Fundamentals – Test 1

1. In some nations large amounts of goods and services are produced in the household for family
consumption. In these nations, statistical measures of income will show that the population is:
A) the same as those nations where production and trade occur in markets.
B) may be richer or poorer than nations where production and trade occur in markets, depending on the size
of the national government.
C) richer than nations where production and trade occur in markets.
D) poorer than nations where production and trade occur in markets.

2. What typically happens in a free market, when firms in pure competition earn above normal, or positive,
economic profits?
A) The government intervenes, and subsidizes the struggling firms. This raises their profits to a level of
positive accounting profits.
B) In the long run, some weaker firms will go out of business. This decreases the total supply of the product
in the market, and raises the market price to a point where the existing firms have a normal profit once
again.
C) The positive economic profits attract other suppliers to the market. This increases total supply and lowers
the market price. In the long run, positive economic profits disappear.
D) All firms will be able to sustain positive economic profits in the long run because there are barriers to
entry in a purely competitive market.

3. What is the difference between a country's imports and its exports?

A) exchange rate
B) balance of trade
C) comparative advantage
D) trade deficit

4. If the RMB appreciates in value relative to the Euro, exports from China will be:
A) more expensive in Europe and imports from Europe will be more expensive in China
B) less expensive in Europe and imports from Europe will be less expensive in China
C) more expensive in Europe and imports from Europe will be less expensive in China
D) less expensive in Europe and imports from Europe will be more expensive in China

5. A quota is
A) a tax on imports
B) a quantitative limit on imports
C) a means of discrimination against certain groups
D) a limit on profits from exports

6. When the money supply and production increase at the same rate, the effect is
A) no change.
B) stable prices.
C) inflation.
D) deflation.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

7. We depend on the government, rather than the private sector, to provide public goods because public
goods have characteristics that make it:
A) easy to exclude non-payers and are jointly consumable
B) difficult to exclude non-payers and are not jointly consumable
C) difficult to exclude non-payers and are jointly consumable
D) easy to exclude non-payers and are not jointly consumable

8. If the dollar price of chicken rises 5 percent and the dollar price of beef rises 10 percent, what happens to
the relative prices of chicken and beef?
A) Both the price of chicken in terms of beef and the price of beef in terms of chicken fall.
B) The price of chicken in terms of beef rises, and the price of beef in terms of chicken falls.
C) The price of chicken in terms of beef falls, and the price of beef in terms of chicken rises.
D) Both the price of chicken in terms of beef and the price of beef in terms of chicken rise.

9. Which of the following would cause the demand for apples to increase?
A) a decrease in the price of peaches, a substitute good
B) an increase in the price of pears, a substitute good
C) a decrease in the price of farm labor.
D) a decrease in the price of pesticides used for spraying apple trees.

10. Governments have two main policies to influence their countries' economic activities. The policy dealing
with changes in government spending and taxation is called _____, and the policy dealing with changes in
the money supply and interest rates is called _____.
A) fiscal policy; monetary policy
B) Classical economic policy; Keynesian policy
C) monetary policy; fiscal policy
D) physical policy; monastery policy

11. A firm's total revenue equals $1600. The sum of all of its explicit costs equal $1,000. If the firm's
economist reports that its economic profits equals $200, how much must the firm's implicit costs be?
A) $400
B) $600
C) $100
D) $300

12. In economics, the term supply means

A) the specific quantity of an item a producer must sell to earn a profit
B) the particular quantity of a product that people want to buy
C) the quantity of an item offered for sale at a specific price
D) the various amounts of something a producer wants to sell at different prices

13. What is the effect of an increase in the minimum wage?

A) Employers will increase their quantity demanded of unskilled labor, and unemployment among unskilled
workers will rise.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

B) Employers will increase their quantity demanded of unskilled labor, and unemployment among unskilled
workers will fall.
C) Employers will reduce their quantity demanded of unskilled labor, and unemployment among unskilled
workers will fall.
D) Employers will reduce their quantity demanded of unskilled labor, and unemployment among unskilled
workers will rise.

14. To regulate the money supply, the central bank can use changes in
A) the reserve requirements
B) the discount rate
C) open-market operations
D) All of the above

15. When the demand curve has shifted to the right, we can say that _____ has increased and the
equilibrium price of the product has _____.
A) demand; increased
B) quantity demanded; increased
C) demand; decreased
D) quantity demanded; decreased

16. Let's say that an economy produces two final goods: cars and corn. During a particular year, it produces 5
cars priced at $20,000 per car, and 30,000 ears of corn each priced at $1. What is this country's GDP?
A) $100,000
B) $70,000
C) 30,000
D) $130,000

17. Which of the following changes in demand and supply causes a definite increase in the value of the
dollar?
A) The demand for dollars decreases and the supply of dollars increases.
B) The demand for dollars decreases and the supply of dollars decreases.
C) The demand for dollars increases and the supply of dollars increases.
D) The demand for dollars increases and the supply of dollars decreases.

18. When an industry produces goods with substantial external costs one economically efficient solution that
the public sector might provide is:
A) do nothing since the costs are external.
B) close down the industry to eliminate the external costs.
C) subsidize the firms in the industry for the external costs.
D) tax the firms in the industry for the external costs.

19. When two firm or more firms conspire to fix prices, they do something
A) anticompetitive, but legal
B) competitive, but legal

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

C) illegal and competitive

D) illegal and anticompetitive

20. The most common effect of a price floor is to

A) limit inflation
B) decrease demand
C) produce a shortage
D) produce a surplus

21. What is happening in the economy during a recession?

A) Wages tend to fall; profits tend to rise.
B) Wages tend to rise; profits tend to fall.
C) Wages and profits tend to fall.
D) Wages and profits tend to rise.

22. Expansionary fiscal policy will likely cause a ___.

A) trade surplus
B) budget surplus
C) budget deficit
D) balanced budget

23. Which of the following would shift the aggregate demand curve to the left?
A) An increase in consumer confidence.
B) Business firms reduce spending on plant and equipment.
C) Foreigners develop a preference for our products.
D) Government increases its level of spending.

24. A government subsidy to producers of a product ___.

A) reduces product demand
B) increases product supply
C) reduces product supply
D) increases product demand

25. Building roads and highways in a less-developed country

A) requires that people in that country save some of their income
B) can be a productive investment that raises future productivity
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b

26. Which of the following is the "golden rule" of profit-maximization?

A) First make sure that price is greater than the average total cost at the minimum point (otherwise shut
down temporarily); then look for the output at which MC=MR. Make sure that MC is on the rise.
B) First make sure that price exceeds the average variable cost (otherwise shut down); then look for the
output at which a rising MC is equal to or comes closest to (without exceeding) MR.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

C) First make sure that the price is greater than the average variable cost (otherwise shut down); then look
for the output at which a falling MC is equal to or comes closest to (without exceeding) MR.
D) First make sure that the price is less than the minimum average total cost; then look for the point at which
MR = MC.

27. The standard of living is measured by

A) GDP
B) GDP per capita.
C) Real GDP per capita
D) Actual GDP per capita

28. Which taxes are typically used at the local level and not the national level?
A) property taxes
B) excise taxes
C) progressive taxes
D) income taxes

29. Goods used to make other goods are called:

A) consumption goods
B) expendable goods
C) exhaustible goods
D) capital goods

30. The terms peak, contraction, through, and recovery refer to

A) the business cycle
B) an inflation period
C) the economy during wartime only
D) None of the above

31. In a market economy important roles for government include:

A) determining what goods will be produced and who will get the goods
B) limiting externalities, such as pollution, and providing public goods
C) setting prices and determining how income will be distributed
D) allocating resources and reassigning property rights

32. In perfect competition, if firms are generating economic profits, other firms will:
A) enter the market and prices will rise
B) exit the market and prices will rise
C) exit the market and prices will fall
D) enter the market and prices will fall

33. When government regulations are imposed on an industry this typically leads to:
A) greater economies of scale
B) a higher level of output for a given level of resources

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

C) increased costs for the industry

D) greater efficiency in the industry

34. Consumer surplus is _____; if both demand and supply increase (the curves shift to the right), then
consumer surplus _____.
A) what consumers are willing to pay for the product minus what they are actually paying at the market price;
decreases
B) the additional money consumers have left over from their incomes after they spend their money on their
daily expenses; decreases
C) the additional money consumers have left over from their incomes after they spend their money on their
daily expenses; increases
D) what consumers are willing to pay for the product minus what they are actually paying at the market price;
increases

35. The shape and nature of a market supply curve is determined by:
A) the height of the demand curve for the product.
B) the costs of production of the firms in the industry.
C) the relationship between the price of a good and the quantity desired by consumers.
D) how freely the good is available from nature if it is a noneconomic good.

36. Trade barriers will ___.

A) provide more goods and services for consumers.
B) decrease world prices for products.
C) increase domestic efficiency.
D) increase domestic prices.

37. A deep, extended decline in a nation's economy is a(n) ______.

A) economy
B) recession
C) depression
D) prosperity

38. Suppose crude oil prices rise, what is the likely effect on gasoline a product made from crude oil?
A) Supply of gasoline increases
B) No effect on gasoline prices
C) Gasoline prices decrease
D) Supply of gasoline decreases

39. The term "privatizing" refers to government efforts to

A) produce private goods and services
B) sell government owned assets like airports to private businesses
C) enforce antitrust laws
D) reduce harmful externalities

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

40. Let's assume that a firm produces 90 products. Its total weekly cost (TC) at this output is $2,100. This
includes TVC and TFC. We also know that the firm employs 3 part-time workers at a wage cost of $400 per
worker per week. This is the firm's only variable cost (TVC). What is the firm's average fixed cost at this
output?
A) $10.
B) $2.50.
C) $15.
D) $5.

41. All of the following reduce demand except:

A) a decrease in the price of a substitute.
B) an increase in consumer income.
C) a decline in the number of consumers.
D) an increase in the price of a complementary good.

42. A flat tax system is a system in which tax rates for all income groups _____; in addition, typically there are
no _____ and incomes below a certain amount are _____.
A) are zero; negative rates; subject to the earned income tax credit
B) are low; subsidies; taxed at a higher rate
C) are high; deductions; taxed at a lower rate
D) are the same; deductions; exempt

43. Oligopolies differentiate their products

A) in order to make demand less elastic
B) in order to foster brand loyalty
C) to gain market power
D) All of the above

44. Which one of the following would be the best example of a firm in the market structure known as pure
competition?
A) the post office
B) a fast food restaurant
C) the Chevron Oil Company
D) a potato farmer

45. A monopolist maximizes profits by choosing that output and price at which:
A) average variable cost is equal to or comes as close as possible to (without exceeding) the marginal revenue.
This is given that the price is less than the average variable cost, and that the marginal cost is falling at the
profit-maximizing output.
B) average total cost is at the minimum point. This is given that the price is greater than the average variable
cost, and that the marginal cost is rising at the profit-maximizing output.
C) marginal cost is equal to or comes as close as possible to (without exceeding) the marginal revenue. This is
given that the price is less than the average variable cost, and that the marginal cost is falling at the
profit-maximizing output.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

D) marginal cost is equal to or comes as close as possible to (without exceeding) the marginal revenue. This is
given that the price is greater than the average variable cost, and that the marginal cost is not falling at the
profit-maximizing output.

46. Firms in the market structure referred to as monopolistic competition have a downward sloping demand
curve because:
A) the marginal revenue curve is horizontal at the market price.
B) the products sold are identical.
C) the products sold are differentiated.
D) the marginal revenue curve is upward sloping.

47. If the CPI is 180 at the end of 2021 and increases to 191 by the end of 2022 the inflation rate for 2022
would be approximately:
A) 91 percent
B) 11 percent
C) 6 percent
D) 7.5 percent

48. Lower prices make buyers want to buy more of something, but they make sellers want to sell less. As a
result,
A) there is only one price at which buyers and sellers agree on the amounts of something to buy and sell
B) buyers and sellers cannot agree on how much to buy and sell
C) sellers have to give in and sell whatever quantity buyers want to buy
D) buyers have to give in and buy whatever quantity sellers want to sell

49. If disposable income in a country increases, it is most likely that:

A) consumption will decrease and savings will increase
B) consumption will increase and savings will increase
C) consumption will decrease and savings will decrease
D) consumption will increase and savings will decrease

50. If the demand for a product is inelastic,

A) people will still buy less of it at higher prices than at lower prices
B) people won't buy less at a higher price
C) it is not scarce
D) there are many substitute products readily available to buyers

51. Examples of fixed inputs in the short run typically are:

A) Raw materials.
B) Office supplies.
C) The amount of land and the factory used for production.
D) Employees paid by the hour.

52. If the price increases on a product with a perfectly inelastic demand, what will happen to quantity

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

demanded?
A) Increases
B) Decreases
C) Unknown without more information
D) Stays the same

53. A progressive tax is one ___.

A) where tax percentage rates are the same the greater one's income
B) where tax percentage rates are lower the greater one's income
C) where tax percentage rates are higher the greater one's income
D) that transfers monies from poor people to rich people

54. Consider the production possibilities curve model. Let's say that a country increased its production of all
goods and services since last year. If last year the country was producing on the curve, what must have
happened?
A) The curve must have moved inward since last year.
B) Because the curve itself cannot shift, we must have moved to a point beyond the curve this year.
C) We must have moved from a point inside the curve (last year) to a point on the curve (this year).
D) The curve must have shifted out because of increases in resources or advances in technology.

55. A frequently identified problem in a capitalist system, as opposed to a socialist system, is:
A) unproductive labor
B) an unequal distribution of income
C) too many decisions are made collectively
D) pollution

56. A pure capitalist economy is an economy in which:

A) There is no government presence.
B) The government makes all decisions regarding prices and wages.
C) Economics decisions are made by private sector and the role of the government is limited to essential
functions, such as defense, providing a legal system and providing public goods.
D) The businesses and the stock markets are run by private individuals, but all other economic decisions,
including consumer and labor laws and banking pricing and regulations, are made by the government.

57. The labor force includes

A) only labor union members.
B) only those over 18 who have been employed for 1 year or more.
C) everyone over age 16 who is employed or is looking for employment.
D) only persons over 21 who provide energy in the production process.

58. An important characteristic of money is:

A) it serves as a medium of exchange
B) its value is constant
C) it is backed by gold

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

D) its supply is fixed

59. How do sellers compete against each other?

A) by lowering prices or improving quality
B) by lowering prices or reducing quality
C) by raising prices or improving quality
D) by raising prices or reducing quality

60. Entitlement spending is that portion of budget referred to as ___.

A) mandatory spending.
B) military spending.
C) interest payments.
D) discretionary spending.

61. Based on what you know about the nature of the following products, which is most likely to have the
lowest income elasticity of demand?
A) jewelry
B) public transportation
C) an expensive car
D) tuition at a private university

62. The primary difference between the aggregate measures, Personal Income and Disposable Income is:
A) inflation
B) deflation
C) how consumption is measured
D) taxes

63. Which one of the following would NOT be considered when determining the fair market value of
employee wages?
A) type of business
B) good or service provided
C) location
D) educational requirements

64. Taking the risk to start a business represents which factor of production?
A) capital
B) natural resources
C) entrepreneurship
D) insurance

65. In the circular flow model, individuals are ___.

A) neither workers nor consumers
B) consumers, but not workers
C) workers, but not consumers

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

D) both workers and consumers

66. In a free market, the market price of a good or service occurs at the _____; if a government sets the price
of the good or service above this point, then we will end up with a _____ of the good or service.
A) the most outward point on the production possibilities curve; shortage
B) the most outward point on the production possibilities curve; surplus
C) bottom part of the marginal cost curve; shortage
D) intersection of the demand and supply curve; surplus

67. The United States can produce one smart phone in 10 hours and one barrel of ethanol fuel in 15 hours.
Canada, on the other hand, produces one smart phone in 20 hours and one barrel of ethanol fuel in 25 hours.
According to the Law of Comparative Advantages, Canada would benefit by specializing in:
A) Neither product.
B) smart phones.
C) both products.
D) ethanol fuel

68. What is a key difference between a for-profit company and a not-for-profit company?
A) Not-for-profit companies benefit their customers and their employees; for-profit companies only benefit
their owners.
B) The owners of a for-profit company must invest the company's profit back in the same company; if a
not-for-profit company's revenues exceed its costs, the difference must be reinvested in another company.
C) The owners of a for-profit company may invest the company's profit wherever they want; if a
not-for-profit company's revenues exceed its costs, the difference must be reinvested in the same company.
D) Because the goal of a for-profit company is to make a profit and the goal of a not-for-profit company is to
serve the community, for-profit companies necessarily sell goods and services at higher prices than
not-for-profit companies.

69. What are the skills, training, experience, and education that workers possess?
A) natural resources
B) human capital
C) physical capital
D) labor

70. Some of our wants are satisfied through the efforts of other people. These are called ____.
A) services
B) capital
C) goods
D) resources

71. Prices of _____ products or services are not likely to be much above the cost of production in the long
run. The reason for this is that if prices of these products in the short run are well above the cost of
production, then profits for these manufacturers are high. High profits then attract competitors into this
market and this would lead to an increase in supply and lower prices in the long run.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

A) manufactured
B) scarce
C) factors of production
D) inferior

72. In the Keynesian model, if the marginal propensity to consume is .8 and a country's government spends
an additional $60 billion, what is the change in total spending in the economy?
A) total spending in the economy increases by $300 billion
B) total spending in the economy increases by $48 billion
C) total spending in the economy increases by $480 billion
D) total spending in the economy decreases by $250 billion

73. Rising real interest rates will likely

A) decrease gross investment.
B) decrease capital costs
C) increase consumption.
D) decrease saving.

74. Let's say that a country produces 20 smart phones each priced at $500 this year, and financial consultants
provide a total of $6,000 in consulting services to clients this year. The country's labor force is 40 people and
its population is 80. Based on this data, what is this country's per capita GDP?
A) $800
B) $600
C) $400
D) $200

75. If the demand for a good is elastic, a decrease in the price will ___.
A) have no effect on quantity sold because the demand curve would be vertical.
B) decrease the revenue of the firm.
C) increase quantity sold, but have no effect on total revenue.
D) increase the revenue of the firm.

76. In a flexible currency exchange rate market, values of currencies are determined by:
A) The demand for and the supply of currencies.
B) the government
C) the IMF and the World Bank.
D) the central banks of the countries in charge of the currencies.

77. If the government subsidizes the production of halogen headlights,

A) the demand curve will shift to the left.
B) the demand curve will shift to the right.
C) the supply curve will shift to the left.
D) the supply curve will shift to the right.

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

78. Which one of the following is most likely to contribute to an increase in a firm's long-run productivity?
A) an increase in the excise taxes paid by the firm
B) a decline in the demand for the firm's product
C) investment in research and development
D) expanded government mandated employee benefits

79. The major problem facing all economic systems is related to

A) their production possibilities frontier
B) the factors of production
C) scarce resources
D) technology

80. Let's say that a monopolist produces at an output where its price is greater than its average variable cost,
but its price is less than its average total cost. In this case, the monopolist:
A) operates at a positive accounting profit, and at positive economic profits.
B) operates at a loss and should shut down.
C) operates at a loss but should not shut down.
D) operates at a positive accounting profit, but zero economic profits.

81. What happens to consumer surplus and producer surplus if both the demand and the supply of the
product decrease by equal amounts (so that the market price stays the same)?
A) Both consumer surplus and producer surplus increase
B) Consumer surplus increases and producer surplus decreases
C) Both consumer surplus and producer surplus decrease
D) Consumer surplus decreases and producer surplus increases

82. Which one of the following would most likely cause the economy to contract?
A) a rapid reduction in the money supply
B) a rapid expansion in international trade
C) large cuts in income tax rates
D) large increases in government spending

83. This is when citizens decide how public goods will be provided for their common use ____.
A) collective decision making
B) competition
C) standard of living
D) productivity

84. If bologna and peanut butter are substitutes, a decrease in the price of peanut butter will cause:
A) an increase in the demand for peanut butter and a decrease in the supply of bologna
B) a decrease in the demand for bologna and an increase in the quantity demanded of peanut butter
C) a decrease in the demand for peanut butter and an increase in the supply of bologna
D) an increase in the demand for both peanut butter and bologna

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

85. Competition among sellers results in:

A) higher prices for buyers and higher profits for sellers.
B) higher prices for buyers and lower profits for sellers.
C) lower prices for buyers and lower profits for sellers.
D) lower prices for buyers and higher profits for sellers.

86. What type of business ownership is a legal entity separate and distinct from its owners?
A) franchise
B) sole proprietorship
C) partnership
D) corporation

87. Economic profit

A) equals accounting profit
B) equals accounting profit minus fixed costs
C) equals accounting profit minus variable costs
D) equals accounting profit less implicit costs

88. In which of the following scenario is the inflation rate 4%?

A) The real interest rate is -2% and the nominal interest rate is 6%
B) The real interest rate is 3% and the nominal interest rate is 7%
C) The real interest rate is 7% and the nominal interest rate is 3%
D) The real interest rate is 4% and the nominal interest rate is 1%

89. Adam Smith's theory that people's self-interest would lead them to do what was best for themselves and
for the economic society as a whole is known as
A) Free to Choose
B) Theory Z
C) Invisible Hand
D) None of the above

90. Inflation caused by labor groups and others driving up prices of manufacturing inputs is known as
A) government deficits.
B) cost-push.
C) demand-pull.
D) an increase in the money supply.

91. The using up of natural resources is called

A) depreciation
B) depletion
C) deceleration
D) despotism

92. If a United States business person takes money out of her United States checking account, and deposits

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

this as Eurodollars in a foreign account, then M1 will _____, M2 will _____, and M3 will _____.
A) decrease; decrease; stay the same
B) decrease; stay the same; stay the same
C) decrease; stay the same; increase
D) decrease; increase; stay the same

93. Let's suppose that in year 1 average incomes in the economy equal $30,000. The year 2 average incomes
rise to $33,000. Let's suppose that prices from year 1 to year 2 rise by twelve percent. From year 1 to year 2:
A) Nominal incomes decrease, but real incomes increase.
B) Nominal incomes and real incomes both increase.
C) Nominal incomes increase, but real incomes decrease.
D) Nominal and real incomes both decrease.

94. Which one of the following would contribute the most to capital formation?
A) imports and exports
B) consumption and spending
C) government spending and taxation
D) savings and investment

95. Which of the following is a normative statement?

A) The current rate of inflation in India is -5% .
B) We should have more government spending in order to have more money for education.
C) If our government spends more money on education, then it will create more jobs in this industry.
D) If our government raises tax rates, then it will increase its tax revenue and therefore we will have more
money available for education.

96. In economics, firms seek to ___.

A) maximize fixed costs
B) maximize output
C) minimize accounting taxes
D) maximize profits

97. If the unemployment rate rises above its long-run average, what will fiscal and monetary policy makers
be inclined to do?
A) implement expansionary fiscal policy and tight monetary policy
B) implement contractionary fiscal policy and tight monetary policy
C) implement expansionary fiscal policy and easy monetary policy
D) implement contractionary fiscal policy and easy monetary policy

98. Which of the following union weapons is against the law?

A) a political action committee
B) a picket line
C) a strike
D) a secondary boycott

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

99. Which of the following would be most likely to promote economic growth in less-developed nations?
A) greater investment in capital resources
B) a population increase
C) less income devoted to saving
D) reduced incentives for entrepreneurship

100. People that have dropped out of the labor force because they have given up looking for a job
(discouraged workers) are:
A) not counted in the labor force but counted as unemployed
B) counted in the labor force and counted as unemployed
C) counted in the labor force but not counted as unemployed
D) not counted in the labor force and not counted as unemployed

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 Fundamentals – Test 1

Answer Keys:
1. D 21. C 41. B 61. B 81. C
2. C 22. C 42. D 62. D 82. A
3. B 23. B 43. D 63. B 83. A
4. C 24. B 44. D 64. C 84. B
5. B 25. C 45. D 65. D 85. C
6. B 26. B 46. C 66. D 86. D
7. C 27. C 47. C 67. D 87. D
8. C 28. A 48. A 68. C 88. B
9. B 29. D 49. B 69. B 89. C
10. A 30. A 50. B 70. A 90. B
11. A 31. B 51. C 71. A 91. B
12. D 32. D 52. D 72. A 92. A
13. D 33. C 53. C 73. A 93. C
14. D 34. D 54. D 74. D 94. D
15. A 35. B 55. B 75. D 95. B
16. D 36. D 56. C 76. A 96. D
17. D 37. C 57. C 77. D 97. C
18. D 38. D 58. A 78. C 98. D
19. D 39. B 59. A 79. C 99. A
20. D 40. A 60. A 80. C 100. D

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