14/05/2023 Code-B

CF+OYMW(P1)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B) Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electric Charges & Fields
Chemistry : The Solid State
Botany : Reproduction in Organisms
Zoology : Reproduction in Organisms

General Instructions :
(i) There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A
& only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(ii) Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, -1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
(iii) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(iv) Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
(v) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(vi) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(vii) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. A particle of mass 1 kg and carrying a 3. The total electric flux through an area 5 m2
charge of 2 µC is released in a region of lying in y-z-plane due to electric field
uniform electric field of 106 N/C. →
ˆ
ˆ ˆ
Acceleration of particle is E = (10 i + 58 j + 10k) N/C is
(1) 1 m/s2
(1) 10 Nm2 /C
(2) 2 m/s2
(2) 58 Nm2 /C
(3) 1 m/s2
2 (3) 290 Nm2 /C
(4) m/s2
1

4
(4) 50 Nm2 /C

2. Two point charges 2 μC and 18 μC are

separated by 6 cm. The neutral point is
(1) 1.5 cm from 18 μC charge
(2) 4.5 cm from 18 μC charge
(3) 4.5 cm from 2 μC charge
(4) 3 cm from 2 μC charge

1
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

4. The electric dipole moment of the system as 9. Electric field due to a point charge varies
shown in the figure is with distance r from the location of charge,
as
(1) r
(2) r2
(3) 1

(4) 1

2
r

10. Which of the following properties is not

(1) qa possessed by a charge?
(2) 2qa (1) Quantization of charge
(3) Zero (2) Closed electric field lines
–
(4) √2qa
(3) Conservation of charge
(4) Repulsion between like charges
5. Find the force on uniformly charged rod by a
point charge P as shown in figure. 11. The magnitude of electric field strength E
such that an e– placed in it would
experience an electrical force equal to its
weight is given by
(1) mge
(1) 36 × 109 N (2) eg
2m

(2) 4.5 × 109 N (3) e

mg

(3) 18 × 109 N
(4) mg

j
(4) 9 × 109 N
e

6. The distance between two point charges is

1
12.
ra
Three equal point charges q each, are
placed at the vertices of an equilateral
made 4 of its initial value. The new force triangle of side a. The net electric field at the
rth
between them will become centroid of triangle is
(1) 16 times (1) Zero
(2) 4 times (2) √3 q
2
4πε0 a
(3) 1
times
(3) q
ia

16
2
4πε0 a
(4) 1
times
4
(4) √2 q

2
4πε0 a
@

7. A particle of mass 2 kg and charge 1 μC is

released in a uniform electric field 1000 N/C.
13. If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight
The kinetic energy attained by particle after
moving a distance 2 m is (1) Remain precisely constant
(1) 1.5 × 10–3 J (2) Increases slightly
(3) Decreases slightly
(2) 4 × 10–3 J
(4) May increase slightly or may decrease
(3) 1 × 10–3 J slightly
(4) 2 × 10–3 J
14. An α-particle is moving with constant velocity
8. Which of the following is correct about along z-axis. If a uniform electric field is
electrostatic field? applied along x-axis, then its path will be
(1) It is conservative (1) A circle
(2) It may provide centripetal force (2) A parabola
(3) Electrostatic field lines never intersect (3) An ellipse
(4) All of these (4) A straight line

2
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

15. An infinitely long straight conductor wire has 19. A circular wire loop of radius a carries a total
linear charge density of 4π ∈0 c/m . At 10 charge Q distributed uniformly over its
cm from it the electric field intensity is length. A small length dL of the wire is cut
(1) 20 N/C off. The electric field at the centre due to the
remaining wire, is
(2) 2 N/C
(1) QdL
(3) 0.2 N/C 8π
2
ε0 a
3

(4) 200 N/C (2) QdL

2 3
π ε0 a

16. (3) QdL

2 3
4π ε0 a

(4) QdL

2 3
2π ε0 a

20. Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a

l
Charge q is placed at the centre of a straight line of length l at points 0, and l
2
conducting isolated shell, as shown in the respectively. What should be Q in order to
figure. Distribution of charge on inner and make net force on q to be zero?
outer surface of shell is
(1) –q
(1) Uniform on inner and non uniform on
outer (2) –2q
(2) Uniform on both surfaces (3) 4q
(3) Non uniform on inner surface and (4) −q

2
uniform on outer
(4) Non uniform on both inner and outer
surface 21. The electric field at a distance R/2 from the
centre of a conducting sphere will be (where
R is the radius of sphere and Q is the charge
17. An electric dipole, when held at 60° with on sphere)
respect to a uniform electric field 104 N/C, (1) Zero
– −24
experiences a torque of √3 × 10 Nm . (2) Q

Calculate dipole moment of the dipole. 8πε0 R

(1) 4 × 10–21 C-m (3) Q

4πε0 R

(2) 2 × 10–8 C-m

(4) Q

(3) 2 × 10–28 C-m 2πε0 R

–
(4) √3 × 10
−16
C-m
22. A solid sphere of radius R has a charge q
distributed in its volume with a charge
18. Two concentric spheres A and B exist in density ρ = 2r. (Where r is the distance from
space as shown in the figure. A charge q lies R
its centre) the electric field at r = 2 is
at the common centre of the spheres. The
ratio of electric flux through sphere A to that (1) 8R
2

through B is ε0

(2) 2R
2

ε0

(3) R
2

2ε0

(4) R
2

8ε0

23. →
A short dipole of moment p = 2ˆi nC m is
placed at the origin. The electric field due to
this dipole at a point (0, 2, 0) m is
(1) 5.25^i
N

C
(1) 1:1
(2) ^
−5.0 i
N

(2) 1:2 C

(3) 2:1 (3) ^

−2.25 i
N

C
(4) 4:1
(4) ^
2.25 i
N

3
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

24. An electric dipole placed in a uniform
electric field
(1) Always experience a torque
(2) Always experience a force
(3) May experience a force and a torque
(4) May experience a torque but not force
25. Four point charges are placed at the corners
of a square having side L as shown in the
figure
28. Which of the following statement about
electric dipole is incorrect?
(1) The dimensions of dipole moment is
[LTA]
(2) The SI unit of dipole moment is C m
(3) Dipole moment is vector quantity and
directed from negative charge to
positive charge
(4) Dipole moment is a scalar quantity and
has magnitude equal to the charge on
the dipole

29. A particle of mass 10 mg is in equilibrium in

a vertical electric field E⃗ = 105 ^
j . The

charge on the particle is (take

→
ˆ
g = −10 j m/s
2
)
(1) 1 C
(2) 1 mC
(3) 1 nC
(4) 1 µC

Net force on the charged particle placed at

30. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of
centre ‘O’ of the square will be along
30º with an electric field of intensity 2 × 105
(1) Line BD
N/C. It experiences a torque of 4 N m. What
(2) Line BC is the charge on dipole if dipole length is 2
(3) Line AC cm?
(4) Zero (1) 8 mC
(2) 4 mC
26. Two equal and opposite charges are placed (3) 8 μC
at a certain distance apart. Force between (4) 2 mC
them has a magnitude F. If 8% of one charge
is transferred to the other, then the force
between them will now be 31. Two point charges of +3 μC and +4 μC repel
each other with a force of 16 N. If each is
(1) Equal to F
given an additional charge of 6 μC, the new
(2) Less than F force is
(3) Greater than F (1) 6 N
(4) Zero (2) 12.5 N
(3) 120 N
27. The electric field lines distribution due to two (4) 16 N
charges is shown in the figure. Which of the
following is correct?
32. Three charges q, q and – q are placed at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown
in figure. The net electric field at centroid of
triangle is

(1) ∣q ∣
∣ A∣ > ∣q ∣
∣ B∣

(2) ∣q ∣
∣ A∣ < ∣q ∣
∣ B∣

(3) ∣q ∣
∣ A∣ = ∣q ∣
∣ B∣

(4) 2∣ ∣
∣qA ∣ < ∣q ∣
∣ B∣ q
(1) 1

2
4πε0 a

(2) 1 2q

2
4πε0 a

(3) 1 4q

2
4πε0 a

(4) 1 6q

2
4πε0 a

4
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

33. Distribution of electric field lines due to point 35. If the magnitude of electric flux entering and
charges A and B is shown in the figure. leaving an enclosed surface respectively is
Which one of the following is correct 4ϕand ϕ. The electric charge inside the
statement? closed surface will be
(1) –3 ϕε0
(2) 3 ϕε0
(3) 5 ϕε0
(4) –5 ϕε0

(1) A is positive and B is negative and |A| >

|B|
(2) A is negative and B is positive and |A| =
|B|
(3) Both A and B are negative but |A| > |B|
(4) Both A and B are positive but |A| > |B|

34. An electric dipole when placed in uniform

electric field has zero potential energy. The
angle between dipole moment and electric
field is
(1) Zero
π
(2)
6

(3) π
π
(4)
2

SECTION-B

36. A : If a proton and electron are placed in the 37. Four equal free charges Q each are kept at
same uniform electric field. They experience four corners of a square of side l and a
same acceleration charge q0 is kept at its centre so that whole
R : Electric force acting on electron and system is in equilibrium. The charge q0 is
proton has same direction
(1) q0 = −
Q –
[1 + 2√2]
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and 3

the reason is the correct explanation of (2)

–
q0 = −Q[1 + 2√2]
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) q0 = −
Q –
[1 + 2√2]
2
the reason is not the correct
(4) Q –
explanation of the assertion q0 = −
4
[1 + 2√2]

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason

is false
38. The insulating property of air breaks down at
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
the intensity of electric field 3 × 106 V/m. The
statements
maximum charge that can be given to a
sphere of diameter 5 m is about
(1) 2 × 10–5 C
(2) 2 × 10–3 C
(3) 4 × 10–6 C
(4) 6 × 10–3 C

5
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

39. Charge is distributed non-uniformly in a 43. A block of charge q and mass m, lying on a
spherical region such that charge density is smooth horizontal surface is connected to a
given as spring of constant K. The other end of the
ρ = (
ρ0
)r for r ≤ R
spring is fixed, as given in figure. The block
R
is initially at rest in its equilibrium position. If
ρ = 0 for r > R a uniform electric field E is applied. Then the
R = Radius of sphere maximum speed is
r = Radial distance from the centre of the
sphere
ρ0 = constant
Total charge present on the sphere is
(1) q = πR3 ρ −−
0 (1) qE √
m

(2) q =
3
πR ρ0
3
K

2
(2) qE

(3) q =
3
πR ρ0
3
√mK
4
−
− −−
(4) 2 3 (3) qE √mK
q = πR ρ0
5 −−
(4) K
qE √
m

40. A hypothetical spherical sphere of radius R

is placed in uniform electric field E. The
inward electric flux through the sphere is 44. Electric field in a region is given by
⃗ ^ ^ ^
E = (6 i + 2 j + 4k)unit. The electric flux
(1) 2πR2 E through a surface of area 50 units in xy-
plane is
(2) 4πR2 E
(1) 100 units
(3) –πR2 E
(2) 150 units
(4) –4πR2 E (3) 200 units
(4) 400 units
41. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a
rod of length 2l. Consider cube of edge l with 45. An electric dipole placed in a uniform
the centre of cube at one end of the rod. The electric field of magnitude 2 N/C,
minimum possible electric flux through the experiences a maximum torque of
surface of the cube is
magnitude 5 × 10–3 N m. If the charges of
(1) Q the dipole have a magnitude of 2 mC, then
4ε0
the length of the dipole is
(2) 2Q
(1) 2 m
ε0

(3) Q
(2) 6 m
2ε0 (3) 2.5 m
(4) Q
(4) 1.25 m
ε0

46. A spring mass system has time period T of

42. Two infinite plane sheets, separated by a its oscillations. It is now suspended above a
distance d having equal and opposite large horizontal metal sheet with uniformly
uniform charge density σ. Electric field at a distributed positive charge. If mass is given
point between the sheets is some positive charge, then its new time
(1) Zero period of oscillation will be
(2) εσ (1) T
0

(2) > T
(3) σ

4ε0
(3) < T
(4) σ
(4) Depends on A (amplitude)
2ε0

47. Force acting between two point charges A

and B with charge + 2Q and –Q separated
by distance R is F and if 50% charge of A is
transferred to B. Force between them when
separated by 2R is
(1) F
(2) 2F
(3) Zero
(4) F
2

6
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

48. Two point charges 1 µC and 9 µC are placed 50. A ring of radius 'R' having charge '2q'
at x = 0 m and x = 4 m on x-axis respectively. uniformly distributed over it passes through
The position between the two charges a sphere of same radius in such a way that
where net electric field is zero is centre of sphere lies at circumference of ring
(1) x = 1 m and centre of ring lies at surface of sphere.
Then flux linked with sphere is
(2) x = 2 m
(1) q
(3) x = 1.5 m 3ε0

(4) x = 1.25 m (2) q

2ε0

(3) 2q

49. A short electric dipole is enclosed by a 3ε0

Gaussian surface S. The electric flux

(4) q

passing through surface S is 4ε0

(1) Zero
(2) Data insufficient
(3) P
ε0

(4) 2P

ε0

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. The incorrect statement about Frenkel defect 53. If N is the number of atoms in the unit cell
is that represents the close packing sequence
(1) Other name of this defect is dislocation ABC ... ABC..., then the number of
defect tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to
(2) Density of crystal increase due to this (1) N
defect (2) 2N
(3) This defect is shown by the ionic (3) N/2
substance in which there is a large (4) N/4
difference in the size of ions
(4) Density of crystal does not change due
to this defect 54. The coordination number of each type of ion
in CsCl crystal is
(1) 6
52. The compound which shows ferrimagnetism
(2) 8
is
(3) 4
(1) MgFe2 O4
(4) 12
(2) MnO
(3) CrO2
(4) NaCl

7
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

55. A solid AB has CsCl type structure. If the 61. A compound is formed by two elements X
shortest distance between A+ and B– is d, and Y. If X froms cubic close packed
then the edge length of the unit cell is structure and Y occupies one-fourth of
octahedral voids then the formula of the
(1) 2d
compound will be
(2) 2d
√3
(1) XY
(3) 4d
(2) X2 Y
√3 (3) X2 Y3
(4) d
(4) X4 Y
2

56. Which among the following represents the 62. The two ions, A+ and B– have radii 60 pm
correct location(s) of octahedral voids in fcc and 240 pm respectively. In the closed
unit cell? packed crystal of compound AB, the
(1) Edge centre only coordination number of A+ would be
(2) Body centre only (1) 6
(3) Both edge centre and body centre (2) 12
(4) Face centre only (3) 8
(4) 4
57. Covalent solid (network solid) among the
following is 63. If NaCl is doped with 10–3 mol% GaCl3 then
(1) CaF2 the concentration of the cation vacancies
(2) Ice developed per mole of NaCl is
(3) SiC (1) 1.204 × 10+19
(4) Solid H2 (2) 12.04 × 10+19
(3) 1.806 × 10+19
58. Minimum distance between two octahedral (4) 18.01 × 10+19
void in ccp lattice is
(1) a
(2) a 64. Incorrect statement about amorphous solids
√2 is
(3) a
(1) They are isotropic in nature
2

(4) 3a
(2) They have short range order
√2 (3) They are also called super cooled
liquid
59. If a metal crystallises in a body centred cubic (4) They have sharp melting point
lattice with unit cell edge length of 400 pm
then the radius of the metal atom will be 65. Solid AB2 has fluorite type structure,
(1) 141.4 pm
coordination number of A2+ and B– are
(2) 282.8 pm respectively
(3) 173.2 pm (1) 4 and 8
(4) 200 pm (2) 8 and 4
(3) 4 and 4
60. In metal excess defect, excess of lithium (4) 8 and 8
makes LiCl crystals
(1) Pink
66. Which of the following solid cannot show
(2) Blue Frenkel defect?
(3) Yellow (1) ZnS
(4) Green (2) AgCl
(3) AgI
(4) NaCl

8
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

67. For tetragonal crystal system, axial angles 73. Stoichiometric defects, impurity defects and
(α, β, γ ) are non-stoichiometrics defects are type of
(1) Line defects
(1) α = β = 90° and γ = 120°
(2) Point defects
(2) α = β = γ ≠ 90°
(3) Electronic defects
(3) α = β = γ = 90° (4) All of these
(4) α = γ = 90° and β ≠ 120°

74. Atoms occupying edge centre, face centre

and corner of the cube respectively are
68. A metal forms BCC crystalline structure. If
edge length of the unit cell of the crystal is
400 pm then the density of the crystal will be
(NA = 6.0 × 1023 ; Atomic mass of metal =
120 u)
(1) 7.5 g cm–3
(2) 2.5 g cm–3
(3) 4.75 g cm–3
(1) Y, Z, X
(4) 6.25 g cm–3
(2) X, Y, Z
(3) Y, X, Z
69. Packing efficiency of body centred cubic unit (4) Z, X, Y
cell is
(1) 52%
75. The number of unoccupied octahedral and
(2) 68%
tetrahedral voids per unit cell of diamond is
(3) 74% respectively
(4) 26% (1) 8 & 4
(2) 16 & 8
70. In which of the following substances, the (3) 6 & 12
alignment of magnetic moments is same as (4) 4 & 4
represented below?
↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
(1) CrO2 76. Which one of the following has largest gap
between filled valence band and the next
(2) O2 higher unoccupied band?
(3) Fe (1) Aluminium
(4) MnO (2) Iron
(3) Si doped with As
71. A+B– is an ionic solid having rock salt (4) Glass
structure. If all ions present on any of two
opposite faces are removed, then the
77. Percentage fraction of edge occupied by
formula of compound is
atoms in simple cubic unit cell is
(1) A3 B7
(1) 20%
(2) A4 B3 (2) 80%
(3) AB (3) 95.5%
(4) A16 B15 (4) 100%

72. In a crystal, if atoms A are present at corners 78. In which of the following structure, the
and atoms B are present at face centre of the coordination number of cation is not equal to
cube, then what is the simplest formula of 8?
crystal if all the atoms along one of the axes
(1) CsCl
passing through opposite face centre are
removed? (2) CaF2
(1) A2 B (3) BaF2
(2) AB2 (4) Li2 O
(3) AB
(4) A3 B4

9
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

79. In an ionic solid, oxide ions form ccp lattice. 82. A metal crystallizes into a HCP lattice. What
One-fourth of the tetrahedral voids are percentage by volume of this lattice has
occupied by the cations of A and half of the empty space?
octahedral voids are occupied by the cations (1) 74%
of B. The formula of compound is
(2) 26%
(1) A2 B2 O3
(3) 20%
(2) AB2 O2
(4) 16%
(3) A2 BO2
(4) ABO2 83. Ionic solid among the following is
(1) AlN
80. Number of atoms in cubic end-centred unit (2) SiO2
cell is (3) Fe
(1) 3 (4) CaF2
(2) 2
(3) 1
84. Incorrect statement about crystalline solids
(4) 4 is
(1) They have definite geometrical shape
81. How many unit cells can be made out of 197 (2) They melt at a sharp and characteristic
g sample of gold crystallising in fcc temperature
structure? (Given: Atomic mass of Au = 197
(3) They are isotropic in nature
u)
(4) They are true solids
(1) 4 NA
(2) NA
85. ZnS solid is an example of
(3) NA

4
(1) Ionic solids
(4) 3 NA (2) Polar molecular solids
16 (3) Non-polar molecular solids
(4) Metallic solids

SECTION-B

86. In NaCl structure, the coordination number 88. A : Diamond and zinc blende have similar
of Na+ and Cl– respectively are crystalline structure.
R : Packing efficiency of diamond is 34%.
(1) 8 and 4
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) 4 and 6
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) 6 and 4 the assertion
(4) 6 and 6 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
87. The cubic unit cell of aluminium (molar mass
= 27.0 g mol-1 ) has an edge length of 405 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
pm. Its density is 2.7 g cm–3 . The unit cell is
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Primitive
statements
(2) Face-centered
(3) Body-centered
(4) End-centered

10
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

89. A : Doping of group 15 elements with silicon 95. Atoms of element B form hcp lattice and
forms n-type semiconductor. those of element A occupy two-thirds of
R : The above doping produces free tetrahedral voids. What is the formula of the
electrons in the crystal. compound formed by element A and B?
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (1) A2 B3
the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) A2 B
the assertion
(3) A4 B3
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (4) A3 B4
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
96. Radius ratio for octahedral arrangement in
is false
ionic solids is
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (1) 0.732 – 1.0
statements
(2) 0.225 – 0.414
(3) 0.414 – 0.732
90. Most unsymmetric crystal system is
(4) 0.155 – 0.225
(1) Triclinic
(2) Monoclinic
97. The number of octahedral and tetrahedral
(3) Tetragonal
holes in a hcp array of 250 atoms are
(4) Hexagonal respectively
(1) 250, 250
91. Correct relationship of radius (r) and edge (2) 500, 500
length (a) in face centred cubic unit cell is (3) 250, 500
(1) a = 2 r
–
(4) 500, 250
(2) a = 2√2r
–
(3) √3a = 4r 98. The correct statement regarding solid is
–
(4) a = √2r (1) Cations generally occupy more space
than anion in crystal packing
(2) Graphite is an example of monoclinic
92. Percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied in crystal system
unit cell of NaCl is
(3) Metal deficiency defect can be seen in
(1) Zero
FeO
(2) 100
(4) Schottky defect is also known as
(3) 50 dislocation defect
(4) 25
99. Effective number of atom(s) in primitive cubic
93. Identify the incorrect match. unit cell is
(1) Frenkel defect – Dislocation defect (1) 4
(2) Schottky defect – Vacancy defect (2) 3
(3) Metal deficiency defect – (3) 1
Nonstoichiometric defect (4) 2
(4) Metal excess defect – Stoichiometric
defect
100. According to Bravais total number of
possible 3 D lattices is
94. Which among the following is ferromagnetic (1) 14
substance?
(2) 18
(1) Ni
(3) 10
(2) MnO
(4) 16
(3) Fe3 O4
(4) ZnFe2 O4

11
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. sexual 108. Internal fertilisation does not occur in
reproduction. (1) Bryophytes
(1) It produces variations (2) Angiosperms
(2) It can be both uniparental as well as (3) Gymnosperms
biparental
(4) Most of the algae
(3) It is fast and simple process
(4) It involves meiosis and syngamy
109. Which of the following plants is perennial but
does not show interflowering period?
102. Which among the following is the vital link (1) Grape vine
that ensures continuity of species between
(2) Mango
organisms from one generation to another?
(3) Marigold
(1) Embryo
(4) Some bamboo species
(2) Pollen grain
(3) Meiocyte
(4) Zygote 110. The phenomenon that is included in post
fertilisation event is
(1) Syngamy
103. Cell division is itself a mode of reproduction
(2) Pollination
in
(3) Embryogenesis
(1) All animals
(4) Gametogenesis
(2) Higher plants
(3) All fungi
(4) Protists and Monerans 111. Clone formed by asexual reproduction is
group of
(1) Morphologically similar individuals only
104. Chromosome number of meiocytes in onion
(2) Genetically dissimilar individuals
are
(1) 16 (3) Morphologically similar but genetically
distinct individuals
(2) 8
(4) Both morphologically and genetically
(3) 20 similar individuals
(4) 12
112. Pre-fertilization event consists of
105. Sex organs of Chara are all, except (a) Gametogenesis
(1) Multicelled (b) Gamete transfer
(c) Fusion of gametes
(2) Globule and Nucule
(1) Only (b)
(3) Not covered by jacket
(2) Only (c)
(4) Borne on the adaxial surface of the
short lateral branch almost on each (3) Only (b) and (c)
node (4) Only (a) and (b)

106. Certain bamboo species live vegetatively for 113. If the chromosome number in a gamete of a
years, flower and then die. fern, Ophioglossum is 630, then what will be
The above mentioned feature is also seen the chromosome number in its meiocyte?
in (1) 630
(1) Neelakuranji (2) 1260
(2) Wheat (3) 840
(3) Marigold (4) 1040
(4) China rose
114. Zoospores are
107. In which of the following organisms, asexual (1) Motile spores formed during favourable
reproduction occurs through budding? conditions
(1) Penicillium (2) Non-motile spores formed during
(2) Chlamydomonas favourable conditions
(3) Yeast (3) Thick walled resting spores
(4) Agave (4) Non-flagellated thin walled resting
spores

12
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

115. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. asexual 121. Suckers are produced by
reproduction. (1) Mitotic division
(1) Involves only a single parent (2) Meiotic division
(2) Can occur through specialised or (3) Parthenogenesis
unspecialised part of parent
(4) Gametic union
(3) Gamete formation is always absent
(4) Simple and quick method
122. Specialized structures for vegetative
reproduction in Agave plant are
116. Which of the following features is common (1) Bulbils
between bacteria and Amoeba?
(2) Rhizome
(1) Cytokinesis is followed by karyokinesis
(3) Offset
(2) Presence of nucleolus
(4) Bulb
(3) Asexual reproduction by binary fission
(4) Chromosomes are confined in nucleus
123. Meiosis can occur in all of the following,
except
117. In the following question, a statement of (1) At the time of gamete formation
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(2) During spore formation
reason (R).
A : In diploid organisms, the gamete mother (3) During zygote formation
cell is called meiocyte. (4) In zygote of some haploid algae
R : The meiocyte undergoes mitosis to form
the gametes.
124. Leaves with adventitious buds that help in
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
vegetative reproduction are found in
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (1) Bryophyllum
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) Ananas
the reason is not the correct (3) Sugarcane
explanation of the assertion (4) Opuntia
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
125. Water is not the medium for gamete transfer
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false in
statements
(1) Algae
(2) Angiosperms
118. Main body or parent body is generally
(3) Pteridophytes
haploid (n) in which of the following
organisms? (4) Bryophytes
(1) Algae
(2) Pteridophyte 126. Which of the following is referred as “Terror
(3) Gymnosperm of Bengal”?
(1) Agave
(4) Angiosperm
(2) Pistia
(3) Salvinia
119. Find the odd one w.r.t. vegetative propagules
in angiosperms. (4) Water hyacinth
(1) Bulbil
(2) Rhizome 127. Which of the following is a major advantage
(3) Offset of internal fertilization?
(4) Gametes (1) Since female gamete is motile it can
easily reach the male gamete for
fertilization
120. Which term is applicable to the offspring (2) Significant increase in production of
formed by vegetative reproduction? very large number of sperm cells
(1) Bud (3) Significant reduction in the number of
(2) Vegetative propagule eggs produced
(3) Clone (4) Fertilization can take place in water
(4) Hybrid

13
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

128. Clear cut vegetative, reproductive and 133. A : Organisms can live only for a certain
senescent phases are not shown by which period of time.
of the following plant groups during their life- R : Life-spans of organisms are necessarily
cycle pattern? correlated with their sizes.
(1) Annual plants (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) Biennial plants the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(3) Polycarpic perennials
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(4) Monocarpic perennials the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
129. Vegetative propagation in pineapple occurs (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
by is false
(1) Rhizome (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) Offset statements
(3) Sucker
(4) Runner 134. The site of origin of new plantlets in the
plants like banana and ginger are invariably
the nodes present on the modified stems of
130. All of the following are monoecious plants, these plants because nodes are
except
(1) Non-photosynthetic cells
(1) Cucurbits
(2) Made of non-dividing and permanent
(2) Papaya tissues
(3) Coconut (3) Always in contact with water
(4) Maize (4) Having dividing or meristematic cells

131. Recovery phase will be observed in which of 135. Staminate and pistillate flowers are
the following pairs of plants? produced on two separate plants in
(1) Wheat and rose (1) Maize
(2) Marigold and maize (2) Date palm
(3) Neelakurinji and Agave (3) Cucurbits
(4) Mango and orange (4) China rose

132. In sexually reproducing plants

(1) Gametes are always morphologically
distinct types
(2) There is involvement of two parents
always
(3) Gametes are always haploid
(4) Seeds are formed only after fertilisation

SECTION-B

136. During encystation, Amoeba withdraws its
pseudopodia and secretes
(1) a three-layered hard covering or cyst
around itself
(2) a two-layered hard covering or cyst
around itself
(3) Multiple cysts of single layered
covering
(4) Single cysts of single layered covering
137. Eichhornia was introduced in India because
of
(1) Its high yielding capacity
(2) Its edible fruits
(3) Its beautiful flowers and shape of
leaves
(4) Its ability to grow in dry and arid region
138. Mass flowering of Strobilanthus kunthiana is
seen in hilly areas of
(1) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
(2) Meghalays, Mixoram and Nagaland
(3) Odisha and West Bengal
(4) Kerala, Karnataka and Tamilnadu

14
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

139. The reproductive phase 147. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t.
(1) Is also called juvenile phase reproduction
(2) Is of variable duration in different (1) It enables the continuity of species,
organisms generation after generation
(3) Is found only in higher plants (2) It gives rise to offspring similar to the
organism
(4) Does not include any physiological
changes in our body (3) It does not depend on the habitat of an
organism
(4) Its mechanism depends on the
140. The process that facilitates transfer of pollen internal's physiology of an organism
grains to the stigma is
(1) Fertilization
148. Consider the following image
(2) Syngamy
(3) Pollination
(4) Gametogenesis

141. Male flowers of angiosperm are called

(1) Staminate
(2) Pistilate
(3) Antherozoid
(4) Archegonium

142. During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes

(1) Cell division only
(2) Meiosis
(3) Cell division and cell differentiation
(4) Cell differentiation only

In the above diagram, A represents

143. Every sexually reproducing organism begin
(1) Conidia
life as a/an
(1) Zygote (2) Zoospore
(2) Ovum (3) Bud
(3) Gamete (4) Offset
(4) Spore
149. A : Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation
show great synchrony between sexes.
144. In flowering plants, zygote is formed B : Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation
(1) Inside ovule release a large number of gametes in the
(2) In water medium
In the light of above statements, choose the
(3) In stamen
correct option
(4) At nodes
(1) Only B is correct
(2) Only A is correct
145. The end of reproductive phase can be (3) Both A and B are incorrect
considered as one of the parameter of
(4) Both A and B are correct
(1) Increased fertility
(2) Vegetative phase
150. After fertilization
(3) Juvenile phase
(1) Pistil remains attached to the plant
(4) Senescence or old age
(2) Stamens remains attached to the plant
(3) Ovules develops into pericarp
146. A haploid parent produces gametes by
(4) Seeds develops into pericarp
(1) Reduction division
(2) Mitosis
(3) Meiosis
(4) Binary fission

15
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. Read the following statements and choose 156. Chances of survival of young ones is
the correct option. greatest in case of
Statement-A : Life span of organisms are (1) Ovoviviparous animals
necessarily correlate with their sizes.
(2) External fertilization
Statement-B : Life span of cow is maximum
in animal kingdom. (3) Oviparous animals
(1) Both statements are correct (4) Viviparous animals
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct 157. Which of the following is a unisexual
(4) Only statement B is correct organism?
(1) Leech
(2) Earthworm
152. Choose the mismatch w.r.t. life span.
(1) Crocodile - 180 years (3) Tapeworm
(2) Crow - 15 years (4) Cockroach
(3) Parrot - 140 years
(4) Tortoise - 100 to 150 years 158. In contrast to asexual reproduction, sexual
reproduction
(1) Is a faster way to produce offspring
153. Read the following statements. Choose the
(2) Involves gamete formation and fusion
correct option.
Statement A – Life span can be defined as (3) Is less efficient at removing harmful
the period from birth to the natural death of mutations from a population
an organism. (4) Limits genetic variety among members
Statement B – Maximum life span is the of a population
maximum number of years survived by any
member of a species.
159. Choose the incorrect statements.
(1) Statement A is incorrect.
(1) During embryogenesis, zygote
(2) Both statements are correct. undergoes cell division and cell
(3) Both statements are incorrect. differentiation
(4) Statement B is correct explanation of A (2) In organisms exhibiting internal
fertilization, the male gamete is motile
and has to reach the egg in order to
154. Which of the following animals reproduces
fuse with it
by exogenous budding?
(1) Hydra (3) Syngamy results in the formation of 2
celled embryo without cleavage
(2) Taenia
(4) Zygote is the vital link that ensures
(3) Planaria continuity of species between
(4) Nereis organisms of one generation and the
next
155. Life expectancy is the characteristic of a
__A__ and maximum lifespan is the 160. In non-primate mammals, breeding occurs
characteristic of __B__ Select the option during
which fill the blanks correctly. (1) Menopause
(1) A – Population, B – Species (2) Oestrous cycle
(2) A – Species, B – Population (3) Menstrual cycle
(3) A – Species, B – Individual (4) Anoestrous cycle
(4) A – Population, B – Individual

16
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

161. Read the following given statement A and 168. Gametogenesis and gamete transfer are
statement B and choose the correct option. (1) Pre-fertilization events
Statement A : Budding and gemmule
(2) Fertilization events
formation are asexual methods of
reproduction seen in lower animals. (3) Post fertilization events
Statement B : Zygote is the vital link that (4) Events during senescence
ensures continuity of species between
organisms of one generation and the next.
169. Proper embryonic care and protection
(1) Both the statements are incorrect
increase chances of survival of young ones
(2) Both the statements are correct in
(3) Statement A is incorrect (1) All animals that live on land
(4) Statement B is incorrect (2) All animals that live in water
(3) Terrestrial but oviparous animals
162. An organism that exhibits encystment and (4) Terrestrial but viviparous animals
sporulation is
(1) Amoeba
170. Encystation is an asexual mode of
(2) Sycon reproduction in Amoeba. It occurs during
(3) Paramoecium (1) Favourable conditions
(4) Obelia (2) Unfavourable conditions
(3) In both favourable and unfavourable
163. Which one is not the feature of asexual conditions
reproduction w.r.t sexual reproduction. (4) Unfavourable condition only after
(1) It is more complex than sexual sexual reproduction
reproduction.
(2) It is uniparental. 171. Cyclic changes during reproduction in dogs
(3) The young ones are exact replicas of and tigers is called
the parent. (1) Oestrous cycle
(4) It is a rapid mode of reproduction. (2) Menstrual cycle
(3) Oestrous and menstrual cycle
164. Significance of cyst formation in Amoeba is respectively
(1) Dissemination and aggregation (4) Metagenesis
(2) Aggregation and perennation
(3) Perennation and dissemination 172. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t.
(4) Aggregation and agglutination chromosome number in diploid cells of
organism.
(1) Dog – 78
165. Which of the following is not included in
(2) Housefly – 12
post-fertilization events?
(1) Gastrulation (3) Fruit fly – 4
(2) Cleavage (4) Rat – 42
(3) Embryogenesis
(4) Gametogenesis 173. Somatogenic or asexual reproduction is not
shown by
(1) Hydra
166. Drones of Apis are
(2) Sycon
(1) Sterile males
(3) Ascaris
(2) Fertile males
(4) Planaria
(3) Sterile females
(4) Fertile females
174. Identify the incorrect match
(1) Amoeba – Sporulation
167. Which of the following is a hermaphrodite?
(2) Paramoecium – Binary fission
(1) Cockroach
(3) Macaca – Oestrous cycle
(2) Earthworm
(4) Homo sapiens – Continuous breeder
(3) Ascaris
(4) Apis

17
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

175. The females exhibit cyclical changes in the 180. Choose the correct match w.r.t. approximate
activities of ovary and accessory ducts as life spans of some organisms.
well as hormones during the reproductive a. Butterfly (i) 2 weeks
phase and also perform menstruation at
b. Parrot (ii) 140 years
regular intervals. These cyclical changes
occur in c. Tortoise (iii) 100 to 150
years
(1) All vertebrates
d. Crow (iv) 15 years
(2) females of all placental mammals
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Only in mammalian females other than
primates (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(4) Only in primates (3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
176. Read the following statements and choose
the correct option 181. Which of the following structure is
Statement-A : Cockroach is a monoecious considered vital link that ensures continuity
organism. of species between organism of one
Statement-B : The process of formation of generation and the next?
gametes is included in fertilisation events. (1) Zygote
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Chromosome
(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Male gamete
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Female gamete
(4) Only statement B is correct

182. Gemmule formation in sponges is a type of

177. Choose the statement that is not true w.r.t. (1) Endogenous budding
embryogenesis
(2) Exogenous budding
(1) Process of embryo development
(3) Multiple fission
(2) Zygote undergoes cell division and cell
differentiation (4) Fission
(3) Cell divisions decrease the number of
cells in the developing embryo 183. Which of the following is a pre-fertilization
(4) Cell differentiation helps groups of cells event?
to undergo certain modifications to form (1) Gametogenesis
specialised tissues and organs to form (2) Syngamy
an organism
(3) Cleavage
(4) Embryogenesis
178. Amoeba divides by which type of asexual
reproduction?
(1) Budding
(2) Irregular binary fission
(3) Longitudinal binary fission
(4) Fragmentation

179. The sizes of crows and parrots are not very

different yet their life spans show a wide
difference because
(1) No individual is immortal
(2) Life spans of organisms are not
necessarily correlated with their sizes
(3) Mode of reproduction defines life span
of an organism
(4) Continuity of life requires reproduction

18
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

184. Match column I with column II and select the

correct option.
Column
Column I
II
a. Simple binary fission (i) Planaria
Longitudinal binary
b. (ii) Amoeba
fission
Oblique binary
c. (iii) Euglena
fission

Transverse binary
d. (iv) Ceratium
fission

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

185. In which of the following animals syngamy

does occur in the external medium?
(1) Mammals
(2) Reptiles
(3) Birds
(4) Amphibians

SECTION-B

186. Animals that produce cleidoic eggs are 188. Observe the figure given below. Identify ‘A’
(1) Birds and select the correct option.
(2) Amphibians
(3) Fishes
(4) Aschelminthes

187. Slowing of metablism in the body during the

last phase of life span is called
(1) Vegetative change
(2) Concomitant change
(3) Genetic change
(4) Physical change

(1) Testis of earthworm

(2) Testis of male cockroach
(3) Ovary of earthworm
(4) Ovary of female cockroach

189. All sexually reproducing organisms begin

their life as a single cell. This single cell is
(1) Gamete
(2) Zygote
(3) Meiocyte
(4) Oogonia

19
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-1B)

190. Which of the following process helps group 195. Binary fission is a type of
of cells to undergo certain modifications to (1) Sexual reproduction
form specialised tissues and organs?
(2) Asexual reproduction
(1) Cell division
(3) Vegetative propagation
(2) Fertilisation
(4) Parthenogenesis
(3) Cell differentiation
(4) Cell multiplication
196. All the given statements are correct except
(1) Earthworm is hermaphrodite
191. The process of development of embryo from
(2) Gametes are haploid in humans
the zygote is called
(3) Meiocytes are diploid
(1) Organogenesis
(4) Cows have menstrual cycle identical to
(2) Embryogenesis
human females in all aspects.
(3) Syngamy
(4) Parthenogenesis
197. Among the following which one has highest
number of chromosome in its meiocyte?
192. Read the following statements carefully and (1) Rat
select the correction option.
(2) Cat
Statement A : Syngamy results in the
formation of a haploid zygote. (3) Dog
Statement B : The term fertilisation is often (4) Human being
used for syngamy.
(1) Both the statement (A) and (B) are
198. Which of the following is not related to
correct
asexual reproduction?
(2) Both the statements (A) and (B) are
(1) Gemmules
incorrect
(2) Binary fission
(3) Only statement (A) is correct
(3) Sporulation
(4) Only statement (B) is correct
(4) Fertilisation

193. Which of the following events does not occur

during embryogenesis of a female embryo? 199. Oestrous cycle is characteristic of
(1) Mitosis (1) All mammalian females
(2) Cell differentiation (2) Human females
(3) Syngamy (3) Mammalian females other than
primates
(4) Differential expression of genes
(4) All mammals

194. Assertion : In most aquatic organisms

fertilisation is internal.
Reason : In aquatic organisms exhibiting
internal fertilisation, there is great synchrony
between the sexes.
In the light of above statements select the
correct option.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
200. Read the following statements carefully and
choose the option with all correct
statements.
(a) Fusion of gametes is most vital event of
sexual reproduction
(b) In parthenogenesis, male gamete
undergoes development to form new
organism without fertilization
(c) In internal fertilization, syngamy occurs in
the body of organism
(d) Zygote formed may be diploid or haploid
in case of parthenogenesis
(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

20