English (1015CMD303362240003) *1015CMD303362240003* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MINOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 05-05-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE - MER-I (C)

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single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Biology-I and Biology-II). 50 questions in each subject are
divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

 2 English

Topic : ELECTROSTATICS (FROM POTENTIAL TO DIPOLE), CURRENT ELECTRICITY (TILL TAUGHT)

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 6. Calculate the drift speed of the electrons when

1 A of current exists in a copper wire of
1. A charged particle having drift velocity of cross – section 2 mm2. The number of free
7.5 × 10 – 4 m s – 1 in an electric field of electrons in 1 cm3 of copper is 8.5 × 1022.
3 × 10 – 10 V m – 1, has a mobility in m2 V – 1 s – 1 of
(1) 0.036 mm/s (2) 0.36 mm/s
(1) 2.25 × 1015 (2) 2.5 × 106
(3) 0.5 mm/s (4) 0.0003 mm/s
(3) 2.5 × 10 – 6 (4) 2.25 × 10 – 15
7. Two conductors made of same material have
2. In an electrolyte 3.2 × 1018 bivalent positive ions drift length L and 2L but have equal resistance, the
to the right per second while 3.6 × 1018 monovalent two are connected in series in a circuit then what
negative ions drift to the left per second. Then, the will be ratio of drift velocity of free electron in
current is : two conductors :-
(1) 1.6 amp to the left (1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1

(2) 1.6 amp to the right (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1

(3) 0.45 amp to the left 8. If the length of a wire is increased by 10% by
stretching it, the percentage increase in its
(4) 0.45 amp to the right resistance is :-
3. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform (1) 10 % (2) 20 %
cross section a constant potential difference is
(3) 21 % (4) 44 %
applied. The quantity which remains constant
along the conductor is : 9. Two wires of same material have mass ratio 1 : 2
and length ratio is 3 : 1 then find their resistance
(1) current (2) drift velocity
ratio :-
(3) electric field (4) current density
(1) 1 : 27 (2) 9 : 2 (3) 18 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
4. A current of 1mA is flowing in a copper wire.
10. The length of a wire increased by 2% by
The number of electrons crossing any point in stretching. Then the percentage change in its
the conductor per second will be :- resistance will be :-
(1) 6.25 × 1031 (2) 6.25 × 108 (1) 2 % (2) 4 %
(3) 6.25 × 1015 (4) 6.25 × 1019 1 1
(3) % (4) %
5. 2 4
At room temperature, copper has free electron
11. The specific resistance of a conductor increases
density of 8.4 × 1028 per m3. The copper
with :
conductor has a cross-section of 10 – 6 m2 and
carries a current of 5.4 A. The electron drift (1) Increase in temperature
velocity in copper is :- (2) Increases in cross-sectional area
(1) 400 m/s (2) 0.4 m/s (3) Decreases in length
(3) 0.4 mm/s (4) 72 m/s (4) Decrease in cross-sectional area
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12. A conductor with rectangular cross section has 16. Three point charges +q, – 2q and +q are placed at
dimensions (a × 2a × 4a) as shown in figure. points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0),(x = 0, y = 0, z = 0)
Resistance across AB is x, across CD is y. Then and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0) respectively. The
the value of x is :- magnitude and direction of the electric dipole
y
moment vector of this charge assembly are : –
(1) √ 2 qa along + x direction

(2) √ 2 qa along + y direction

(3) √ 2 qa along the line joining points

(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 16 (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x =a, y=a, z = 0)
13. An electron travels a distance of 0.10 m (4) qa along the line joining points
perpendicular to an electric field of intensity (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x =a, y=a, z = 0)
3200 V/m, entering with a velocity 4 × 107 m/s.
17. Three resistances are joined together to form a
What is the deviation in its path ?
letter Y, as shown in figure. If the potentials of
(1) 1.76 mm. the terminals A, B and D are 6 V, 3 V and 2 V
(2) 17.6 mm. respectively, then the potential of the point O
will be :-
(3) 176 mm.
(4) 0.176 mm.
14. A solid conducting sphere having a charge Q is
surrounded by an uncharged concentric
conducting hollow shperical shell. Let the
potential difference between the surface of the
solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the
hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a (1) 4 V (2) 3 V (3) 2.5 V (4) 0 V
charge of – 3Q, the new potential difference 18. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current I
between the same two surface is :- will be :
(1) V (2) 2V
(3) 4V (4) – 2V
15. In a certain region of space with volume 0.2 m3
the electric potential is found to be 5 V
throughout. The magnitude of electric field in
this region is :
(1) 5 N/C (1) 0.75 A
(2) Zero (2) 1 A
(3) 0.5 N/C (3) 1.5 A
(4) 1 N/C (4) 0.5 A
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19. The equivalent resistance between A and B for 23. Five identical resistors, each of value 1100 Ω
the mesh shown in the figure is : are connected to a 220 V battery as shown. The
reading of the ideal ammeter A is :-

(1) 1/5 A (2) 2/5 A (3) 3/5 A (4) 4/5 A

(1) 7.2 Ω (2) 16 Ω (3) 30 Ω (4) 4.8 Ω 24. Potential of the point B in the circuit below is :-
20. Five resistors are connected as shown in figure.
Find the equivalent resistance between the points
B and C.

(1) 5 V (2) 6 V
(3) 7 V (4) 8 V
25. In the circuit find current in branch BD.
(1) 70 (2) 19 (3) 16 (4) 15
Ω Ω Ω Ω
19 70 5 8
21. Six equal resistances each of 4 Ω are connected
to form a Fig. The resistance between two
corners A and B is :
(1) 2A (2) 3A (3) 4A (4) 5A
26. If i = 0.25 A in figure, then value of R is : –

(1) 4 Ω (2) 4/3 Ω (3) 12 Ω (4) 2 Ω

(1) 48 Ω (2) 12 Ω
22. The current through a wire depends on time as:-
(i = i0 + α t) (3) 120 Ω (4) 42 Ω
where i0 = 10A α = 4 A/S 27. VA – VB will be :-
Then the charge crossed through a section of the
wire in 10 sec. is : –
(1) 100 C (2) 500 C (1) 20 V (2) 40 V
(3) 300 C (4) None (3) 70 V (4) 100 V
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28. In the circuit diagram shown in fig., the 31. A non - conducting ring is of radius 0.5 m. 1.11 x 10–10
magnitude and direction of the flow of current
coulombs charge is non - uniformly distributed over the
respectively would be :-
circumference of ring which produces electric field E
around itself. If ℓ = 0 is the centre of the ring, then the
ℓ =0
→
value of ∫ −E . d ℓ is :–
ℓ=∞
7
(1) ampere from a to b via e (1) 2 V (2) – 2 V
3
(2) 7 (3) – 1 V (4) zero
ampere from b to a via e
3
(3) 1 ampere from b to a via e 32. In the given current distribution, what is the
value of I ?
(4) 1 ampere from a to b via e
29. In the circuit shown in figure reading of
voltmeter is V1 when only S1 is closed, reading
of voltmeter is V2 when only S2 is closed. The
reading of voltmeter is V3 when both S1 and S2
are closed then :-

(1) 3A (2) 8A (3) 2A (4) 5A

33. The resistances of the four arms P,Q, R and S in a
Wheatstone bridge are 10 ohms, 30 ohms, 30 ohms
and 90 ohms, respectively. The e.m.f. and internal
(1) V2 > V1 > V3 (2) V3 > V2 > V1 resistance of the cell are 7 volts and 5 ohms
(3) V3 > V1 > V2 (4) V1 > V2 > V3 respectively. If the galvanometer resistance is 50 ohms,
30. In the circuit shown, if a conducting wire is the current drawn from the cell will be :-
connected between points A and B, the current in (1) 2.0 A (2) 1.0 A (3) 0.2 A (4) 0.1 A
this wire will : –
34. The value of current i for the given circuit is :-

(1) flow from A to B

(2) flow in the direction which will be decided
by the value of V
(3) be zero (1) 10 A (2) 5 A
(4) flow from B to A (3) 2.5 A (4) 20 A
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35. The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit 38. The specific resistance of a wire is ρ , its volume
shown is : is 3m3 and its resistance is 3 ohms, then its
length will be:-
1 3
(1) √ (2)
ρ √ ρ
1√ 1
(3) 3 (4) ρ √
ρ 3
39. Two charged spherical conductors of radius
R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the
(1) 0.6 V (2) 0 V ratio of surface charge densities of the spheres
( σ 1/ σ 2) is :-
(3) 0.5 V (4) 0.4 V
2
(1) R1
(2) R2
(3) R1 (4) R1
SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) R2 R1
√(
R2
)
R22

36. Suppose a current carrying wire has a cross- 40. An alpha particle with K.E. 10 MeV is heading
sectional area that, gradually become smaller towards a stationary tin nucleus of atomic
along the wire, has the shape of a very long cone number 50. Calculate the distance of closest
as shown in figure. Choose the correct statement: approch :-
(1) 3.6 × 10 – 5 m (2) 14.4 × 10 – 15 m.
(3) 70.7 × 10 – 15 m (4) None of these
41. Electric charges q, q, – 2q are placed at the
(1) Electric current is different in different
corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side ℓ .
portions of wire.
The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the
(2) Electric field at point A is same as that of system is :-
point B.
(1) q ℓ (2) 2q ℓ
(3) Drift speed of electrons at point A is lesser
(3) √ 3 qℓ (4) 4q ℓ
than that of at point B.
42. A solid conducting sphere having a charge q1 is
(4) Drift speed of electrons at point A is same
surrounded by an uncharged concentric
as that of at point B. conducing hollow spherical shell. Let the
37. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the potential potential difference between the surface of the
at point A is taken to be zero, the potential at solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the
point B is :- hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given a
charge of q2, the new potential difference
between the same two surfaces depends on :-
(1) q1
(2) q2
(3) both on q1 and q2
(1) +1 V (2) – 1 V (3) +2V (4) – 2 V (4) Neither on q1 nor on q2
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43. The electric potential in a certain region is expressed 47. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm
by V = 6x – 8xy2 – 8y + 6yz – 4z2 volts. The has potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its
magnitude of the force acting on a charge of 2C centre, then the potential at a point 15 cm away
situated at the origin will be : from the centre will be :-
(1) 2N (2) 6N (1) 3V (2) 3
V
2
(3) 8N (4) 20N 2 1
(3) V (4) V
44. The work done required to put the four charges 3 3
together at the corners of a square of side a, as 48. If the electric potential of the inner metal sphere
shown in the figure is :- is 10 volt & that of the outer shell is 5 volt, then
the potential at the centre will be :

1 q2 2.6 q 2
(1) (2) −
4π ε0 a 4π ε0 a

(3) 2.6 q 2 (4) none of these

+
4π ε0 a
45. The effective resistance of a parallel connection
(1) 10 volt (2) 5 volt (3) 15 volt (4) 0
that consists of four wires of equal length, equal
49. A spherical conducting shell of radius R has a
area of cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω .
charge q. A point charge Q is placed at its centre.
What will be the effective resistance if they are
The electrostatic potential at a point P at distant
connected in series ?
R
from the centre of the shell is :-
(1) 0.25 Ω (2) 0.5 Ω 2
(q + Q) 2
(3) 1 Ω (4) 4 Ω (1)
4π ε0 R
46. Find the ratio of resistance between A & B 2Q
(2)
before and after switch (S1 & S2) are closed in 4 π ε 0R
the given circuit :- (3) 2Q 2q
−
4 π ε 0R 4 π ε 0R
2Q q
(4) +
4 π ε 0R 4 π ε 0R
50. The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given
by:
(1) 5 : 4 V = – x2y – xz3 + 4
The electric field E→ at that point (0, 0, 1)
(2) 4 : 5
(1) → = ^i
E (2) → = ^i + ^j
E
(3) 5 : 3
(3) → = ^j
E (4) → = ^j + k^
E
(4) 5 : 6
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Topic : SOLUTION, ELECTROCHEMISTRY, CLASSIFICATION AND NOMENCLATURE

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 56. The depression in freezing point for 0.01 m

aqueous solution of urea, sodium chloride and
51. 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M glucose would exert :- sodium sulphate is in the ratio.
(1) Same osmotic pressure (1) 1 : 1 : 1
(2) Osmotic pressure in the ratio of 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 2 : 3
(3) Osmotic pressure in the ratio 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 4
(4) Osmotic pressure in the ratio 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 2 : 3
52. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 57. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of
9.43 g of MgCl2 in 1 kg of water is sucrose at 373 K is found to be 750 mm Hg. The
(Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol – 1, Molar mass of molality of the solution at the same temperature
will be :
MgCl2 = 94.3 g mol – 1) :-
(1) 0.26 (2) 0.93
(1) 0.156 K (2) 0.52 K
(3) 0.74 (4) 0.039
(3) 0.17 K (4) 0.94 K
58. According to Henry's law, the partial pressure of
53. An aqueous solution of KI is 1.00 molal. Which
gas (Pgas) is directly proportional to mole fraction
change will cause the vapour pressure of the
of gas in liquid solution, Pgas = KH. Xgas, where
solution to increase ?
KH is Henry's constant. Which is incorrect ?
(1) Addition of water (1) KH is characteristic constant for a given
(2) Addition of NaCl gas-solvent system
(3) Addition of Na2SO4 (2) Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility
(4) Addition of 1.00 molal KI of gas for a given partial pressure of gas

54. Which of the following solutions is an example (3) KH has temperature dependence
of negative deviation from Raoult's law ? (4) KH decreases with increase of temperature
(1) Acetone + Ethanol 59. At 25 o C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid
(2) Carbon tetrachloride + Chloroform A (M W = 40) is 100 torr and pure liquid B
(3) Acetone + Chloroform (M W = 80) is 40 torr. The vapour pressure at
(4) Water + Ethanol 25 o C of a solution containing 20g of each A
55. 0.1 M solution of K2SO4 is prepared in water. & B is :-
What would be its osmotic pressure at 27°C :- (1) 80 torr
( α = 90 %) (2) 58.9 torr
(1) 6.89 atm (2) 0.689 atm (3) 68 torr
(3) 0.344 atm (4) 3.4 atm (4) 48 torr
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60. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol 65. The value of Λ ∞ for NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl are
X( Pxo = 150 torr) and 2 mol Y( Pyo = 300 torr) respectively 150, 250 and 130 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1. The
is 240 torr. In this case :
value of Λ ∞ for NH4OH is :- (in ohm – 1 cm2 eq – 1)
(1) There is a negative deviation from Raoult's law
(1) 270
(2) There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law
(2) 280
(3) There is no deviation from Raoult's law
(3) 400
(4) Can not be decided
(4) 380
61. The resistance of 1N solution of CH3COOH is
250 ohm, when measured in a cell of cell 66. The ionic conductance of X+2 and Y – are 100
constant 1.15 cm – 1. The equivalent conductance and 200 ohm – 1 cm2 eq – 1 respectively. The
will be:- equivalent conductance of XY2 at infinite
(1) 4.6 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1 dilution is (in ohm – 1 cm2 eq – 1) :
(2) 9.2 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1 (1) 300
(3) 18.4 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1 (2) 150
(4) 0.023 ohm – 1cm2eq – 1 (3) 600
62. Which solution of NaNO3 will have maximum (4) 250
specific conductance. :-
67. What is the % dissociation of CH3COOH, if
(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.25 N (3) 0.02 N (4) 0.04 N
equivalent conductivity at this dilution and at
63. Assertion : On dilution, conductivity ( κ ) of strong infinite dilution are 148 and 398 S cm2/mol
and weak electrolyte always decreases.
respectively ?
Reason : The number of ions per unit volume that
carry the current in a solution decrease on dilution. (1) 37.18 %
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (2) 47 %
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (3) 48.78 %
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (4) 10.8 %
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
68. Mixture of A and B components shows positive
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. deviation when :
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(1) A-B interaction is stronger than A-A and
64. In the equation : Λ m = Λ om − A√C, the value of B-B interaction
A will be same for
(2) A-B interaction is weaker than A-A and B-
(1) NaCl and KCl
B interaction
(2) NaCl and CaCl2
(3) Δ Vmix < 0, Δ Smix > 0
(3) CaCl2 and MgSO4
(4) Δ Vmix = 0, Δ Smix > 0
(4) KCl and MgSO4
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69. The vapour pressure of benzene at 90°C is 1020 torr. 73. Which of the following will not have primary
A solution of 5g of a solute in 58.5 g benzene has alcohol :-
vapour pressure 990 torr. The molecular mass of the
solute is : (1)
(1) 78.2 g mol – 1
(2) 178.2 g mol – 1
(2)
–1
(3) 200 g mol
(4) 220 g mol – 1
70. If T1 , T2 and T3 are boiling points of component (3)
A, component B and azeotropic mixture then
which of the following relation is correct for a
minimum boiling azeotrope :-
(1) T1 < T3 (4)
(2) T2 < T3
(3) T3 < T1
74. In which of the following molecule, all the four
(4) T3 = T2
types (1°, 2°, 3° & 4°) of carbon are present :-
71. How many hetero atoms are present in following
compound is/are :
(1)

(1) 1
(2)
(2) 2
(3) 3 (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
(4) 4
72. Which of the following pair of compounds are (4)
homologue :-
(1) CH3 – O – CH2 – CH3 & CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH 75. What should be the general formula of a cyclic

(2) hydrocarbon having one double bond –

(1) CnH2n
(3) (2) CnH2n – 2
(3) CnH2n+2
(4) (4) CnHn+1
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76. The compound containing maximum number of 80. Heterocyclic compound is :-
olefinic bonds and acetylinic bond.
(1) (2)
(1) CH2=CH – CH=CH – CH=CH2
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH – C ≡ C – C ≡ CH
(3) CH2=CH – C ≡ C – C ≡ C – CH3
(3) (4)
(4) CH2=CH – CH=CH – C ≡ CH3
77. Correct general formula for olefinic aldehyde is : –
81. Number of σ and π bond in given compound ?
(1) CnH2nO
(2) CnH2n – 2O2
(3) CnH2n – 4O
(4) CnH2n – 2O
(1) 11, 2
78. Out of following, which are members of homologous
(2) 6, 2
series ?
(3) 12, 2
(4) 8, 2
(1)
82. Total number of functional groups in following
compound is :-

(2)

(1) 4
(3)
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) (4) 3
83. Which of the following pair have same general
79. formula ?
In CH3 – C ≡ C – CH3 the number of C atoms
present in straight line or linearly are : (1) and CH3 – CH=CH – CH3

(1) 1 (2) CH3 – O – CH3, CH3 – CH2 – OH

(2) 2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – CHO,
(3) 3
(4) 4
(4) All
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84. Total number of π bonds in :- 88. Which of the following is correct

(1) Δ Tf [0.1m urea] > Δ Tf [0.1 m Glucose]
(2) V.P. [18gram Glucose + 100 gram H2O(ℓ)] = V.P.
(1) 5 [9 gram Glucose + 100 gram H2O(ℓ)]
(3) V.P. [0.1 m Glucose at 95°C] > V.P. [0.1 m
(2) 6
urea at 80°C]
(3) 7
(4) Δ Tb[0.1m NaCl (aq.)] < Δ Tb[ 0.1 m
(4) 8 Glucose (aq)]
85. Out of following which has same hybridisation 89. In which of the following cases does osmosis
as that of central atom of CO2 ? take place if the solutions are separated by a
semipermeable membrane ?
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH3
(1) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.2 M glucose
(2) (2) 0.1 M sucrose and 0.1 M fructose
(3) 0.05 M K4[Fe(CN)6] and 0.1 M CaCl2
(3) CH3 – CH2 – OH (4) 10 – 3 M CaCl2 and 1.5 × 10 – 3 M NaCl
(4) HC ≡ CH 90. Which of the following is not correct for ideal
solution
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )
(1) Δ H = 0
86. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte (2) Δ V = 0
X3Y2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of the (3) Δ S = 0
solution is : (Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg/mol) (4) Obey's Raoult's law
(1) 375.5 K 91. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water, a
depression in freezing point is observed.
(2) 374.04 K
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a
(3) 377.12 K
solution causes depression in the freezing point.
(4) 373.25 K
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
87. Which of the following aqueous solution has the Reason is a correct explanation of the
highest freezing point ? Assertion.
(1) 0.01 M NaCl (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2) 0.01 M Na2SO4
Assertion.
(3) 0.1 M Sucrose (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) 0.1 M NaCl (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
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92. The resistance of 0.5 M solution of an electrolyte 96. Number of 2° hydrogen in given compound
in a cell was found to be 50 Ω . If the electrodes
in the cell are 2.2 cm apart and have an area of
4.4 cm2 then the molar conductivity (Sm2mol – 1)
of the solution is :-
(1) 0.2
(1) 2
(2) 0.02
(2) 5
(3) 0.002
(3) 7
(4) None of these
(4) 8
93. A graph was plotted between molar conductivity
97. Which functional group may be present in a
of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl and NH4OH)
compound having molecular formula C4H10O ?
and C (in mol L – 1). Correct setting :
√

(1) Aldehyde
(2) Ketone
(3) Alcohol
(4) Carboxylic acid
(1) I(NaCl), II(HCl), III(NH4OH) 98. Number of σ (sp2−sp2) bond present in given
(2) I(HCl), II(NaCl), III(NH4OH) structure :-

(3) I(NH4OH), II(NaCl), III(HCl)

(4) I(NH4OH), II(HCl), III(NaCl)
(1) 3 (2) 4
94. The conductivity of saturated solution of BaSO4
is 3.06 × 10 – 6 mho cm – 1 and its molar (3) 5 (4) 8
conductance is 1.53 mho cm2 mol – 1. The Ksp for 99. How many carbon atoms are present in the given
BaSO4 will be :- following compound ?
(1) 4 × 10 – 12 M
(2) 4 × 106 M
(3) 4 × 10 – 12 M2
(1) 8C (2) 7C
(4) 4 × 10 – 6 M2
(3) 14C (4) 16C
95. Which of the following solution has maximum
100. Third member of ether contains :-
vapour pressure :-
(1) 3C
(1) 1 N KNO3
(2) 4C
(2) 1 N Ba(NO3)2
(3) 5C
(3) 1 N Al2 (SO4)3
(4) 6C
(4) 1 N Ti(NO3)4
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Topic : MUTATION TO HGP, PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE (TILL COVERED), HUMAN HEALTH AND
DISEASE, ECOLOGY UPTO INTERSPECIFIC INTERACTIONS

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-I ) 107. Which one from those given below is the period
for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?
101. Genes do not occur in pairs in :-
(1) 1840 - 1850 (2) 1857 - 1869
(1) Zygote (2) Somatic cell
(3) 1870 - 1877 (4) 1856 - 1863
(3) Embryo (4) Gametes
108. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred
102. Which of the following is not associated with to as :-
HGP –
(1) Positive regulation
(1) Bioinformatics
(2) Negative regulation
(2) Cloning vectors BAC & YAC
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Automated DNA sequencers
(4) Constitutive regulation
(4) VNTR
109. The bulk of DNA forms the major peaks during
103. Multiple alleles can be found only when :
density gradient centrifugation. The other small
(1) Population studies are made peaks are referred to as :-
(2) Individual study is made (1) satellite DNA
(3) Mutation is absent (2) non-satellite DNA
(4) Dominance is present (3) exonic DNA
104. Failure of segregation of chromatids results in (4) intronic DNA
the gain or loss of a chromosome(s) called :-
110. Allelic sequence variations, where more than one
(1) Euploidy (2) Aneuploidy
varient (allele) at a locus in a human population
(3) Polyploidy (4) Diploidy
with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to
105. Basis of DNA fingerprinting is :-
as
(1) high degree of polymorphism in non coding
(1) Incomplete dominance
sequences
(2) low degree of polymorphism in non coding (2) EST
sequences (3) SNP
(3) intermediate degree of polymorphism in (4) DNA polymorphism
coding sequences 111. Dihybrid test cross ratio proposed by Mendel is
(4) sequences showing no polymorphism (1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
106. In lac operon system, β -galactosidase is coded by (2) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
(1) i-gene (2) a-gene (3) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) z-gene (4) y-gene (4) 3 : 1
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112. Find an incorrect statement with respect to 117. Which of the following is exception to Mendel's
findings of HGP :- laws
(1) Dystrophin protein gene, is the largest gene (1) Linkage
of human genome. (2) Incomplete dominance
(2) Chromosome Y has minimum 231 genes (3) Co-dominance
(3) SNP' s are identified at about 2.4 million locations. (4) All of the above
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of 118. Given the diagram of the lac operon showing an
discovered genes.
operon of inducible enzymes. Identify
113. Arrange the following in correct order of
sequence for DNA finger-printing- components and enzymes (A, B, C, D and E)-
(a) Blotting
(b) Hybridization
(c) Gel Electrophorosis
(d) Autoradiography
(1) c, a, d, b (2) a, c, d, b
(3) b, c, a, d (4) c, a, b, d
114. A. DNA polymorphism plays important role in (1) A-Beta Galactosidase, B-Permease,
evolution and speciation. C-Transacetylase, D-Repressor protein,
B. 99.9 % nucleotides bases are exactly same in E-Inducer (lactose)
all humans.
C. Chromosome 1 has the fewest genes (231) (2) A-Beta Galactosidase, B-Permease,
and Y chromosome has most genes (2968). C-Transcetylase, D-Inducer (lactose),
D. BAC and YAC have been used in Human
Genome project. E-Repressor protein
(1) All correct (2) All incorrect (3) A-Beta Galactosidase, B-Transacetylase,
(3) A, B, D are correct (4) B, C, D are correct C-Permease, D-Repressor protein,
E-Inducer (lactose)
115. Incomplete dominance occurs in :-
(1) Mirabilis (2) Antirrhinum (4) A-Permease, B-Transacetylase,
C-Beta Galactosidase, D-Repressor protein,
(3) Garden pea (4) All of the above
E-Inducer (Lactose)
116. The satellite DNA is classified into many
categories such as micro-satellites, mini- 119. Accoding to Mendel, "factors" or "genes"
satellites etc. on the basis of :- (1) are the units of inheritance
(1) base composition (2) contain information that is required to
(2) length of segment express a particular trait
(3) number of repetitive units (3) Both 1 and 2
(4) All the above (4) None of the above
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120. When more than one phenotype is influenced by 125. In a typical monohybrid cross, plants of which
the same gene then dominance is not an generation show same phenotype and genotype-
autonomous feature of a gene. It depends upon :- (1) Fourth generation (F4)
(1) Gene product (2) First filial generation (F1)
(2) The particular phenotype that we choose to (3) Second filial generation (F2)
examine.
(4) Third filial generation (F3)
(3) Number of genes
126. A female is heterozygous for two autosomal
(4) Both 1 and 2 gene M and N and homozygous for r genes then
121. In which case the modified allele is equivalent to what will be proportion of gamete having all
the unmodified allele :- dominant allele
(1) The normal enzyme (1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/16 (4) 0
(2) A non functional enzyme 127. Contrasting trait in pea plant studied by Mendel
(3) No enzyme at all is :-

(4) Both (2) and (3) (1) Seed shape – Round and long

122. Which of the following statement is incorrect (2) Pod shape – Axial and terminal
about polygenic inheritance? (3) Seed coat colour – Yellow and white
(1) In polygenic inheritance one gene control (4) Flower colour – Violet and white
one character.
128. Which of the following crosses will give tall and
(2) Besides the involvement of multiple genes dwarf pea plants in same proportions ?
polygenic inheritance also takes into
(1) TT × tt (2) Tt × tt
account the influence of environment.
(3) TT × Tt (4) tt × tt
(3) Human skin colour is an example of
polygenic inheritance. 129. The character which was studied by the mendel
(4) Characters which are regulated by in pea plant were seven in number. The character
polygenes are quantitative. which not studied by the mendel was :-
123. Alleles are : (1) Pod position (2) Plant height
(1) true breeding homozygotes (3) Seed colour (4) Starch grain size
(2) different molecular forms of a gene 130. When red flowered plants of snapdragon are
(3) heterozygotes crossed with pink flowered plants the progenies
are obtained in which ratio ?
(4) different phenotype
(1) 1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
124. Mendel selected how many true-breeding Pea
plant varietes ? (2) 1 red : 1 white
(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 1 red : 1 pink
(3) 20 (4) 55 (4) All pink
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131. A plant shows dominant phenotype and whose SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-I )
genotype is to be determined by –
136. Select the suitable example of polygenic inheritance–
(1) Reciprocal cross
(2) Test cross (1) Phenyl ketonuria

(3) Codominance (2) ABO blood group

(4) Incomplete dominance (3) Flower color in snapdragon

132. Blood grouping in human beings is controlled by (4) Human Height
:– 137. The figure given below is of experimental
(1) 4 alleles in which A is dominant technique of Mendel. Select the option giving
correct identification of A, B & C :-
(2) 3 alleles in which A and B is dominant, and
i is recessive
(3) 3 alleles in which none is dominant
(4) 3 alleles in which A is dominant and other
recessive
133. Law of segregation of gametes is also called law of:-
(1) probability
(2) purity of gametes
(3) punnett hypothesis
(4) independence of gametes
134. How many zygotic combination will be formed
by a parent having genotype RrYy × RrYy ?
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 9
135. Match the following column I with column II ? (1) A-Artificial cross pollination;
Column-I Column-II B-Hybrid offsprings;
A (+), (+) i Predation C-Emasculation.

B ( – ), ( – ) ii Amensalism (2) A-Emasculation;

B-Bagging & tagging;
C ( – ), (0) iii Mutualism C-Hybrid offsprings.
D (+), ( – ) iv Competition (3) A-Emasculation;
(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii & D - i B-Transfer of pollens;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
(2) A - ii, B - iii, C - i & D - iv
(4) A-Bagging & tagging;
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii & D - iv B-Emasculation;
(4) A - iii, B - iv, C - i & D - ii C-Hybrid offsprings.
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138. Mendel's work remain unrecognised for long 142. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow
time due to :-
I. Communication was not easy. fruit (r) and tallness (T) is dominant over
II. Concept of factors which did not blend was shortness (t). If a plant with RRTt genotype is
not accepted crossed with a plant that is rrtt :-
III. Use of mathematics to explain biological
problem was unacceptable (1) All the offsprings will be tall with red fruit
IV. He could not provide any physical proof for
the existance of factors. (2) 25% will be tall with red fruit
Choose the right combinations
(3) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(1) I and II only (2) II and III only
(4) 75% will be tall with red fruit
(3) III and IV only (4) I,II,III and IV
143. When two pairs of traits are combined in a
139. When aaBBcc is crossed with AaBbCc, then the
ratio of hybrid for all the three genes is :- hybrid, segregation of one pair of character is
(1) 1/8 (2) 1/4 (3) 1/16 (4) 1/32 independent of the other pair of character. Above
140. ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene I. statement is related with which of the conclusion
The gene I has three alleles IA, IB & i. Choose of mendel ?
the incorrect statement :-
(1) Dominance
(1) The alleles IA & IB produces a slightly
different form of sugar (2) Incomplete Dominance
(2) The allele i does not form any antigen (3) Codominance
(3) IA & IB are completely dominant over i allele (4) Independent Assortment
(4) IA & IB regulate same character with same 144. Blood group of father is B and that of daughter is
manifestations AB. The genotype of mother could be :-
141. Read the following four statements (A-D) :- (1) IAIA or ii
(A) Pleiotropy helps to prove that dominance is
not an autonomous feature of a gene or the (2) IAIB or ii
product that it has information for.
(B) The underlying mechanism of pleiotropy in (3) IA i or IAIA or IAIB
most cases is the effect of a gene on metabolic (4) IAIA or ii or IAIB
pathways which contribute towards different
phenotypes 145. Which statement is correct for incomplete
(C) Polygenic inheritance also takes into account dominance?
the influence of environment
(D) Polygenes are seen only in a population and (1) Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are same
not in an individual (2) Blending of characters phenotypically
The correct statements are
(3) F1 hybrid does not resemble any of the parent
(1) (A), (B) and (C) (2) (B), (C) and (D)
(3) (A), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A) and (C) (4) All of the above
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146. When a pea plant with round seed (Bb) is 149. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal linked
crossed with other plant having wrinkled seed recessive trait that can be transmitted from
shape the total number of seeds obtained in parents to the offspring when both the partners
progeny is 630. What is correct for this progeny? are carrier or heterozygous. The disease is
(According to starch grain size) controlled by a single pair of allele, HbA and
(1) 330 (large size), 330 (small size) HbS. Identify X, Y and Z:-
(2) 330 (small size), 330 (medium size)
(3) 315 (intermediate size), 315 (small size)
(4) 158 (large size), 158 (small size), 314
(intermediate size)
147. Which of the following condition is true for
codominance ?
(1) Phenotype of F1 did not resemble either of
two parents
(2) Phenotype of F1 resemble both parents
(3) Phenotype of F1 resembled either of the
two parents.
(4) Some blended phenotype appear in F1
generation.
(1) GTG, GAC, Val (2) GTG, CAC, Val
148. Observe the phenotypic effects of a gene with 2
(3) GTA, GAG, Val (4) GTC, GAC, Val
alleles B and b in pea plant.
150. Match List-I with List-II.
Starch grain Seed
Genotype List-II
size shape List-I
(Phenotypic
(Type of cross)
BB Large Round ratio)
(A) Monohybrid Cross (I) 1:1
Bb Intermediate Round
(B) Dihybrid Cross (II) 1 : 2 : 1
bb small wrinkled Incomplete
(C) (III) 3 : 1
Which of the following is incorrect in concern to dominance
above facts :- (D) Test Cross (IV) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(1) Gene shows incomplete dominance for Choose the correct answer from the options
intermediate grain size given below :

(2) Gene shows normal dominant-recessive (1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
relationship for seed shape (2) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(3) Gene is an example of pleiotropic gene (3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(4) Gene shows co-dominance (4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
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Topic : MUTATION TO HGP, PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE (TILL COVERED), HUMAN HEALTH AND
DISEASE, ECOLOGY UPTO INTERSPECIFIC INTERACTIONS

SECTION-A ( BIOLOGY-II ) 157. Darwinian fitness is associated with?

(1) Physical fitness
151. The formula for exponential population growth is
(2) Social fitness
(1) dt/dN=rN (2) dN
= kN
dt (3) Mental fitness
(3) rN/dN=dt (4) dN/dt=rN (4) Reproductive fitness
152. In a pond there were 400 lotus plant last year, 158. Which of the following organisms produce a
through reproduction 16 new lotus plants are large number of small-sized offspring?
added, taking the current population to 416, then
calculate the birth rate. (1) Birds (2) Mammals

(1) 0.4 offspring per year (3) 1 & 2 both (4) Oysters
(2) 0.6 offspring per year 159. In which type of population interaction, one
species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected?
(3) 0.08 offspring per year
(1) Mutualism (2) Competition
(4) 0.04 offspring per year
(3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism
153. Who is revered as the father of ecology in India?
160. Which scientist disapproved the "Good humor
(1) Har Gobind Khorana hypothesis" ?
(2) Birbal Sahni (1) Hippocrates
(3) Ramdeo Misra (2) Indian Ayurvedic System of Medicine
(4) Jagadish Chandra Bose (3) William Harvey
154. Ecology is basically concerned with … … … .. (4) (1) and (2)
levels of biological organisation. Fill in the
blanks with correct option: 161. Which of following antibody can be produced
during allergic reaction ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six
(1) IgA (2) IgE (3) IgM (4) IgD
155. The number of births during a given period in a
population is referred as 162. Which of the following is not a component of
innate immunity ?
(1) Natality (2) Mortality
(1) Interferons (2) Phagocytes
(3) Death rate (4) Growth rate
(3) Skin (4) Antibodies
156. Which of the following processes contribute to
an increase in population density? 163. Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from :-
(1) Natality and Mortality (1) Bacteria
(2) Natality and Immigration (2) Recombinant RNA technology
(3) Mortality and Immigration (3) Fungus (yeast)
(4) Mortality and Emigration (4) Both (2) and (3)
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164. Which provide micro-environment for the 169. Which of the following statement is incorrect for
development and maturation of B-lymphocytes? antibodies
(1) Bone-marrow (2) Spleen (1) Antibodies present in the colostrum
(3) Thymus (4) Both (1) and (3) (2) These are found in blood so response is
165. Given below are pairs of pathogens, disease termed as humoral immune response
caused by them and their classification. Which is (3) These are secreted by T-cells
incorrectly matched ? (4) They have four polypeptide chains
Causative
Disease Pathogen 170. Diagram showing ringworm affected area of skin.
agent
Haemophilus
Which given pathogen is not related with disease?
(1) Pneumonia Bacteria
influenzae
(2) Typhoid Salmonella Bacteria
(3) Filariasis Microsporum Round worm (1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton
Chikungunya
(4) Chikungunya Virus
Virus
(3) Epidermophyton (4) Wuchereria
171. Match the following column A and B ?
166. Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many people
in our society is :- A B
(1) An age related degeneration 1. IgA a. Secretory

(2) A genetic disorder 2. IgG b. Heaviest

3. IgE c. Allergic
(3) An auto immune disorder
4. IgM d. Universal
(4) A bacterial disease
167. Which part of antibody binds with antigen :- (1) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d (2) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c

(1) Epitope (2) Paratope (3) 1-a, 2-d, 3-c, 4-b (4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b

(3) Isotope (4) Constant region 172. Which of the following is correct matching
House fly (Mechanical
168. How many of the following is/are correct (A) Elephantiasis (i)
carrier)
matching
Antibody Number of Paratope (B) Dengue (ii) Female Anopheles

a IgA 2 Entamoeba
(C) (iii) Female Culex
Histolytica
b IgG 2
Plasmodium
c IgM 10 (D) (iv) Aedes mosquito
falciparum
d IgE 2 (A) (B) (C) (D)
e IgA 4 (1) i ii iii iv
f IgD 10 (2) iii iv ii i
(3) iii iv i ii
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (4) iii ii iv i
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173. Which of the following is correct matching :- 176. Statement-I : The principle of vaccination is
(1) Cellular barrier Epidermal cells based on the property of memory of nervous
system
Fever, Acid in stomach,
(2) Physical barrier Statement-II : Injection of antivenom provide
saliva
passive immunity
Cytokine
(3) Interferons (1) Both Statement are correct
barrier
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is
Natural killer cell
Physiological incorrect
(4) macrophages PMNL-
barrier (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is
Neutrophils
correct
174. How many of the below are incorrect about
given diagram :- (4) Both statement are incorrect
177. Mary Mallon (by profession) was associated
with which disease?
(1) Tuberculosis (2) Typhoid
(3) Common cold (4) Malaria
178. The yellowish fluid colostrum secreted by
mother during initial days of lactation is rich in
which of the following antibody ?
(a) Mediator of CMI (1) Ig G (2) Ig A
(b) T-cells them selves do not secrete but help B- (3) Ig M (4) Ig E
cell produce them
(c) H2L2 molecule 179. Entry stage of plasmodium in human body is :
(d) Glycoprotein molecule (1) Trophozoite (2) Gametocyte
(1) one (2) two (3) Megakaryocyte (4) Sporozoite
(3) three (4) four 180. It was thought - that person with ______
175. Most diseases can be diagnosed by observing the belonged to hot personality and would have
symptoms in the patient. Which group of fevers :-
symptoms are indicative of amoebiasis :- (1) High temperature
(1) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, (2) Bile
cough, headache (3) Black bile
(2) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps,
(4) Yellow bile
blood clots and mucous is stools
181. Which of the following is not transmitted
(3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough,
through contaminated food & water ?
sore throat, headache
(1) Typhoid (2) amoebiasis
(4) High fever, malaise, stomach ache, loss of
appetite and constipation (3) ascariases (4) Malaria
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182. _____ is characterised by memory :-
(1) Acquired immunity
(2) Non specific immunity
(3) Specific immunity
(4) Both 1 & 3
183.
Structures in the given diagram responsible for
maturation and storage of T-lymphocytes
respectively are ?
(1) (C), (A) (2) (B), (A)
(3) (A), (B) (4) (B), (C)
184. Which the following statement is false ?
(1) Virus infected cells secrete interferon
(2) Interferon protect non infected cells from
further viral infection
(3) Innate immunity is specific type of defence
that is present at the time of birth
(4) The overall ability of the host to fight the
disease causing organisms, conferred by
the immune system is called immunity
185. Select the correct statements.
(a) Injection of snake antivenom against snake
bite is an example of active immunisation
(b) If due to some reason B & T lymphocyte are
damaged, the body will not produce antibody
against a pathogen
(c) Injection of dead/inactivated pathogen causes
passive immunity
(d) Colostrum contain maximum IgA
How many statements are correct ?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
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SECTION-B ( BIOLOGY-II )
186. Sickle cell anaemia is example of all except :-
(1) HbAHbScodominance
(2) Base Substitution from GAG to GUG
(3) Point Mutation
(4) Multiple allelism
187. In a plant height is controlled by genes A, B and
C. Tallest plant is 33 cm long and shortest plant
is 15 cm long. What will be the height of the
plant if it's genotype is AaBBCc ?
(1) 27 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 18 cm
188. Statement-I : Sickle cell anaemia and
phenylketonuria both are autosomal dominant
disease.
Statement-II : In phenylketonuria, change of
glutamic acid to valine occurs in beta chain of
Hemoglobin.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
189. Statement-I :- Ecology at the organismic level is
essentially physiological ecology.
Statement-II :- Ecology is a subject which
studies the interactions among organisms and
between the organism & its physical
environment.
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct
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190. Match Column-I with Column-II and select 194. Saliva of mouth and tears of eye are included
correct option : under which barrier ?
Column-I Column-II
(1) Physiological barrier
Key stone
(A) (i) Synecology (2) Physical barrier
species
Critical link Mycorrhizal (3) Cellular barrier
(B) (ii)
species fungi (4) Cytokine barrier
Fig tree in 195. Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-
(C) Endemic species (iii) tropical (1) Tuberculosis
forest
(2) Dengue
Kiwi in
Study of community (3) Cholera
(D) (iv) New
with Environment
Zealand (4) Typhoid
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) 196. Virus infected cell secrete proteins called __
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) __. Which stimulate adjacent non infected cells
(3) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) to produce __ ___ ?

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) X Y

191. dN K−N (1) Antigen Antibody

= rN ( )
dt K Translation
K−N
In above equation ( ) represent :- (2) inhibiting Interferons
K
(1) Carrying capacity protein

(2) Environmental resistance (3) Antibody Antigen

(3) Rate of change in population density Translation
(4) Instrinsic rate of growth (4) Interferons inhibiting
protein
192. In how many population interactions only one
species get harmed ? 197. Identify the incorrect statement :-
Predation, Mutualism, Commensalism, Parasitism, (1) T-cells helps the B-cells to produce
Competition, Amensalism, Protocooperation antibody
(1) Three (2) Five (2) Isograft is the organ transplantation
(3) Seven (4) Four between the individuals of same species but
193. What was the 𝑟 value for human population in their genetic constitution is not same
India, in 1981? (3) Only identical twins have identical
(1) 0.012 (2) 0.025 haplotype
(3) 0.0205 (4) 0.015 (4) Asthma is an allergic disease
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 English 25
198. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct 200. Given below are two statements :
about typhoid? Statement-I : Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic
(a) Sustained high fever bacterium which causes typhoid disease.
(b) Weakness Statement-II : Bacteria like Haemophilus
(c) Stomach pain influenzae is responsible for the disease
(d) Constipation pneumonia.
(e) Headache and loss of appetite (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(f) Coughing correct
(1) Only a, c, d (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(2) Only d, e, f incorrect
(3) a, b, c, d and e (3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(4) a, b, c but d, e, f are not incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
199. Antigen binding site of immunoglobulin is made
correct
of ?
(1) Variable region of heavy chain
(2) Variable region of light chain
(3) Constant region of light chain
(4) Variable region of both heavy and light chain.

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 26 English

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

QUESTIONS BREAK-UP CHART FOR MINOR TEST

FROM CURRENT & PREVIOUS UNITS
(Session : 2024 - 2025)
ENTHUSE ADV. COURSE I(C) : MER
MINOR
CURRENT
TEST NO. & PREVIOUS UNIT (COMPLETE TOPIC)
UNIT
DATE

P ELECTROSTATICS
SYLLABUS
COVERED FROM
03 CHEMICAL KINETICS
06-05-2024 C
02-06-2024
TO & SOLUTIONS
01-06-2024
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
B
& REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

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 English 27
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MER-I(C)
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