Choose one correct answer. 1. The term “epidemiology" is used for designations 1) systems of organizational and medical measures carried out to prevent the occurrence, limit the spread and eliminate infectious diseases 2) the process of the emergence and spread of infections among people 3) the science of the causes and patterns of the occurrence and mass spread of human diseases, methods of prevention and control * 4) the process of interaction between the organisms of the pathogen and the host (human, animal), manifested by a clinically pronounced disease or carrier 2. The main idea subject of epidemiology is: 1) epidemic measure 2) Human population 3) incidence of infectious diseases 4) the process of the emergence and spread of any pathological conditions among people * 3. An epidemiological approach to the study of pathology the human provides for the study of: 1) the distribution of morbidity among the population, taking into account the time, place of occurrence of cases of diseases and individual characteristics of the patients * 2) human populations as the main subject 3) the process of interaction between the organisms of the pathogen and the host at the organizational level 4) various means and methods of combating the spread of diseases 4. The epidemic process is called the process 1) studying the location of the source of infection with the surrounding area 2) the emergence and spread among people of various infectious conditions (disease, carrier) * 3) interactions of the pathogen-parasite and the host organism, manifested at the organizational level by disease or carrier 4) the occurrence and spread of various infectious diseases among animals 5) the spread of human disease in a limited area, in a separate team or a group of epidemiologically related teams 5. A necessary condition for the development of an epidemic the process is the presence of 1) interactions of the parasitic system with natural abiotic factors of its habitat 2) three interrelated elements necessary for the transmission of the pathogen from one person to another * 3) only the mechanism and transmission paths 4) only the reservoir of infection 6. Ecological classification of infectious diseases (anthroponoses, zoonoses and sapronoses) based on division of diseases depending on 1) susceptibility to infection 2) the mechanism and ways of transmission of infection 3) the source of infection * 4) belonging of the main hosts of the pathogen to a particular habitat 5) localization of the pathogen in the body of the biological host 7. The first link in the elementary cell of the epidemic process is 1) the mechanism of transmission of infection 2) a susceptible organism 3) the vector of infection 4) the source of the infection * 5) the transmission factor 8. One of the links of the elementary cell the epidemic process is 1) food products 2) a susceptible organism * 3) Air 4) the carrier of the causative agent of infection 5) the causative agent of infection 9. Infectious diseases, reservoir of pathogens which are animals and to which it is susceptible a person called 1) anthroponoses 2) sapronoses 3) zoonoses * 4) natural focal infections 5) blood infections 10. Infectious diseases, reservoir of pathogens which a person is, are called 1) anthropurgical infections 2) zoonoses 3) arbovirus infections 4) anthroponoses * 5) sapronoses 11. Sapronoses are an ecological group of infectious diseases, the reservoir of which pathogens are 1) warm-blooded animals and birds 2) soil and water * 3) humans and some species of animals 4) blood-sucking arthropods 12. Pathogens of anthroponoses are 1) obligate pathogenic and opportunistic human parasites * 2) obligate parasites of animals, pathogenic to humans 3) facultative opportunistic parasites of animals and humans 4) accidental parasites of humans and animals 13. Options for long-term fluctuations in levels morbidity rates include 1) systematic (trend), irregular (aperiodic) and cyclical fluctuations * 2) year-round morbidity rate, seasonal rises and episodic outbreaks 3) Sporadic, epidemic and pandemic levels 4) ubiquitous, endemic and exotic character 14. In zoonotic, humans: 1) may be both non-contagious (more often) and contagious to others, but the circulation of the pathogen among people doesn't make any difference to save it as biological species * 2) are contagious to others and the circulation of the pathogen among people ensures its preservation as biological species 3) are not contagious to others, but may be a reservoir of the causative agent of infection 4) are contagious to others, but not a reservoir of the causative agent of infection 15. Zoonotic with a high transmission ability from person to person is 1) anthrax 2) brucellosis 3) the plague * 4) ornithosis 5) pseudotuberculosis 16. Transmission of the causative agent of zoonotic infections between people has 1) Fan character, but the main reservoir of the pathogen is not a person or an animal, but abiotic environmental objects 2) consistent nature, and the cessation of the circulation of the pathogen among humans can lead to its death as a biological species 3) a fan character, and a person, in most cases, represents a “biological dead end” in the chain of infections that supports the epidemic process * 4) “relay” character with the participation of intermediate and final elements of the environment 17. The epizootic process is called the process of 1) interactions of populations of different biological species, one of which is parasitic 2) the emergence and spread of infectious diseases among people 3) the emergence and spread of infectious diseases among wild, synanthropic and domesticated animals * 4) interaction between pathogen and susceptible organism, manifested by disease or carriage of an infectious agent 18. The mechanism of transmission of pathogens is called 1) transfer of the pathogen from one organism to another using transmission factors 2) abiotic environmental objects, involved in the transmission of the pathogen from the source of susceptible organism 3) a set of factors that ensure the circulation of the parasite between infected and susceptible organisms 4) a set of evolutionarily developed ways of moving the causative agent of an infectious disease from a source to a susceptible organism * 19. Pathways of transmission of pathogens are called 1) temporary residence of the pathogen in the environment 2) abiotic environmental objects, involved in the transmission of the pathogen from the source to the susceptible organism 3) the whole set of factors that ensure the circulation of the parasite between infected and susceptible organisms * 4) a set of evolutionarily developed ways of moving the causative agent of an infectious disease from a source to a susceptible organism 20. The factors of transmission of pathogens are called 1) abiotic environmental factors in which there is an accumulation of the pathogen 2) the stages of removing the pathogen from an infected (contaminated) object and its temporary stay in the external environment 3) abiotic environmental objects, involved in the transmission of the pathogen from the source to the susceptible organism * 4) a set of evolutionarily developed ways of moving the causative agent of an infectious disease from a source to a susceptible organism 21. The method of the transmission path is determined by 1) the final transfer factor * 2) the primary transmission factor 3) the intermediate transmission factor 4) to the carrier of the causative agent of infection 22. The definition source of infection is 1) a set of evolutionarily developed ways of moving the causative agent of an infectious disease from a source to a susceptible organism 2) the specific ability of the body to react with the development of the infectious process to the introduction and vital activity of the corresponding pathogen in it 3) an object that is a place of natural vital activity, that is, the habitat and reproduction of the pathogen, from which infection of susceptible people can occur * 4) blood-sucking arthropods involved in the transmission of pathogens 23. The variants of the annual dynamics of morbidity Include 1) systematic (trend), irregular (aperiodic) and cyclical fluctuations 2) year-round morbidity rate, seasonal rises and episodic outbreaks * 3) Sporadic, epidemic and pandemic levels 4) ubiquitous, endemic and exotic character 24. Carriers can participate in the implementation of which mechanism of transmission: 1) fecal-oral 2) contact person 3) transmissive * 4) aspiration 25. Flea transmission occurs: 1) mechanical transfer of the pathogen 2) transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier * 3) transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier, as well as transmissive transmission 4) transfer, in which the pathogen undergoes a development cycle in the body of the carrier 26. Transmission of infection by mosquitoes of the genus anopheles happens 1) mechanical transfer of the pathogen 2) the transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier 3) transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier, as well as transmissive transmission 4) transfer, in which the pathogen undergoes a development cycle in the body of the carrier * 27. During the transmission of infection of ticks of the genus Ixodes, happens 1) mechanical transfer of the pathogen 2) the transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier 3) transfer of the pathogen with its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier, as well as transmissive transmission * 4) transfer, in which the pathogen undergoes a development cycle in the body of the carrier 28. Lice transmission is the result of 1) rubbing the feces of lice containing the pathogen into micro trauma of the skin * 2) mechanical transfer of the pathogen by lice 3) inoculation of the pathogen in the process of blood sucking when the bite of lice 4) the development cycle of the pathogen in the salivary glands of lice 29. Flies and cockroaches carrying pathogens of some Infectious diseases are important for 1) contamination of the transmission path with a transmissive transmission mechanism 2) mechanical transfer of the pathogen on the surface of the carrier's body with a fecal-oral transmission mechanism * 3) inoculation transmission pathway with a transmissive transmission mechanism 4) the true transfer of the pathogen, accompanied by its reproduction and accumulation in the body of the carrier 30. Zoonotic infectious with low transmission capacity from person to person refers to 1) Lassa fever 2) Ebola fever 3) yellow fever 4) salmonellosis 5) intestinal yersiniosis * 31. The main etiological agents of sapronoses are 1) viruses, rickettsias, chlamydia 2) mycoplasmas, spirochaetes 3) bacteria, fungi * 4) helminths 32. The sources of zoonotic infections are classified into 1) wild, synanthropic and domestic * 2) patients, convalescents and carriers 3) animals, birds and arthropods 4) obligatory, optional and casual 33. The mechanism of transmission of infection depends on 1) susceptibility to the causative agent of infection 2) localization of the pathogen in the body of the biological host * 3) the duration of the pathogen's stay in the external environment 4) the severity of the clinical course of the disease 34. Epidemiological classification of infections based on 1) phylogenetic proximity of infectious agents 2) division depending on the source of infection 3) belonging of the main hosts of the pathogen to a particular landscape habitat zone 4) the main localization of the pathogen in the body of the biological host * 5) division depending on the severity and forms the clinical course of the disease 35. Respiratory tract infections are transmitted 1) by the fecal-oral mechanism 2) transmission mechanism 3) aspiration mechanism * 4) the contact mechanism 36. The ways of transmission of intestinal infections include 1) Airborne 2) alimentary, water, household contact * 3) inoculation, contamination 4) sexual, direct contact, household contact 37. The ways of transmission of the outer integuments infections are 1) Airborne 2) alimentary, water, household contact 3) inoculation, contamination 4) sexual, direct contact, household contact * 38. The ways of transmission of blood infections include 1) inoculation, contamination and parenteral * 2) airborne and airborne dust 3) water and household contact 4) parenteral, enteral, inhalation 39. An artificial mechanism involves the transfer of infections 1) by water and alimentary routes 2) by airborne droplets and airborne dust routes 3) sexually 4) by transmissive means 5) parenteral, enteral or inhalation routes * 40. The mechanism of transmission of infection, which involves transmission of infection from a sick mother during pregnancy or childbirth to the fetus is called 1) artificial 2) vertical * 3) horizontal 4) contact 5) transmissive 41. The possibility of implementing an air-dust path transfers 1) depends on the stability of the pathogen in the external environment * 2) does not depend on the stability of the pathogen in the external environment 3) depends on the rate of decrease in virulence of the pathogen 4) d epends on the dispersion of the aerosol 42. Vertical transmission of infection can be 1) inoculation and contamination 2) parenteral, enteral or inhalation 3) transfase and transovarial 4) germinative, transplacental, ascending or during childbirth * 43. In the case of an airborne transmission path, the factor transmission of infection is 1) Air 2) dust formed when droplets of mucus dry out of the human respiratory tract 3) respiratory tract released into the environment when coughing and sneezing * 4) aerosol formed by dried animal secretions 44. The most rapid spread of the epidemic is possible with the realization of 1) aspiration mechanism * 2) transmission mechanism 3) the fecal-oral mechanism 4) the contact mechanism 45. The realization of waterborne transmission may prohibit 1) by eating fruit juice 2) by drinking milk 3) when bathing and washing laundry in water bodies contaminated with sewage water sewage * 4) through dishes and kitchen utensils 5) through contaminated hands 46. An artificial transmission mechanism can be realized by: 1) consumption of food contaminated with the pathogen foodstuffs 2) drinking water 3) contact with a coughing person 4) endoscopic manipulations and blood transfusion * 47. factors of the fecal-oral transmission may be 1) flies, soil and contaminated hands * 2) flies, horseflies, lice 3) liquid aerosol formed by coughing 4) otolaryngology instruments and apparatus ventilator 48. The transmission factor among the following that is most important in the realization of the alimentary route is 1) fruit juice 2) mineral water 3) milk 4) vegetables* 5) fish 49. Carriers of blood infections are 1) houseflies and meat flies, cockroaches 2) voles, marmots, ground squirrels, muskrats 3) rats, house mice 4) ticks, horseflies, fleas, mosquitoes * 50. Direct contact transmission can be realized by 1) using another person's handkerchief 2) using cups and cutlery 3) using children's toys 4) kissing or animal bites * 51. The pathways of transmission of the infectious causative agent include 1) aspiration 2) fecal-oral 3) alimentary * 4) artificial 5) vertical 52. The source of infection in anthroponotic diseases may be 1) sick cattle or small horned cattle, or animal carrier of the infectious agent 2) a person ill with acute or chronic form of the disease or a carrier of the infectious agent disease or carrier of the infectious agent* 3) mosquito of the genus Anopheles 4) rat or house mouse 53. Possibility of realizing an airborne pathway transmission 1) depends on the stability of the pathogen in the external environment 2) depends on the possibility of reproduction of the pathogen in the external environment external environment 3) does not depend on aerosol dispersibility 4) depends on aerosol dispersity * 54. During what period of infectious disease does a person pose the least threat to others? 1) at the beginning of the incubation period * 2) at the end of the incubation period 3) during the prodromal period 4) during the peak period 5) during the period of reconvalescence 55. Susceptibility is understood as 1) distribution of the population according to the degree of intensity of specific immunity to this infectious disease, determined by immunological tests 2) the specific ability of the body to react the development of the infectious process on the introduction and vital activity of the corresponding pathogen in it * 3) the interaction of the pathogen-parasite and the host organism, manifested at the organizational level by disease or carrier 4) the emergence and spread among people of various infectious conditions (disease, carrier) 56. Innate immunity is the result of 1) meetings of a susceptible organism with an infectious agent during life 2) transfer of immune elements from the body of the immune mother to the child during intrauterine development 3) preventive vaccinations 4) transmission of an infectious disease 5) the process of phylogeny and is inherited as the species' immunity to the microorganism * 57. Acquired natural active immunity is the result of 1) administration of a specific immunoglobulin 2) transfer of immune elements from the body of the immune mother to the child during intrauterine development 3) preventive vaccinations 4) transmission of an infectious disease * 5) the process of phylogeny and is inherited as the species' immunity to the microorganism 58. Acquired natural passive immunity is the result of 1) administration of a specific immunoglobulin 2) transfer of immune elements from the body of the immune mother to the child during intrauterine development * 3) preventive vaccinations 4) transmission of an infectious disease 5) the process of phylogeny and is inherited as the species' immunity to the microorganism 59. Acquired artificial passive immunity is the result of 1) administration of a specific immunoglobulin * 2) transfer of immune elements from the body an immune mother to a child during intrauterine development 3) preventive vaccinations 4) transmission of an infectious disease 5) the process of phylogeny and is inherited as the species' immunity to the microorganism 60. Acquired artificial active immunity is the result of 1) administration of a specific immunoglobulin 2) transfer of immune elements from the body of the immune mother to the child during intrauterine development 3) preventive vaccinations * 4) transmission of an infectious disease 5) the process of phylogeny and is inherited as the immunity of the species to the microorganism 61. To a situation in which there are optimal conditions for the spread of measles include the case when 1) a sick child attends a kindergarten group, all children of which are vaccinated against measles 2) a measles patient was identified who arrived 2 days ago in a village where children were not vaccinated against measles and did not have measles * 3) a student with a mild form of measles attended classes at the institute, where the rest of the students either had measles or were vaccinated with a live measles vaccine 4) a measles patient was identified who arrived 7 days ago in a village where children were not vaccinated against measles 62. the immunological structure of the population is 1) the number of vaccinated 2) the ratio of people susceptible and immune to this infection * 3) the number of people with artificially stressed immunity 4) the number of persons with immunity, regardless of their origin 63. The natural focus of an infectious disease is called 1) epizootic outbreak 2) the place of human infection with zoonotic infection 3) a section of a geographical landscape with more or less homogeneous environmental conditions 4) a section of the territory of a geographical landscape with its characteristic biocenosis, which includes a stably circulating pathogen infectious diseases * 5) the totality of environmental conditions affecting the course of the epidemic process 64. In vector-borne anthroponotic infectious, the incidence of disease 1) associated with natural foci 2) not related to natural foci* 3) associated with natural foci in some infections infections 65. In non-transmissive zoonotic infectious, the incidence 1) is associated with natural foci 2) is not connected with natural foci 3) is associated with natural foci in some infections * 3) is not connected with natural foci in some infections 66. The endemic nature of the incidence is characteristic for 1) all infectious diseases 2) all non-communicable diseases 3) individual infectious and non-communicable diseases * 4) all communicable diseases 67. Morbidity is unevenly distributed by population groups in 1) zoonoses and sapronoses 2) sapronoses, zoonoses and anthroponoses* 3) anthroponoses and zoonoses 4) sapronoses and anthroponoses 68. If in the city Т. in 2007 there were registered 2 case of disease, although in the previous 20 years no cases of this disease have been registered, then this situation can be described in terms of 1) endemic and/or sporadic morbidity 2) exotic and/or epidemic morbidity* 3) endemic and/or epidemic situation 4) exotic and/or sporadic morbidity 69. The presence of natural focus is characteristic 1) only for transmissible and non-transmissible zoonoses 2) only for transmissible zoonoses 3) for transmissible and non-transmissible zoonoses, as well as sapronoses * 4) all transmissible anthroponoses and zoonoses 5) all sapronoses and non-transmissible zoonoses 70. The conditions, necessary for the existence of a natural outbreak, include 1) socio-economic factors 2) biocenotic links between the pathogen, vectors and populations of susceptible animals Animals * 3) high density of population of the territory by blood-sucking arthropods 4) human transformation of nature and impact anthropogenic impact 71. The concept of “epidemic morbidity” includes 1) endemic and/or exotic morbidity 2) outbreak and/or epidemic 3) pandemic and/or epidemic 4) outbreak, epidemic and/or pandemic * 72. Infectious diseases are called ubiquitous 1) having a global distribution * 2) having an territorial distribution 3) common in certain latitudinal zones 4) common in certain geographical areas 73. The presence of a typical incidence of certain infections of cyclic are determined by 1) changing living conditions 2) natural fluctuations of the immune layer * 3) changes in natural and climatic conditions 4) a change in the virulence of the pathogen 74. Assessment of the incidence rate as an “outbreak”, an “epidemic” or “pandemic" is carried out in depending on 1) the number of sick people* 2) distribution across the territory 3) the speed of propagation through the territory 4) the nature of the distribution of cases of the disease during the calendar year 5) severity of the disease 75. The driving forces influencing the features of the manifestations of the epidemic process, can be 1) the source of infection and a susceptible organism 2) mechanisms and ways of transmission 3) biological and natural factors 4) biological, natural and social factors* 76. The parasitic system is called 1) populations of different biological species interconnected by interaction, one of which is parasitic * 2) self-regulating interacting populations of living organisms and abiotic their natural habitat 3) parts of one or more geographical landscapes inhabited by animals susceptible to this infection-biological hosts and vectors of the pathogen, among which circulation is carried out due to a continuous epizootic process 4) foci of zoonotic disease arising as a result of human nature-transforming activity or existing in a human-transformed environment 77. In a natural hearth by biological hosts the causative agents of infection are 1) mostly wild animals * 2) wild, synanthropic and domesticated animals 3) mostly synanthropic and domesticated animals 4) domesticated animals 78. In the anthropurgical hearth by biological hosts the causative agents of infection are 1) mostly wild animals 2) wild, synanthropic and domesticated animals 3) mostly synanthropic and domesticated animals * 4) domesticated animals 79. Natural focal infections include 1) brucellosis and salmonellosis 2) tularemia and the plague * 3) foot-and-mouth disease and anthrax 4) plaque and anthrax 80. Anthropurgical infections include 1) brucellosis and salmonellosis 2) tularemia and the plague 3) tick-borne encephalitis and ixodic tick-borne borreliosis 81. Criteria for the intensity of the epidemic the process among the population is an assessment 1) indicators of morbidity, prevalence and morbidity * 2) annual dynamics and long-term fluctuations in morbidity levels 3) the spread of morbidity in the territory 4) distribution of cases of infectious diseases among different population groups 82. The term “sporadic morbidity” means 1) a short-term increase in the number of cases diseases associated with a common source and transmission factor in a particular population group 2) the incidence rate is typical for a given area during a given historical period of time * 3) the mass spread of any infectious disease, significantly exceeding the level of normal morbidity in the given territory 4) that the epidemic has spread to several countries and continents 83. The term “epidemic outbreak” means 1) a short-term increase in the number of cases of the disease associated with a common source and a transmission factor in a certain population group * 2) the incidence rate is normal for a given area during a given historical period of time 3) the mass spread of an infectious disease, significantly exceeding the level of the usual incidence in the area 4) that the epidemic has spread to several countries and continents 84. The term “epidemic" means 1) a short-term increase in the number of cases of the disease associated with a common source and transmission factor in a certain population group 2) the incidence rate is normal for this localities during a given historical period of time 3) the mass spread of any infectious disease, significantly exceeding the level of normal morbidity in the given territory * 4) that the epidemic has spread to several countries and continents 85. The term “pandemic" means 1) a short-term increase in the number of cases of the disease associated with a common source and transmission factor in a certain population group 2) the incidence rate is normal for a given area during a given historical period of time 3) the mass spread of any infectious disease, significantly exceeding the level of normal morbidity in the given territory 4) that the epidemic has spread to several countries and continents * 86. The variants of the annual dynamics of morbidity Include 1) systematic (trend), irregular (aperiodic) and cyclical fluctuations 2) year-round morbidity rate, seasonal rises and episodic outbreaks * 3) Sporadic, epidemic and pandemic levels 4) ubiquitous, endemic and exotic character
Topic No. 2. IMMUNOPROPHYLAXIS OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES
88. Immunoprophylaxis is a method of prevention infectious diseases aimed at creating the
immunological layer among the population with using 1) immunoglobulins and serums 2) anatoxins 3) live, inactivated and chemical vaccines 4) live, inactivated, chemical and recombinant vaccines, toxoids, immunoglobulins and serums 89. To post-vaccination complications that are subject to registration and investigation, refers to: 1) the collaptoid state 2) afebrile seizures 3) hyperemia and infiltration at the injection site 4) Quincke's edema * 5) an increase in body temperature above 38 ⁰ C 90. Active artificial immunity is formed after the introduction 1) homologous immunoglobulin 2) heterologous immunoglobulin 3) antitoxic serum 4) toxoid or vaccine * 91. Passive artificial immunity is formed after administration 1) live vaccines 2) chemical vaccine 3) recombinant vaccine 4) specific immunoglobulin or serum 5) anatoxin * 92. To the permanent contraindications of the introduction of vaccines you can include: 1) acute infectious disease 2) exacerbation of a chronic disease 3) indication of the administration of a specific immunoglobulin 1 week ago 4) temperature reaction above 40 ° C and the development of anaphylaxis * 5) pregnancy 6) conducting a course of immunosuppressive therapy 93. To the permanent contraindications of the introduction of vaccines you can include: 1) exacerbation of a chronic disease 2) edema, hyperemia with a diameter of 8 cm or more at the injection site of the vaccine* 3) an indication of the administration of a specific immunoglobulin 1 week ago 4) conducting a course of immunosuppressive therapy 94. Severe allergic reactions to aminoglycosides or eggs, which are manifested by temperature reaction above 40 ⁰ C and a history of anaphylaxis 1) may serve as a temporary contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps 2) may serve as a permanent contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps * 3) they are not a contraindication to vaccination 95. Primary and secondary immunodeficiency, malignant blood diseases and neoplasms 1) may serve as a temporary contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps 2) may serve as a permanent contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps * 3) they are not a contraindication to vaccination 96. Conducting a course of immunosuppressive therapy 1) may serve as a temporary contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps * 2) may serve as a permanent contraindication to vaccinations against measles, rubella and mumps 3) it is not a contraindication to vaccination 97. Severe allergic reactions to yeast that manifested by a temperature reaction above 40 ° C and anaphylaxis in the anamnesis can serve as 1) a temporary contraindication to vaccination against viral hepatitis B 2) a permanent contraindication to vaccination against viral hepatitis B * 3) a permanent contraindication to vaccination against measles, rubella and mumps 4) they are not a contraindication to vaccination 98. During routine vaccinations, you can vaccinate against diphtheria and tetanus 1) who had the flu 2 days ago 2) vaccinated against tuberculosis 2 weeks ago 3) who had viral hepatitis 2 weeks ago 4) a patient with a generalized form of meningococcal infection 5) who had measles without complications 1 month ago * 99. Routine measles vaccination is subject to: 1) adolescents and adults under the age of 35 who have not been ill, have not been vaccinated and do not have information about preventive vaccinations* 2) children from 1 to 17 years old, adults from 18 to 55 years old, not previously vaccinated 3) girls from 18 to 25years old who have not been ill or vaccinated before 4) children attending preschool institutions, school children, students, as well as adults over 60 years old or adults working in medical and educational institutions, transport, public utilities, etc. 100. Routine vaccination against viral hepatitis B subject to: 1) adolescents and adults under the age of 35 who have not been ill, have not been vaccinated and do not have information about preventive vaccinations 2) children from 1 to 17 years old, adults from 18 to 55 years old, not previously vaccinated 3) girls from 18 to 25years old who have not been ill or vaccinated before * 4) children attending preschool institutions, schoolchildren, students, as well as adults over 60 years old or adults working in medical and educational institutions, transport, public utilities, etc. 101. Indicate the correct tactics of the doctor in relation to a 7-year-old child who was admitted to the emergency room with a wound the right shin at the bite site according to external signs a healthy domestic dog, if he is 2 months old i received a planned ads-m revaccination back anatoxin: 1) does not need anti-rabies vaccinations 2) observe the animal, do not carry out anti-rabies vaccinations, introduce PPP (PSPI) 3) observe the animal, do not carry out anti-rabies vaccinations, introduce AS-anatoxin 4) start administering an anti-rabies vaccine, monitor the animal for 10 days and stop administering the vaccine if the animal remains healthy after this period 5) observe the animal for 10 days, inject the anti-rabies immunoglobulin, and then anti-rabies vaccine * 102. Рreventive drugs (anti-tetanus anatoxin or/and tetanus serum (HTIG)) for the purpose of emergency tetanus prevention, do not enter: 1) adults who have documented evidence of a full course of vaccination carried out for no more than 8 years 2) adults who have documented evidence of a full course of vaccination carried out for no more than 5 years * 3) teenagers and military personnel who do not have a known history of vaccinations 4) children at 18 months old who have been three times vaccinated, but did not receive the latest age revaccination 103. The correct tactics of the doctor in relation to the patient a toxic form of diphtheria, which after 20 minutes after intradermal administration of antidiphtheria the diluted 1:100 serum formed edema with a diameter of 1.5 cm, it is: 1) continue the injection of 0.1 ml of undiluted serum subcutaneously into the shoulder area, and after another 30-60 minutes, inject the entire single dose of undiluted serum intramuscularly 2) do not administer anti-diphtheria serum, but prescribe prednisone and antihistamines 3) transfer the patient to the intensive care unit, have antishock therapy (epinephrine solution) ready, prescribe prednisone, and then desensitize and administer a single dose of the drug * 104. The correct tactics of a doctor in relation to an adult, who was admitted to the emergency room with a deep stab wound shins with a nail and with an unknown vaccination anamnesis regarding tetanus vaccination, who has 20 minutes after intradermal administration tetanus-free diluted 1:100 serum an edema with a diameter of 0.5 cm has formed, it is: 1) continue the injection of undiluted serum in a volume of 0.1 ml subcutaneously into the shoulder area, and after 30-60 minutes, inject the entire single dose of undiluted serum intramuscularly * 2) do not administer tetanus serum, but prescribe prednisone and antihistamines 3) to inject only tetanus-resistant human immunoglobulin 4) transfer the patient to the intensive care unit, have antishock therapy (epinephrine solution) ready, prescribe prednisone, and then desensitize method and administer a single dose of the drug 105. The correct tactics of a doctor in relation to an adult, who was admitted to the emergency room with a deep stab wound lower leg and with an unknown vaccination history in relation to tetanus vaccination, who a positive intradermal test was obtained for introduction of tetanus diluted 1:100 the serum is: 1) continue the injection of undiluted serum in a volume of 0.1 ml subcutaneously into the shoulder area, and after 30-60 minutes, inject the entire single dose of undiluted serum intramuscularly 2) do not administer equine tetanus serum, prescribe antihistamines and, if possible, administer tetanus-resistant human immunoglobulin * 3) prescribe prednisone and antihistamines, carry out desensitization and administer a single dose of the drug 106. Emergency tetanus prevention is carried out 1) for burns or frostbite of the first degree 2) during hospital births and abortions 3) before any surgical operation 4) during childbirth and abortions outside hospital facilities 5) in case of injuries without violating the integrity of the skin 6) in case of surface scratches or blinding of the skin of animals * 107. Emergency tetanus prevention is carried out 1) for burns or frostbite of the first degree 2) for burns or frostbite from the second to the fourth degree, as well as for abscesses, gangrene and necrosis fabrics * 3) before any surgical operation 4) during childbirth and abortions in hospital facilities 5) in case of injuries without violating the integrity of the skin 6) in case of surface scratches or blinding of the skin of animals 108. Emergency tetanus prevention is carried out 1) for burns or frostbite of the first degree 2) during childbirth and abortions in hospital facilities 3) before any surgical operation 4) during surgical operations on the organs of the gastrointestinal tract and penetrating wounds of the abdominal cavity * 5) in case of injuries without violating the integrity of the skin 6) in case of surface scratches or blinding of the skin of animals 109. Vaccination for epidemic indications against anthrax is being carried out 1) persons engaged in the maintenance of sewage facilities 2) children of preschool institutions, children of the first grades of schools and first courses of universities and secondary vocational educational institutions 3) persons engaged in logging operations, as well as hunters, geologists and other professions related to work in the forest 4) persons engaged in earthworks (construction, geological, expeditionary, etc.), as well as in slaughter livestock and in the processing of products obtained from it * 5) catering workers 6) medical workers who have regular contact with blood, as well as patients who are blood recipients and those on hemodialysis 110. Vaccination according to epidemic indications against typhoid fever is carried out 1) persons engaged in the maintenance of sewage facilities, as well as the population of endemic regions * 2) children of preschool institutions, children of the first grades of schools and the first courses of universities and secondary vocational educational institutions during the rise in morbidity 3) persons engaged in logging operations, as well as hunters, geologists and other professions related to work in the forest 4) persons engaged in earthworks (construction, geological, expeditionary, etc.), as well as in the slaughter of livestock and in the processing of products obtained from it 5) medical workers who have regular contact with blood, as well as patients who are blood recipients and those on hemodialysis 111. Vaccination according to epidemic indications against meningococcal infection is carried out 1) persons engaged in the maintenance of sewage structures, as well as the population of endemic regions 2) children of preschool institutions, children of the first grades of schools and the first courses of universities and secondary vocational educational institutions during the rise in morbidity 3) persons engaged in logging operations, as well as hunters, geologists and other professions related to work in the forest * 4) persons engaged in earthworks (construction, geological, expeditionary, etc.), as well as in the slaughter of livestock and in the processing of products obtained from it 5) medical workers who have regular contact with blood, as well as a patient who is blood recipients and those on hemodialysis 112. Vaccination for epidemic indications against tick-borne encephalitis and tularemia are carried out 1) persons engaged in the maintenance of sewage facilities, as well as the population of endemic regions 2) children of preschool institutions, children of the first grades of schools and the first courses of universities and secondary vocational educational institutions during the rise in morbidity 3) persons engaged in logging operations, as well as hunters, geologists and other professions, related to working in the wild * 4) persons engaged in earthworks (construction, geological, expeditionary, etc.), as well as in the slaughter of livestock and in the processing of products obtained from it 5) medical workers who have regular contact with blood, as well as patients who are blood recipients and those on hemodialysis 113. Emergency prevention of rabies is carried out 1) when bitten through undamaged dense and layered clothing 2) for injuries inflicted by non-predatory birds 3) in cases of contact with a person with rabies, if there was no salivation or damage to the skin 4) in cases of salivation of the skin and mucous membranes, scratching or superficial single bites limbs or/and torso of a pet, having signs of a disease resembling rabies * 5) in the case of eating heat -treated meat of an animal with rabies 114. Severe damage, caused by animals, in which, as a rule, mandatory emergency prevention is carried out rabies, refers to: 1) a single scratching or/and salivation of the skin and mucous membranes caused by domestic animals, including rodents 2) eating thermally unprocessed meat of an animal with rabies 3) detection of multiple superficial and deep scratches or bites of the scalp, neck, hands caused by any domestic or wild carnivorous animals, including bats * 4) a single superficial bite of the limbs or/and torso by a pet 5) a single deep bite of the limbs or/and trunk of a pet 115. In case of severe damage, inflicted by unknown wild animals, emergency prevention of rabies, includes 1) administration of anti-rabies vaccine only 2) administration of the anti-rabies vaccine and heterologous or human anti-rabies immunoglobulin * 3) administration of only heterologous or human anti-rabies immunoglobulin 4) administration of an anti-rabies vaccine and an anti-rabies immunoglobulin is not required 116. Adverse reactions that may occur in response to the administration of an anti-rabies vaccine include 1) cold abscess 2) local hyperemia and/or edema and regional lymphadenitis, as well as slight malaise and subfebrile fever * 3) a mild, non-lethal form of rabies 4) severe encephalitis 117. An absolute contraindication of administration anti-rabies vaccine for the purpose of emergency rabies prevention 1) is pregnancy 2) is burdened with a history of neurological or allergic diseases 3) there may be a situation if no more than 3 months have passed since the previous vaccination. 4) there are no absolute contraindications * 118. Method of administration of BCG vaccine 1) subcutaneously into the scapular area 2) into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, retreating from the midline by 2-3 fingers at or below the navel 3) intradermally at the border of the upper and middle third of the outer surface of the shoulder * 4) intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle 5) subcutaneously at the border of the upper and middle third of the shoulder 6) orally 119. Method of administration of culturally purified concentrated inactivated anti-rabies vaccines (COCAV) 1) subcutaneously into the scapular area 2) into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, retreating from the midline by 2-3 fingers at or below the navel 3) intradermally at the border of the upper and middle third of the outer surface of the shoulder 4) intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle * 5) subcutaneously at the border of the upper and middle third of the shoulder 120. Method of administration of cultured live bark vaccines 1) into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, retreating from the midline by 2-3 fingers at or below the navel 2) intradermally at the border of the upper and middle third of the outer surface of the shoulder 3) intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle * 4) subcutaneously in the area of the outer surface of the shoulder 5) orally 121. Method of administration of inactivated polio vaccine 1) into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, retreating from the midline by 2-3 fingers at or below the navel 2) intradermally at the border of the upper and middle third of the outer surface of the shoulder 3) intramuscularly * 4) orally 122. The method of administration of the DTP vaccine 1) into the subcutaneous tissue of the abdomen, retreating from the midline by 2-3 fingers at or below the navel 2) intradermally at the border of the upper and middle third of the outer surface of the shoulder 3) intramuscularly into the upper outer quadrant of the buttock or into the antero-outer thigh area* 4) subcutaneously at the border of the upper and middle third of the shoulder 5) subcutaneously into the scapular area 123. The DTP vaccine contains 1) killed pertussis vaccine, diphtheria and tetanus toxoids * 2) live pertussis vaccine, diphtheria and tetanus toxoids 3) pertussis, diphtheria and tetanus toxoids 4) killed diphtheria vaccine, pertussis and tetanus toxoids 124. Killed vaccines include 1) vaccines against anthrax, plague, tularemia, fever 2) vaccines against yellow fever and brucellosis 3) typhoid vaccine and leptospirosis vaccine * 4) BCG, measles, rubella and mumps vaccines 125. Recombinant vaccines include 1) Hepatitis A vaccine 2) brucellosis vaccine 3) BCG 4) Hepatitis B vaccine * 5) Anti-rabies vaccine 6) typhoid vaccine 7) rubella vaccine 126. HIV-infected children 1) any live and inactivated vaccines can be administered in accordance with the “National Calendar preventive vaccinations”, regardless of the immune status 2) only inactivated vaccines can be administered in accordance with the “National Calendar preventive vaccinations” 3) Inactivated and recombinant vaccines can be administered in accordance with the “National Calendar preventive vaccinations”, but live vaccines are administered only in the absence of signs of immunodeficiency * 4) any live vaccines can be administered, regardless of the immune status 127. The correct temperature regime for storing and transporting vaccines is 1) freezing to -20 ⁰ C 2) storage in the refrigerator at a temperature from 0 ° C to +8 ⁰ C * 3) Storage at room temperature 4) the fact that the storage temperature does not matter 5) Storage at temperatures from +10 °C to +15 °C. 6) storage at temperatures from -5 °C to 0 ° C. 128. The term “anatoxin" means 1) inactivated bacteria 2) neutralized bacterial exotoxins * 3) serum containing antitoxic antibodies 4) recombinant vaccine 129. What should be done with broken ampoules if ampoules with anthrax vaccine and BCG were broken during transportation 1) throw it in the trash 2) pour in a disinfectant solution 3) burn * 4) boil it 130. If the temperature during transportation dropped to -20 ⁰ C during the day, then which one the listed drugs can be used 1) tetanus serum and AC-toxoid 2) oral polio vaccine and BCG * 3) the DPT vaccine and the hepatitis B virus vaccine 4) Anti-rabies vaccines 131. A post–vaccination reaction is 1) a complication after vaccination due to the introduction of a low-quality vaccine preparation 2) normal physiological reaction after immunization 3) post-vaccination complication related to under-reporting individual contraindications to vaccination * 4) a complication after vaccination associated with a violation of immunization techniques 132. Tour immunization is 1) routine immunoprophylaxis 2) prevention according to epidemiological indications 3) one of the organizational forms of immunoprophylaxis, defined by WHO * 133. An absolute contraindication when conducting vaccinations are a disease of the same name infection with 1) diphtheria and tetanus 2) tuberculosis and mumps * 3) polio 134. The purpose of immunoprophylaxis against diphtheria is 1) reducing the incidence to isolated cases * 2) reduced mortality 3) creation of an immune layer 4) reducing the frequency of occurrence of the toxic form 5) elimination of the pathogen as a species
Topic № 3. EPIDEMIOLOGICAL SURVEILLANCE.
ANTI-EPIDEMIC MEASURES IN THE FOCI INFECTIOUS DISEASES
135. The term “epidemiological surveillance” means
1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) a system of preventive and anti-epidemic measures 3) using a set of techniques and methods in order to systematize individual epidemiological data and their statistical processing for the most complete and accurate identification signs characterizing the features of the epidemic process and the establishment of an epidemiological diagnosis 4) a system of dynamic monitoring of the epidemic process of a specific infectious disease in a certain area for a long period of time in order to increase efficiency preventive and anti-epidemic measures and the formation of an epidemiological forecast * 136. The term “epidemiological analysis” means 1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) a system of preventive and anti-epidemic measures 3) a set of techniques and methods designed to study the epidemic process in order to make an epidemiological diagnosis 4) the use of a set of techniques and methods in order to systematize individual epidemiological data and their statistical processing for the most complete and accurate identification signs characterizing the features of the epidemic process and the establishment of an epidemiological diagnosis * 5) analysis of the current infectious morbidity in a certain area in a short period of time, when data collection continues at the time of the analysis 137. The term “epidemiological method” means 1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) a system of dynamic monitoring of the epidemic process of a specific infectious disease on in a certain area for a long period of time in order to increase the effectiveness of preventive and anti-epidemic measures and the formation of an epidemiological forecast 3) a system of preventive and anti-epidemic measures 4) a set of techniques and methods designed to study the epidemic process in order to make an epidemiological diagnosis * 5) analysis of the current infectious morbidity in a certain area in a short period of time, when data collection continues at the time of the analysis 138. The term “epidemiological diagnosis” means 1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) the final assessment of the epidemiological situation and its causes in a specific territory among certain groups of the population in the studied period of time in order to develop a set of preventive and anti-epidemic measures and an epidemiological forecast * 3) a system of preventive and anti-epidemic measures 4) analysis of the current infectious morbidity in a certain area in a short period of 90 the time when data collection continues and at the time of analysis 139. The term “epidemiological control” means 1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) a set of techniques and methods designed to study the epidemic process in order to make an epidemiological diagnosis 3) a system of preventive and anti-epidemic measures * 4) the final assessment of the epidemiological situation and its causes in a specific territory among certain population groups in the studied period time to develop a set of preventive and anti-epidemic measures and an epidemiological forecast 140. The term “epidemic outbreak” means 1) allocation of territories characterized by the similarity of the epidemiological situation 2) the place of residence of the source of the causative agent of infection with the surrounding territory within the limits within which the infectious origin is capable of being transmitted from it to others * 3) characteristics of the prevalence of an infectious disease in a particular area over a certain period of time 4) elements of the natural environment interacting with the parasitic system as part of the epidemiological ecosystem and the processes that regulate it 141. The purpose of the examination of the epidemic outbreak of infection is 1) proof of hypotheses about risk factors and quantitative assessment of the effectiveness of preventive measures (methods) 2) formalized with the help of techniques of higher mathematical description of the development of the leading driving forces of the epidemic process 3) determination of the severity of the course and clinical forms of an infectious disease 4) establishment of the causes and conditions of the outbreak of an infectious disease, identification sources of the causative agent of infection, ways and factors of its transmission, as well as persons at risk of infection * 142. The term “anti-epidemic measures” means 1) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing the development of deviations in the state of health and diseases among the population 2) a set of scientifically based and justified practical measures to combat emerging infectious diseases among people * 3) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing worsening of the course and prevention of exacerbations, complications and chronization of diseases 4) a set of medical and non-medical measures, psychological and other measures aimed at early detection and slowing of the development of the disease in patients 143. The term “primary prevention” means 1) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing the development of deviations in the state of health and diseases among the population * 2) a set of scientifically based and justified practical measures to combat with emerging infectious diseases among people 3) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing the deterioration of the course and preventing exacerbations, complications and chronization of diseases 4) a set of medical and non-medical measures, psychological and other measures aimed at early detection and slowing of the development of the disease in patients 144. The term “tertiary prevention” means 1) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing the development of deviations in the state of health and diseases among the population 2) a set of scientifically based and justified practical measures to combat emerging infectious diseases among people 3) a set of medical and non-medical measures aimed at preventing the deterioration of the course and preventing exacerbations, complications and chronization of diseases * 4) a set of medical and non-medical measures, psychological and other measures aimed at early detection and slowing of the development of the disease in patients 145. In classical epidemiology anti–epidemic measures are measures to ensure 1) prevention of non-communicable diseases 2) prevention and control of infectious diseases * 3) prevention and control of infectious and non-communicable diseases 4) prevention and control of non-communicable diseases 146. Anti-epidemic measures aimed at the source of infection include 1) the destruction of blood-sucking arthropods 2) boiling water 3) hospitalization and treatment of patients * 4) disinfection in the patient's apartment 5) sterilization of medical instruments 147. Anti-epidemic measures aimed at interrupting the transmission mechanism infections, refers to 1) extermination of mice and rats 2) vaccination 3) hospitalization and treatment of patients 4) disinfection in the patient's apartment * 5) isolation, treatment or destruction of sick domesticated animals 148. Antiepidemic measures aimed at a susceptible organism include 1) extermination of mice and rats 2) medical supervision of contact persons, carrying out emergency prophylaxis with antibiotics * 3) hospitalization and treatment of patients 4) disinfection in the patient's apartment 5) sterilization of medical instruments 149. The boundaries of the epidemic outbreak are determined by 1) the doctor who first made the diagnosis 2) the district doctor 3) Epidemiologist * 4) infectious diseases doctor 150. The doctor who suspected an infectious disease, must 1) inform the place of study or work of the sick person 2) to conduct an examination of the epidemic outbreak 3) call the disinfectants for final disinfection 4) establish the boundaries of the epidemic outbreak 5) Send an “Emergency Notification” to the local Hygiene and Epidemiology Center * 151. An “emergency notification” must be sent 1) only after bacteriological confirmation diagnosis 2) after consulting with an infectious disease specialist 3) no later than 12 hours from the moment of identification of the patient * 4) no later than 3 hours after the detection of an infectious patient 5) only after hospitalization of the patient 152. Hospitalization of the patient is not mandatory, but sufficient only his isolation at home and outpatient treatment conditions in the event that 1) a 3-month-old child has whooping cough 2) a 4th grade student has scarlet fever with a mild severity of the disease * 3) a 35-year-old man has typhoid fever 4) the cook has been diagnosed with an acute intestinal infection 5) the waiter was diagnosed with shigella carrier 153. The criterion for assessing the quality of antiepidemic the activities are 1) their implementation in accordance with regulatory documents * 2) reducing the morbidity of the total population 3) reducing the severity of infectious diseases 4) reduction of morbidity in certain population groups 154. Infections controlled mainly by drugs immunoprophylaxis, include anthroponoses with 1) fecal-oral transmission mechanism 2) aspiration transmission mechanism * 3) a transmission transmission mechanism 4) contact transmission mechanism 155. Infections controlled mainly by sanitary and hygienic measures include anthroponoses with 1) fecal-oral transmission mechanism * 2) aspiration transmission mechanism 3) a transmission transmission mechanism 4) contact transmission mechanism 156. Measures aimed at the source of infection in zoonoses, include 1) preventive vaccinations of livestock 2) veterinary and sanitary examination of meat 3) disinfection of raw materials of animal origin 4) extermination of synanthropic rodents and destruction of sick domesticated animals * 157. Hospitalizations for epidemiological indications subject to 1) all infectious patients 2) patients with severe infectious disease 3) sick children of the first years of life or persons with chronic diseases who may lead to complications 4) persons living in unsettled housing, children from orphanages, elderly people from nursing homes, as well as decreed groups of the population * 5) pregnant women 158. To active forms of identification of the source of infection they include 1) a visit by a district doctor to a patient at home on call 2) the patient's appeal to the polyclinic for medical help 3) periodic medical examinations of the staff of preschool institutions or microbiological examination of contact persons from the epidemic outbreak of infection * 4) hospitalization of the patient in an infectious disease hospital by ambulance 159. For an aqueous type of intestinal infection outbreak it is peculiar 1) a short incubation period and the prevalence of cases of moderate and severe diseases 2) monoethiological nature and high proportion of diseases with laboratory-established etiology 3) the massive nature of the epidemic over a large area and the prevalence of cases of mild or carrier-borne diseases * 4) the explosive nature of the outbreak and the rapid cessation of cases of diseases after the elimination of transmission factors 160. For a food-type outbreak of intestinal infection it is peculiar 1) an extended incubation period and the predominance of cases of mild or carrier diseases 2) polyethological character 3) repeated character in the form of waves of acute intestinal infections of various etiologies 4) the massive nature of the epidemic in a large area 5) the explosive nature of the outbreak and the predominance of cases of moderate diseases with laboratory -established etiology * 161. For a food-type outbreak of intestinal infection typical 1) the presence of precursors of the outbreak 2) isolation of one gray-, phago-, biovar pathogen in cases of illness 3) the predominance of atypical forms of the disease 4) the predominance of the maximum incubation period in patients 162. For a household type of intestinal infection outbreak it is peculiar 1) polyethological character 2) explosive nature and the possibility of the development of a mass epidemic in a large area * 3) repeated character in the form of waves of acute intestinal infections of various etiologies 4) the chain-linked chronic nature of the outbreak and its connection with a low level of sanitary and communal improvement 163. In the case of a food-type outbreak of intestinal infection they get sick more often 1) all age groups except children under 1year old 2) children of the first year of life who do not attend preschool institutions * 3) children attending preschool institutions and schoolchildren 164. The explosive type of the epidemic process should be to speak in case of 1) systematic infection of a water source or food for a long period of time 2) a single infection of food products at a catering company * 3) when the diseases are separated from each other by a period of time corresponding to the incubation period 4) 72 hours from the moment of receiving the “Emergency Notification” 165. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak install 1) only for persons caring for the patient at home 2) for all persons who were in contact with the patient * 3) only for family members living in a communal apartment 4) only for small children living with the sick person 5) only for persons whose professional activity is associated with a high risk of spreading an infectious disease 166. Anti-epidemic measures that medical forces are carried out, they include 1) vaccination of animals and quality control of food products of animal origin 2) disinfection of drinking water and sanitary cleaning of populated areas 3) identification of bacterial carriers and sanitary treatment of persons in contact with the patient* 167. Hospitalization of an infectious patient should to be executed 1) for 12 hours in cities and for 24hours in rural areas 2) for 3 hours in cities and for 6 hours in rural areas * 3) the period of hospitalization is not regulated
PRIVATE EPIDEMIOLOGY OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES
Topic № 4. ANTI-EPIDEMIC MEASURES IN FOCI INTESTINAL INFECTIONS 168. А cook working in the dining room who has suffered acute shigellosis 1) needs dispensary supervision during 3 months 2) needs dispensary supervision during 2 months 3) needs dispensary supervision during 1 month * 4) needs dispensary supervision during 6 months 5) does not need dispensary supervision 169. The source of enteropathogenic E. COLI is 1) cattle and small cattle 2) poultry 3) a sick child or an adult carrier 4) dog or cat 170. An infectious disease, the outbreak of which may occur as a result of an accident on the city the sewer network and the ingress of household waste water the water in the water supply is 1) leptospirosis 2) tularemia 3) intestinal yersiniosis 4) typhoid fever * 5) salmonellosis 171. The transient bacterial carrier of typhoid bacteria is indicated by their isolation 1) from bile 6 months after the disease 2) from feces 2 months after the disease 3) from urine 4 months after the disease 4) from feces once in a healthy person * 172. To the main measures for prevention the spread of salmonellosis among people can be to carry 1) vaccination of the population 2) veterinary and sanitary control over the slaughter of livestock * 3) compliance with the rules of personal hygiene 4) emergency prophylaxis with antibiotics in contact persons in the hearth 173. The main conditions for the implementation of fecal-oral the mechanism of transmission of infection includes 1) features of the demographic characteristics of the population 2) the distribution of children in children's institutions 3) land reclamation, deforestation, highway construction 4) climatic and geographical factors 5) the state of municipal improvement and organization of water supply and nutrition * 174. The main antiepidemic measures for intestinal infections include 1) measures related to the isolation of sources of infection 2) measures aimed at interrupting the transmission routes of infection * 3) measures aimed at increasing the immunity of the population 175. Cholera from an epidemiological point of view the greatest danger is represented by 1) contact persons from the cholera outbreak 2) patients with a typical form of the disease 3) patients with atypical forms of cholera * 4) transient vibration carriers 176. As a preservative, stool samples for bacteriological examination in case of when transporting it to the laboratory, it is used 1) distilled water 2) a mixture of glycerin with isotonic sodium chloride solution * 3) peptone water 4) bile broth 177. The maximum period of departure in bacteriological laboratory of the stool sample taken from a patient with an acute intestinal infection, in the case of the storage of the sample at room temperature is no later than 1) 20 minutes after taking the sample 2) 40 minutes after taking the sample 3) 2 hours after taking the sample * 4) 4 hours after taking the sample 5) 6 hours after taking the sample 178. Treatment of a patient with acute shigellosis, which left at home, appoints 1) Epidemiologist 2) the district doctor * 3) the doctor of the infectious diseases hospital 4) the sanitary doctor 179. The signs characteristic of modern salmonellosis include 1) reduction of morbidity 2) a limited number of serotypes that cause infection 3) the presence of nosocomial outbreaks * 4) absence of hospital outbreaks 5) an increase in the frequency of aquatic outbreaks of the disease 180. A patient with typhoid fever is as contagious as possible in 1) the end of incubation 2) the first days of the disease 3) the end of the 2nd – beginning of the 3rd week of illness * 4) the period of reconvalescence 180. The occurrence of food outbreaks of typhoid fever more often everything is related to 1) using non-boiled water for drinking 2) the presence of a chronic bacterial carrier on a food object * 3) contamination of drinking water by sewage 4) the ability of the pathogen to multiply in environmental objects 182. Signs of aquatic outbreaks of typhoid fever include 1) high morbidity of children, especially under 3 years of age 2) the duration of the outbreak is not more than the maximum duration of one incubation period 3) prevalence of mild and moderate clinical the forms and territorial “attachment” of most cases of the disease to a specific water source * 4) the absence of an abdominal flare-up typhus is a marked increase in the incidence of other acute intestinal infections 183. The main route of infection with Flexner's dysentery is 1) alimentary 2) water * 3) contact and household 4) artificial 184. The main route of infection with dysentery is Sonnei is 1) alimentary * 2) water 3) contact and household 4) Direct contact 185. The main way of infection with Grigoriev shiga dysentery is 1) alimentary 2) water 3) contact and household * 4) Direct contact 186. The main features of epidemiology Grigoriev-shiga dysentery refers to 1) high virulence and low infectious dose * 2) low virulence and high infectious dose 3) high survival rate of the pathogen in food products compared to other types of shigella 4) no exotoxin 187. The highest incidence of dysentery is S. sonnei registered at the age of 1) up to 3 years old * 2) 3-6 years old 3) 7-10 years old 4) older than 10 years 188. In enterohemorrhagic escherichiosis caused by E. coli o157 serovar:h7, the transmission factor is more common there may be a total of 1) drinks 2) pets 3) meat products * 4) eggs 189. The highest risk of getting Escherichia coli, caused by enteropathogenic strains of e. coli, in 1) children 1-6 years old 2) children under 1 year old * 3) children attending preschool institutions 4) adults 190. In an epidemic outbreak of typhoid fever the final disinfection is carried out 1) by the population after the instruction of the district doctor 2) disinfection service * 3) by a district doctor 4) an epidemiologist 191. In the epidemic outbreak of shigellosis, the current disinfection is carried out 1) by the population after the instruction of the district doctor * 2) disinfection service 3) by a district doctor 4) an epidemiologist 192. Which of the anamnestic information has diagnostic value in case of suspected typhoid paratyphoid infection, if specified the epidemiological history has been established that 1) the patient was visiting relatives 2 days before the disease 2) the patient returned from vacation 30 days before the onset of the disease (rested in a sanatorium in the Crimea) 3) the mother of the patient suffered typhoid fever 15 years ago and suffers from chronic cholecystitis * 193. For bacteriological diagnosis of typhoid fever bacteriological sowing is used 1) feces for meat-peptone agar 2) urine on meat-peptone agar 3) stool on peptone water 4) blood for bile broth * 194. TREATMENT DURING FINAL DISINFECTION IN THE EPIDOCHAGE OF TYPHOID FEVER IS SUBJECT TO 1) walls, indoor floors, windows, furniture, dishes 2) air, ceiling, coat, fur coat, children's toys, dishes 3) dishes, linen, toilet, patient's bowel movements, indoor floor, children's toys * 195. Emergency prophylaxis of typhoid fever for contact persons in the epidemic area is carried out with 1) antibiotics 2) typhoid vaccine 3) typhoid bacteriophage * 4) interferon 196. Stool sample before sowing on a nutrient medium at he study on enterobacteria is preserved in: 1) the thermostat 2) refrigerator * 3) at room temperature 197. Pseudotuberculosis was diagnosed in a 15-year-old A schoolboy, how could he get infected if it is known that 1) 1 day before the disease, he cleaned the basement, where there was a lot of mouse droppings 2) 3 days before the disease, he consumed canned meat 3) 5 days before the illness, I ate a salad of fresh cabbage and carrots in the school cafeteria * 4) 2 days before the illness, I ate fried eggs 5) on the eve of the disease, I ate a cake with cream 199. Salmonellosis was diagnosed in a school teachers, how could he get infected if it is known that 1) 2 days before the disease, he cleaned the basement, where there was a lot of mouse droppings 2) 3 days before the disease, he consumed canned fish 3) 5 days before the illness, I ate a salad of fresh cabbage and carrots in the school cafeteria 4) on the eve of illness, I ate fried eggs * 5) on the eve of the disease, he drank unboiled water 200. Among the persons who are not subject to mandatory vaccinations against typhoid fever can include 1) workers in the maintenance of sewage treatment plants 2) laboratory assistants working in a microbiological laboratory with live cultures of salmonella 3) residents of the territory epidemiologically disadvantaged by typhoid fever 4) people traveling to countries with tropical the climate, epidemiologically unfavorable for typhoid fever 5) contact persons in the epidemic outbreak of abdominal typhus * 201. Chronic carriage of abdominal salmonella typhus can cause a ban on the profession of 1) a general practitioner 2) the seller of the home appliance store 3) Kindergarten chefs * 4) an engineer 5) plumbing 6) a worker at the glass container reception point 202. The period of observation of the contact persons from the typhoid fever outbreak is 1) 7 days 2) 14 days 3) 21 days * 4) 28 days 5) 40 days 203. A patient with viral hepatitis A is most contagious in 1) the period of the height of the disease 2) at the end of incubation and in the prodromal period * 3) the period of reconvalescence 204. The most significant route of transmission of hepatitis A virus in preschool 1) water 2) Airborne 3) food grade 4) contact and household * 205. For persons who have been in contact with a viral patient Hepatitis A, monitoring is established during 1) 3 months 2) 21 days 3) 6 months 4) 35 days * 206. Contact persons from the hepatitis A, from epidemiological focus what they should to do 1) medical supervision for 21 days and an ELISA examination for the detection of specific IgM 2) medical supervision for 35 days, blood examination for alanine aminotransferase activity and ELISA examination for the detection of specific IgM * 3) blood examination for alanine aminotransferase activity and ELISA examination for the detection of specific IgM 4) medical supervision for 21 days and a blood test for alanine aminotransferase activity 207. What should be done if the child, living with his parents in a hostel, there he was diagnosed with viral hepatitis A, mild gravity 1) outpatient treatment 2) hospitalize for epidemiological reasons indications * 3) hospitalize according to clinical indications 4) hospitalize according to symptomatic indications 208. Risk groups for viral hepatitis a you can include 1) the adult population, especially pregnant women 2) children from groups of preschool institutions and schools * 3) medical workers 4) recipients after blood transfusion 209. The most effective preventive measure viral hepatitis a is 1) isolation and treatment of patients from the hearth 2) vaccination * 3) the use of interferon for emergency prevention 4) water disinfection measures 5) the use of specific immunoglobulin for emergency prevention Topic No. 5. ANTI-EPIDEMIC MEASURES IN FOCI RESPIRATORY TRACT INFECTIONS 210. The characteristic signs of the epidemic process respiratory tract infections include 1) sporadic type of morbidity 2) primary infection coverage of children * 3) the same incidence rate for several years 4) uniform year-round type of morbidity by season 5) dominance among the sick adult population 211. The characteristic signs of the epidemic process respiratory tract infections include 1) sporadic type of morbidity 2) the same incidence rate for several years 3) seasonal unevenness of morbidity * 4) uniform year-round type of morbidity by season 212. The intervals between successive increases in the incidence of respiratory infections the paths depend on 1) communal improvement of populated areas and sanitary and hygienic living conditions 2) increasing the proportion of non-immune groups in the population * 3) the actions of random factors such as wars, man-made accidents or natural disasters 4) the state of the health care system and the level of diagnosis of this disease 5) an increase in the proportion of mild and atypical clinical forms of the disease 213. The main anti-epidemic measure, influencing the epidemic process of controlled respiratory tract infections, is 1) disinfection in the epidemic area and crowded places 2) early and complete isolation of the sources of infection 3) sterilization of medical instruments 4) early isolation of the source of infection and disinfection the the epidemic area 5) vaccination of the population * 214. Rubella is transmitted 1) by air and dust 2) by direct contact 3) by household contact 4) by airborne droplets * 215. To respiratory tract infections controlled by means of immunoprophylaxis include 1) scarlet fever 2) measles * 3) infectious mononucleosis 4) adenovirus infection 216. To infections of the respiratory tract that are not controlled means of immunoprophylaxis include 1) whooping cough 2) smallpox 3) rubella 4) polio 5) adenovirus infection * 217. The main features of manifestations the epidemic process of respiratory infections pathways controlled by immunoprophylaxis include 1) pronounced seasonality 2) the dominance of the defeat of adolescents and adults from organized groups * 3) pronounced cyclicity 4) epidemic type of morbidity 218. The epidemic process of whooping cough is characterized by 1) the absence of seasonal increases in morbidity 2) preservation of the circulation of the pathogen among the population * 3) prevalence of disease cases among adolescents and adults 4) the preservation of the epidemic type of morbidity 219. To the means of specific prevention of influenza you can include 1) oxoline ointment 2) remantadine 3) influenza vaccine * 4) Intranasal human leukocyte interferon 220. Diphtheria transmission routes include 1) parenteral pathway 2) the contact and household way * 3) waterway 4) transmission path 221. Diphtheria transmission routes include 1) parenteral pathway 2) transmissive 3) waterway 4) alimentary (milk) * 222. The patient must be hospitalized 1) catarrhal sore throat 2) follicular purulent sore throat 3) rhinitis with filmy deposits * 4) catarrhal rhinitis 5) sinusitis, which is a carrier of non-toxic Corynebacterium diphtheriae 223. The patient is subject to mandatory hospitalization 1) follicular purulent sore throat 2) catarrhal laryngotracheitis 3) catarrhal rhinitis 4) sinusitis, which is a carrier of toxigenic Corynebacterium diphtheria * 224. The patient is subject to mandatory hospitalization 1) follicular purulent sore throat 2) catarrhal laryngotracheitis 3) sore throat with filmy patches that do not go beyond the tonsils * 4) catarrhal rhinitis 225. Patients with angina (any form), rhinitis and paratonsillar abscess are subject to 1) mandatory hospitalization 2) bacteriological examination ( from the throat and nose) for Corynebacterium diphtheria * 3) mandatory vaccination against diphtheria 4) mandatory serological examination for specific antibodies to Corynebacterium diphtheriae 226. The epidemiological well-being of the territory in relation to diphtheria can be ensured if preventive vaccination coverage for children and adults are at least 1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 85% 4) 95% * 227. Duration of medical supervision for the contact persons in the epidochage of diphtheria are 1) 5 days 2) 7 days * 3) 14 days 4) 17 days 5) 21 days 228. Duration of short-term carrier the causative agent of diphtheria is 1) up to 7 days 2) from 7 to 15 days * 3) from 15 to 30 days 4) more than 30 days 229. Post infectious immunity in diphtheria 1) persistent, lifelong 2) lasting up to 5 years 3) not persistent, repeated cases of the disease are possible * 4) lasting up to 10 years 230. Persons who have had diphtheria during the period convalescences, as a rule, need to be 1) vaccination against diphtheria * 2) administration of antitoxic serum 3) administration of a specific immunoglobulin 4) conducting a course of glucocorticosteroid therapy 231. The most epidemiologically dangerous sources infections in the epidochage of diphtheria are 1) carriers of nontoxigenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2) patients with mild atypical forms of the disease and carriers of toxigenic Corynebacterium diphtheriae * 3) convalescences of diphtheria 4) 232. To the indications of bacteriological examination on diphtheria for preventive purposes includes examination 1) a child before a tonsillectomy 2) a patient with angina 3) a patient with laryngitis 4) children entering orphanages and adults (from decreed groups) entering work in children's institutions * 5) a patient with a paratonsillar abscess 233. To the indications of bacteriological examination on diphtheria for epidemiological purposes includes examination 1) a patient with angina 2) a patient with laryngitis 3) contact persons from the epidochages * 4) children entering orphanages and adults (from decreed groups) entering work in children's institutions 5) a patient with a paratonsillar abscess 234. The correct tactics of the doctor, who during the examination the patient suspected diphtheria, is if the patient 1) left at home before consulting an infectious disease specialist 2) they were urgently hospitalized in an infectious diseases hospital * 3) left at home for outpatient treatment 4) hospitalized in the ENT department 5) vaccinated against diphtheria 235. The correct tactics of a doctor who bacteriological examination in the epidemiological focus has identified a carrier of the toxigenic corynebacterium diphtheriae, is if its 1) vaccinate 2) outpatient treatment with antibiotics * 3) hospitalize for urgent administration antitoxic serum 4) hospitalize for clinical examination and treatment 236. In the epidemic focus of diphtheria 1) Final and ongoing disinfection * 2) wet cleaning and ventilation only 3) only current disinfection 237. The source of measles infection is 1) the patient at the beginning of the incubation period 2) reconvalescence 3) virus carrier 4) the patient at the end of the incubation period and before the 10th day of the disease * 237. The patient with measles is contagious to others 1) from the last 2-3 days of the incubation period to the 3rd day of the disease 2) from the last 5 days of the incubation period to the 2nd day (or the 6th day with a complicated course) of the disease 3) in the last 2-3 days of the incubation period, the entire prodromal period and the period of rashes up to the 5th day (or the 10th day with a complicated course) * 4) from the onset of the disease to the 7th day of normal temperature 5) from the onset of the disease to the 21st day of normal temperature 238. Disconnection from the team of contact persons who do not a specific immunoglobulin was introduced, from the epidemic focus of measles is carried out 1) from the 8th to the 17th day from the moment of contact * 2) from 11 to 21 days from the moment of contact 3) for 21 days from the date of contact 4) for 7 days from the date of contact 239. Disconnection from the team of contact persons from the epidemic focus of mumps is carried out 1) from the 8th to the 17th day from the moment of contact 2) from 11 to 21 days from the moment of contact * 3) for 21 days from the date of contact 4) within 7 days from the moment of contact 240. In the epidemic focus of mumps, medical the observation is being carried out 1) in relation to all vaccinated 2) in relation to all those who were not ill (vaccinated and not vaccinated) 3) only for children who were not ill (vaccinated and not vaccinated) under 10 years of age * 4) only for teenagers and adults 241. In the epidemic outbreak of measles, 1) Final and ongoing disinfection 2) wet cleaning and ventilation only * 3) final disinfection 242. In the epidemic outbreak of measles, medical supervision held 1) in relation to all elderly and senile persons 2) only in relation to children who were not ill (vaccinated and not vaccinated) up to 10 years old* 3) in relation to all vaccinated 4) only for teenagers and adults 243. A rubella patient is contagious to others 1) from the last 2-3 days of the incubation period to the 3rd day of the disease 2) in the last 2-3 days of the incubation period, during the prodromal period of the disease 3) from the last 5 days of the incubation period to the 3rd day after the appearance of skin rashes 4) in the last 2-3 days of the incubation period, in the prodromal period and during the rash period up to the 5th day after the appearance of the exanthema * 5) from the onset of the disease to the 7th day of normal temperature 244. Disconnection from the team of contact persons from epidemic focus of rubella 1) it is carried out from 8 to 17 days from the moment of contact 2) it is carried out from 11 to 21 days from the moment of contact 3) it is not carried out * 4) it is carried out within 7 days 245. From the epidemic outbreak of temporary rubella they are subject to isolation 1) only unvaccinated adults for 5 days from the moment of contact 2) only children under 10 years of age for 7 days from the moment of contact 3) pregnant women for 10 days from the onset of the disease * 4) only children who are not vaccinated and who are not ill for 5 days from the moment of the onset of the disease 246. The rubella booster is the most danger to 1) children over 1year old 2) pregnant women * 3) unvaccinated teenagers 4) adults 247. Detection of IgM to the virus in the blood of a pregnant woman Rubella may indicate 1) a long-term infection in childhood 2) recently vaccinated against rubella 3) infection with this virus * 4) postinfectious persistent immunity 248. The correct tactics of the doctor who identified the patient Meningococcal nasopharyngitis in the epidemic focus meningococcal infection is if the patient 1) they are treated only on an outpatient basis 2) isolate at the place of residence before consulting an infectious disease specialist 3) vaccinate 4) they are hospitalized in the otolaryngology department 5) they are hospitalized in the infectious diseases department * 249. The correct tactics of a doctor who, when examining school children in an epidemic area, detected a clinically healthy meningococcal bacterial carrier 1) to immunize 2) to hospitalize in the ENT department 3) to isolate at home, provide medical * observation and treatment 250. What is the route of transmission of meningococcal infection 1) air-dust path 2) the airborne pathway * 3) waterway 4) contact and household way 251. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak meningococcal infection is carried out during 1) 7 days from the moment of contact for adults only 2) 14 days only for children under 10 years old 3) 10 days from the moment of contact for all children and adults * 4) 21 days for unvaccinated and unwell children and pregnant women 5) 14 days for unvaccinated and unwell children and pregnant women 252. Who in the family can get chickenpox if one of the family members was diagnosed “shingles” 1) wife of 42 years, had chickenpox 2) the mother is 68 years old, did not have chickenpox 3) the son is 7 years old, did not have chickenpox * 4) the daughter is 16 years old, she had chickenpox 253. Disconnection from the team of contact persons who are not having clinical symptoms, from the epidemic focus scarlet fever 1) it is carried out only for adolescents and adults from the decreed groups who did not suffer from scarlet fever 2) it is carried out only for children under 8 years old who have not been ill scarlet fever * 3) it is not carried out 4) it is carried out only for adults from the decreed groups who did not suffer from scarlet fever 5) it is carried out for children under 8 years old and adults from decreed groups that did not suffer from scarlet fever 254. Name the time when you can allow a pediatrician with angina to work, whose child is ill scarlet fever 1) 7 days after the onset of the disease 2) 10 days after the onset of the disease 3) 12 days after the onset of the disease 4) 22 days after the onset of the disease * 255. The correct tactics of the doctor, who during the examination identified school children in the epidemic focus clinically a healthy bacteriological carrier of hemolytic streptococcus, is if its 1) vaccinate 2) hospitalize in the ENT department 3) hospitalize in an infectious diseases hospital 4) isolate at home, carry out medical * supervision and bacteriological examination 256. The correct tactics of a doctor in relation to a woman 30 Years, convalescence of scarlet fever, which works a nurse in the maternity ward is, if her 1) immediately allow to work 2) do not allow to work for 7 days 3) hospitalize in an infectious diseases hospital 4) do not allow to work for 12 days * 257. Medical supervision of contact persons in the epidemic focus of scarlet fever is carried out in course 1) 7 days from the moment of contact upon hospitalization of the patient and 17 days upon leaving the patient at home for outpatient treatment * 2) 14 days from the moment of contact upon hospitalization of the patient and 25 days upon leaving the patient at home for outpatient treatment 3) 14 days from the moment of contact only for children under 8 years old 4) 10 days from the moment of contact for all children and adults 5) 21 days from the moment of contact to unvaccinated and non-ill children 258. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak scarlet fever is carried out in relation to 1) only adults from the decreed groups who did not suffer from scarlet fever 2) only children under 8years old who have not had scarlet fever 3) only children attending preschool institutions that have not had scarlet fever 4) children and adults from the decreed groups who had or did not have scarlet fever * 259. In the epidemic outbreak of scarlet fever, 1) Final and ongoing disinfection 2) only current disinfection 3) final disinfection 260. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak chickenpox is carried out in relation to 1) adults from the decreed groups who did not have chickenpox 2) only children under 7 years old who have not had chickenpox * 3) only children who have not had chickenpox 4) children and adults who have had chickenpox 261. Disconnection from the team of contact persons in the epidemic focus of chickenpox is carried out in relation to 1) adults from the decreed groups who did not have chickenpox 2) only children under 7 years old who have not had chickenpox * 3) only children over 7 years old who have not had chickenpox 4) children and adults who have had chickenpox 262. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak chickenpox is carried out during 1) 7 days from the date of contact 2) 14 days from the date of contact 3) 10 days from the date of contact 4) 21 days from the date of contact * 263. Separation from the collective of children under 7 years of age from the epidemic focus of chickenpox, who have not had this disease before 1) it is carried out from 8 to 17 days from the moment of contact 2) it is carried out from 11 to 21 days from the moment of contact * 3) it is not carried out 4) it is carried out within 14 days from the date of contact 264. A chickenpox patient is contagious to others 1) from the last 2-3 days of the incubation period to the 3rd day of the disease 2) from the last day of the incubation period, the entire period of rashes, to the 5th day after the appearance of the last rashes on the skin * 3) from the onset of the disease to the 7th day of normal temperature 4) from the onset of the disease to the 21st day of normal temperature 265. The source of chickenpox can often be 1) the patient at the beginning of the incubation period 2) reconvalescence of chickenpox 30 days after the transfer of the disease 3) virus carrier 4) a patient with herpes zoster infection * 266. Medical supervision in an epidemic outbreak whooping cough is carried out in relation to 1) adults from the decreed groups who were not ill whooping cough 2) only children under 7 years old who have not had whooping cough 3) only children who have not had whooping cough * 4) children and adults who have had whooping cough 267. Medical supervision of contact persons in an epidemic outbreak of whooping cough is carried out during 1) 14 days from the moment of contact upon hospitalization of the patient and 25 days upon leaving the patient at home for outpatient treatment * 2) 7 days from the moment of contact upon hospitalization of the patient and 17 days upon leaving the patient at home for outpatient treatment 3) 14 days from the moment of contact only for children under 7 years old 4) 10 days from the moment of contact for all children and adults 5) 21 days from the moment of contact to unvaccinated and non-ill children 268. Disconnection from the team of contact persons in the epidemic focus of whooping cough is carried out in relation to 1) adults from the decreed groups who were not ill whooping cough 2) only children under 7 years old who have not had whooping cough * 3) only children over 7 years old who have not had whooping cough 4) children and adults who have had whooping cough 269. The correct tactics of a doctor in relation to an adult from the epidemic focus of whooping cough, complaining of cough, is 1) conducting a bacteriological study * 2) vaccination 3) carrying out emergency prophylaxis with antibiotics 4) his hospitalization in an infectious diseases hospital 270. The correct tactics of a doctor who, during an examination in the epidemic focus of whooping cough revealed a clinically healthy the bacterio-carrier of the bordotella-pertusis bacillus is, if his 1) vaccinate 2) hospitalize in the Infectious department 3) hospitalize in an infectious diseases hospital 4) isolate at home and conduct a bacteriological examination * 271. In the epidemic outbreak of whooping cough, 1) Final and ongoing disinfection 2) ventilation and wet cleaning only * 3) final disinfection
Topic No. 6. EPIDEMIOLOGY AND PREVENTION
NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS
272. Nosocomial infections include diseases that occur
1) only in patients within a period not exceeding the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to the hospital or/and visiting the polyclinic 2) in patients and health workers within a period exceeding the maximum incubation period from the moment of discharge from a medical and preventive institution or termination of work in this medical and preventive institution, respectively 3) in patients at the time corresponding to the time interval between the minimum and maximum incubation periods from the moment of admission to a medical institution, or from medical workers, if the infection is linked to professional activity * 273. Nosocomial infections associated with exogenous infection, occur as a result of ingestion conditionally pathogenic microorganisms with 1) the surface of the patient's skin 2) various objects of the community environment 3) various objects of the hospital environment * 4) various objects of the household environment 274. The development of nosocomial infection (blood infections) may interfere with 1) strict observance of hand hygiene during manipulation, related to intravascular catheters, limiting the duration of catheterization * 2) the use of polyvinyl chloride intravascular catheters 3) the use of multi-channel catheters 4) strict observance of hand hygiene during manipulation 275. Nosocomial infection in the surgical area interventions are any clinically a recognizable infection affecting 1) skin or/and deep soft tissues (muscles, fascia, etc.) affected during surgery 2) any organs or/and tissues of the body affected during surgery * 3) cavities or/and body cavities affected in during the surgical intervention 4) Some parts of the body 276. When designing a hospital, there should be it is provided to install bacterial filters on supply ventilation systems in the infection box for the patient 1) diphtheria or severe acute respiratory syndrome 2) the plague or Ebola 3) AIDS or in the wards of burn patients * 4) Antrax 277. The introduction of an infectious disease into a medical and preventive institution includes any a case of an infectious disease occurring in patients on time 1) exceeding the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to the hospital 2) not exceeding the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to the hospital * 3) exceeding the maximum incubation period from the moment of admission to the hospital 4) not exceeding the maximum incubation period from the moment of admission to the hospital 278. Nosocomial infections caused by conditionally pathogenic microorganisms and associated with endogenous infection, arise as a result 1) violations of the rules of hand treatment by a surgeon, inadequate sterilization of surgical instruments, the carriage of hospital strains by members of the operating team 2) immunosuppressant therapy, glucocorticosteroids, as well as shaving the operating field before the surgical intervention * 3) leaving foreign material in the area of surgical intervention and non-compliance requirements for the ventilation system in the operating room 4) immunosuppressant, glucocorticosteroids during the surgical intervention 279. In the spectrum of pathogens of modern nosocomial angiogenic infections (infections blood) currently, the prevailing 1) polymicrobial infections and fungi 2) Gram-negative aerobic sticks 3) gram-positive cocci * 4) gram-negative cocci 280. To deep infection in the surgical area interventions according to the international classification and registration standards Nosocomial infections can include cases of, when the inflammatory process involves 1) abdominal organs or/and body cavity 2) soft tissues located under the skin (muscles,fascia, etc.) * 3) skin and subcutaneous tissue 4) Some parts of the body 281. A case of an infectious disease detected in a medical and preventive institution, you can attribute the infection to a drift if the clinical signs the diseases manifested themselves 1) within a period exceeding the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to a medical and preventive institution 2) before admission or/ and upon admission to a medical and preventive institution * 3) at the time of discharge from a medical and preventive institution, if the minimum incubation period does not exceed the duration of the patient's stay in this medical and preventive institution 4) at the minimum incubation period does not exceed the duration of the patient's stay in this medical and preventive institution 282. The spread of nosocomial infections can prevent 1) the use of sophisticated medical equipment (for example, a ventilator) and endoscopic manipulations 2) the creation of large hospital complexes, as well as an increase in the length of stay of the patient in the hospital 3) reduction of the number of invasive therapeutic and diagnostic manipulations, rational the use of antibiotics, as well as the use of disposable tools * 4) non rational use of antibiotics, as well as the use of disposable tools 283. Factors hindering development nosocomial pneumonia in patients who are in the intensive care unit, you can include 1) prevention of stress stomach ulcers in the intensive care unit with the use of antacid drugs 2) endotracheal intubation 3) using the position of patients half-sitting (at an angle of 45 degrees) * 4) use of antacid drugs 284. The spectrum of pathogens of modern infections in the field of surgical intervention is dominated by 1) Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococcus and enterococcus * 2) E. coli, bacteroids and candida 3) Pseudomonas aeruginosa, klebsiella and proteus 4) Shigella and salmonella 285. Responsibility for the organization and conduct measures for the prevention of nosocomial diseases infections in the hospital are attributed to 1) hospital epidemiologist 2) the chief physician of the hospital * 3) Deputy Chief Medical Officer 4) Director of Hospital 286. The case of an infectious disease can be attributed to nosocomial infection, if the disease it showed up 1) upon admission to a medical and preventive institution 2) within the time corresponding to the interval between the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to the treatment and prophylactic center the institution and the maximum incubation period from the moment of discharge from it * 3) within a period not exceeding the minimum incubation period from the moment of admission to a medical and preventive institution 4) maximum incubation period from the moment of discharge from it 287. Factors preventing the growth of morbidity nosocomial infections include 1) increased circulation of hospital strains, not using modern disinfection and sterilization methods to disinfect endoscopes and expensive medical equipment 2) limiting the use of antibiotics and glucocorticosteroids, as well as reducing the duration of the patient's stay in the hospital (especially before surgery) * 3) an increase in the duration of catheterization of the bladder and the duration of the patient's stay on the ventilator 4) antibiotics and glucocorticosteroids treatment 288. To the functional responsibilities of the hospital an epidemiologist can be attributed to 1) carrying out the analysis of morbidity and control over disinfection and sterilization of medical devices * 2) diagnosis of nosocomial infections 3) implementation of anti-epidemic measures in the hospital 4) control over disinfection 289. Exogenous risk factors for development nosocomial infection can be attributed to 1) chronic diseases (diabetes mellitus, urological and oncological pathology) 2) HIV infection and immunodeficiency conditions 3) long-term antibiotic therapy, therapy glucocorticosteroids and immunosuppressants * 4) old age or/and early childhood 5) organ transplantation 290. Cases of nosocomial infection include 1) cases of infectious disease in employees of a stand-alone food unit 2) only cases related to infection with hospital strains in the hospital 3) cases of the disease in patients and medical workers infected in a medical and preventive institution* 4) only cases related to infection with hospital strains in the hospital canteen. 291. The probability of infection with the causative agent of purulent septic infection in the operating room confirms the occurrence of purulent septic infection in 1) early and deep in the wound * 2) late and deep in the wound 3) late dates and superficially 4) early dates and superficially 292. What is the most common exogenous risk factor the development of nosocomial urinary tract infection paths 1) prolonged catheterization of the bladder (more than 30 days) and the use of an open drainage system for catheterization of the bladder * 2) refusal to flush the bladder with solutions antiseptics 3) using only a closed drainage system during catheterization of the bladder 4) use of an open drainage system for catheterization of the bladder 293. Name the pathway of transmission of the causative agent of infection in nosocomial pneumonia associated with artificial lung ventilation 1) Airborne 2) air-dust 3) inhalation * 4) Direct contact 5) contact and household 294. Endogenous risk factors for development nosocomial infection can be attributed to 1) long-term therapy with antibiotics or / and glucocorticoids 2) invasive medical manipulations 3) old age or/and early childhood * 4) contact with biological fluids 295. To artificial pathways of transmission of pathogens nosocomial infections can include 1) the airborne pathway 2) the air-dust path 3) Direct contact path 4) the inhalation route * 5) alimentary path 296. Cases of hospital infection include cases of the disease 1) manifested or identified in the hospital during hospitalization and treatment of patients * 2) related only to infection with hospital strains 3) arising only from medical professionals, those who sought medical help in medical institutions 4) arising only from medical help in medical institutions 297. In the spectrum of pathogens of nosocomial infections the urinary tract is currently dominated by 1) Aerobic gram-negative rods and enterococci * 2) Staphylococcus aureus and coagulase-negative staphylococci 3) streptococci and bacteria’s 4) Rhinovirus 298. If on the 3rd day of stay in a therapeutic the patient was diagnosed with diphtheria in the department, that infection happened 1) before admission to the hospital 2) in the hospital 3) it is possible both before admission to the hospital and during your stay in it * 4) during stay in the hospital 299. In the etiology of modern nosocomial infection they dominate 1) various opportunistic microorganisms (facultative human parasites) capable of forming hospital strains, as well as some obligate and accidental human parasites * 2) obligate human parasites, as well as facultative parasites that can form hospital strains 3) accidental and obligate human parasites 4) Helminths 300. In order to prevent nosocomial infection for the treatment of the hands of medical personnel they use 1) 3% carbolic acid solution 2) septic or glutaral 3) 6% chloramine solution 4) ready-made solutions of octeniman or sagrosept * 301. Distribution in a hospital environment pathogens of purulent septic infections can prevent 1) hair removal in the area of the surgical field a day before surgery and refusal of perioperative antibiotic prophylaxis 2) increasing the length of the patient's stay in the hospital before surgery and not using air filtration systems in the operating room 3) minimizing the duration of the operation and the length of the patient's stay in the hospital before surgery, as well as the mandatory use of antibiotic prophylaxis * 4) increasing the length of the patient's not using air filtration systems in the operating room 302. The peculiarities of salmonellosis as a hospital infections can be attributed to the fact that 1) the transmission of the pathogen mainly occurs in an alimentary way 2) the source of infection is a person * 3) the source of infection is more often animals 4) transmission of the pathogen by airborne dust is not typical 5) foci of salmonellosis occur mainly in adult hospitals 303. Endogenous risk factors for development nosocomial infection can be attributed to 1) long-term therapy with antibiotics or/ and immunosuppressants 2) the presence of concomitant severe background * diseases or/and immunosuppression 3) invasive medical manipulations 4) contact with biological fluids 304. To nosocomial angio-genic infection (infections blood) diseases related to 1) only with injections and vascular catheterization 2) only with transfusion of infusion solutions 3) with injections, vascular catheterization or with transfusion of infusion solutions that develop during the first 36 hours after admission of the patient to the hospital 4) with injections, vascular catheterization or transfusion of infusion solutions, which develop no earlier than 48 hours after admission of the patient to the hospital * 5) with injections, vascular catheterization or transfusion of infusion solutions, which develop within the first 24 hours after admission of the patient to the hospital 305. Cases of infection in a medical and preventive institution include the situation when 1) in the department of neonatal pathology, in which 6 dyspeptic phenomena appeared in children and klebsiella was isolated during laboratory examination 2) on the 3rd day after admission to the somatic children's hospital, the child developed spots Filatov-Koplika * 3) on the 9th day after admission to the somatic children's hospital, the child showed signs of acute intestinal infection and shigella was isolated Sonnei is 4) on the 7th day after admission to the somatic children's hospital, the child developed whopping caught 306. AS PATHOGENS OF MODERN HOSPITAL INFECTIONS ARE DOMINANT 1) bacteria and some viruses* 2) fungi, parasites and some viruses 3) parasites, protozoa and some bacteria 4) some bacteria 307. To artificial pathways of transmission of pathogens nosocomial infections can include 1) parenteral pathway* 2) the air-dust path 3) the alimentary path 4) Direct contact path 308. Endogenous risk factors for development nosocomial infection can be attributed to 1) surgical interventions or/and immunosuppressant therapy 2) multiple trauma or/and extensive burns * 3) the use of a ventilator or/and hemodialysis 4) trauma or/and hemodialysis 309. What is the right way to deal with the used disposable medical instruments 1) boil it and put it in a dumpster 2) process in an autoclave at a temperature of 132⁰C, then throw it away with household garbage* 3) pour a disinfectant solution for 1 hour, then throw it away with household garbage 4) pour a disinfectant solution for 10 hour 310. Cases of infection in a medical and preventive institution include the situation when 1) the child was diagnosed with chickenpox on the 8th day after admission to the hospital * 2) residents of one micro-district were diagnosed with diphtheria almost simultaneously; they are all for 4-5 days before the disease, we visited the dental office of the district polyclinic 3) a patient operated on for cholelithiasis was diagnosed with pneumonia on the 4th day of his stay in the intensive care unit 4) During hospitalization 311. The “hospital strain" is 1) a strain of bacteria capable of multiplying in the external environment, causing disease mainly in people with immunodeficiency 2) a highly virulent strain capable of multiplying in the external environment, polyresistant to antibiotics and disinfectants, causing the disease is not only in people with immunodeficiency, but also in people with normal immunity * 3) a highly virulent strain of bacteria that is unable to reproduce in the external environment, causing diseases not only in people with immunodeficiency, but also in people with normal immunity 4) a highly virulent strain of bacteria that is unable to reproduce in the external environment, causing diseases not only in people with immunodeficiency 312. Towards the natural pathway of pathogen transmission nosocomial infections can include 1) parenteral pathway 2) enteral pathway 3) injection route 4) the airborne pathway * 5) the inhalation route 313. Rare forms of nosocomial infection include to pass 1) urinary tract infections 2) infections in the field of surgical intervention 3) neuro-infections 4) lower respiratory tract infections 5) angio-genic infections 314. In order to prevent nosocomial infection for the treatment of the hands of medical personnel they use 1) 0.5% chlorhexidine solution in combination with 70 % ethanol 2) 3% carbolic acid solution 3) sidex or glutaral 4) 6% chloramine solution 315. The formation and spread of hospital strains may be associated with 1) catering of patients in canteens at hospitals, the use of refrigerators in wards, as well as associated violations of the anti-epidemic condition 2) frequent visits to patients by relatives and the practice of hospitalization of the mother together with the sick child 3) widespread and irrational use antibiotics, the use of various invasive therapeutic and diagnostic manipulations, as well as associated violations of the antiepidemic condition* 4) use of various invasive therapeutic and diagnostic manipulations, as well as associated violations of the antiepidemic condition 317. Infection with nosocomial infection is most common it happens in departments 1) surgical profile and intensive care* 2) therapeutic and infectious profile 3) physiotherapy and spa treatment 4) cosmetologically and spa treatment 318. In order to properly treat your hands a medical professional contaminated with blood or secretions of patients trapped on an undamaged the skin, it is necessary 1) wash your hands with running water and soap 2) wipe your hands with a swab soaked in one of the disinfection solutions, and then wash with running water 3) remove the remaining biomaterial with a cotton swab, wipe your hands twice for 3 minutes with a swab soaked in 70% ethyl alcohol, and then wash hands with running water and soap* 4) wash in 70% ethyl alcohol, and then wash hands with running water and soap 319. In the center of nosocomial salmonellosis final disinfection 1) it is not carried out 2) it is carried out with chamber processing of bedding* 3) it is carried out only at the discretion of the health facility administration 4) ) it is carried out only at the discretion of the head of department