mirror (A) (B)
(C) Final image is real 3 3
(D) Final image is virtual 3 3
(C) (D)
8 4
3. In a cylindrical region of radius R, there exists a
time varying magnetic field B such that 6. Two-point charges + 9e and +e are kept fixed 16
dB
= k ( k  0 ) . A charged particle having charge
cm apart to each other. Where should third charge
dt q be placed between them so that it remains in
q is placed at the point P at a distance d (> R) equilibrium state?
from its centre O. Now, the particle is moved in (A) 24 cm from+9e (B) 12 cm from +9e
the direction perpendicular to OP (see figure) by (C) 24 cm from +e (D) 12 cm from +e
an external agent upto infinity so that there is no
gain in kinetic energy of the charged particle. 7. After closing the switch at t = 0, in the given circuit, i1
Choose the correct statement/s. is the current drawn from battery at time just after t =
i
0 and i2 be steady current at t = , then ratio 1 is
i2

(A) 1.0 (B) 0.8

(C) 1.2 (D) 1.5
[4]
 SECTION-3
Non-Negative Integer Type Questions
8. n moles of a monoatomic gas is taken through a
cyclic process ABCDA as shown in figure. The
temperature at A is T0. If efficiency for the cycle is
 200 
  % , then find k
 k 
9. A viscometer (an instrument used to study
characteristics of a non-ideal fluid) consists of a
flat plate and a rotating cone. The cone has a large
apex angle and the angle  shown in figure is very
small (typically less than 0.5°). The apex of the
cone just touches the plate and a liquid fills the
narrow gap between the plate and the cone. The
cone has a base radius R and is rotated with
constant angular speed . Consider the liquid to
be ideal and take its coefficient of viscosity to be
 . The torque needed to drive the cone is
M R3  22 
. Find the value of M.  = 
21 sin   7 
10. A circular non-conducting wire frame of mass
m = 750 gram and radius R = 1 m having charge
q = 3 C uniformly distributed on its periphery is
placed on a horizontal rough surface. There exists
a constant magnetic field of strength B0 = 3T in a
cylindrical region whose center coincides with the
center of circular wire frame. Direction of
magnetic field is perpendicularly inward to the
plane of the ring as shown in figure. Sometime
after the magnetic field is suddenly switched off,
the ring starts pure rolling on the surface with
linear speed p m/s. The value of p is_____.
11. Two blocks of masses m and 2m are connected by
a light spring having force constant k. The blocks
are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. At t =
0, lighter block is given velocity v0 towards right
as shown. At time t = t0 , velocity of lighter block
is zero for the first time. Find the value of
18t0 3k
.
 2m
12. There is a metallic ring of radius 1 m having
negligible resistance placed perpendicular to a
constant magnetic field of magnitude 1 T as
shown in figure. One end of a resistance less rod
is hinged at the centre of ring O and other end is
placed on the ring. Now the rod is rotated with
constant angular velocity  = 4 rad/s and circuit is
connected as shown in the figure. Initially switch
is open and capacitor is uncharged. If switch S is
closed at t = 0, then the heat loss (in µJ) in the
resistor R1 from t = 0 to the instant when voltage
across the capacitor becomes half of the steady
state voltage (ignore friction) is____
x x x x x
x x x x x
x x x x x
x x x x x
x x x x x
x x x x x
13. A wire is wrapped tightly without any gap over a
hemispherical bowl of radius R. If N is the total
number of turns and i is the current per turn, the
0 Ni
magnetic field at the centre O will be . Find
R
the value of .
[5]
 SECTION-4 I II III IV
Matrix Match Type Questions (A) P R T S
14. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. Given (B) P P S Q
E = 5 Volts and R = 1. Take potential at point (C) P Q Q S
‘O’ is zero (D) R P P T

16. F = 4 Newton, mA = 4 kg, mB = 2 kg, µ1 = 0.1 and

µ2 = 0, frictional force between blocks A and B is
f1 and between surface and block A is f2
(g = 10 m/sec2)

List-I List-II
I Acceleration of A (in ms−2) P 4
3
II Normal reaction between blocks Q 2
(in N)
List-I List-II 3
I Current through OA in P 7 III Frictional force between blocks f1 (in N) R 20
amperes IV Frictional force on surface f2 (in N) S 0
II Current through AB in Q 8 T 1
amperes I II III IV
III Potential at A in volts R 1 (A) T P R S
IV Potential at B in volts S 2 (B) Q S P T
T 15 (C) S R Q P
I II III IV (D) Q R P S
(A) Q P S T
(B) P Q R S 17. In a YDSE setup, light of wavelength 4000Å is
(C) T S Q P used. Distance of screen from the slits is 2m and
(D) S R Q P distance between the slits is 1 mm. There are four
slabs, slab 1 (thickness 2mm, refractive index 2),
15. Figure shows four situations in which a small slab 2 (thickness 1mm, refractive index 3), slab 3
block of mass ‘m’ is released from rest (with (thickness 4mm, refractive index 3/2) and slab 4
respect to smooth fixed wedge) as shown in (thickness 3mm, refractive index 5/3).
figure. List –II shows work done by normal
reaction on the block (with respect to an observer
who is stationary on ground) till block reaches at
the bottom of inclined wedge, match the
appropriate list.
List-I List-II
I P Positive
List-I List-II
I If slab 1 is placed in P Central maxima is at C.
II Q Negative
front of slit S1.
II If slab 2 is placed in Q Central maxima is above
front of slit S2 along C.
with condition (A).
III If slab 3 is placed R Fringe width = 0.8 mm
behind slit S1 along
III R Equal to mgh in
with condition (B).
magnitude
IV If slab 4 is placed S No. of fringes crossing
behind slit S2 along the central maxima as a
with condition (C). result of slab placing is
5000.
IV S Equal to zeros T Fringe width = 1.6 mm
I II III IV
(A) P, Q, R S, R, T Q, P, S Q, R, T
T (B) Q, R, S P, R, S Q, R, S P, R, S
9mgh (C) P, R, S P, Q, R P, Q, R P, R, S
2 (D) P, R, T Q, R, S P, Q, R P, Q, S, T

[6]
 PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-1
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions
18. Consider the following sequence of reactions
Reaction I: HCl + O 2 ⎯⎯⎯
CuCl2
→ Gas M + N
Gas M is greenish yellow in colour with pungent
and suffocating odour.
Reaction II: H 2S + Gas M → P + Q
Reaction III: Na 2S2 O3 + Gas M + H 2 O → Q + R
Reaction IV: MnO 2 + Q → MnCl2 + N + Gas M
Select the correct statement(s).
(A) Gas M is diamagnetic gas
(B) N is liquid at room temperature
(C) Oxidation number of central atom in R is +6
(D) P and Q are sulphur and HCl respectively
19. Complete the following reactions
Identify the correct structure from the following:
(A)
SECTION-2
Single Correct Type Questions
21. Consider the Ellingham diagram for conversion
of carbon to its oxide(s)
Which of the given statement is correct?
(A) As temperature is increased after 1073 K.
there is sudden decrease in the entropy of
the process
(B) As temperature is increased after 1073 K.
there is slight decrease in the entropy of the
process
(C) The change in entropy represents phase
change i.e., carbon melts at 1073 K
(D) The change in entropy arises due to the
change in the gaseous product obtained

22. Gold is extracted by leaching in which below

reaction is used
(B)
1
2Au + 4CN − (aq) + O 2 ( g) + H 2O →
2
(C) 2Au(CN) −2 + 2OH −
The value of G° of above reaction is if
(D) K f  Au(CN) 2 −  = Z
O 2 + 2H 2 O + 4e − → 4OH − , E  = 0.41V
Au 3+ + 3e − → Au, E  = 1.5V
20.
Au 3+ + 2e− → Au + , E  = 1.4V
(A) −2RT ln Z + 1.29 F
(B) −RT ln Z2 + 2.58 F
(C) − RT ln Z + 1.47 F
(D) − RT ln Z + 1.54 F

23. When equal volume of 0.2 M AgNO3 and

Bond order of C–C bond in molecule S is 1.5. 1M KCN solutions were mixed then at
Which of the following combinations are equilibrium, concentration of Ag+ was found
correct? to be 10–6 M. While when equal volume of
(A) R is 0.2 M Zn(NO3)2 solution and of 1M KCN
solution were mixed then at equilibrium,
concentration of Zn2+ ion was found to be
(B) U is
10–12 M. Then find the equilibrium constant
of the following reaction.
(C) T is 2[Ag(CN)2]–(aq) + Zn2+(aq)  [Zn(CN)4]2–
(aq) + 2Ag+(aq)
(D) S is (A) 810 (B) 90
(C) 10 (D) 81

[7]
24. Consider the following reaction. 27. A non-volatile solute, AB3, dissociates
Reaction-I completely in water as :
AB3(aq) → A3+(aq) + 3B–(aq)
When 5 gm of AB3 is dissolved in 250 gm water
H SO ,H O to form a solution, the freezing point of solution
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
2 4 2 Major organic product
(P) becomes – 0.744°C. If 0.2 gm of AB3 is needed
for complete coagulation of 200 ml of As2S3 sol
Reaction-II in 2 hrs, the coagulation value of the electrolyte
AB3 (expressed as millimole of electrolyte per
litre of sol) is :
[Given : Kf of water = 1.86 K.Kg.mol–1]
Select the correct statement.
(A) P on reaction with neutral FeCl3 forms
28. If one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas
pink/purple/violet coloured compound while
undergoes a reversible cyclic process as given in
Q does not react with neutral FeCl3 volume versus temperature graph. Volume is
(B) Q on reaction with neutral FeCl3 forms taken in litre and temperature is taken in kelvin.
pink/purple/violet coloured compound while
P does not react with neutral FeCl3
(C) Both P and Q form pink/purple/violet
coloured compound on reaction with neutral
FeCl3
(D) Neither P nor Q form violet coloured
compound on reaction with neutral FeCl3

SECTION-3 It is found that the magnitude of work done by the

Non-Negative Integer Type Questions
25. Consider the following reactions
(a) BaO2. 8H2O(s) + H2SO4 (aq) → Product (s)
(b) Peroxodisulphate ⎯⎯⎯⎯Hydrolysis
→ Product (s)
gas in complete process i.e. during entire cycle is X
R (where R is universal gas constant). The value of
x
  to nearest integer is (use ln2 = 0.7)
5

29. Hydroxylamine reduces Fe+3 ions according to

the equation
(c) NH2OH + Fe+3 →N2O(g) + H2O + Fe+2+H+
The Fe+2 ions thus produced is estimated by
titration with a standard permanganate solution in
(d) KO2 + H2O → Product (s) acidic medium. The reaction is:
(e) Na2O2 + H2O → Product (s) MnO −4 + H + + Fe +2 → Mn +2 + Fe +3 + H 2 O
(f) Li2O + H2O → Product (s) A 10 ml sample of NH2OH stock solution was
 diluted to 1 litre. Sample measuring 50 ml of this
(g) NaHCO3 ⎯⎯ → Product (s)
Out of the above given reactions, 'x' reactions diluted solution was boiled with excess of Fe+3
produce H2O2 as one of the products. The value of ions. The resulting solution required 12 ml of
0.02 M KMnO4 solution for complete oxidation
2x2 is
of Fe+2 ions. The molarity of the original stock
solution is 'X' M. Find the value of 10 X.
26. Most ordinary soaps are sodium salt of long-
chain fatty acids and are soluble in water.
Soaps of divalent cations such as Ca2+ are 30.
only slightly soluble and are often seen in the
common soap as calcium palmitate
Ca[CH3(CH2)14COO]2. A hand book lists the
solubility of this soap as 0.0055 gm per 100
ml at 25°C. If sufficient sodium soap is used
to produce a final concentration of palmitate
ion equal to 0.10 M in a water sample having
40 ppm Ca2+ initially. How many mg of The sum of total number of  &  bonds
calcium palmitate would precipitate in a present in the compound A is ---------
bowl containing 1 L of this water sample?
[8]
 SECTION-4 II Q E2
Matrix Match Type Questions
31. Match each of the reactions given in List-I with
the corresponding product(s) given in List-II.
III R E1cb
List-I List-II Ag +
⎯⎯⎯ →
I Cu + dil HNO3 P NO Δ
II Cu + conc. HNO3 Q NO2
IV S Ei
III Zn + dil HNO3 R N2O
IV Zn + conc. HNO3 S Cu(NO3)2
T Zn(NO3)2
I II III IV
(A) Q, S P, S Q, T R, T alc.KOH
⎯⎯⎯⎯→

(B) P, S Q, S R, T Q, T
(C) Q, T P, S P, T Q, T T Elimination
(D) P, S P, R S, T P, T is not
possible
I II III IV
32. Match the complexes in List-I with their stereo
(A) P Q R S
properties in List-II.
(B) T S P R
(C) Q R P Q
List-I List-II
(D) Q P S T
I [CoCl3(NH3)3] P Show facial form
II Q Cis form is
34. Match the List-I and List-II. List-I contains some
3–
optically active or
[Cr(ox)3] reactions and observations List-II contains the
the compound is
products of these reaction and compounds
optically active
responsible for the observations.
III R Trans or meridional
List-I List-II
[CrCl2(ox)2] form is optically
I P 3° alcohol
active
IV S Trans or meridional product is

[RhCl3(Py)3] form is optically II Violet colour produced with Q Geminal diol

inactive neutral FeCl3
T Both cis and trans III R Phenol or
form are optically derivative of
active. phenol
IV HI( excess ) S 1° alcohol
I II III IV ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ → product(s)

(A) P, S Q Q, S P, S
T Rearrangement
(B) P, S R P, R P, S
take place
(C) P, S Q P, T Q, S
I II III IV
(D) Q, S R Q, R P, T
(A) P, T R Q R
(B) P R Q S
33. Match the following
(C) Q R P S
List-I List-II
(D) Q P S T
I P E1

CH CH O –
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3 2
→
Δ

[9]
 PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-1 hyperbola H are 3x − y + 5 = 0 &
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions
35. Consider the Fibonacci sequence 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 3 x + y − 1 = 0, then eccentricity of 'H' is
8… whose terms are related by tn + 2 = tn + 1 + tn; 2
(A) 7 (B)
n = 0, 1, 2, …. (where t0 = 0 and t1 = 1), we can 3
form a matrix by taking three consecutive terms as
(C) 2 (D) 3
t tn 
f ( n ) =  n+1  ; n = 1, 2, 3.... which
 tn tn−1  40. Let ' k ' be sum of all ' x ' in the interval  0, 2 
satisfies f ( n ) = f ( n − 1) A; n = 2, 3, 4.... , where such that 3cot 2 x + 8cot x + 3 = 0. Then k is equal
A is a fixed matrix. Now, choose correct to
statement(s). (A) 5π (B) 4π
(A) Sum of all the elements of A is 3 (C) 3π (D) 2π
(B) f (n) = An – 1
(C) det (f (11)) = –1
(D) det (f (10) = –1 41. Let a = 2 iˆ + 3 j and b be any vector in xy –
plane perpendicular to a . If a vector c in the
36. The function same plane have lengths of projections along a
  5 3
 2  sin x + cos x 
  is defined if and b equal to and , then c =
f ( x ) = cos −1    13 13
 sin 2 x + 2sin x + 11  2 3
 4  (A) i+ j
x belongs to (where [.] denotes greatest integer 13 13
9 19
function and |.| denotes absolute value) (B) i+ j
 7π   π 13 13
(A) 0,  (B) 0,  19 9
 6   6 (C) i+ j
11π   7π 11π  13 13
(C)  , 2π  (D)  ,  19 8
 6   6 6  (D) i+ j
13 13
37. If z1 = 5 + 12i and |z2| = 4, then
(A) maximum (|z1 + iz2|) = 17 SECTION-3
(B) minimum (|z1 + (1 + i)z2) = 13 − 9 2 Non-Negative Integer Type Questions
42. f ( x ) is a polynomial of 6th degree and

(C) minimum
z1
=
13 f ( x ) = f ( 2 − x )  x  R. If f ( x ) = 0 has
4 4
z2 + 4 distinct real roots and two real and equal roots,
z2 then sum of roots of f ( x ) = 0 is

( )
z1 13 n n
3n − 2 r
(D) maximum
4
= 43. Let 1 − x3 =  ar x r (1 − x ) , n  2, then
z2 + 3
r =0
z2 find the value of n so that a1, a2, a3 are in A.G.P.

SECTION-2 44. There are two urns A and B. A contains 5 red, 3

Single Correct Type Questions blue and 2 white balls, urn B contains 4 red, 3
n k 3 + 6 k 2 + 11k + 5 blue and 3 white balls. An urn is chosen at
38. lim 
n → k =1 ( k + 3) !
= random and a ball is drawn. If probability, that
the ball drawn is red, is equal to p, then the value
2 of 20p is
(A) (B) 1
3
5 7 45. Let f : ( 0,  ) → ( 0,  ) be a function
(C) (D) differentiable at x = 3 and satisfying
3 3
x
  3
 f 3+ x  
39. From a point P (1, 2) pair of tangents are drawn f ( 3) = 3 f ' ( 3) . If the value of lim   
to a hyperbola 'H' in which one tangent to each x →  f ( 3) 
arm of hyperbola. Equation of asymptotes of is L, then [L] is equal to (where [k] represents
greatest integer function.)
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46. Let f(x) = (([a] – 7) ([a] – 4)) x3 – ((4{a} – 1) III Area of the parallelogram R 7
(2{a} – 1)) x + sin x  sgn (x), where [a] denotes whose diagonals represent the
greatest integer less than or equal to a and {a} vectors 3 i + j − 2 kˆ and
denotes fractional part of a. If f(x) is even
i − 3 j + 4 kˆ is
function, and the sum of possible values of a is λ,
then the value of 4λ is IV If a is perpendicular to S −3
47. Consider a set of 3n numbers having variance 4. b + c, b is perpendicular to 5
In this set, the mean of first 2n numbers is 6 and c + a, c is perpendicular to
the mean of the remaining n numbers is 3. A new
a + b, a = 2, b = 3 and
set is constructed by adding 1 into each of first
2n numbers and subtracting 1 from each of the c = 6, then a + b + c =
remaining n numbers. If the variance of the new
set is k, then 9k is equal to T 3 3
SECTION-4
I II III IV
Matrix Match Type Questions
48. Match the following: (A) S P T R
 x  → greatest integer less than or equal to ' x ' (B) S T Q P
(C) S P Q R
List -I List -II
I  4 P 4 (D) R S Q T
25  ( tan6 ( x −  x) + tan4 ( x −  x)) dx =
0
II 2 Q 2
50. Match the following:
x 6 + 3 x5 + 7 x 4
If I1 =  x4 + 2
dx List -I List -II
−2 I If the plane P 0
and ax − by + cz = 0 contains
( ) ( )
1 2 x + 1 2 + 11 x + 1 + 14
the line
I2 =  dx,
x − a y − 2d z − c
−3 ( x + 1)4 + 2 = = ,
then I1 + I 2 = a b c
III 3 b
2  −1 x −1 x + 1 
2 R 100 then is equal to
 −1 
 tan + tan  dx = d
x2 + 1 x  3
II The distance of the point Q 1
IV
f ( x) =
2− x
cos  ( x + 3)
S 5 (1, − 2,3) from the plane
 x − y + z − 5 = 0 measured
+
1
sin  ( x + 3) where 0  x  4. The x y z −1
2 parallel to = = is
2 3 −6
number of points of local extrema are equal to
T 102 III If the straight lines R 2
3 x −2 y −3 4− z
I II III IV = = and
1 1 k
(A) S R Q Q
x −1 y − 4 z − 5
(B) S T Q P = =
(C) S R P Q k 2 1
(D) Q R S T intersect, then k is equal to
IV Value(s) of k for which the S 1
49. Match the following: planes kx + 4 y + z = 0, 3
List -I List -II 4 x + ky + 2 z = 0 and
I If a + b = j and P 1 2 x + 2 y + z = 0 intersect in
j a straight line.
2 a − b = 3 i + , then cosine of T 2
2
the angle between a and b is 3
II Q I II III IV
If a = b = c , angle between 5 3
(A) P Q S R
 (B) R Q P R
each pair of vectors is and
3 (C) R Q T P
a + b + c = 6, then a = (D) R P Q T

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51. In the List -I and List-II differential equations I II III IV
and their corresponding solutions are given. (A) R Q S P
Match them. (B) R Q T S
List -I List -II (C) Q R T S
(D) Q R P S
I dy P sin x + c
( cos x ) + y sin x = 1 y=
dx 1 + x2
II dy Q y = sin x + c cos x
x + y = x sin x
dx

III dy  2 x  cos x R x y = sin x − x cos x + c

+ y=
dx  1 + x 2  1 + x2

IV dy S y = cos x + c cos 2 x
+ ( 2 tan x ) y = sin x
dx

T y = (sinx + c) (1 + x2)

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