Vol1-20220120120129414437 231117 000554

C H E MIS T R Y
DPP
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS
TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

ST NO. 01
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Mole Calculation
1. 1 mole by definition represents same number of particles as :

16
(A) Number of atoms present in exactly 8 g of 8O isotope.
(B) Number of molecules in exactly 2 g of H2 gas.

16
(C) Number of atoms present in exactly 16 g of 8O isotope.
(D) Number of atoms present in exactly 12 g of 126 C isotope.
2. The weight of a molecule of the compound C6H12O6 is about :

(A) 180 g (B) 3 × 10–22 g (C) 22 × 10–23 g (D) 132 g
3. The mass of half mole of electrons is about : (Given : Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10–28 g)
(A) 0.546 mg (B) 0.273 mg (C) 1.092 mg (D) 4.55 mg
4. 39.4 kg of gold was recovered from a smuggler. The number of atoms of gold recovered are :
(A) 200 (B) 1.2044 × 1025 (C) 6.022 × 1025 (D) 1.2044 × 1026
5. The charge on 1 gram of Al3+ ions is : (e = magnitude of electronic charge)

1 1
(A) NAe coulomb (B) NAe coulomb
27 3
1
(C) NAe coulomb (D) 3 NAe coulomb
9
6. The number of atoms present in 0.5 g atoms of nitrogen is same as the atoms in :
(A) 24g of Mg (B) 8g of Oxygen gas (C) 32g of S (D) 12g of C
7. In which of the following pairs, do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules ?

(A) N2O and CO (B) N2 and CO (C) N2O and CO2 (D) Both (B) and (C)
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8. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is approximately :
(A) 1 × 1023 (B) 2 × 1023 (C) 4 × 1023 (D) 6 × 1023
9. Total number of neutrons present in 4 g of heavy water (D2O) is : (Where NA represents

Avogadro's number)
(A) 2.4 NA (B) 4 NA (C) 1.2 NA (D) 2 NA
10. In which of the following options, the molecules are correctly matched with their atomicity ?
(1) P4 (p) 7
(2) HNO3 (q) 6
(3) N2H4 (r) 5
(4) H2SO4 (s) 4
(A) (1 – s), (2 – r), (3 – p), (4 – q) (B) (1 – q), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – r)

(C) (1 – q), (2 – s), (3 – r), (4 – p) (D) (1 – s), (2 – r), (3 – q), (4 – p)
11. The atomic weight of an element is 'a'. If this element occurs in nature as a triatomic gas, then
the correct formula for the number of moles of gas in its 'w' g is :
3w w a
(A) (B) (C) 3wa (D)
a 3a 3w
12. 124 g of P4 will contain which of the following :

(1) 4 atoms of Phosphorus (2) 4NA atoms of Phosphorus
(3) NA molecules of Phosphorus (4) 1 molecule of Phosphorus
(A) 1 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 02
MOLE CONCEPT
1. Among the following samples, select the sample which contains maximum number of atoms.
(A) 4 gm of oxygen (B) 32 gm of sulphur
(C) 108 gm of silver (D) 2 gm atoms of nitrogen
2. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and sulphur dioxide in the ratio of 1 : 4 by mass.
Therefore, the ratio of their respective number of molecules is :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
3. Sulphur exist in different allotropic forms like S2, S6 and S8 etc. If equal moles of these three
forms are taken in separate containers, then the ratio of number of atoms present in them
respectively is :
(A) 1 : 3 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 : 1 (C) 12 : 4 : 3 (D) 4 : 3 : 1
4. Which of the following has least mass?

(A) 2 gram-atom of Nitrogen (B) 3 × 1023 atoms of Carbon
(C) 1 mole of Sulphur atoms (D) 7 g of Silver
5. Which of the following has least mass?

(A) 2 gram-molecules of CO2 (B) 1.2044 × 1024 molecules of CH3COOH
(C) 3 moles of NH2CONH2 (D) 80 g of CaCO3
6. Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms?

(A) 1 g of butane (C4H10) (B) 1 g of nitrogen (N2)
(C) 1 g of silver (Ag) (D) 1 g of water (H2O)
7. Cinnabar (HgS) is a prominent ore of mercury. How many grams of mercury are present in
464g of pure HgS.
(A) 200 g (B) 400 g (C) 160 g (D) None of these
8. The number of F– ions in 2.1g AlF3 is (NA = 6 × 1023)
(A) 1.5 × 1022 (B) 6 × 1022 (C) 3 × 1022 (D) 4.5 × 1022
9. A gaseous mixture contains SO2 & CO2, average molecular mass of mixture may be :
(A) 64 (B) 44 (C) 54 (D) 70
10. An element is found in nature in two isotopic forms with mass numbers (A–1) and (A+3). If the
average atomic mass of the element is found to be A, then the relative abundance of the
heavier isotope in the nature will be :
(A) 66.6% (B) 75% (C) 25% (D) 33.3%
65 67
11. A hypothetical element Z exists in nature as two isotopes Z and Z with their relative
abundances 25% and 75% respectively. Then, the average atomic mass (in u) of element Z is
(A) 65.5 (B) 66 (C) 66.25 (D) 66.5
12. What is the ratio of weights of O2 and SO2, the mixture of which contains equal number of
molecules of each gas?
(A) 1 : 8 (B) 8 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 03
MOLE CONCEPT
1. 360 amu of Glucose (C6H12O6) contains :

(A) 2 moles of glucose molecules (B) 24 hydrogen atoms
(C) 12 moles of carbon atoms (D) 2 glucose molecules
2. Equal mass of O2 and O3 gases contain the same number of :

(A) atoms (B) molecules (C) protons (D) moles of given species
3. If 42 g of an unknown gas X occupies a volume of 125 L at 0.3 bar pressure and 300 K
temperature, then the gas X could be :
(A) N2 (B) CO2 (C) CO (D) NO2
Comprehension-1 (4 & 5)
Consider a sample containing (NH4)2Cr2O7
4. Mass of nitrogen present in sample if mass of oxygen present is 11.2 g.
(A) 1.4 g (B) 2.8 g (C) 28 g (D) 14 g
5. Number of gm molecules of (NH4)2Cr2O7 present in the sample if mass of hydrogen obtained

from the sample is 2g.
(A) 0.25 NA (B) 0.25 (C) 0.125 NA (D) 0.125
Comprehension-1 (6 & 7)
In a container equal number of moles of ethene and sulphur dioxide gases are present at 760
mm Hg pressure and 546K temperature.
6. The ratio of carbon atoms to oxygen atoms present in container will be :
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 3 : 2
7. If all ethene molecules are replaced by same number of molecules of ethyne, then molar
mass of the gaseous mixture will be
(A) 46 g (B) 45 g (C) 60 g (D) 32 g
8. Calculate mass of carbon in 0.01 mole of K4[Fe(CN)6]. Report your after dividing by 0.08.
9. What is the number of gram atoms of oxygen in 6.023 ×1024 CO-molecule.
10. A gaseous mixture contains SO3(g) and CH4(g) in 25 : 1 ratio by mass. What is ratio of total
number of atoms present in SO3(g) to total number of atoms present in CH4(g) in the mixture.
11. A gaseous mixture is composed of equal number of moles of CH4, C2H6 and C2H2. Determine
the average molecular mass of mixture (in amu).
12. Match the column :

Column-I Column-II
A 1 mole (NH4)2 CO3 p moles of carbon atom is less than 1
B 0.5 mole NH2 CONH2 q Mass of oxygen is greater than 16g in sample
at least two elements have same number of atoms in

C 1 mole C6H5N r
given sample
D 1 mole C9N6 s Number of neutron and protons are not same.
t moles of nitrogen atom is greater than 1.
CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 04
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Percentage Based Calculation, Emperical Formula
1. The number of moles of compound (KHC2O4)0.95·H2C2O4 in its pure sample if sample contains
4 moles of oxygen atoms.
4 4
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.5 × 0.95 (C) (D)
(4  0.95  4) 0.95
2. An organic compound contains 8 % Oxygen and 4 % Sulphur by mass. Find the minimum
possible molecular weight of compound?
(A) 400 (B) 200 (C) 800 (D) 1600
3. An organic compound contains 14 atoms of carbon per molecule. If mass % of carbon in the
compound is 22.4 % then molecular mass of the compound will be
(A) 3000 (B) 750 (C) 12000 (D) 600
4. Silver has two naturally occuring isotopes, one of mass 107 amu and other of mass 109 amu.
Find fraction of abundances for these two isotopes. The atomic mass is 107.8 amu.
5. Calculate density of a gaseous mixture which consist of 3.01 × 1024 molecules of N2 and 32 g of
O2 gas at 3 atm pressure and 860 K temperature (Given : R = 1/12 atm L/mole. K)
(A) 0.6 g/L (B) 1.2 g/L (C) 0.3 g/L (D) 12 g/L
6. The vapour denisty of a mixutre containing NO2 and N2O4 is 27.6. The mole fraction of N2O4 in
the mixture is:
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.8
7. Density of dry air containing only N2 and O2 is 1.15 g/L at 740 mm of Hg and 300 K. What is %
composition of N2 by mass in the air ?
(A) 78 % (B) 85.5 % (C) 70.02% (D) 62.75%
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Paragraph for question nos. 8 to 10
Some faculty members of XYZ classes were trying to simplify a problem for students by mentioning
data explicitly about a gaseous mixture. Information given by them is as follow :
Faculty-1 : Mixture consist of three gases A, B and C.
Faculty-2 : Molar mass of B is twice of A & Molar mass of A is 4 times of C.
Faculty-3 : The gas that is neither heaviest nor lightest is 16% by mass.
Faculty-4 : Molar ratio of heaviest to lightest gas is 2 : 5.
Based on the above information, answer the questions that follows:
8. Which of the following options correctly represents gases A, B and C respectively?

(A) O2, CH4, He (B) CH4, O2, He (C) O2, SO2, He (D) O2, SO2, CH4
9. What is the molar ratio of A : B: C?

(A) 5 : 2 : 2 (B) 2 : 2 : 5 (C) 2 : 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 2 : 5
10. What would be the average molar mass of mixture.

[Assuming answer of above question to be correct.]
400
(A) gm (B) 12.5 gm (C) 15 gm (D) 20 gm
67
11. A compound contains only C, H, and N. Combustion of 70 mg of the compound produces 132 mg
CO2 and 54 mg H2O. What is empirical formula of compound?
12. A compound whose empirical formula is XF3 consists of 65% F by mass. What is the atomic
mass of X?

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 05
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Stoichiometry
1. Which of the following setups is correct to calculate the mass (in g) of KCIO3 produced from the
reaction of 0.150 moles of Cl2 ?
3Cl2 + 6KOH  5KCl + KClO3 + 3H2O
(A) 0.150 moles Cl2 × 1 mole KClO3 / 3 moles Cl2 × 122.5 g/1mole KClO3
(B) 0.150 moles Cl2 × 1 mole KClO3 / 3 moles Cl2 × 1 mole KClO3/122.5 g
(C) 0.150 moles Cl2 × 3 moles Cl2 / 1 mole KClO3 × 122.5 g/1 mole KClO3
(D) 0.150 moles Cl2 × 3 moles Cl2 / 1 mole KClO3 × 1 mole KClO3/122.5 g
2. How many litre of C7H16 will be required to react with 176 gm of oxygen. If density of C7H16 is
0.8 gm/L?
(A) 62.5 L (B) 40 L (C) 50 L (D) 80 L
3. For the following reaction if equal mass of A and B are taken :

A + 2B  C
Which of the following is correct? (MA and MB are molar masses of A and B respectively)
(A) If MA = 2MB , then none of the reactant will be left.
MA
(B) If MB > , then A will be limiting reagent.
2
(C) If MA = MB, then A will be limiting reagent
(D) All are correct
4. Calculate the mass of lime (CaO) obtained by heating 200 kg of 95% pure lime stone (CaCO3) :
(A) 104.4 kg (B) 105.4 kg (C) 212.8 kg (D) 106.4 kg
5. 2.0 g of a sample contains mixture of SiO2 and Fe2O3. On very strong heating, it leaves a residue
weighing 1.96 g. The reaction responsible for loss of mass is given below :
Fe2O3(s)  Fe3O4(s) + O2(g), (unbalance equation)
What is the percentage by mass of SiO2 in original sample ?
(A) 10% (B) 20% (C) 40% (D) 60 %

6. For the reaction, 2Fe(NO3)3 + 3Na2CO3  Fe2(CO3)3 + 6NaNO3
initially 2.5 mole of Fe(NO3)2 and 3.6 mole of Na2CO3 are taken. If 6.3 mole of NaNO3 is obtained
then % yield of given reaction is:
(A) 50 (B) 84 (C) 87.5 (D) 100
Paragraph for question nos. 7 & 8

On a closed rigid vessel combustion of 2 moles of CH4 was carried out with 10 moles of O2.
At room temperature.
7. After combustion was complete what will be the vapour density of contents of vessel.
(A) 35 (B) 70 (C) 17.5 (D) 15.8
8. If 2 moles of N2 are added after combustions then what will be the change in vapour density of
contents of vessel. [Assume : N2 does not react with any gas]
(A) 2.1 (B) 4.2 (C) 2.93 (D) 0.7
9. Urea, NH2CONH2, is a nitrogen fertilizer that is manufactured from ammonia and CO2(g)
2NH3(g) + CO2(g)  NH2 CONH2(aq) + H2O(l)
What volume of ammonia at 27°C and 8.21 atm is needed to produce 900 g urea?
10. Carbon dioxide is end product of metabolism as shown :

C6H12O6 + O2  CO2 + H2O
Calculate daily production of CO2 (in grams) assuming each person consumes 5 × 102 gm
glucose perday and world's population is 3.6 billion.

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 06
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Application of Stoichiometry
1. Consider the reaction :
P4(s) + F2(g)  PF3(g)
What mass of F2 is needed to produce 176 g of PF3 if the reaction has 80% yield.
2. Calculate average molar mass of mixture containing 128g O2(g), 16g H2(g) and 40g He(g).
3. For BaCl2·xH2O, if 2.1 gm of compound gives 2 gm of anhydrous BaSO4 upon treatment with
H2SO4. Then calculate value of 'x'.
4. Which statement is false for the balanced equation given below ?

CS2 + 3O2  2SO2 + CO2
(A) One mole of CS2 will produce one mole of CO2
(B) The reaction of 16 g of oxygen produces 7.33 g of CO2
(C) The reaction of one mole of O2 will produce 2/3 mole of SO2
(D) Six molecules of oxygen requires three molecules of CS2
5. 9 moles of “D” and 14 moles of E are allowed to react in a closed vesel according to given
reactions. Calculate number of moles of B formed in the end of reaction, if 4 moles of G are
present in reaction vessel. (Percentage yield of reaction is mentioned in the reaction)
Step-1 3D + 4E 
80%
 5C + A
Step-2 3C + 5G 
50%
 6B + F
(A) 2.4 (B) 30 (C) 4.8 (D) 1
6. Silver oxide (Ag2O) decomposes at temperature 300ºC yielding metallic silver and oxygen gas. A
1.60 g sample of impure silver oxide yields 0.104 g of oxygen gas. What is the per cent by mass
of the silver oxide in the sample ?
(A) 5.9 (B) 47.125 (C) 94.25 (D) 88.2
7. 2PbS + 3O2  2PbO + 2SO2

3SO2 + 2HNO3 + 2H2O  3H2SO4 + 2NO
According to the above sequence of reactions, how much H2SO4 will 1200 gm of PbS produce?
(Pb = 208)
8. During estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia
evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M
H2SO4. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 07
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : POAC And Stoichiometry
1. According to following reaction :
A + BO3  A3O4 + B2O3
The number of moles of A3O4 produced if 1 mole of A is mixed with 1 mole of B O3.
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 1/3 (D) 2/3
2. What is the maximum amount of nitrogen dioxide that can be produced by mixing 4.2 gm of
NO(g) and 3.2 gm of O2(g) ?
(A) 4.60 gm (B) 2.30 gm (C) 3.22 gm (D) 6.44 gm
3. A metal oxide has the formula M2O3. It can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water.
0.1596 g of the metal oxide required 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic weight
of the metal is
(A) 27.90 (B) 159.60 (C) 79.80 (D) 55.80
4. When 280 gm of ethylene polymerises to polyethylene according to the equation:
n (CH2 = CH2)  —(CH 2  CH2 —

)n .
The weight and mole of polyethylene formed will be
280 28 10
(A) 280, 10 n (B) ,n (C) , 280 (D) 280,
n n n
5. NX is produced by the following steps of reactions

M + X2  MX2 ; M X2+ X2  M3X8 ; M3X8+ N2CO3  NX + CO2 + M3O4
How much M (Metal) is consumed to produce 206 gm of NX (Given at. wt. of M = 56, N = 23, X = 80)
7 14
(A) gm (B) (C) 56 (D) 42
4 3

6. 5 moles of A, 6 moles of Z and mixed with sufficient amount of C to produce final product 'F'. Then
find the maximum moles of 'F' which can be produced. Assuming that the product formed can
also be reused. Reactions are: A + 2 Z  B ; B + C  Z + F
(A) 3 moles (B) 4.5 moles (C) 5 moles (D) 6 moles
7. 1.44 gram of Titanium (Ti) reacted with excess of O2 and produced 'x' gram of non-stoichiometric
compound Ti1.44O. The value of 'x' will be
(A) 2.77 gm (B) 3.77 gm (C) 1.77 gm (D) 3.0 gm
8. Number of moles of NH3 produced if 140 gm of N2 reacts with 40 gm of hydrogen.

[Given % yield of reaction is 50%]
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 6
9. A sample of acetone undergoes 40% dimerization. Then mole fraction of the dimer in the final
mixture is
(A) 0.16 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.25
10. Assertion : For the reaction producing Fe & CO2 by the reaction of Fe2O3 and C the ratioof
stoichiometric coefficients of Fe2O3 : Fe is 1 : 2.
Reason : During a chemical a reaction atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are CORRECT, and Reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
Assertion.
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are CORRECT, but Reason is not the CORRECT explanation of
the Assertion.
(C) If Assertion if CORRECT but Reason is INCORRECT.
(D) If Assertion is INCORRECT Reason is CORRECT.

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 08
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Concentration Terms
1. Molarity of aqueous NaOH solution will be, if mole fraction of NaOH in the solution is 0.5.
[Given : density of pure NaOH = 4 gm/ml]
(A) 76.92 (B) 35.71 (C) 68.96 (D) 26.46
2. Decreasing order (first having highest & then others following it) of mass of pure NaOH in each of
the aqueous solution
(i) 50 gm of 40% (w/w) NaOH (ii) 50 gm of 50% (w/v) NaOH [dsoln. = 1.2 gm/ml]
(iii) 50 gm of 20 M NaOH [dsoln. = 1 gm/ml]
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (iii), (ii), (i)
(C) (ii), (iii), (i) (D) all contain same wt. of NaOH
3. If ratio of mole fraction of solute to solvent is unity, what would be % by wt. (concentration of
solute) (M solute = molecular mass of solute, M solvent = M molecular mass of solvent)
M solute
(A) × 100 (B) 50%
(M solute  M solvent)
M solute
(C) 66.67 % (D) × 100
M solvent
4. 20 ml of CaCl2 solution is mixed with 30 ml of 0.1 M-AlCl3 solution. If the resulting solution has
chloride ion concentration equal is 0.34 M, the concentration of CaCl2 solution added is
(A) 0.2 M (B) 0.7 M (C) 0.4 M (D) 0.1 M
5. The legal limit for human exposure to CO in the work place is 35 ppm. Assuming that the
density of air is 1.3 g/L, how many grams of CO are in 1.0L of air at the maximum allowable
concentration?
(A) 4.55 ×10–5 gm (B) 3.5 ×10–5 gm (C) 2.69 ×10–5 gm (D) 7.2 ×10–5 gm
6. Arrange in increasing order of Molarity of solute in following solutions considering water as solvent.
(i) 224 gm/lit. KOH (ii) 11.2% w/v KOH (iii) 5m KOH (d = 0.64 gm/ml)
(A) (ii) < (iii) < (i) (B) (iii) < (ii) < (i) (C) (iii) < (i) < (ii) (D) (i) < (ii) < (iii)

7. Statement -1 : For a very dilute solution molality & molarity are always approximately equal
Statement -2 : Mass of solution is always approximately equal to mass of solvent for a very dilute
solution.
(A) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
ω
8. Statement-1: For a very dilute aqueous solution "ppm" is approximately equal to " % × 104"
v
Statement-2 : Mass of solution is always equal to volume of a very dilute solution.
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
9. Statement -1 :Density of air (containing N2 and O2 gas) is greater than that of sample of air
(containing N2, O2 & SO2 gas) at same T and P.
Statement -2 : Molecular mass of added gas is greater than N2 & O2 both.
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(D) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 09
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Concentration Terms And Dilution Mixing
1. The molality of a H2O2 solution of density 1.068 gm/ml is '2m'. The only incorrect concentration
of the same solution is
(A) Molarity = 2 M (B) Volume strength = '22.4 vol'
(C) 6.8 % (w/v) (D) 6.8 % (w/w)
2. 20 ml of CaCl2 solution is mixed with 30 ml of 0.1 M-AlCl3 solution. If the resulting solution has
chloride ion concentration equal is 0.34 M, the concentration of CaCl2 solution added is
(A) 0.2 M (B) 0.7 M (C) 0.4 M (D) 0.1 M
3. 150 ml of a solution containing 5 millimoles of A (special gravity = 1.2) is mixed with 250 ml of
another solution containing 10 millimoles of A (special gravity = 1.4). If on mixing the density of the
5. 3
solution becomes gm/ml then what will be molarity of A in the final solution.
4.5
1 3 1 4
(A) M (B) M (C) (D)
30 80 20 85
4. For a solution concentration can be expressed as 16% w/w as well as 20% w/v. What will be
density of solution?
(A) 1.25 gm/lit. (B) 0.8 gm/lit. (C) 1.25 gm/ml (D) 0.8 gm/ml
5. For a sequential reaction, NH3  N2 + H2 .....(i) ; H2 + O2  H2O .....(ii)
What will be the amount of water which will be obtained if 5 moles of NH3 is mixed with 3 moles
of O2 & % yield of 1st & 2nd reaction is 50% & 80% respectively?
(A) 3 moles (B) 2.5 mole (C) 2 moles (D) 2.4 moles
6. A sample of clay contains 60% Silica & 15 % water. The sample is heated such that the partially
dried sample contains 66 % Silica. What will be % of water in partially dries sample?
(A) 10% (B) 6.5 % (C) 12 % (D) 14 %
7. If 200 ml of 0.1 M Na2SO4 is mixed with 100 ml of 0.2 M Na3PO4 solution. Molarity of Na+ in the
final solution, if final solution has density 1.2 gm/ml.
(A) 0.196 M (B) 0.33 M (C) 0.5 M (D) None of these
8. If in a sample of oleum, mole fraction of SO3 is 0.5. Label the oleum sample
(A) 109 % (B) 110.11 % (C) 104.5 % (D) 114.22
9. 90 gm glucose is dissolved in 410 gm water to get a solution. The concentration of solution is
900 50
(A) %( w / w ) (B) 18 % (w/w) (C) m (D) 1.0 m
41 41
10. 25 ml of a solution containing HCl and H2SO4 required 10 ml of 1M NaOH solution for complete
neutralization. 20 ml of the same acid mixture on being treated with excess of AgNO3 gives
0.1435 gram of AgCl. If molarity of HCl is 'x' and that of H2SO4 is 'y'.
Report your answer as (x + y) × 1000.

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 10
MOLE CONCEPT
Topic : Application of Concentration Terms
1. The vapour density of a gaseous mixture of non-reactive gases 'A' and 'B' is 40. If the molar
mass of gas 'A' is 20 gm/mol and the mixture contains the gases in 2 : 3 volume ratio, then the
molar mass of gas 'B' is :
160
(A) (B) 40 (C) 120 (D) 60
3
2. Statement-1 : One molar aqueous solution may be one molal.
Statement-2 : The molality of a solution depends upon the mass of the solution whereas molarity
depends on volume of solution.
statement-1.
(C) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(D) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
3. The density of 2m-aqueous H2O2 solution is 1.068 gm/ml. Which of the following is/are correct
concentration(s) of this solution, in different units?
(A) Molarity = 2M (B) Volume strength = '22.4 V'
250
(C) %(w/v) = 6.8 (D) Mole-fraction of water =
259
4. A solution of H2O2 is labelled as 44.8 V. Which of the following concentration terms representing
the solution will also be correct. (dsoln. = 2.136 gm/ml)
4
(A) 4 molar (B) 2 molal (C) 13.6 % w/v (D) X H2O2 = 1000
4
18
5. 500 ml of 2M AlCl3 solution is mixed with 200 ml of 5.85 % w/v NaCl solution and 300 ml of
w
50% BaCl2 solution (d = 2.08 gm/ml). Calculate molarity of Cl– in the final solution .
w
9
6. The mole fraction of glucose in an aqueous solution is . The molality of solution is
109
7. Calculate the molarity of H+ ions obtained by mixing 200 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4 solution
(dsolution = x gm / ml); 100 ml of 0.7 M HNO3 solution (dsolution= 1.2 x gm / ml) and 100 ml of 0.3
M HCl solution (dsolution = 1.3 x gm /ml) such that density of final solution is 1.5 x gm /ml.

ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (B)
DPP-2
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (C)
DPP-3
1. (BD) 2. (AC) 3. (AC) 4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. 9 9. 10 10. 4
11. 24 12. A  q, s, t ; B  p, r, s ; C  s ; D  t
DPP-4
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. fractional abundances = 0.6, 0.4 5. (B)
6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. C3H6N2 12. 30.7
DPP-5
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. 90 L
10. 264 × 1010
DPP-6
1. 142.5 gm 2. 8.36 g 3. 2 4. D
5. A 6. C 7. 490 gm 8. 56%
DPP-7
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (A)
DPP-8
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C)
DPP-9
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. 0225
DPP-10
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (ABCD) 4. (ABC) 5. 6
6. 5 7. 1

C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 01
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Calculation Related to Nucleus
Single Correct :
1. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α-particle is:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 1
2. The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is:

(A) e, p, n, α (B) n, p, e, α (C) n, p, α ,e (D) n, α, p, e
3. The mass of charge ratio (m/e) for a cation is 1.5 × 10–8 kg/C. What is the mass of this cation?
(A) 2.4 × 10–19 g (B) 2.4 × 10–27 g (C) 2.4 × 10–24g (D) None of these
4. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of alpha particles showed for the first time that atom
has:
(A) electrons (B) protons (C) nucleus (D) neutrons
5. α-particles are represented by:

(A) lithium atoms (B) helium nuclei (C) hydrogen nuclei (D) None of these
6. Which of the following is correct statement?

(A) The ratio of e/m value for H+ & He+ is 1 : 2.
(B) The ratio of e/m value for He+ & Li2+ is 7 : 8.
(C) The ratio of e/m value for Li2+ & Be3+ is 9 : 8.
(D) The ratio of e/m value for 11H+ & 12 H+ is 1 : 2.
7. If the volume of nucleus of an atom V is related to its mass number A as V ∝ An according to

Rutherford's formula, find the value of n :
(A) n = –1 (B) n = 1 (C) n = 1/3 (D) n = –1/3
One or more than one correct :
8. Which of the following pairs has different values of e/m :

(A) A proton and a neutron (B) A proton and a Deuterium nucleus
(C) A Deuterium nucleus and an α-particle (D) An electron and α-particle
9. A wavelength of 400 nm of an electromagnetic radiation is corresponding to :

(A) frequency = 7.5 × 1014 Hz (B) wave number = 2.5 × 106 m–1.
(C) velocity = 3 × 108 ms–1 (D) λ = 40 Å
10. Which of the following path of α–particle is/are possible in the α -particle scattering
experiment ?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
11. Identify the correct statement(s) :

(A) Cathode rays produce heating effect when they collide with a metal object.
(B) Anode rays consist of fast moving protons.
(C) For production of Cathode rays in a discharge tube, the gas filled should be at a very high
pressure.
(D) The magnitude of e/m ratio for Cathode rays is 1.76 × 1011 C/Kg.
Numerical value :
12. If the diameter of two different nuclei are in the ratio 2 : 1,then calculate the ratio of their mass
number :
13. If the atomic number (Z) and mass number (A) of an element X are related by the equation :
A + Z = 46 and the total number of neutrons in one atom of X is 16, then the total number of
protons and electrons in one atom of element X = ‘a’. Find value of ‘a’.
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 02
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Quantum Theory of Light
Single Correct :
1. Photon of which light has minimum energy :
(A) green (B) blue (C) violet (D) red
2. A photon of 300 nm is absorbed by a gas and then, it re-emits two photons and attains the
same initial energy level. One re-emitted photon has wavelength 500 nm. Calculate the
wavelength of other photon re-emitted out :
(A) 450 nm (B) 800 nm (C) 200 nm (D) 750 nm
3. One quantum is absorbed per gaseous molecule of Br2 for converting into Br atoms. If light
absorbed has wavelength 5000Å, then the bond energy of Br2 is about ..... KJ/mol
(1eV/particle = 96 KJ/mol).
(A) 119 (B) 238 (C) 357 (D) 476
4. Assume that 10–17 J of light energy is needed by the interior of the human eye to see an
object. How many minimum photons of green light (λ = 310 nm) are needed to generate this
energy:
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
5. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To eject a photoelectron of zero velocity from the
surface of the metal, the wavelength of incident light should be below :
(A) 310 Å (B) 1550 Å (C) 155 Å (D) 3100 Å
6. The energy required to remove an electron from a metal X is 3.31 × 10–20 J. Wavelength/s of
light that can photoeject an electron from metal X is/are
(A) 4 µm (B) 6 µm (C) 7 µm (D) 5 µm
7. The wavelength (λ) of monochromatic light coming from some light sources is listed below.
How many of these sources will be able to exhibit photoelectric effect if incident upon surface
of Li metal (work function, φ = 2.4 eV).
Light Source A B C D E F G H I
λ (nm) 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 3
8. Which of the following statements is false :
(A) The energy of red photon is more than the energy of violet photon
(B) The momentum of photon is inversely proportional to its wave length
(C) The energy of a photon is inversely proportional to its wave length
(D) The particle nature of electromagnetic radiations is able to explain the photoelectric effect
9. Light of wavelength λ falls on metal having work function hc/λ0. Photoelectric effect will take
place only if :
(A) λ > λ0 (B) λ > 2λ0 (C) λ < λ0 (D) λ < λ0/2
10. A photon in X region is more energetic than in the visible region ; X is :

(A) IR (B) UV (C) Microwave (D) Radio wave
11. A bulb of 40 W is producing a light of wavelength 620 nm with 80% of efficiency then the
number of photons emitted by the bulb in 20 seconds are (1eV=1.6×10–19 J, hc = 12400 eV Å)
(A) 2 × 1018 (B) 1018 (C) 1021 (D) 2 × 1021
12. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of Planck's quantum theory of radiation-
(A) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in whole number multiple of quantum.
(B) Radiation is associated with energy.
(C) Radiation energy is not emitted or absorbed continously but in the form of small packets
called quanta.
(D) This magnitude of energy associated with a quantum is proportional to the frequency.
13. Calculate the frequency of a photon of wavelength 4000 Å

(A) 7.5 × 1014 s–1 (B) 7.5 × 10–16 s–1 (C) 8 × 10–14 s–1 (D) 6.5 × 10–15 s–1
14. Calculate the wavelength of a photon having an energy of 2 electron volt

(A) 6.204 × 10–7 m (B) 6.206 × 10–6 m (C) 6.204 × 10–9 m (D) 6.204 × 10–8 m
15. Which is/are correct graph?

K.E. of photo
electros
(A) (B) (C) (D)

K.E
K.E
K.E
v v λ
Intensity of light
Numerical value :
16. For a broadcasted electromagnetic wave having frequency of 1200 KHz, calculate number of
waves that will be formed in 2 km distance.
17. Calculate the ratio of the energy of a photon of wavelength 3000 Å to that of a photon of
wavelength 6000Å respectively.
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 03
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Bohr Model
Single Correct :
1. The ionization energy of He+ is 19.6 × 10–18 J atom–1. The energy of the first stationary state of
Li+2 will be:
(A) 84.2 × 10–18 J/atom (B) 44.10 × 10–18 J/atom
–18
(C) 63.2 × 10 J/atom (D) 21.2 × 10–18 J/atom
2. Energy required to pull out an electron from 1st orbit of hydrogen atom to infinity is 100 units.
The amount of energy needed to pull out the electron from 2nd orbit to infinity is :
(A) 50 units (B) 100 units (C) 25 units (D) Zero
3. The ionization energy of H-atom is 13.6 eV. The ionization energy of Li+2 ion will be :
(A) 54.4 eV (B) 122.4 eV (C) 13.6 eV (D) 27.2 eV
4. Which of the following electron transition in a hydrogen atom will require the largest amount of
energy ?
(A) From n = 1 to n = 2 (B) From n = 2 to n = 3
(C) From n = ∞ to n = 1 (D) From n = 3 to n = 5
5. What is likely to be orbit number for a circular orbit of diameter 20 nm of the hydrogen atom if
we assume Bohr orbit to be the same as that represented by the principal quantum number?
(A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 16
6. If velocity of an electron in Ist orbit of H atom is V, what will be the velocity of electron in 3rd
orbit of Li+2
(A) V (B) V/3 (C) 3 V (D) 9 V
7. Match the following
(A) Energy of ground state of He+ (i) + 6.04 eV
(B) Potential energy of Ι orbit of H-atom (ii) –27.2 eV
(C) Kinetic energy of ΙΙ excited state of He+ (iii) 54.4 V
(D) Ionisation potential of He+ (iv) – 54.4 eV
(A) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (iv) (B) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i)
(C) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (i), D – (iii) (D) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D – (iv)
8. S1 : Bohr model is applicable for Be2+ ion.
S2 : Total energy coming out of any light source is integral multiple of energy of one photon.
S3 : Number of waves present in unit length is wave number.
S4 : e/m ratio in cathode ray experiment is independent of the nature of the gas.
(A) F F T T (B) T T F F (C) F T T T (D) T F F F
9. S1 : Potential energy of the two opposite charge system increases with the decrease in
distance.
S2 : When an electron make transition from higher orbit to lower orbit it's kinetic energy
increases.
S3 : When an electron make transtition from lower energy to higher energy state its potential
energy increases.
S4 : 11eV photon can free an electron from the 1st excited state of He+ -ion.
(A) T T T T (B) F T T F (C) T F F T (D) F F F F
10. If electron falls from n= 3 to n = 2, then emitted energy is :

(A) 10.2 eV (B) 12.09 eV (C) 1.9 eV (D) 0.65 eV
11. In hydrogen atom, energy of second state is –3.4 eV. Then, KE of electron in same orbit of
hydrogen atom is :
(A) + 3.4 eV (B) + 6.8 eV (C) – 13.6 eV (D) + 13.6 eV
12. In a certain electronic transition in the Hydrogen atom from an initial state i to a final state f,
the difference in the orbit radius (ri − rf) is seven times the first Bohr radius. Identify the
transition:
(A) 4 → 1 (B) 4 → 2 (C) 4 → 3 (D) 3 → 1
13. The radius of the an orbit of Be+3 ion is 0.529Å. The velocity of electron in this orbit will be
(A) 0.545 × 106 m/s (B) 2.18 × 106 m/s (C) 4.36 × 106 m/s (D)1.09 × 106 m/s
14. The ratio of radius of two different orbits in a H-atom is 4 : 9. Then, the ratio of the frequency
of revolution of electron in these orbits is :
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 27 : 8 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 8 : 27

15. Select the correct curve(s):
If v = Velocity of electron in Bohr’s orbit
r = Radius of electron in Bohr’ orbit
P.E. = Potential energy of electron in Bohr’s orbit
K.E. = Kinetic energy of electron in Bohr’s orbit
v v
K.E.
(A) (B) (C) P.E. (D)

1/n
1/n n n
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 04
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Spectrum
Single Correct :
1. If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series for the hydrogen atoms is 912Å, then the
series limit of wavelength for the Balmer series of the hydrogen atom is :
(A) 912 Å (B) 912 × 2 Å (C) 912 × 4 Å (D) 912/2 Å
2. The shortest wave length in H spectrum of Lymen series when RH = 109678 cm–1 is
(A) 1002.7 Å (B) 1215.67 Å (C) 1127.30 Å (D) 911.7 Å
3. The minimum energy required to excite a hydrogen atom from its ground state is -
(A) 3.4 eV (B) 13.6 eV (C) – 13.6 eV (D) 10.2 eV
4. The separation energy of the electron present in the shell n = 3 is 1.51 eV. What is the energy
in the first excited state –
(A) –1.51 eV (B) –3.4 eV (C) +1.51 eV (D) +3.4 eV
5. In a sample of H-atom electrons make transition from 5th excited state to ground state,
producing all possible types of photons, then number of lines in infrared region are
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 3
6. Calculate wavelength of 3rd line of Bracket series in hydrogen spectrum

784 33R 784R 33
(A) (B) (C) (D)
33R 784 33 784R
7. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom spectrum which electronic transition causes third line
(A) Fifth Bohr orbit to second one (B) Fifth Bohr orbit to first one
(C) Fourth Bohr orbit to second one (D) Fourth Bohr orbit to first one
8. The emission spectrum of hydrogen is found to satisfy the expression for the energy change.
 1 1 
∆E (in joules) such that ∆E
= 2.18 × 10 

−  J where n1 = 1, 2, 3….. and n2 = 2, 3, 4…….
2
 n1 n22 
The spectral lines correspond to Paschen series to

(A) n1 = 1 and n2 = 2, 3, 4 (B) n1 = 3 and n2 = 4, 5, 6
(C) n1 = 1 and n2 = 3, 4, 5 (D) n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 3, 5
st
9. Calculate the wavelength of 1 line of Balmer series in Hydrogen spectrum.
(A) 6656 Å (B) 6266 Å (C) 6626 Å (D) 6566 Å
10. Different lines in Lyman series of hydrogen spectrum lie in

(A) ultraviolet (B) infrared (C) visible (D) none of these
11. The transition of the electron in hydrogen atom from the fourth to first energy shell emits a
spectral line which falls in following series.
(A) Lyman (B) Balmer (C) Pashen (D) Bracket
12. When an electron in an excited hydrogen atom jumps from an energy level for which n = 5 to
a lower level for which n = 2 , the spectral line is observed in the ..........region and in
.............series of the hydrogen spectrum.
(A) Visible, Balmer (B) Visible, lyman
(C) Infrared, lyman (D) Infrared, Balmer
13. Which of the following transition is correct for Balmer series ?

(A) 3 → 1 (B) 1 → 2 (C) 4 → 2 (D) 2 → 4
Numerical value :
14. What is the ratio of the wave lengths of last lines of Balmer and Lyman series.
15. Calculate maximum number of possible spectral lines which may be emitted in brackett series
in H atom, if electrons present in 9th excited level return upto ground level in a sample of H-like
species.
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 05
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : De-Broglie Wavelength & Uncertainity Principle
Single Correct :
1. The speed of a proton is one hundredth of the speed of light in vacuum. What is its de-Broglie
wavelength? Assume that one mole of protons has a mass equal to one gram.
[h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg sec] :
(A) 13.31 × 10–7 Å (B) 1.33 × 10–3 Å (C) 13.13 × 10–5 Å (D) 1.31 × 10–2 Å
2. An α-particle is accelerated through a potential difference of V volts from rest. The de-
Broglie’s wavelength associated with it is
150 0.286 0.101 0.983
(A) Å (B) Å (C) Å (D) Å
V V V V
3. The uncertainity in position and velocity of a particle are 10–10 m and 5.27 × 10–24 ms–1
respectively. Calculate the mass of the particle (h = 6.625 × 10–34 Joule sec.)
(A) 0.099 Kg (B) 0.089 Kg (C) 0.99 Kg (D) Can not predict
4. The de Broglie equation suggests that an electron has

(A) Particle nature (B) Wave nature
(C) Particle-wave nature (D) Radiation behaviour
5. The Uncertainity in the momentum of an electron is 1.0 × 10–5 kg m s–1 . The Uncertainity in its
position will be: (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
(A) 1.05 × 10–28 m (B) 1.05 × 10–26 m (C) 5.27 × 10–30 m (D) 5.25 × 10–28 m
6. Which of the following has least de Broglie λ

(A) e– (B) p (C) CO2 (D) SO2
7. A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of 2.40 x 102 ms–1 at 300k. The de-Broglie wave
length is about
(A) 0.416 nm (B) 0.83 nm (C) 803 Å (D) 8000 Å
8. In H-atom, if ‘x’ is the radius of the first Bohr orbit, de Broglie wavelength of an electron in 3rd
orbit is :
9x x
(A) 3 π x (B) 6 π x (C) (D)
2 2
9. A ball weight 25 g moves with a velocity of 6.6 × 104 cm/sec then find out the de Broglie
wavelength.
(A) 0.4 × 10–33 cm (B) 0.4 × 10–31 cm (C) 0.4 × 10–30 cm (D) 0.4 × 1020 cm
10. Calculate the uncertainity in velocity of a cricket ball of mass 150 g if the uncertainity in its
position is of the order of 1 Å (h = 6.6 × 10–34 Kg m2 s–1 )
(A) 3.499 × 10–24 ms–1 (B) 3.499 × 10–21 ms–1
(C) 3.499 × 10–20 ms–1 (D) 3.499 × 10–30 ms–1
11. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is 1 × 10–5 kg-m/s. The uncertainty in its position
will be : (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg-m2/s)
(A) 1.05 × 10–28 m (B) 1.05 × 10–26 m (C) 5.27 × 10–30 m (D) 5.27 × 10–28 m
12. Li3+ and a proton are accelerated by the same potential, their de-Broglie wavelengths have the
ratio (assume mass of proton = mass of neutron) :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 21 (D) 1 : 3 3
13. If numerical value of mass and velocity are equal for a particle, then its de-Broglie wavelength
in terms of K.E. is :
mh h
(A) (B) (C) both are correct (D) none is correct.
2K.E. 2mK.E.
14. The wave motion of an electron in a Bohr's orbit of Hydrogen atom is as shown in diagram.
The orbit number is:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
15. An electron jumps from nth level to the first level.
The correct statement is :
n(n − 1) n(n + 1)
(A) Number of spectral lines = (B) Number of spectral lines =
2 2
(C) If n = 4 , number of spectral lines = 6 (D) Both (A) and (C)
16. Statement-1 : It is possible to measure simultaneously both the position and momentum of a
moving microscopic particle with absolute accuracy.
Statement-2 : In case of moving microscopic particle, if uncertainty in position is reduced,
then uncertainty in velocity is very high and vice versa.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
17. The uncertainties in measurement of position and momentum (in SI units) of an electron are
h
equal. Choose the correct statement : (Given = 7.2 x 10–18)
4π
(A) The uncertainty in measurement of speed = 8 × 1013 m/s.

(B) The uncertainty in measurement of kinetic energy = h/8πm.
(C) Increasing the wavelength of light used in the experiment will decrease the uncertainty in
position and increase the uncertainty in momentum.
(D) None of these
18. If uncertainty in momentum is twice the uncertainty in position of an electron, then uncertainty
h
in velocity of electron is : [ = ]
2π
1 h 1 1
(A)  (B) (C) (D) 
2m 4πm 4m m
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 06
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Schrodinger Equation
Single Correct :
1. Which of the following orbitals has two spherical nodes?
(A) 2s (B) 4s (C) 3d (D) 6f
2. Wave function of an orbital is plotted against the distance from nucleus. The graphical
representation is of :
+ +
– r
(A) 1s (B) 2s (C) 3s (D) 2p
3. The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is

3/2
1  1  r  −r /a0
=ψ 2s   2 − e
4 2π  a 0   a0 
where a0 is Bohr’s radius. If the radial node in 2s be at r0, then r0 would be equal to:
a0 a0
(A) (B) 2a0 (C) 2a0 (D)
2 2
4. The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is

3/2
1 Z
ψ(radial) =   [(σ – 1)(σ2 – 8σ + 12)]e–σ/2
16 4  a0 
22r
Where a0 and Z are the constant in which answer can be expressed and σ = minimum
a0
and maximum position of radial nodes from nucleus are………respectively.
a0 3a0 a0 a0 a0 3a0 a0 4a0
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
Z Z 2Z Z 2Z Z 2Z Z
5. The variation of radial probability density R2(r) as a function of distance r of the electron from
the nucleus for 3p-orbital:
R2(r) 2
(A) (B) R (r)
r r
R2(r) R2(r)
(C) (D)
r r
6. Maximum number of nodes are present in:

(A) 5s (B) 5p
(C) 5d (D) All have same number of nodes
7. For a 3s-orbital, value of ψ is given by following relation :

3/2
1  1 2rZ
ψ(3s) =   (6 – 6σ + σ2) e–σ/2 ; where σ =
9 3  a0  3a0
What is the maximum radial distance of node from nucleus?
(3 + 3 )a0 a0 3 (3 + 3 )a0 2a0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Z Z 2 Z Z
Match the Column

Column-I and Column-II contains four entries each. Entries of Column-I are to be matched
with some entries of Column-II. One or more than one entries of Column-I mag have the
matching with the same entries of Column-II
8. Column-I Column-II
(A) (P) 4s
4πr2R2
(B) (Q) 5Py
Distance from nucleus
(C) Angular probability depends upon θ and σ (R) 3s

(D) Atleast one angular node is present (S) 6dxy
9. Column-I Column-II
2
4πr R
2
(A) 3s (P)
2
4πr R
(B) 3p (Q)
2
2
4πr R
(C) 3d (R)

4πr2R2
(D) 2p (S)
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 07
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
Topic : Quantum Numbers & Electronic Configuration
1. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is -
h h 2 h
(1) (2) zero (3) (4)
4π 2π 2π
2. Which of the following set of quantum numbers are permitted

(1) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = +1/2 (2) n = 3, l = 2, m = – 1, s = 0
(3) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – 1/2 (4) n = 2, l = 2, m = +1, s = – 1/2
3. A given orbital is labeled by the magnetic quantum number m = –1. This could not be
(1) s - orbital (2) p-orbital (3) d-orbital (4) f-orbital
4. Magnetic quantum number specifies -

(1) Size of orbitals (2) Shape of orbitals
(3) Orientation of orbitals (4) Nuclear stability
5. Which of the following represents the correct set of quantum numbers of a 4d electron ?
1 1 1
(1) 4, 3, 2, + (2) 4, 2, 1, 0 (3) 4, 3, – 2, + (4) 4, 2, 1, –
2 2 2
6. A p-orbital can accommodate

(1) 4 electrons (2) 6 electrons
(3) 2 electrons with parallel spins (4) 2 electrons with opposite spins
1
7. An orbital containing electron having quantum number n = 4, l = 3, m = 0 and s = – is
2
called
(1) 3s orbital (2) 3p orbital (3) 4d orbital (4) 4f orbital
8. The maximum number of electrons in a subshell is given by the expression

(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2 (3) 2l + 2 (4) 2n2
9. The electrons present in K-shell of the atom will differ in
(1) principal quantum number (2) azimuthal quantum number
(3) magnetic quantum number (4) spin quantum number
10. Magnetic moment of Xn+ (Z = 26) is 24 B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons and value
of n respectively are :
(1) 4, 2 (2) 2, 4 (3) 3, 1 (4) 0, 2
11. For an electron, with n = 3 has only one radial node. The orbital angular momentum of the
electron will be
h 2 h  h 
(1) 0 (2) 6 (3) (4) 3  
2π 2π  2π 
12. The maximum number of 3d-electrons having spin quantum number s = +1/2 are -
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 5 (4) None of these
13. In which (n + l) rules not applicable -

(1) Cu, Cr (2) Cu, Zn (3) Ag, Zn (4) All of these
14. The quantum numbers for the outermost electron of an element are given below as n = 2, l =
1
0, m = 0, s = + . The atoms is :
2
(1) Lithium (2) Beryllium (3) Hydrogen (4) Boron
15. An element has the electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2. Its valency electrons are :
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
16. The number of orbitals in 2p sub-shell is :

(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
17. Which of the following has the least energy :

(1) 2p (2) 3p (3) 2s (4) 4d
18. Which of the following principles/rules limits the maximum number of electrons in an orbital to
two
(1) Aufbau principle (2) Pauli's exclusion principle
(3) Hund's rule of maximum multiplicity (4) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (ABD) 9. (ABC)
10. (ABD) 11. (AD) 12. 8 13. 30
DPP-2
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (BC)
16. 8 17. 2
DPP-3
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (ABCD)
DPP-4
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (A)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. 4 15. 6
DPP-5
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (D)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (D)
DPP-6
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) → P; (B) → P, Q, S; (C) → Q, S; (D) → Q, S
9. (A) → Q; (B) → R; (C) → S; (D) → P
DPP-7
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (4) 7. (4) 8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1)
11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (1) 15. (4)
16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2)
CHE MIS TRY
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NO. 01
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. The molarity of a glucose solution containing 36 g of glucose per 400 mL of the solution is:
(A) 1.0 (B) 0.5 (C) 2.0 (4) 0.05
2. 1 kg of NaOH solution contains 4g of NaOH. The approximate concentration of the solution is:
(A) 0.1 molar (B) 0.1 molal (C) Decinormal (D) About 0.1 N
3. To prepare 0.1 M KMnO4 solution in 250 mL flask, the weight of KMnO4 required is:
(A) 4.80g (B) 3.95g (C) 39.5g (D) 0.48 g
4. The number of moles present in 2 litre of 0.5 M NaOH is:

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.5
5. The weight of solute present in 200 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 :

(A) 2.45g (B) 4.9g (C) 1.96g (D) 3.92 g
6. If 250 mL of a solution contains 24.5g H2SO4 the molarity and normality respectively are:
(A) 1M, 2N (B) 1M,0.5M (C) 0.5M, 1N (D) 2M,1N
7. The volume strength of H2O2 solution is 10. What does it mean :

(A) at S.T.P. 10 g solution of H2O2 gives 10 mL of O2
(B) at S.T.P. 1 g equivalent of H2O2 gives 10 mL of O2
(C) at ST.P. 10 litre solution of H2O2 gives 10 mL of O2
(D) at S.T.P. 1 mL solution of H2O2 gives 10 mL of O2
8. The normality of 4% (wt./vol.) NaOH is:

(A) 0.1 (B)1.0 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.01
9. The density of NH4OH solution is 0.6 g/mL. It contains 34% by weight of NH4OH. Calculate the
normality of the solution :
(A) 4.8 N (B) 10 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 5.8 N

10. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in :
(A) 1000 g of the solution (B) 1000 c.c. of the solution
(C) 1000 c.c of the solvent (D) 1000 g of the solvent
11. 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is:
(A) 2.9732 (B) 3.05 (C) 3.64 (D) 3.0504
12. 1000 gram aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 gram of carbonate. Concentration of solu-
tion is:
(A) 10ppm (B) 100ppm (C) 1000ppm (D) 10,000 ppm
13. When 5.0 gram of BaCl2 is dissolved in water to have 106 gram of solution. The concentration of
solution is :
(A) 2.5 ppm (B) 5 ppm (C) 5M (D) 5 g L–1
14. How many grams of glucose be dissolved to make one litre solution of 10% glucose :
(A) 10g (B) 180g (C) 100g (D) 1.8g

CHE MIS TRY
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
NO. 02
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. Vapour pressure of a solvent containing nonvolatile solute is :
(A) more than the vapour pressure of a solvent
(B) less than the vapour pressure of solvent
(C) equal to the vapour pressure of solvent
(D) none
2. The relative lowering in vapour pressure is:
1
(A)  Xsolute (B)  (C) = Xsolute (D)  m
X solute
3. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of a solute is not influenced by :

(A) temperature of solution (B) melting point of solute
(C) mole fraction of solute (D) degree of dissociation of solute
4. An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure :
(A) equal to that of water (B) equal to that of methanol
(C) more than that of water (D) less than that of water
5. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of solvent decreases. This
brings:
(A) an increase in b.pt. of the solution (B) a decrease in b.pt of a solution
(C) an increase in f.pt of the solvent (D) none
6. Solute when dissolved in water:
(A) increases the vapour pressure of water (B) decreases the boiling point of water
(C) decreases the freezing point of water (D) all of the above
7. If the vapour pressure of solutions of two liquids are less than those expected from ideal solution
they are said to have :
(A) negative deviation from ideal behaviour
(B) positive deviations from ideal behaviour
(C) ideal behaviour
(D) positive deviation for lower concentration and negative deviations for higher concentration
8. Calculate the mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase which is in equilibrium with a solution
of benzene and toluene having a mole fraction of toluene 0.50. The vapour pressure of pure
benzene is 120 torr; that of toluene is 40 torr at the same temperature.
9. What is the composition of the vapour which is in equilibrium at 30°C with a benzene-toluene
solution with a mole fraction of benzene of 0.40? With a mole fraction of benzene of 0.60 =120
torr and = 40 torr
10. Two liquids A and B form an ideal solution at temperature T. When the total vapour pressure
above the solution is 400 torr, the mole fraction of A in the vapour phase is 0.40 and in the liquid
phase 0.75. What are the vapour pressure of pure A and pure B at temperature T?

CHE MIS TRY
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
NO. 03
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. Cryoscopic constant of a liquid is:
(A) decrease in freezing point when 1 gram of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
(B) decrease in the freezing point when 1 mole of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
(C) the elevation for 1 molar solution
(D) a factor used for calculation of elevation in boiling point
2. At certain Hill-station pure water boils at 99.725°C. If Kb for water is 0.513°C kg mol–1, the boiling
point of 0.69 m solution of urea will be :
(A) 100.079°C (B) 103°C (C) 100. 359°C (D) un predictable
3. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming NaCI to be 100% dissociated in water is :
(A) –1.86°C (B) –3.72°C (C) +1.86°C (D) +3.72°C
4. 10 gram of solute with molecular mass 100 gram mol–1 is dissolved in 100 gram solvent to
show 0.3°C elevation in boiling point. The value of molal ebullioscopic constant will be :
(A) 10 (B) 3 (C) 0.3 (D) un predictable
5. Depression in freezing point of solution of electrolytes are generally:

(A) lower
(B) higher than what should be normally
(C) low or high depending upon nature of electrolyte
(D) what it should be normally
6. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On the average the molecules in the
two phase have equal:
(A) inter-molecular forces (B) potential energy
(C) total energy (D) kinetic energy
7. Which salt may show the same value of vant Hoff factor (i) as that of K4Fe(CN)6 in very dilute
solution state :
(A) Al2(SO4)3 (B) NaCl (C) Al(NO3)3 (D) Na2SO4

8. Which compound corresponds vant Hoff factor (i) to be equal to 2 in dilute solution:
(A) K2SO4 (B) NaHSO4 (C) Sugar (D) MgSO4
9. In which of the following, the vant Hoff factor (i) is equal to one:
(A) NaCl (B) KNO3 (C) Urea (D) all
10. If the observed and theoretical molecular mass of NaCl is found to be 31.80 and 58.50, then the
degree of dissociation of NaCl is :
(A) 83.96% (B) 8.39% (C) 90% (D) 100%
11. The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows the molecular mass corresponding to A3.
The vant Hoffs factor will be:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1/3
12. A 5.8% solution of NaCl has vapour pressure closest to :

(A) 5.8 % solution of urea (B) 2 m solution of glucose
(C) 1 m solution of urea (D) 5.8 % solution of glucose
13. The boiling point of C6H6, CH3OH, C6H5NH2 and C6H5NO2 are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C
respectively. Which will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature:
(A) C6H6 (B) CH3OH (C) C6H5NH2 (D) C6H5NO2
14. Boiling point of water is defined as the temperature at which :

(A) vapour pressure of water equal to that of atmospheric pressure
(B) bubbles are formed
(C) steam comes out
(D) none of the above
15. Which solution will show maximum elevation in b.pt:

(A) 0.1 M KCl (B) 0.1 M BaCl2 (C) 0.1 M FeCl3 (D) 0.1 M Fe2(SO4)3
16. The correct relationship between the boiling points of very dilute solutions of AICI3 (t1) and
CaCI2(t2) having the same molar concentration is :
(A) t1 = t2 (B) t1 > t2 (C) t2 > t1 (D) t2  t1

CHE MIS TRY
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
NO. 04
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. Which of the following conditions is not correct for ideal solution :
(A) no change in volume on mixing
(B) no change in enthalpy on mixing
(C) it obey’s Raoult’s law
(D) lonisation of solute should occurs to a small extent
2. Solutions distilled without change in composition at a temperature are called :

(A) Amorphous (B) Azeotropic mixture
(C) Ideal solution (D) Super saturated solution
3. If mole fraction of the solvent in a solution decreases then :

(A) vapour pressure of solution increases (B) b.pt decreases
(C) osmotic pressure increases (D) all are correct
4. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it:
(A) shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(B) shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
(C) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(D) is saturated
5. The passing of particles through semipermeable membrane is called :

(A) osmosis (B) electrodialysis
(C) electrophrosis (D) electroplating
6. From the colligative properties of solution which one is the best method for the determination of
mol. wt of proteins & polymers :
(A) osmotic pressure (B) lowering in vapour pressure
(C) lowering in freezing point (D) elevation in B.Pt

7. As a result of osmosis, the volume of the concentrated solution :
(A) gradually decreases (B) gradually increases
(C) suddenly increases (D) none
8. The osmotic pressure of a solution of benzoic acid dissolved in benzene is less than expected
because:
(A) benzoic acid is an organic solute (B) benzene is a non-polar solvent
(C) benzoic acid dissociates in benzene (D) benzoic acid gets associated in benzene
9. Two solutions have different osmotic pressures. The solution of higher osmotic pressure is
called:
(A) isotonic solution (B) hypotonic solution
(C) isotopic solution (D) hypertonic solution
10. Blood is isotonic with :

(A) 0.16 M NaCl (B) Conc.NaCl (C) 30% NaCl (D) 50% NaCl
11. Which one of the following pairs of solution can we expect to be isotonic at the same
temperature:
(A) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl (B) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(C) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (D) 0.1 M Ca(NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
12. A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 0.877 % of X. The molecular weight of substance X
is:
(A) 58.98 (B) 119.96 (C) 95.58 (D) 126.98
13. Which statement is incorrect about osmotic pressure (), volume (V) and temperature (T):
1
(A)  if T is constant (B)  T if V is constant
V
(C)  V if T is constant (D)  V is constant if T is constant
14. The osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of urea, BaCI2 and AlCI3 will be in the order:
(A) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > Urea (B) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > Urea
(C) Urea > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (D) BaCl2 > Urea > AlCl3

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

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
NO. 05
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. When 0.6 g of urea dissolved in 100 g of water, the water will boil at (Kb for water = 0.52 kJ.
mol–1 and normal boiling point of water = 100°C) :
(A) 373.052 K (B) 273.52 K (C) 372.48 K (D) 273.052 K
2. Solutions having the same osmotic pressure are called :

(A) isotonic solution (B) molar solutions
(C) hypotonic solutions (D) ideal solutions
3. Consider 1 M solutions of the following salts. State which solution will have the lowest freezing
point.
(A) Na2SO4 (B) BaCl2 (C) NaCl (D) Al2(SO4)3
4. A solution prepared by dissolving a 2.50 g sample of an unknown compound dissolved in 34.0

g of benzene, C6H6 boils at 1.38°C higher than pure benzene. Which expression gives the molar
mass of the unknown compound ?
Compound Kb
C6H6 2.53°C.m–1
2.50 34.0
(A) 2.53 × (B) 1.38 ×  2.50
1.38 2.53
2.53 1 1.38
(C) 2.50 × 103 ×  (D) 2.50 × 103 × × 2.53
34.0 1.38 34.0
5. When 1.20 g of sulphur is melted with 15.00 g of naphthalene, the solution freezes at 77.2° C.
What is the molar mass of this from of sulphur. Data for Napthalene
Melting point, m.p 80°C
Freezing point depression constant, kf = 6.80°C m–1
(A) 180 g mol–1 (B) 194 g mol–1 (C) 260 g mol–1 (D) 450 g mol–1
6. 12.2 gm benzoic acid (M = 122) in 100 g H2O has elevation of boiling point of 0.27°C, Kb = 0.54 K
kg/mole. If there is 100% dimerization, the no. of molecules of benzoic acid in associated state is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
7. The Van't Hoff factor 0.1 M La (NO3)3 solution is found to be 2.74 the percentage dissociation
of the salt is :
(A) 85 % (B) 58 % (C) 65.8% (D) 56.8%
8. Maximum freezing point will be for 1 molal solution of (assuming equal ionisation in each case) :
(A) [Fe(H2O)6 Cl3] (B) [Fe(H2O)5Cl] Cl2.H2O
(C) [Fe(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O (D) [Fe(H2O)3Cl3].3H2O
9. 1.0 molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionized. The boiling point of the solution
is (Kb for H2O = 0.52 K kg / mol) :
(A) 375.5 K (B) 374.04 K (C) 377.12 K (D) 373.25 K

10. Which one of the following aqueous solution has the highest freezing point at 1 atm :
(A) 0.1 M urea (B) 0.1 M acetic acid (C) 0.1 M NaCl (D) 0.1 M BaCl2
11. If in solvent, n simple molecules of solute combine to form an associated molecule, X is degree
of association the Van't Hoff's factor ' i ' is equal to :
x x
1x  1  x
1 1  x  nx
(A) (B) (C) n (D) n
1  nx 1 1 1
12. The decrease in the freezing point of an aqueous solution of a substance is 1.395 K and that
in the freezing point of benzene solution of the same substance is 1.280 K. Explain the difference
in T. The substance :
(A) dissociates in the aqueous solution as well as in the benzene solution
(B) forms complexes in solution
(C) associates in the benzene solution
(D) dissociates in the aqueous solution and not in the benzene solution
13. The molal boiling point constant of water is 0.573°C kg mole–1. When 0.1 mole of glucose is
dissolved in 1000 g of water, the solution boils under atmospheric pressure at :
(A) 100.513°C (B) 100.0573°C (C) 100.256°C (D) 101.025°C
14. A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX is 20% ionized. The freezing point of the solutions
is (kf = 1.86 K kg mole–1 for water) :
(A) –0.45°C (B) –0.9°C (C) –0.31°C (D) –0.53°C
15. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethyl alcohol is less than that of theoretical
value of water and alcohol mixture. Hence the mixture shows :
(A) that solution is highly saturated (B) positive deviation from Raoult's law
(C) negative deviation from Raoult's law (D) none of these
16. The boiling point of an aqueous solution of a non-volatile solute is 100.15°C. What is the freezing
point of an aqueous solution obtained by diluting the above solution with an equal volume of water.
The values of Kb and Kf for water are 0.512 and 1.86°C mol–1:
(A) –0.544°C (B) –0.512°C (C) –0.272°C (D) –1.86°C
17. An aqueous solution of NaCl freezes at –0.186°C. Given that K b(H2O)  0.512K kg mol–1 and
K f(H2O)  1.86K kg mol–1, the elevation in boiling point of this solution is :
(A) 0.0585 K (B) 0.0512 K (C) 1.864 K (D) 0.0265 K
18. The Van't Hoff factors i for an electrolyte which undergoes dissociation and association in solvents
are respectively :
(A) greater than one and less than one (B) less than one and greater than one
(C) less than one and less than one (D) greater than one and greater than one
19. A solution of 0.450 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 22.5 g of water showed 0.170°C of elevation in boiling
point, the molal elevation constant of water :
(A) 0.51 (B) 0.95 (C) 0.25 (D) 2.25
20. Colligative properties of the solution depend on :

(A) Nature of solute (B) Nature of solvent
(C) Number of particles present in the solution (D) Number of moles of solvent only

CHE MIS TRY
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
NO. 06
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point :
(A) 1% glucose in water (B) 1% sucrose in water
(C) 1% NaCl in water (D) 1% urea in water
2. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators of cars during winters. It results in :
(A) reducing viscosity (B) reducing specific heat
(C) reducing freezing point (D) reducing boiling point
3. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when it :
(A) shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
(B) shows no deviation from Raoult's law
(C) shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
(D) is saturated
4. When mercuric iodide is added to an aqueous solution of potassium iodide the :

(A) freezing point is raised (B) freezing point is lowered
(C) freezing point does not change (D) boiling point does not change
5. For an ideal solution containing a nonvolatile solute, which of the following expressions represents
the vapour pressure of the solution? (x1  mole fraction of solvent)
(A) p = x2 p2* (B) p = x1 p2* (C) p = x1 p1* (D) p1* – p = x2
6. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, the molar mass of solute evaluated from
the elevation of boiling point is given by the expression :
Tb m1 Tb m 2 K b m2 K b m1
(A) M2 = K m (B) M2 = K m (C) M2 = T m (D) M2 = T m
b 2 b 1 b 1 b 2
7. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, the molar mass of solute evaluated from
the osmotic pressure measurement is given as :
m 2 RT m2  RT 
(A) M2 = (B) M2 = (C) M2 = m2 (D) M2 = m2
V  V RT  RT
8. An aqueous solution of acetone, CH3COCH3, is 10.00% acetone by weight. What is the mole
percentage of acetone in this solution :
(A) 3.332 % (B) 5.000 % (C) 10.00 % (D) 11.11 %
9. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte is –0.14°C. The molarity of this
solution is [Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol–1] :
(A) 1.86 m (B) 1.00 m (C) 0.15 m (D) 0.075 m

10. The boiling point of a 0.1 M solution of CaCl2 should be elevated by :
(A) exactly 0.51° (B) somewhat less than 1.02°
(C) exactly 1.02° (D) some what less than 1.53°
11. Of the following measurements the one most suitable for the determination of the molecular
weight of oxyhaemoglobin, a molecule with a molecular weight of many thousand, is :
(A) the vapour pressure lowering (B) the elevation of the boiling point
(C) the depression of the freezing point (D) the osmotic pressure
12. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at 50°C is 268 torr. How many mol of non-volatile solute
per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of
167 torr at 50°C:
(A) 0.377 (B) 0.605 (C) 0.623 (D) 0.395
13. If P° the vapour pressure of a pure solvent and P is the vapour pressure of the solution prepared
by dissolving a non volatile solute in it. The mole fraction of the solvent XA is given by :
P  P P  P P
(A) = XA (B) = XA (C) = XA (D) P° – P = XA
P P P
14. Dry air was passed successively through a solution of 5 g of a solute in 180 g of water and then
through pure water. The loss in weight of solution was 2.5 g and that of pure solvent 0.04 g.
The molecular weight of the solute is :
(A) 31.25 (B) 3.125 (C) 312.5 (D) None of these
15. The relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to the ratio between the number :
(A) solute molecules to the solvent molecules
(B) solute molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(C) solvent molecules to the total molecules in the solution
(D) solvent molecules to the total number of ions of the solute
16. The vapour pressure of pure liquid solvent A is 0.80 atm when a non volatile solute B is
added to the solvent its vapours pressure falls to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of solute B in
the solution is :
1atm
A
B
Temperature
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.25

(C) 0.75 (D) given data is not sufficient
17. Which of the following plots represents an ideal binary mixture ?

(A) plot of Ptotal v/s 1/XB is linear (XB = mole fraction of 'B' in liquid phase)
(B) plot of Ptotal v/s YA is linear (YB = mole fraction of 'A' in vapour phase)
1
(C) plot of v/s YA is linear
Ptotal
1
(D) plot of v/s YB is non linear
Ptotal

18. The lowering of vapour pressure in a saturated aq. solution of salt AB is found to be 0.108 torr.
If vapour pressure of pure solvent at the same temperatuare is 300 torr, find the solubility product
of salt AB:
(A) 10–8 (B) 10–6 (C) 10–4 (D) 10–5
19. Which of the following represents correctly the changes in thermodynamic properties during
the formation of 1 mol of an ideal binary solution :
+ Gmix + Gmix
–1 TSmix –1 Hmix
(A) J mol 0 (B) J mol 0
– Hmix – TSmix
mole fraction mole fraction
+ TSmix + TSmix
–1 Hmix –1 Gmix
(C) J mol 0 (D) J mol 0
– Gmix – Hmix
mole fraction mole fraction
20. FeCl3 on reaction with K4[Fe(CN)6] in aqueous solution gives blue colour. These are separated
by a semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due to osmosis there is :
0.1M 0.01M
K4Fe(CN)6 FeCl3
Side X Side Y
SPM
(A) blue colour formation in side X.
(B) blue colour formation in side Y.
(C) blue colour formation in both of the sides X and Y.
(D) no blue colour formation.
21. PA = (235 y – 125 xy) mm of Hg. PA is partial pressure of A, x is mole fraction of B in liquid phase
in the mixture of two liquids A and B and y is the mole fraction of A in vapour phase, then P°B
in mm of Hg is :
(A) 235 (B) 0 (C) 110 (D) 125

CHEMISTRY
DPP
DAILY PRA CTICE PROBLEMS

ST

NO. 07
LIQUID SOLUTIONS
1. The vapour pressure of ethanol and methanol are 44.5 mm Hg and 88.7 mm Hg, respectively.
An ideal solution is formed at the same temperature by mixing 60 g of ethanol and 40 g of
methanol. Calculate the total vapour pressure of the solution and the mole fraction of methanol
in the vapour.
2. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile
solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution is
600 mm Hg. What is the molar mass of the solid substance?
–1
3. Addition of 0.643 g of a compound to 50 mL of benzene (density : 0.879 g mL ) lower the freezing
–1
point from 5.51°C to 5.03°C. If Kf for benzene is 5.12 K kg mol , calculate the molar mass of
the compound.
4. (a) The vapour pressure of n-hexane and n-heptane at 273 K are 45.5 mm Hg and 11.4 mm
Hg, respectively. What is the composition of a solution of these two liquids if its vapour
pressure at 273 K is 37.3 mm Hg.
(b) The mole fraction of n-hexane in the vapour above a solution of n-hexane and n-heptane
is 0.75 at 273 K. What is the composition of the liquid solution.
5. A solution containing 30 g of a nonvolatile solute in exactly 90 g water has a vapour pressure of

21.85 mm Hg at 25°C. Further 18 g of water is then added to the solution. The resulting solution
has vapour pressure of 22.18 mm Hg at 25°C. Calculate (a) molar mass of the solute, and (b)
vapour pressure of water at 25°C.
6. The freezing point of ether was lowered by 0.60°C on dissolving 2.0 g of phenol in 100 g of ether.
Calculate the molar mass of phenol and comment on the result. Given : Kf (ether) = 5.12 K kg
–1
mol .
7. A solution contains 3.22 g of HClO2 in 47.0 g of water. The freezing point of the solution is
+ –
271.10 K. Calculate the fraction of HClO 2 that undergoes dissociation to H and ClO2 .
–1
Given : Kf(water) = 1.86 K kg mol .
8. A 0.1 molar solution of NaCl is found to be isotonic with 1% urea solution. Calculate (a) Van't
Hoff factor, and (b) degree of dissociation of sodium chloride. Assume density of 1% urea equal
–3
to 1 g cm .

9. The addition of 3 g of a substance to 100 g CCl4 (M = 154 g mol–1) raises the boiling point of
–1
CCl4 by 0.60°C. If Kb (CCl4) is 5 K mol kg, calculate (a) the freezing point depression (b) the
relative lowering of vapour pressure (c) the osmotic pressure at 298 K and (d) the molar mass
–1 –3
of the substance. Given : Kf (CCl4) = 31.8 K kg mol and  (solution) = 1.64 g cm .
3 –3
10. To 500 cm of water 3.0 × 10 kg of acetic acid is added. If 23% of acetic acid is dissociated,
–1
what will be the depression of freezing point? Kf and density of water are 1.86 K kg mol and 0.997
–3
g cm , respectively.
11. A 0.01 m aqueous solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] freezes at –0.062°C. What is the apparent percentage
of dissociation? [Kf for water = 1.86]
12. The degree of dissociation of Ca (NO3)2 in a dilute aqueous solution containing 7 g of the salt
per 100 g of water at 100°C is 70%. If the vapour pressure of water at 100°C is 760 mm, calculate
the vapour pressure of the solution.
13. A solution containing 0.122 kg of benzoic acid in 1 kg of benzene (b. pt. 353 K) boils at 354.5
K. Determine the apparent molar mass of benzoic acid (which dimerizes) in the solution and
–1
the degree of dimerization. Given : vapH1m (benzene) = 394.57 J g .
14. A solution containing 0.011 kg of barium nitrate in 0.1 kg of water boils at 100.46°C. Calculate
–1
the degree of ionization of the salt. Kb (water) = 0.52 K kg mol .
15. When 3.24 g of mercuric nitrate Hg (NO3)2 dissolved in 1 kg of water, the freezing point of the
solution is found to be – 0.0558°C. When 10.84 g of mercuric chloride HgCl2 is dissolved in 1
–1
kg of water, the freezing point of the solution is –0.0744°C. Kf = 1.86 mol K kg. Will either of
these dissociate into ions in an aqueous solution ?
16. The vapour pressure of solution containing 6.69 g of Mg(NO3)2 dissolved in 100 g of water is
747 Torr at 373 K. Calculate the degree of dissociation of the salt in the solution.
17. At 353 K, the vapour pressure of pure ethylene bromide and propylene bromide are 22.93
and 16.93 k Nm–2, respectively, and these compounds form a nearly ideal solution. 3 mol of
ethylene bromide and 2 mole of propylene bromide are equilibrated at 553 K and a total pressure
–2
of 20.4 k Nm .
(a) What is the composition of the liquid phase?
(b) What amount of each compound is present in the vapour phase?
18. Sea water is found to contain 5.85% NaCl and 9.50% MgCl2 by weight of solution. Calculate its
normal boiling point assuming 80% ionisation for NaCl and 50% ionisation of MgCl2 [Kb (H2O) =
–1
0.51 kg mol K].
19. Find the freezing point of a glucose solution whose osmotic pressure at 25°C is found to be
–1
30 atm. Kf (water) = 1.86 kg.mol . K.

20. The latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 calories per gram at 0°C. What is the freezing point of a
solution of KCl in water containing 7.45 grams of solute 500 grams of water, assuming that
the salt is dissociated to the extent of 95%?
21. A certain mass of a substance, when dissolved in 100 g C6H6, lowers the freezing point by 1.28°C.
The same mass of solute dissolved in 100 g water lowers the freezing point by 1.40°C. If the
substance has normal molecular weight in benzene and is completely ionised in water, into how
–1
many ions does it dissociate in water? Kf for H2O and C6H6 are 1.86 and 5.12 K kg mol .
22. The cryoscopic constant for acetic acid is 3.6 K kg/mol. A solution of 1 g of a hydrocarbon in
100 g of acetic acid freezes at 16.14°C instead of the usual 16.60°C. The hydrocarbon contains
92.3% carbon. What is the molecular formula?
–1
23. A radiator was filled with 10 L of water to which 2.5 L of methanol (density = 0.8 g.mL ) were
added. At 9 : 00 pm, the vehicle is parked outdoors where the temperature is 0°C. The temperature
is decreasing at a uniform rate of 0.5°C / min. Upto what time will there be no danger to the
–1
radiator of the car. Kf (water) = 1.86 kg.mol K. Assume methanol to be non-volatile.
24. At 300 K, two solutions of glucose in water of concentration 0.01 M and 0.001 M are separated
by semipermeable membrane. Pressure needs to be applied on which solution, to prevent
osmosis? Calculate the magnitude of this applied pressure?
25. At 10°C, the osmotic pressure of urea solution is 500 mm. The solution is diluted and the
temperature is raised to 25°C, when the osmotic pressure is found to be 105.3 mm. Determine
extent of dilution.
26. When cells of the skeletal vacuole of a frog were placed in a series of NaCl solutions of different
concentration at 25°C, it was observed microscopically that they remained unchanged in 0.7%
NaCl solution, shrank in more cocentrated solutions, and swelled in more dilute solutions.
Water freezes from the 0.7% salt solution at –0.406°C. What is the osmotic pressure of the
–1
cell cytoplasm at 25°C ? Kf = 1.86 kg mol K.
27. A 0.1 M solution of potassium ferrocyanide is 46% dissociated at 18°C. What will be its osmotic
pressure?
28. At 100°C, benzene & toluene have vapour pressure of 1375 & 558 Torr respectively. Assuming
these two form an ideal binary solution that boils at 1 atm & 100°C. What is the composition
of vapour issuing at these conditions?
29. An ideal solution of two volatile liquid A and B has a vapour pressure of 402.5 mmHg, the mole
fraction of A in vapour & liquid state being 0.35 & 0.65 respectively. What are the vapour pressure
of the two liquid at this temperature.

ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
1. B 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. C 6. A 7. D
8. B 9. D 10. D 11. A 12. D 13. B 14. C
DPP-2
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. C 7. A
2 1 9 2
8. 0.75 9. yb = , yt = ; yb= , yt =
3 3 11 11
10. PA = 213.33 torr, PB = 960.0 torr
DPP-3
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. C 6. D 7. A
8. D 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. B 14. A

15. D 16. B
DPP-4
1. D 2. B 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B
8. D 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A
DPP-5
1. A 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. B
8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. B 14. A
15. B 16. C 17. B 18. A 19. A 20. C
DPP-6
1. C 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A
8. A 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. A
15. B 16. B 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. D 21. C

DPP-7
1. 66.11mmHg, 0.656 2. 69.6 g/mole 3. 156.06 g/mol
4. (a) 0.76, 0.34, (b) 0.61 5. (a) 61.21 g mol–1, (b) 23.99 mmHg 6. 170.7 g mol–1
7.  = 0.102 8. (a) 1.667, (b) 0.667
9. (a) 3.816 k (b) .01814 (c) 4.669 atm (d) 250 g mol–1 10. 0.23 k
11. 0.78 % 12. 746.10 mm
13. 0.214 kg mol–1, 0.86 14. 0.55 16. 0.56
17. (a) 0.578, 0.422, (b) 0.9967 mol, 0.5374 mol
18. Tb = 102.3°C
19. Tf = – 2.28°C
20. Tf = – 0.73°C 21. 3 ions
22. C6H6 23. 23.25 min 24. P = 0.2217 atm should be applied
25. (Vfinal = 5 Voriginal) 26. 5.34 atm 27. p = 6.785 atm
28. xb = 0.2472, yb = 0.4473 29. p°A = 216.7 mm Hg, p°B = 747.5 mm Hg

C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 01
REDOX REACTION & EQUIVALENT CONCEPT
1. The oxidation number of Oxygen in Na2O2 is :

(A) +1 (B) + 2 (C) –2 (D) –1
2. One of the following has both positive and negative oxidation states
(A) F (B) Cl (C) He (D) Na
3. Oxidation number of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4 is

1
(A) – (B) – 1 (C) + 1 (D) – 3
3
4. In which of the following compounds, the oxidation number of iodine is fractional ?

(A) ΙF7 (B) Ι3– (C) ΙF5 (D) ΙF3
5. The oxidation number of cobalt in K3[Co(NO2)6] is

(A) 0 (B) + 4 (C) + 3 (D) + 6
6. The oxidation number of Phosphorus in Mg2P2O7 is :

(A) + 3 (B) + 2 (C) + 5 (D) – 3
7. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen has an oxidation state of –1 ?

(A) N2O (B) NO2– (C) NH2OH (D) N2H4
8. Which of the following is a redox reaction?

(A) NaCl + KNO3 → NaNO3 + KCl
(B) CaC2O4 + 2 HCl → CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(C) Mg (OH)2 + 2 NH4Cl → MgCl2 + 2 NH4OH
(D) Zn + 2 AgCN → 2 Ag + Zn (CN)2
9. Calculate the O.N. of underlined elements in following compounds:-

(1) Fe3O4 (2) FeO (3) Na2S4O6 (4) C2H5OH
(5) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O (6) CO2 (7) FeS2
(8) PbS (9) CS2 (10) CrO5 (11) (N2H5)2SO4
(12) N2O5 (13) HCN (14) HNC (15) Ba[H2PO2]2
(16) OsO4 (17) H2S2O3 (18) CH3SO3H (19) Ba2XeO6
(20) Ba(S C N)2
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 02
1. When N2 is converted into NH3, the equivalent weight of nitrogen will be :

(A) 1.67 (B) 2.67 (C) 3.67 (D) 4.67
2. In the ionic equation 2K+BrO3– + 12H+ + 10e– → Br2 + 6H2O + 2K+,
the equivalent weight of KBrO3 will be :
(A) M/5 (B) M/2 (C) M/6 (D) M/4
(where M = molecular weight of KBrO3)
3. If molecular weight of KMnO4 is 'M', then its equivalent weight in acidic medium would be :
(A) M (B) M/2 (C) M/5 (D) M/4
4. In the conversion NH2OH → N2O,

the equivalent weight of NH2OH will be :
(A) M/4 (B) M/2 (C) M/5 (D) M/1
(M = molecular weight of NH2OH)
5. The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction :

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O
(A) 59 (B) 49 (C) 25 (D) 98
6. The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half its molecular weight when it is converted into
(A) Mn2O3 (B) MnO4– (C) MnO2 (D) MnO42–
7. The equivalent weight of Mohr's salt, FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O is equal to

(A) Its molecular weight (B) Atomic weight
(C) half-its molecular weight (D) one-third its molecular weight
8. The oxidation states of sulphur in the anions SO32– , S2O42– and S2O62– follow the order :
(A) S2O42– < SO32– < S2O62– (B) SO32– < S2O42– < S2O62–
(C) S2O42– < S2O62– < SO32– (D) S2O62– < S2O42– < SO32–
9. For decolourization of 1 mole of KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is

(A) 1/2 (B) 3/2 (C) 5/2 (D) 7/2
10. Which is the best description of the behaviour of bromine in the reaction given below ?
H2O + Br2 → HOBr + HBr
(A) Proton acceptor only (B) Both oxidised and reduced
(C) Oxidised only (D) Reduced only
11. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one mole of KI in alkaline medium is
(A) one (B) two (C) five (D) one fifith
12. Number of moles of MnO4– required to oxidize one mole of ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be :
(A) 7.5 moles (B) 0.2 moles (C) 0.6 moles (D) 0.4 moles
13. When Cl2 gas reacts with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, the oxidation
number of chlorine changes from :
(A) Zero to +1 and zero to –5 (B) Zero to –1 and zero to +5
(C) Zero to –1 and zero to +3 (D) Zero to +1 and zero to –3
14. In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state ?
(A) N2H4 (B) NH3 (C) N3H (D) NH2OH
15. Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require
the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation
(A) FeSO4 (B) FeSO3 (C) FeC2O4 (D) Fe(NO2)2
16. Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong oxidizing agent. Which of the following
reactions does not show oxidizing behaviour ?
(A) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF (B) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
(C) 2S + 2H2SO4 → 2SO2 + 2H2O (D) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
17. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution:
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO2 (D) P2O5
18. The oxidation sate of Cr in CrO5 is –

(A) – 6 (B) +12 (C) +6 (D) +4
19. Which of the following reactions are disproportionation reaction ?

(a) 2Cu+ → Cu2+ + Cu0
(b) 3MnO2–
4 4H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
∆
(c) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(d) 2MnO4– + 3Mn2+ + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H+
Select the correct option from the following :
(A) (a) and (d) only (B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a), (b) and (c) (D) (a), (c) and (d)
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 03
1. The values of x and y in the following redox reaction,

xCl2 + 6OH– → ClO3– + yCl– + 3H2O are
(A) x = 2, y = 4 (B) x = 5, y = 3 (C) x = 3, y = 5 (D) x = 4, y = 2
2. For the redox reaction

+ 2+
MnO4–1 + C2O2–
4 + H → Mn + CO2 + H2O
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are
MnO−4 C2O24− H+
(A) 16 5 2
(B) 5 16 2
(C) 2 16 5
(D) 2 5 16
3. In the balanced chemical reaction,

ΙO3– + aΙ– + bH+ → cH2O + dΙ2
a, b, c and d respectively correspond to
(A) 5, 6, 3, 3 (B) 5, 3, 6, 3 (C) 3, 5, 3, 6 (D) 5, 6, 5,5
4. The oxidation states of iodine in HIO4, H3IO5 and H5IO6 are, respectively :
(A) + 1, + 3, + 7 (B) + 7, + 7, + 3 (C) + 7, + 7, + 7 (D) + 7, + 5, + 3
5. x moles of potassium dichromate oxidises 1 mole of ferrous oxalate, in acidic medium. Here x is :
(A) 3 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.5 (D) 1.0
6. In the following redox equation, xUO2+ + Cr2O72– + yH+ → aUO22+ + zCr3+ + bH2O
the values of coefficients x, y and z are, respectively :
(A) 3, 8, 2 (B) 3, 8, 7 (C) 3, 2, 4 (D) 3, 1, 8
7. KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the equation

2KMnO4 + 5C2O4–2 + 16H+ → 2Mn++ + 10CO2 + 8H2O Here 20mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is
equivalent to:
(A) 20 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4 (B) 50 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4
(C) 50 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4 (D) 20 mL of 0.1 M H2C2O4
8. The mass of potassium dichromate crystals required to oxidise 750 cm3 of 0.6 M Mohr’s salt
solution is (Given molar mass, potassium dichromate = 294, Mohr’s salt = 392)
(A) 0.39 g (B) 0.37 g (C) 22.05 g (D) 2.2 g
9. 3.5 g of a mixture of NaOH and KOH were dissolved and made up to 250 ml. 25 mL of this
solution were completely neutralized by 17 mL of (N/2) HCl solution. Then, the percentage of
KOH in mixture is
(A) 80 (B) 10 (C) 34 (D) 56
+
10. MnO2 + NaCl H
H SO

→ choose incorrect statement for above reaction.
2 4
(A) Mn goes from +4 to +2 (B) Cl– is oxidized

(C) Cl2 yellow gas is released. (D) SO24− reduces to SO2
11. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent and ultimately forms Mn O24− , MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+,
then the number of electrons transferred in each case is :
(A) 4, 3, 1, 5 (B) 1, 5, 3, 7 (C) 1, 3, 4, 5 (D) 3, 5, 7, 1
12. What will happen if the solution of potassium chromate reacts with excess amount of nitric
acid
(A) Cr reduces in the oxidation state +3 from CrO42–
(B) Cr oxidises in the oxidation state +7 from CrO42–
(C) Cr+3 and Cr2O72– will be formed.
(D) Cr2O72– and H2O will be formed.
13. The oxidation state of chromium in the final product formed by the reaction between KI and
acidified potassium dichromate solution is :
(A) + 4 (B) + 6 (C) + 2 (D) + 3
14. Consider the following reaction :

z
xMnO4– + yC2O42– + zH+ → xMn2+ + 2yCO2 + H2O
2
The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively :
(A) 5, 2 and 16 (B) 2, 5 and 8 (C) 2, 5 and 16 (D) 5, 2 and 8
15. The volume strength of 1M H2O2 is: (Molar mass of H2O2 = 34 g mol–1)
(A) 11.35 (B) 22.4 (C) 16. 8 (D) 5.6
16. Oxidation number of potassium in K2O, K2O2 and KO2, respectively, is:
1
(A) +1, +2 and +4 (B) +1, +4 and +2 (C) +1, +1 and +1 (D) +2, +1 and +
2
17. The compound that can not act both as oxidising and reducing agent is :
(A) HNO2 (B) H3PO4 (C) H2SO3 (D) H2O2
18. The redox reaction among the following is :

(A) reaction of [Co(H2O)6]Cl3 with AgNO3
(B) formation of ozone from atmospheric oxygen in the presence of sunlight
(C) combination of dinitrogen with dioxygen at 200 K
(D) reaction of H2SO4 with NaOH
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 04
1. Which of the following relations is incorrect for solutions ?

(A) 3 N Al2(SO4)3 = 0.5 M Al2(SO4)3 (B) 3 M H2SO4 = 6 N H2 SO4
(C) 1 M H3 PO4 = 1/3 N H3PO4 (D) 1 M Al2 (SO4)3 = 6 N Al2(SO4)3
2. Which of the following solutions will exactly oxidize 25 mL of an acid solution of 0.1 M iron (ΙΙ)
oxalate:
(A) 25 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 (B) 25 mL of 0.2 M KMnO4
(C) 25 mL of 0.6 M KMnO4 (D) 15 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4
3. 0.16 gm of dibasic acid required 25 ml of decinormal NaOH solution for complete

neutralisation. The molecular weight of the acid will be :
(A) 128 (B) 56 (C) 28 (D) 240
4. The number of moles of oxalate ions oxidized by one mole of MnO4– ion in acidic medium is :
5 2 3 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 5 3
5. Oxidation state of nitrogen is correctly given for

Compound Oxidation state
(A) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 0
(B) NH2OH +1
(C) (N2H5)2SO4 +2
(D) Mg3N2 –3
6. The oxidation number of carbon in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2 , CHCl3 and CCl4 are respectively
(A) +4, +2, 0, –2, –4 (B) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4
(C) –2, –4, 0, +4, +2 (D) +2, +4, 0, –4, –2
7. M is molecular weight of KMnO4. The equivalent weight of KMnO4 when it is converted into
K2MnO4 is :
(A) M (B) M/3 (C) M/5 (D) M/7
8. Which statement is wrong :

(A) Oxidation number of oxygen is –2 in most of its compounds.
(B) Oxidation number of oxygen is +2 in Oxygen difluoride.
(C) Oxidation number of oxygen is − 1 in superoxides.

2
(D) Oxidation number of oxygen is +1 in peroxides.
9. Oxidation number of oxygen in OF2 would be :

(A) –2 (B) +1 (C) –1 (D) +2
10. Oxidation number of Chlorine can be :

(A) From +5 to –1 (B) From +7 to –3
(C) From –7 to +1 (D) From +7 to –1
11. Which of the following is not a redox reaction :
(A) Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 (B) MnO4– + C2O42– → Mn2+ + CO2
(C) CuSO4 + KΙ → 2CuΙ + Ι2 + K2SO4 (D) AgCl + NH3 → [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
12. Identify the correct statement :

(A) Halogens always have –1 oxidation state in their compounds.
(B) Oxidation number can be zero, negative, positive, integer or fractional.
(C) In OF2, the oxidation number of F is +1.
(D) Hydrogen always has + 1 oxidation number in its compounds.
C H E MIS T R Y
DPP

ST NO. 05
1. The decomposition of KClO3 to KCl and O2 heating is an example of :

(A) Intermolecular redox change
(B) Intramolecular redox change
(C) Disproportionation or auto redox change
(D) None of the above
2. In the reaction; As2S3 + HNO3 → H3AsO4 + H2SO4 + NO, the element oxidised is /are :
(A) As only (B) S only (C) N only (D) As and S both
3. When the following redox reaction is balanced using simplest 'natural numbers', the
stoichiometric coefficient of H2O will be :
Cr(OH)3 + ΙO2– + H+ → Ι – + CrO2–
4 + H2 O
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) It is impossible to balance this reaction
4. Which of the following change represents a disproportionation reaction ?

(A) Cl2 + 2OH– → ClO– + Cl– + H2O
(B) Cu2O + 2H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + H2O
(C) 2HCuCl2 
dilution with
water
→ Cu+Cu2+ + 4Cl– + 2H+
(D) All of these
5. Indicate in which of the following processes the nitrogen is reduced :

(A) NH4+ → N2 (B) NO3 → NH4+ (C) NO2 → NO2– (D) Both (B) and (C)
6. Consider the reaction, 2MnO4– + 10Cl– + 16H+ → 2Mn2 + + 5Cl2 + 8H2O ; and select the correct
statements :
(A) MnO4– is reduced (B) Cl– is reducing agent
(C) MnO4– is an oxidising agent (D) All of these
7. Which of the following change represents a disproportionation reaction (s) :

(A) Cl2 + 2OH– → ClO– + Cl– + H2O (B) Cu2O + 2H+ → Cu + Cu2+ + H2O
(C) 2HCuCl2 dilution
Water
 → Cu+Cu+2+4Cl–+ 2H+
with
(D) All of the above
8. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 mole of electrons to form a new compound Y. Assuming that all
nitrogen appear in the new compound, what is oxidation state of nitrogen ? (there is no
change in the oxidation state of hydrogen)
(A) – 1 (B) – 3 (C) + 3 (D) + 5
9. Reaction (A) S–2 + 4H2O2 → SO42– + 4H2O

(B) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
The true statement regarding the above reactions is :
(A) H2O2 acts as reductant in both the reactions
(B) H2O2 acts as oxidant in reaction (A) and reductant in reaction (B).
(C) H2O2 acts as an oxidant in both the reactions
(D) H2O2 acts as reductant in reaction (A) and oxidant in reaction (B).
10. A compound contains atoms A, B and C. The oxidation number of A is +2, of B is +5 and of C
is –2. The possible formula of the compound is :
(A) ABC2 (B) B2(AC3)2 (C) A3(BC4)2 (D) A3(B4C)2
11. In the reaction, VO + Fe2O3 → FeO + V2O5, the eq. wt. of V2O5 is equal to its -
(A) Mol. wt. (B) Mol. wt./8 (C) Mol. wt./6 (D) None of these
12. In the reaction : A − n 2 + xe– → A – n1 , here x will be -

(A) n1 + n2 (B) n2 – n1 (C) n1 – n2 (D) n1 . n2
13. In which is transfer of five electrons takes place ?

(A) MnO4– → Mn2 + → Cr 3 +
4 
(B) CrO2– (C) MnO4– → MnO2 (D) Cr2O72– → 2Cr 3 +
14. For the redox reaction,

+
MnO4– + C2 O2– → Mn2 + + CO2 + H2O ,
4 + H 
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are :
MnO4– C2 O2–
4 H+
(A) 2 5 16
(B) 16 5 2
(C) 5 16 2
(D) 2 16 5
15. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4
solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in
the presence of HCl, because HCl :
(A) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid.
(B) reduces permanganate to Mn2+.
(C) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water.
(D) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine.
CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 06
Q.1 In the redox reaction

a CrCl3 + b H2O2 + c NaOH  2 Na2CrO4 + x NaCl + y H2O
Find the value of a, b, c in the given equation :
(A) a=2, b=3, c=10 (B) a=1, b=2, c=8 (C) a=2, b=2, c=8 (D) a=2, b=3, c=4
Q.2 What are the value of p, q, r, and s for the following reaction
p O3 + q HI  r I2 + s H2O
(A) 1, 6, 3, 1 (B) 1, 6, 3, 3 (C) 1, 6, 6, 3 (D) 1, 6, 3, 6
Q.3 Number of moles of electrons produced per mole of FeCr2O4 in the following redox reaction.
FeCr2O4 + KOH + O2  K2CrO4 + Fe2O3
(A) 6 (B) 1 (C) 7 (D) 3
Q.4 In the redox reaction:

x MnO + y PbO2 + z HNO3  a HMnO4 + b Pb(NO3)2 + c H2O
(A) x = 2, y = 5, z = 10 (B) x = 2, y = 7, z = 8
(C) x = 2, y = 5, z = 8 (D) x = 2, y = 5, z = 5
Q.5 Ratio of stoichiometric coefficients of CrCl3 to MnO4¯ in balanced chemical reaction in acidic medium
is MnO4¯ + CrCl3  MnCl2 + Cr2O72– + Cl¯
5 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
3 5 5
Q.6 Equivalent weight of underlined substances in the given reactions are respectively
K4[Fe(CN)6] + MnO4– + H+  Fe3+ + CO2 + NO3– + Mn2+ + H2O + K+
Cu(s) + HNO3(aq)  Cu(NO3)2(aq) + NO(g) + H2O(l)
{ M1 = Mol.wt. of K4[Fe(CN)6]
M2 = Mol.wt. of HNO3 }
M1 M 2 M1 M 2 M1 4M 2 M1 M 2
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
61 3 1 3 61 3 48 4
Q.7 When BrO3 ion reacts with Br– in acid medium, Br2 is liberated. The equivalent weight of Br2 in this
reaction is
5M 5M 3M 4M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 3 5 6
Q.8 What is the equivalent weight of H2SO4 in the reaction ?
H2SO4 + NaI  Na2SO4 + I2 + H2S + H2O
(A) 12.25 (B) 49 (C) 61.25 (D) None of these

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 07
Single correct :
Q.1 To 500 ml H3PO4 solution, 1 M Ca(OH)2 solution was slowly added and the following plot was
obtained. The initial molarity of H3PO4 solution and volume of Ca(OH)2 required for complete
neutralization are respectively. (Assuming complete ionization of H3PO4)
2.0
+
[H ] 1.5
1.0
0.5
0
Volume of Ca(OH)2 added
2 2 4 1
(A) , 500 ml (B) , 1500 ml (C) , 2000 ml (D) , 500 ml
3 3 3 3
Q.2 O2 + FeS2  FeO + SO2 The number of moles of FeS2 required to produce 20 mol electrons to
reduce O2 in the above reaction is -
10 5
(A) 2 (B) 10 (C) (D)
3 3
Q.3 Find the equivalent weight of Sulphur :

S  S2O3–2 + S–2
(A) 32 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 8
Q.4 A sample of hydrazine sulphate (N2H6SO4) was dissolved in 100 ml water 10 ml of this solution was
reacted with excess of FeCl3 solution and warmed to complete the reaction. Ferrous ions formed required
M
20 ml of KMnO4 solution.
50
Given : 4Fe+3 + N2H4  N2 + 4Fe+2 + 4H+
MnO4– + 5Fe+2 + 8H+  Mn2+ + 5Fe+3 + 4H2O
The amount in gm of hydrazine sulphate in one litre is :
(A) 1.30 gm (B) 6.5 gm (C) 3.25 gm (D) 8.66 gm

Q.5 Volume of 0.5 M NaOH solution required to titrate 1M, 100 ml H3PO3 solution completely is :
(A) 400 ml (B) 600 ml (C) 300 ml (D) 800 ml
Subjective :
Q.6 20 ml of KMnO4 solution completely reacts with 10 ml solution of 1M FeS2 and 2M CuS to produce
Cu+2, Fe+3, SO2. Calculate Normality of KMnO4 solution?
[Fill you answer by multiplying with 100]
Q.7 Gold from Gold bearing rock can be dissolved with NaCN in presence of oxygen.
Au(s) + NaCN(aq) + O2(g) + H2O(l)  Na[Au(CN)2] (aq) + NaOH(aq)
For 200 kg rock (containing 0.0197 % gold) how many litres of 0.2 M NaCN aqueous solution is
required to dissolve all Gold present in rock.
[Given: Atomic mass of Au = 197]
Q.8 RH2 (cation exchange resin) can replace Ca+2 in a sample of hard water as :
RH2 + Ca+2  RCa + 2H+
1 litre of such hard water is passed through a cation exchange resin bed and the resultant solution
requires 20 ml of 0.5 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. Hardness of water is  × 102 ppm
w.r.t. Ca+2. What is the value of ?
Q.9 36.4 gm V2O5 is dissolved in acid and reduced to V2+ using zinc dust. What volume (in l ) of
0.1 M - I2 solution is needed for complete oxidation of V2+ formed, into V4+ ? (V = 51)
Q.10 The ion A+n is oxidised to AO3– by MnO4– in acidic medium. 2.5 millimoles of A+n require 10 ml of 0.1
M KMnO4. What is value of 'n' ?

CHE MIS TRY
DPP

ST

NO. 08
PARAGRAPH FOR QUESTION NO. (1) TO (3)
Hard water contains soluble salts of calcium and magnessium which form precipitates with the carboxilate
ion present in soap according to the equation.
2RCOONa + Ca2+ / Mg2+  (RCOO)2 Ca/Mg + 2Na+
On the basis of removal of hardness, it can be of two types :
(1) Temporary hardness (2) Permanent hardness
(1) Temporary hardness : It is due the presence of bicarbonate of calcium and magnesium in water.
It is easily removed by following processes :
(a) By boiling of water : M(HCO3)2   MCO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
(b) By the addition of Na2CO3 : Ca(HCO3)2 + Na2CO3  CaCO3(s) + 2NaHCO3
(c) Clarke's process : By the addition of exact amount of Ca(OH)2, because excess will also impart
hardness in water. Ca(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  2CaCO3 + 2H2O
Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(OH)2  MgCO3 + CaCO3 + 2H2O
(2) Permanent hardness : It is due the presence of chlorides and sulphates of Ca2+ and Mg2+. It can not
be removed by boiling or by the addition of Ca(OH)2, so it can be done by following methods.
(i) By adding Na2CO3 or Na3PO4
CaSO4 + Na2CO3  CaCO3 + Na2SO4
3CaCl2 + 2Na3PO4  Ca3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl
(ii) Ion exchange resins process
2RnH + Ca2+  (Rn)2Ca + 2H+
cation
exchanger resin
(iii) Permutit process
Ca   Na 2 Z 
 CaZ  2 Na   
 Na 2 Z is the sodiumzeolite 
Mg 2  Na 2 Z 
 MgZ  2 Na   ( Na 2 Al 2Si 2O8 , H 2 O ) 
(iv) Calgon (calcium gone) process : Na6(PO3)6 is called calgon which is written as Na2 [Na4(PO3)6]
[Na4(PO3)6]2– + M2+  [Na2M(PO3)6]2– + 2Na+ [where M = Ca2+/Mg2+]
(3) Degree of Hardness : Degree of hardness defined as number of parts by mass of CaCO3 (or its
equivalent equantities of other substance) present in million parts of mass of water.
For example the hardness of waste water 150 ppm (in terms of CaSO4), means 106 gm of given water
sample contain 150 gm of CaSO4. If, nothing is specified after degree of hardness of water, it is to be
understood that, it is the hardness in terms of CaCO3.
 Mass of CaCO 3 6
Hardness of water =  Mass of water 10  ppm
 

Q.1 One litre sample of hard water contains 1 mg of CaCl2 and 1 mg of MgCl2. Then the total hardness in
terms of parts of CaCO3 per 106 parts of water by mass is :
(A) 1.954 ppm (B) 1.260 (C) 0.946 (D) None of these
Q.2 Consider the temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of Ca(HCO3)2 and spacific gravity of
hard water is 1. Then the weight of CaO required for 106 litre of water remove the temporary hardness
of 1000 ppm is :
(A) 3.6 × 104 gm (B) 6.5 × 104 gm (C) 5.6 × 105 gm (D) 8.5 × 105 gm
Q.3 For a given sample of water containing the following impurities.

Mg(HCO3)2 = 73 mg/L, Ca(HCO3)2 = 162 mg/L, CaSO4 = 136 mg/L
MgCl2 = 95 mg/L, CaCl2 = 111 mg/L and NaCl = 100 mg/L
Then the total hardness (temporary and permanent) of above water sample is :
(A) 300 ppm (B) 350 ppm (C) 450 ppm (D) 500 ppm
Q.4 A sample of hard water contain 20 mg of Ca2+ ions per litre. How many milli equivalent of Na2CO3
would be required to soften 1 litre of the sample?
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.2 (D) 1
Q.5 The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for exchanging ions in wat er
softening is C8H7SO3Na (Mol. wt. 206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca2+ ions by the resin
when expressed in mole per gram resin ?
2 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
309 412 103 206
Q.6 The reagent(s) used for softening the temporary hardness of water is(are)
(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaOCl
Subjective :
Q.7 RH2 (cation exchange resin) can replace Ca+2 in a sample of hard water as :
RH2 + Ca+2  RCa + 2H+
1 litre of such hard water is passed through a cation exchange resin bed and the resultant solution
requires 20 ml of 0.5 M NaOH solution for complete neutralization. Hardness of water is  × 102 ppm
w.r.t. Ca+2. What is the value of ?
Q.8 A 0.5 g sample containing MnO2 is treated with HCl, liberating Cl2. The Cl2 is passed into a solution of
KI and 30.0 mL of 0.1 M Na2S2O3 are required to titrate the liberated iodine. Calculate the percentage
of MnO2 in the sample (Mn = 55)
Q.9 0.19 mole of CuSO4 was added to excess of KI solution and liberated I2 was reacted with hypo. How
much volume (in ml) of 1M Hypo is required to react completely with liberated I2.
CuSO4 + KI  Cu2I2 + I2 + K2SO4

I2 + Na2S2O3  Na2S4O6 + NaI
Q.10 An equimolar mixture of CuO & Cu2O is titrated with 100 ml 0.1 M KMnO4 solution in acidic
medium. Calculate millimoles of Cu2+ in final solution.

ANSWER KEY
DPP-1
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (D)
9. (1) + (2) + 2 (3) + 2.5 (4) –2 (5) +2, –3
(6) +4 (7) –1 (8) +2 (9) + 4 (10) +8
(11) –2 (12) +5 (13) +2, –3 (14) –3, +2 (15) +2, +1
(16) +8 (17) +2 (18) – 2,+ 4 (19) +8 (20) –2, +2, –3
DPP-2
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4 (B) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B)
DPP-3
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (C)
DPP-4
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (B)
DPP-5
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (A) 15. (B)
DPP-6
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (C)
DPP-7
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. 1150 7. 2 8. 2 9. 4 10. 3
DPP-8
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B)
6. (B) 7. 2 8. 26.1% 9. 190 10. 75

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C H E MIS T R Y

TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

1. 1 mole by definition represents same number of particles as :

(B) Number of molecules in exactly 2 g of H2 gas.

(D) Number of atoms present in exactly 12 g of 126 C isotope.

2. The weight of a molecule of the compound C6H12O6 is about :

5. The charge on 1 gram of Al3+ ions is : (e = magnitude of electronic charge)

7. In which of the following pairs, do 1 g of each have an equal number of molecules ?

9. Total number of neutrons present in 4 g of heavy water (D2O) is : (Where NA represents

(A) (1 – s), (2 – r), (3 – p), (4 – q) (B) (1 – q), (2 – s), (3 – p), (4 – r)

12. 124 g of P4 will contain which of the following :

TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

4. Which of the following has least mass?

5. Which of the following has least mass?

6. Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms?

TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

1. 360 amu of Glucose (C6H12O6) contains :

2. Equal mass of O2 and O3 gases contain the same number of :

5. Number of gm molecules of (NH4)2Cr2O7 present in the sample if mass of hydrogen obtained

9. What is the number of gram atoms of oxygen in 6.023 ×1024 CO-molecule.

12. Match the column :

A 1 mole (NH4)2 CO3 p moles of carbon atom is less than 1

at least two elements have same number of atoms in

D 1 mole C9N6 s Number of neutron and protons are not same.

t moles of nitrogen atom is greater than 1.

TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO. 7

8. Which of the following options correctly represents gases A, B and C respectively?

9. What is the molar ratio of A : B: C?

10. What would be the average molar mass of mixture.

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO. 8

TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

3. For the following reaction if equal mass of A and B are taken :

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Paragraph for question nos. 7 & 8

10. Carbon dioxide is end product of metabolism as shown :

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

4. Which statement is false for the balanced equation given below ?

7. 2PbS + 3O2  2PbO + 2SO2

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

4. When 280 gm of ethylene polymerises to polyethylene according to the equation:

n (CH2 = CH2)  —(CH 2  CH2 —

5. NX is produced by the following steps of reactions

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8. Number of moles of NH3 produced if 140 gm of N2 reacts with 40 gm of hydrogen.

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

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TARGET : JEE(MAIN + ADVANCED)

2. The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) is:

5. α-particles are represented by:

6. Which of the following is correct statement?

7. If the volume of nucleus of an atom V is related to its mass number A as V ∝ An according to

8. Which of the following pairs has different values of e/m :

9. A wavelength of 400 nm of an electromagnetic radiation is corresponding to :