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in Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)

PART TEST-1
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 19-01-2020
PRE-MEDICAL : SPARK COURSE (PHASE - I )
This Booklet contains 20 pages.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

Important Instructions :

1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with
blue/black ball point pen only.

2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet contains 180 questions. Each question
carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.

4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.

5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this
Test Booklet with them.

6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray
marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified
space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

: in words

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

English / 19012020 Page 1/20

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 TOPIC : Basic Maths, NLM and Friction, Vector and Kinematics, Electrostatics
1. If 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 then graph between x and y is:-
A 2kg
(1) parabola (2) ellipse
8. B 3kg
(3) hyperbola (4) Circle
C 5kg
2. A metallic disc is being heated. Its area A (in m 2)
at any time t (in sec) is given by A = 5t2 + 4t + 8.
In the fig. shown force applied by block C on
Rate of increases of area at t = 3 sec in m2/sec is:-
block B is:-
(1) 14 (2) 34 (3) 24 (4) 30
(1) 30 N (2) 50 N (3) 20 N (4) 100 N
/2
9. A machine gun fires bullets of mass 40 gm each
3. Value of sin 2 x cos 2 x dx is :-
0
with the velocity of 1000 m/sec. If average force
exerted on the gun is 400 N then the number of
(1) Zero (2) 1 (3) /2 (4) 2 bullets fired per minute is :-
4. If y = 9 – (x – 3)2 then maximum value of y is: (1) 60 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 600
(1) 3 (2) 9 (3) 6 (4) 12
10. A rocket of mass 500 kg starts moving upwards
5. Value of cos(–60°) is :- with an acceleration of 2 m/sec 2 then force
applied by exhausting gases on the rocket is
1 1 3 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) (g = 10 m/s2):-
2 2 2 2
(1) 4800 N (2) 6000 N
6. If y = – 2x + 3 then the correct graph is :-
(3) 1000 N (4) 5000 N
y y 11. A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm
moving at a rate of 20 m/sec. If the catching
process be completed in 0.1 sec, then the force of
(1) (2)
x x the blow exerted by ball on the hands of the player
is:-
(1) 0.3 N (2) 30 N (3) 300 N (4) 3000 N
y y 12. Two stones of masses 10 kg and 15 kg are attached
by a rubber cord. The cord is stretched and placed
x x on a horizontal smooth table. If the first stone
(3) (4) moves with an acceleration of 3 m/s 2 , the
acceleration of second is:-
(1) Zero (2) 4.5 m/s2
7. A balloon has 8g of air. A small hole is pierced (3) 5.4 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
into it. the air escapes at a uniform rate of 13. The engine of a car produces an acceleration of
7cm/sec. If the balloon shrinks in 5.6 second, then 4 m/s2 in the car. If this car pulls another car of
the average force applied by air on the balloon is:- same mass, what will be the acceleration
(1) 10–4 N (2) 10–3 dyne produced?
(3) 56 dyne (4) 10–6 N (1) 8 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 1/2 m/s 2

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14. A constant force F 0 starts acting on a stationary 19. The pulley and the string are light and all the
particle of mass m then velocity of particle after surfaces are frictionless. The tension in the string
covering a distance 'd' is :- is :- (g = 10 m/s2)

M 2F0 d
(1) 2Fo d (2)
M 1kg

2F0 d
(3) (4) Zero
M 1kg
15. A force F = (2t + 3t2)N acts on a particle of mass
2kg then change in velocity of particle from (1) 0 N (2) 1 N (3) 2 N (4) 5 N
t = 2 to t = 4 sec is:-
(1) 68 m/sec (2) 34 m/sec 20. If aA and aB are the acceleration produced in case
(3) 30 m/sec (4) 60 m/sec
aA
16. In the system shown in fig. If the two blocks A and B is then the ratio a is :-
moves upwards with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 than B

value of F and T is :-

2kg

4kg m m
F=2mg
2m
(1) 72 N, 48 N (2) 60 N, 48 N
(A) (B)
(3) 60 N, 60 N (4) 72 N, 60 N
17. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. Force P
is applied at one end of rope. The force which the 1
(1) (2) 3 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2
rope exerts on the block is 3

P P 21. If weight of the block is 5N then force exerted by

(1) (2)
M m M(m M) wall on the block is:-

PM PM
(3) (4)
M m M m
18. A lift of mass 1000 kg is moving with an F=12N m = 0.6
acceleration of 1 m/s 2 in upward direction.
Tension developed in the string which is
connected to the lift is (g = 9.8 m/s2):-
(1) 11000 N (2) 9800 N
(3) 10800 N (4) 12000 N (1) 12 N (2) 5 N (3) 13 N (4) 7.2 N

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22. In the fig. shown, if coefficient of friction is , then
m2 will start moving upwards if :-
28. During the first 18 min of a 60 min trip, a car has
an average speed of 11m/s. What should be the
average speed for remaining 42 min so that car is
having and average speed of 21 m/s for the entire
trip ?

2
m
m1 (1) 25.3 m/s (2) 29.2 m/s

(3) 31 m/s (4) 35.6 m/s

m1 m1 29. A particle starts from rest, acceleraties at 2m/s2 for
(1) sin µ cos (2) sin µ cos
m2 m2 10s and then goes for constant speed for 30s and
then decelerates at 4m/s2 till it stops. What is the
m1 m1 distance travelled by it ?
(3) µ sin cos (4) µ sin cos
m2 m2
(1) 750m (2) 800m (3) 700m (4) 850m
23. If there is no slipping between the two blocks, then
the force of friction between two blocks is :- 30. When a ball is thrown up vertically with velcoity
v 0 , it reaches a maximum height of h. If one
2kg wishes to triple the maximum height then the ball
4kg F=18N should be thrown with velocity.

smooth
3
(1) 3v 0 (2) 3v 0 (3) 9v 0 (4) v0
(1) zero (2) 9N 2
(3) 12N (4) 6N
24. The resultant of A and B makes an angle with 31. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity
A and with B, then at half of the height is 10m/s. Then, the maximum
(1) < (2) > if A < B height attained by it is (g = 10m/s2 )
(3) < if A = B (4) < if A < B
(1) 16m (2) 10m (3) 20m (4) 40m
25. If P Q R and P Q 3 and R = 3, then
32. The acceleration a in m/s2 , of a particle is given
the angle between P and Q is : by a = 3t2 + 2t + 2 where t is the time. If the particle
starts out with a velocity v = 2m/s at t = 0, then
(1) (2) (3) (4) the velocity at the end of 2s is
4 6 3 2
(1) 12 m/s (2) 14 m/s
26. An insect crawls a distance of 4 m along north in
10s and then a distance of 3m along east in 5s. (3) 16 m/s (4) 18 m/s
The average velocity of the insect is:
33. A particle moves along a straight line such that its
7 1 1 4 displacement at any time t is given by
(1) m/s (2) m/s (3) m/s (4) m/s
15 5 3 5 s = 3t3 + 7t2 + 14t + 5. The acceleration of the
27. A ball is released from height h and another from particle at t = 1s is :
2h. the ratio of time taken by the two balls to reach
(1) 18m/s2 (2) 32m/s2
the ground is :
(1) 1: 2 (2) 2 :1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 (3) 29m/s2 (4) 24m/s2
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34. The acceleration of a train between two stations 38. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
is shown in the figure. The (train starts from rest)
3 2
speed of the train after 8 sec is :- y 12x x
4
What is the range of the projectile ?
+5 (1) 12m (2) 16m (3) 20m (4) 24m
a 2
(m/s ) 4
39. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a
8 12 16 t(s)
–5 tower with a velocity v0. It will be moving at an
angle of 60° with the horizontal after time.
(1) 60 m/s (2) 30 m/s v0 3v0 v0 v0
(3) 120 m/s (4) 90 m/s (1) (2) (3) (4)
3g g g 2g
35. The velocity-time graph of a body moving in a
40. The range of a projectile when launched at angle
straight line is shown in the figure. The
is same as when launched at angle 2 . What is
displacement and distance travelled by the body
the value of ?
in 6s are respectively
(1) 15° (2) 30° (3) 45° (4) 60°
v(m/s) 41. If time of flight of a projectile is 10s. Range is
5 500m. The maximum height attained by it will be
4
3 (1) 125m (2) 50m (3) 100m (4) 150m
2 42. A glass tumbler contains 1 billion amoeba and two
1 3 sodium ions are there on the body of each amoeba.
0 t(s)
1 2 4 5 6 Find out the charge contained in the glass.
–1
–2 (1) 1.6 × 10–10 (2) 3.2 × 10–10
–3 (3) 4.8 × 10–10 (4) 6 × 10–10
(1) 8m, 16m (2) 16m, 32m 43. How many electrons should be removed from a
(3) 16m, 16m (4) 8m, 18m conductor so that it acquires a positive charge of
36. A particle (A) moves due north at 3km/h another 3.5 nC?
particle (B) due west at 4km/h. The relative (1) 1 × 1010 (2) 2.18 × 1010
3 (3) 5 × 1010 (4) 4.18 × 1010
velocity of A with respect to B is (tan37° = )
4 44. Which of the following charges can not be present
(1) 5 km/h, 37° north of east on an oil drop in Millikan's experiment :–
(2) 5 km/h, 37° east of north (1) 4.0 × 10–19 C (2) 6.0 × 10–19 C
(3) 10.0 × 10–19 C (4) all of them
(3) 5 2 km/h, 53° east of north
45. In nature, the electric charge of any system is
(4) 5 2 km/h, 53° north of east always equal to :
37. A ball is dropped from the top of a building 100m (1) half integral multiple of the least amount of
high. At the same instant another ball is thrown charge
upwards with a velocity of 40ms –1 from the
(2) zero
bottom of the building. The two balls will meet
after (3) square of the least amount of charge
(1) 5s (2) 2.5s (3) 2s (4) 3s (4) integral multiple of the least amount of charge
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 TOPIC : Basic of organic, Nomenclature, Isomerism, GOC-I (till date)
51. Stability order of the following resonating structure
46. Which compound is Hetrocyclic :-
will be -
OH NH2 O O O O O
(1) (2) (3) (4) O
O O O O
NH2 O
47. Which compound is optical active :- (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
H CH3 (1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(1) (3) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (4) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
CH3 CH3 52. E/Z nomenclature of the following compounds is-
CH3 CH3 HC C CH=CH 2
(2) C=C C
H CH3
CH3 CH3 C
(3) H2C=C CH2–CH3
H H
H
NO2 NO2
(1) E
(2) Z
(4)
(3) does not show geometrical isomerism
COOH COOH
48. H-effect is not observed in :- (4) None
53. How many dibromobenzene are possible ?
(1) CH 3 C H 2 (2) CH 3 C H 2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
54. The number of primary, secondary and tertiary amines
•
(3) CH 3 C H 2 (4) CH3 –CH=CH2 possible with the molecular C3H9N respectively -
49. Correct stability order of following resonating (1) 1,2,2 (2) 1,2,1 (3) 2,1,1 (4) 3,0,1
structure :- COOH
OCOH
55.
and
(I) (II) (functional isomers)
OMe OEt
Et
(III) and (metamers)
Me
(1) III > II > I (2) I > II > III CH2–CH2–OH CH2–O–CH3
(3) I > III > II (4) II > I > III
50. What is the hybridization of C1 , C2 , C3 carbon in (metamers)
and
the following compound ?
Me–N–Me CH2–NH–CH3
CH3–CH2–CH=CH–C C–H

1 2 3 and
(1) sp , sp , sp
3 3 3
(2) sp , sp , sp
3 2 2
(functional isomers)
(3) sp3, sp2, sp (4) sp, sp2, sp2 T = True F = False
(1) TFTF (2) FTTF (3) TTFT (4) TFFT
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56. Which is not a first member of given homologus 60. Most stable conformer of 2-Fluoroethanol among
series ? the following :-
(1) Alkadiene CH2 = C = CH2
F F
(2) Alkenyne HC C – CH = CH2 OH
H H H
O (1) (2)
(3) Ethyl ester CH3–C–O–CH2CH3 F
H H H
OH H
O
(4) Ketone CH 3–C–CH3
F F
57. Consider the given statements OH H OH
(i) Acetone and acetaldehyde are homologues. (3) (4)
H H H
(ii) is secondary amine while is a H HH H
N N
H 61. Relation between the given compound is
tertiary amine.

(iii) OH is secondary alcohol while

(1) Positional isomers (2) Chain isomers
is a tertiary alcohol (3) Identical (4) Functional isomers
OH
62. Ratio of - & -bonds in COOH will be-
O O (1) 5 : 3 (2) 3 : 5
(iv) and both have different
Cl (3) 3 : 16 (4) 4 : 15
Cl
63. In which ve charge is not involved in resonance?
functional group.
Which is not incorrect ?
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv) NH3
(3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii), (iv) (1) (2)

OH
CH2–OH CH 3
58. Isomerism between &
(3) (4)

is ? 64. Which can show Geometrical isomerism?

(1) Position (2) Chain
CH3 H Cl Cl
(3) Functional (4) Metamer (1) C C (2) C C
CH3 H Br Br
59. The number of geometrical isomers for
(CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH–CH=CH2) is Cl CH3 I D
(3) C C (4) C C
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 Cl H I D
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65. Which of the following has Z-configuration? 72. Most stable conformer :-
CH3 CH2CH3 Br H OH OH
(1) C C (2) C C H
H H Cl D H H
(1) (2)
H
D COOH Cl Br H H OH H
C C C C OH H
(3) (4)
H OH F I OH
66. The number of Geometrical isomer in given H OH
compound? (3) (4) None
H H H

73. Which of the following is/are aromatic :-

(1) 4 (2) 1
(3) 3 (4) 2
67. Correct order of –I groups is
(1) N (2) B
(1) –F > –NO2 > –COOH > –OH
(2) –F > –COOH > –OH > –NO2 H H
(3) –NO2 > –COOH > –F > –OH
(4) –COOH > –OH > –F > –NO2
(3) (4) Both (2) & (3)

68. (A) (B) 74. Match list I & list II & select the correct answer:-
(1) CnH2n (A) Alcohols, ethers
What is the relation between A and B.
(2) CnH2n–2 (B) alkenes, cycloalkanes
(1) Position isomers (2) Chain isomers
(3) C nH2n+2O (C) aldehydes, ketones
(3) Identical (4) Metamers
(4) C nH2nO (D) alkynes, alkadienes
69. Which of the following cations is aromatic ?
(1) 1–A, 2–B, 3–C, 4–D
(2) 1–D, 2–C, 3–B, 4–A
(3) 1–B, 2–D, 3–A, 4–C
a b c d (4) 1–C, 2–A, 3–D, 4–B
(1) b, d (2) d 75. Which of following is not correctly matched :-
(3) a, b, d (4) b, c, d CH3
70. Which of the following has maximum number of
(1) CH3–C–CH2– neo-pentyl
-hydrogen ?
CH3
(1) (2)
CH2–
(3) (4) (2) – Phenyl
71. In which of the following alkene hyperconjugation
does not take place :- CH 3
(1) (2) (3) CH 3–C– t-butyl
CH3
(3) (4) CH==CH
(4) H2C=CH–CH2 – Allyl
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76. The IUPAC name of the given compounds : 81. Which of the following compounds has an R
CHO configuration ?
O H
(1) CH3CH2 Br
(1) 3-keto-2-methyl-pent-4-enal
CH = CH2
(2) 2-keto-2-ethyl but-2-enal
(3) 3-keto-2-propyl pent-4-enal
(4) 2-keto-2-propyl pent-4-enal CH = CH2
77. The IUPAC name of compound (2) Br H
CH3–CH=CH–CH–C N
CH2CH3
Br
(1) 1-Bromo but-2-ene-1-nitrile
CH2CH3
(2) 2-Bromo but-3-ene-1-nitrile
(3) 2-Bromo pent-3-ene-1-nitrile (3) Br CH = CH2
(4) 1-Bromo pent-2-ene cyanide H
78. What is the configuration of following compound:-
CH3 CH2CH3
H Cl (4) CH2 = CH H
Cl H
Br
CH2CH3
82. What is isomeric relationship between following
(1) 2S, 3R (2) 2R, 3S (3) 2S, 3S (4) 2R, 3R compounds ?
79. In which of the following, chiral carbon is present?
Cl CH3
(1) C6H 5–C–OH (2) CH3–CH2 –CH–CH3
H 3C COOH Cl CHO
O OH HC & CH
CH3 3 Cl
O Cl COOH
H
(3) CH3–C–COOH (4) C2H 5–CH–C2H 5 (1) Enantiomer
H CH3 (2) Diastereomer
(3) Identical
80. Which of the following compound have plane of
(4) Positional isomer
symmetry ?
83. Which of the following is/are meso ?
H 3C CH3 Cl
Cl
CH3
(1) (2)
H OH
HO H
H3 C CH3 Cl H OH
COOH Me Me CH3
F Br
H OH (A) (B) (C)
(3) C (4)
I HO H (1) A, B, C (2) B, C
Cl Br
COOH (3) A, B (4) Only A

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84. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active? 87. For the given compounds A,B,C identify the
CH3 statement that is true :-
I

(1)

H I
Br
I
(1) A and B are identical
(2) (2) A and C are enantiomers
(3) B and C are identical
Br (4) A and B are enantiomers
I
88. Which structure show resonance :-
I
H
(1) NH3 (2) CH2 = CH O
(3) H
O2N (3) (4)
O
I NO2
Cl
(4) 89. IUPAC name for the given compound is :
Cl
INO2 Br
85. Out of the following which are chiral ?
I F
H3C H3C (1) 1-Bromo-2-chloro-4-iodo-6-fluorobenzene
Cl
(2) 2-Bromo-1-chloro-3-fluoro-5-iodobenzene
(3) 2-Bromo-3-chloro-1-fluoro-5-iodobenzene
(I) (II)
(4) 1-Bromo-6-chloro-2-fluoro-4-iodobenzene
CH3 CH3 90. IUPAC Names of some compounds are given.
Which one is incorrect –
H 3C CH3
CH3
–

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH–CH–CH2CH3
–

(III) (IV) CH2CH3

H3C CH3
CH3 CH3 3–Methyl–4–ethyl–heptane

(1) I, II, III (2) I, III, IV (2) CH3–CH–CH–CH3

–
–

(3) II, III (4) II, III, IV OH CH3

86. Configurations of double bond and chiral carbon 3–Methyl–2–butanol
respectively for :- (3) CH3 – CH 2 – C – CH – CH 3
–
–

H OH CH2CH3
H 2–Ethyl–3–methyl–but–1–ene
CH2CH3
(4) CH 3–C C–CH(CH3)2
(1) E, R (2) Z, S (3) E, S (4) Z, R 4–Methyl–2–pentyne
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TOPIC : Animal tissue, Animal diversity, Circulatory system (including blood)
98. Epidermis of human skin is an example of :
91. Connective tissue orginates from :
(1) Stratified columnar epithelium
(1) Embryonic ectoderm
(2) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
(2) Embryonic mesoderm (3) Stratified squamous epithelium [Karatinized]
(3) Embryonic endoderm (4) Transitional epithelium
(4) Embryonic ectoderm and endoderm 99. All of the following are secreted by exocrine gland
92. Cell junctions commonly found in : except :
(1) Saliva (2) Sweat
(1) connective tissue (2) epithelial tissue
(3) Bile Juice (4) Epinephrine
(3) Nervous tissue (4) muscular tissue 100. Transitional epithelium is not found in :
93. Proximal convoluted tubules of nephrons are lined (1) Renal pelvis (2) Ureter
by : (3) Urinary bladder (4) Stomach
(1) Simple squamous epithelium 101. Which of the following is a holocrine gland ?
(2) Simple columnar epithelium (1) Sebaceous gland (2) Salivary gland
(3) Pineal gland (4) Adrenal cortex
(3) Brush border simple cuboidal epithelium
102. Ciliated epithelium is not found in :
(4) Stratified squamous epithelium (1) Trachea (2) Fallopian tube
94. Ependyma is an example of : (3) Ventricles of brain (4) Oral cavity
(1) Simple squamous epithelium 103. Endothelium is an example of :
(2) Simple ciliated columnar epithelium (1) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Keratinized squamous epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium (4) Stratified cuboidal epithelium
95. Thick limb of loop of Henle made up of : 104. In comparison to white fat brown fat rich in :
(1) ciliated epithelium (1) Plasma membrane (2) Nucleus
(2) stratified columnar epithelium (3) Mitochondria (4) Cell wall
(3) simple cuboidal epithelium 105. Costal cartilage of ribs are example of :
(1) Hyaline cartilage
(4) transitional epithelium
(2) Elastic cartilase
96. All of the following are example of multicellular (3) White fibrous cartilage
gland except (4) Calcified cartilage
(1) Salivary gland 106. Which of the following not an example of hyaline
(2) sweat gland cartilage :
(1) Nasal septum
(3) Goblet cell
(2) Articular cartilage of bone
(4) liver
(3) Thyroid cartilage
97. All of the following are example of endocrine (4) Pubic symphysis
gland except : 107. Intervertebral disc is made up of :
(1) Thymus (1) Dense connective tissue
(2) Parathyroid (2) Loose connective tissue
(3) White fibrous cartilage
(3) Adrenal
(4) Hyaline cartilage
(4) Sebaceous gland
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108. Tendon which connect skeletal muscles to bone, 118. The cell junction perform cementing to keep
rich in : neighbouring cell together is :
(1) Reticular fibres (2) Elastic fibres (1) Tight junction
(3) Collagen fibres (4) Yellow fibres (2) Adhering junction
109. Histamine, heparin and serotonin is secreted by : (3) Gap junction
(1) Macrophage (2) Plasma cells
(4) Connexin
(3) Mast cells (4) Adipocytes
119. Which of the following inorganic material mainly
110. Macrophages of areolar connective tissue are :
found in bone ?
(1) Modified eosinophils
(1) NaCl (2) Ca3(PO4)2
(2) Modified basophils
(3) KCl (4) NaOH
(3) Modified neutrophils
(4) Modified monocytes 120. Cellular level of organisation is not found in :
111. Ligament connects : (1) Spongilla (2) Eupongia
(1) Muscles to muscles (2) Muscles to bone (3) Sycon (4) Fasciola
(3) Bone to bone (4) Skin to muscles 121. All of the following phyla include triplobastic
112. Perichondrium is present around : animal except :
(1) Heart (1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Liver (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Hyaline cartilage (3) Echinodermata
(4) White fibrous cartilage (4) Porifera
113. Haversian system is found in : 122. All of the following animal show blind sac body
(1) Bones of fish (2) Bones of frog plan except :
(3) Bones of reptiles (4)Bones of mammals
(1) Fasciola (2) Hydra
114. Mature cells of bone are :
(3) Adamsia (4) Wuchereria
(1) Osteoblast (2) Osteoclast
123. Which phylum include mostly asymmetric
(3) Osteocytes (4) Chondrocytes
animals ?
115. White fibres secreted by fibroblast are made up of:
(1) Elastin protein (2) Mucopolysaccharides (1) Cnidaria (2) Ctenophora
(3) Collagen protein (4) Ossein protein (3) Chordata (4) Porifera
116. All of the following tissue are avascular except : 124. Schizocoel is not found in :
(1) Elastic cartilage (1) Earthworm (2) Cockroach
(2) White fibrous cartilage (3) Pila (4)Starfish
(3) Hyaline cartilage 125. Comb plates and colloblast is not found in :
(4) Bone (1) Pleurobrachia (2) Ctenoplana
117. Find the correct match : (3) Cestum (4) Ophiura
(1) Lung alveoli - simple cuboidal epithelium 126. Water vascular system is found in member of :
(2) C-shaped cartilage rings in trachea - Elastic (1) Phylum porifera
cartilage (2) Phylum hemichordata
(3) Nervous tissue - endodermal in origin (3) Phylum echinodermata
(4) Pituitary gland - Ductless gland (4) Sub phylum urochordata

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127. Amniotes include 136. Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates which
(1) Only reptiles help in locomotion are found in :-
(2) Only birds (1) Scypha (2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Reptiles and birds only (3) Taenia (4) Nereis
(4) Reptiles, birds and mammals 137. Which of the following animal absorb nutrients from
128. Which of the following is a flightless bird ? the host directly through their body surface :-
(1) Neophron (2) Pavo (1) Planaria (2) Tapeworm
(3) Liver fluke (4) Pennatula
(3) Struthio (4) Corvus
138. Which of the following animal is not a parasite ?
129. Which of the following is not a member of
(1) Ascaris (2) Wuchereria
superclass pisces ?
(3) Ancylostoma (4) Pheretima
(1) Labeo (2) Carcharodon
139. Which of the following character or structure is
(3) Hyla (4) Trygon common among locust, butterfly, scorpion, prawn?
130. Anntenae are not found in : (1) Malpighian tubules
(1) Locusta (2) Scorpion (2) Jointed appendages
(3) Apis (4) Bombyx (3) Antennae
(4) Direct development
131. Limulus belong to :
140. Visceral hump, mantle and feather like gills not found
(1) Phylum mollusca in :-
(2) Phylum echinodermata (1) Pinctada (2) Aplysia
(3) Phylum arthropoda (3) Dentalium (4) Ophiura
141. Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus are belong to
(4) Phylum hemichordata
phylum :-
132. Which of the following is a flagellated protozoan?
(1) Echnodermata (2) Hemichordata
(1) Plasmodium (2) Paramoecium
(3) Chordata (4) Mollusca
(3) Trypanosoma (4) Entamoeba 142. The vertebrate which is without scales and paired
133. Which of the following group of phyla are diploblastic? fins is :-
(1) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminthes (1) Pristis (2) Catla
(2) Annelida, Mollusca (3) Trygon (4) Lamprey
(3) Arthropoda, Echinodermata 143. Gill cover (operculum), cycloid/ctenoid scales, air
(4) Ctenophora, Cnidaria bladder is not found in :-
(1) Labeo (2) Exocoetus
134. Ostia, spongocoel, osculum, choanocytes are not
(3) Hippocampus (4) Hyla
found in :-
144. All of the following animals are poikilothermous
(1) Spongilla (2) Euspongia
tetrapods except :-
(3) Sycon (4) Ctenoplana
(1) Calotes
135. All of the following animals has cnidoblast except:- (2) Salamandra
(1) Adamsia (2) Gorgonia (3) Alligator
(3) Meandrina (4) Fasciola (4) Pavo
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145. All of the following characters are related to 151. Human RBCs are :
Columba except :- (1) Circular and biconvex
(1) Presence of feathers (2) Oval and biconcave
(2) Pneumatic bones (3) Circular and biconcave
(3) Air sacs connected to lung supplement respiration (4) Oval and biconvex
152. Most abundant granulocyte in human blood is :
(4) Viviparous
(1) RBCs
146. Ear pinna, mammary gland, hair, heterodont, gizzard,
(2) Lymphocytes
cloaca, air bladder, 4 chambered heart
(3) Neutrophils
how many above character/structures found in (4) Eosinophils
Panthera tigris:- 153. Largest phagocytic cell in human blood is :
(1) 8 (2) 7 (1) Neutrophils
(3) 6 (4) 5 (2) Monocytes
147. In which of the following phylum metameric (3) Eosinophils
segmentation absent :- (4) Basophils
154. Which leucocytes increases during parasitic
(1) Annelida
infection?
(2) Arthropoda (1) RBCs (2) Eosinophils
(3) Chordata (3) Neutrophils (4) Basophils
(4) Echinodermata 155. Nucleus and membrane bound cell organelles are
148. Find the incorrect match :- absent in which blood cells :
Column-I Column-II Column-III (1) Neutrophils (2) Erythrocytes
Phylum Example Coelom (3) Monocytes (4) Lymphocytes
(1) Annelida Nereis Present 156. Which blood group is universal donor ?
(2) Echinodermata Locusta Present (1) A positive (2) B negative
(3) Mollusca Octopus Present
(3) AB positive (4) O negative
(4) Chordata Amphioxus Present
157. Which blood group lack both anti-a and anti-b
149. Find the correct match :- antibodies in their plasma.
Column-I Column-II Column- Column-IV
III (1) A (2) B (3) AB (4) O
Phylum/class Example Circulatory Distinctive 158. Most abundant plasma protein is :
system feature
(1) Platyhelminthes Taenia, Present Flat body, (1) Globulin (2) Albumin
solium sucker (3) Prothrombin (4) Fibrinogen
(2) Hemichordata Ichthyophis Present Proboscis,
collar, trunk 159. Most of plasma protein are synthesised by :
(3) Cyclostomata Myxine Present Paired fins (1) Spleen (2) Liver
(4) Mammalia Elephas Present Mammary
gland (3) Kidney (4) Heart
150. Which of the following animal commonly known 160. Which blood transfusion is not allowed :
as penguin ? (1) A positive to AB positive
(1) Neophron (2) Bangarus (2) B negative to B negative
(3) Aptenodytes (4) Delphinus (3) O Positive to O negative
(4) O negative to A negative
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161. Three chambered heart is found in : 170. Clotting proteins absent in :
(1) Horse (2) Human (1) Blood (2) Plasma
(3) Cartilaginous fish (4) Frog (3) Lymph (4) Serum
162. Right atrio-ventricular valve also called as : 171. Find the correct match :
(1) Bicuspid valve Column-I Column-II Column-III Column-IV
Animal Type of class Scales
(2) Tricuspid valve circulation
(3) Mitral valve (1) Scoliodon Single Osteichthyes Placoid
(2) Bufo Incomplete Amphibia Cycloid
(4) Pulmonary semilunar valve double
163. The pace maker of heart is : (3) Naja Incomplete Aves Epidermal
double scales
(1) AV node (4) Pavo complete Aves Scales
double present
(2) Bundle of His on legs
(3) Purkinje fibres
172. Heart is absent in :
(4) SA Node
(1) Petromyzon (2) Trygon
164. All of the following can be secreted or released
(3) Ornithorhynchus (4) Amphioxus
by basophils except :
173. All mammals
(1) Heparin (2) Serotonin
(1) Give birth to live young
(3) Histamine (4) Fibrinogen
(2) Have a thick coat of hair
165. Life span of human RBCs is :
(3) Nourish their young with milk
(1) 100 days (2) 120 days (4) Have external ear pinna
(3) 200 days (4) 20 days 174. Find the correct match :
166. Which of the following absent in blood plasma ?
Column-I Column-II Column-III Column-IV
(1) Clotting protein (2) Albumin Cells Function Tissue Origin
(3) Water (4) Formed elements (1) RBCs Transport Epithelial Mesoderm
oxygen Tissue
167. Papillary muscles are found in : (2) Fibroblast Secretes Connective mesoderm
fibres tissue
(1) Right atrium of heart (3) Neuron Nerve Nervous Endoderm
impulse tissue
(2) left atrium of heart conduction
(4) Adipocyte Store Connective Ectoderm
(3) Right ventricle of heart protein Tissue
(4) Tunica media of artery
168. Thickest myocardium found in wall of : 175. Paramoecium move with the help of :
(1) Right atrium (2) Right ventricle (1) Pseudopodia (2) Cilia
(3) Left atrium (4) Left ventricle (3) Flagella (4) Muscles
169. All of the following open into right atrium except: 176. Major cause of anemia is due to :
(1) Superior venacava (1) Deficiency Ca++
(2) Inferior venacava (2) Deficiency of Fe2+
(3) Coronary sinus (3) Deficiency of Na+
(4) Pulmonary veins (4) Deficiency of K+

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177. In adult, erythropoiesis occurs in : 179. There is no DNA in :
(1) Liver (1) Hair root
(2) Spleen (2) An enucleated ovum
(3) Red bone marrow (3) A mature spermatozoan
(4) Mature human RBCs
(4) yellow bone marrow
180. Find the incorrect match :
178. Find the correct match :
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Column-I Column-II (1) Artery Thick tunica valve absent
(1) Atrial systole 0.3 sec media
(2) Ventricular systole 0.5 sec (2) Vein Thin tunica Valve present
(3) Joint diastole 0.4 sec media
(4) Ventricular diastole 0.3 sec (3) Capillary Thin tunica Valve present
externa
(4) Heart Thick Valve present
Myocardium

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 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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 SPARK COURSE TEST PLAN (2019-20)
DATE DAY TEST No. SYLLABUS GUIDELINES PATTERN

19-01-2020 Sunday PART TEST 1 Test 1 (100%) NEET

02-02-2020 Sunday PART TEST 2 Test 1 (20%) + Test 2 (80%) NEET

16-02-2020 Sunday PART TEST 3 Test 1 (10%) + Test 2 (20%) + Test 3 (70%) NEET

01-03-2020 Sunday PART TEST 4 Test 2 (10%) + Test 3 (20%) + Test 4 (70%) NEET

08-03-2020 Sunday SEMI MAJOR Test 1, 2, 3, 4 NEET

15-03-2020 Sunday PART TEST 5 Test 3 (10%) + Test 4 (20%) + Test 5 (70%) NEET

29-03-2020 Sunday PART TEST 6 Test 4 (10%) + Test 5 (20%) + Test 6 (70%) NEET

12-04-2020 Sunday PART TEST 7 TEST 5 (10%)+TEST 6 (20%) + TEST 7 (70%) NEET

19-04-2020 Sunday MAJOR TEST-1 Full Syllabus (AIOT) NEET

22-04-2020 Wednesday MAJOR TEST-2 Full Syllabus (Clubbed with ALLEN KOTA Students) NEET

Full Syllabus (Clubbed with ALLEN KOTA Students)

26-04-2020 Sunday MAJOR TEST-3 NEET
(AIOT)

29-04-2020 Wednesday MAJOR TEST-4 Full Syllabus (Clubbed with ALLEN KOTA Students) NEET

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 Read carefully the following instructions :

1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.

3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.

6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.

7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in

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 SPARK COURSE (PHASE : I) 19–01–2020

PATTERN / TYPE : NEET / PART TEST-I ANSWER KEY PRE-MEDICAL 2020

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 2 2 3 2 2 1 1 2 4 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 3 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 1
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 4 2 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 1
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 4 4 1 4 3 3 1 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 4 4 4 4 4 4 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 3
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 CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020)

SPARK COURSE - I
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2020

Test Type : PART TEST#01 Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 19 - 01 - 2020
HINT – SHEET

| P| m | v | 150 / 1000 | (0 20) |

dA d(5t 2 4t 8) 11. F
2. 10t 4 t t 0.1
dt dt
at t = 3 150 20
F 30N
100
dA
34 12. m1a1 = m2a2
dt
10 × 3 = 15a2 a2 = 2m/s 2
/2 /2
sin 2 x cos 2 x dx 1dx 13. F = m a1
3.
0 0 2 F = (2m) a2
4. y = 9 – (x – 3)2 = 6x – x2 a1 4
ma1 = 2ma2 a2 = 2m / s 2
2 2
dy
6 2x 0
dx F0
14. a
x=3 M
at x = 3 y is max. v2 = u2 + 2as
ymax = 9 – (3 – 3)2 = 9
2F0 d 2F0 d
v2 0 v
dm 8 M M
7.
dt 5.6 4
4
15. I= Fdt 2t 3t 2 dt t2 t3 68
vdm 7 8 2
F = 10 dyne = 10–4N 2
dt 5.6
I= p=m v
9. Favg = nmv
68
68 = 2 v V= 34 m / sec
n 40 2
400 = 1000 n = 10 bullets per
1000 16. F = (2 + 4) (g + a), T = 4(g + a)
second.
P MP
No. of bullets per minute = 10 × 60 = 600. 17. a ,T Ma
M m M m
vdm 18. T = M(g + a) = 1000(9.8 + 1) = 10800N
10. mg ma
dt 1g g
19. a
vdm 1 1 2
m(g a) 500(10 2) 6000N
dt g g
T = 1(g – a) = g 5N
2 2
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/19-01-2020

2mg mg g (10)2
20. aA 31. h 5m
2m m 3 2g

2mg mg
aB g
m h
10m/s
F=12N F1 h
21.
m
N Total height = 2h = 10m
32. dv = adt
5N v 2
F1 = 5 N dv (3t 2 2t 2)dt
2 0

N = 12 N
2
2 2 v–2= t 3 + t 2 + 2t
Contact force = N F
1
0

22. m1g > m2g sin + m2g cos v=8+4+4+2

v = 18 m/s
m1
g(sin cos ) ds
m2 33. v 9t 2 14t 14
dt
24. Resultant is inclined towards a vector having
greater magnitude. dv
a 18t 14
25. dt
2 2 At t = 1s, a = 32m/s2
3 3 3 2 3 3 cos 60
34. v = area between 0 and 8s
2 2 = 30m/s
Total displacement 4 3 1
26. vav = m/s 35. Displacement = positive area – negative area
Total time 10 5 3
and distance = (Area).
36. vAB = vA – vB
2h t1 h 1
27. t or r h N
g t2 2h 2
E
11 18 42 v N
28. 21
60
vA vAB
v = 25.3 m/s
29. s = s 1 + s2 + s3
1 2 1 2 E
= 2 10 (2)(10)(30) 4 5 –vB
2 2
= 100 + 600 + 50 v AB v A2 v 2B = 5km/h
= 750 m
30. Hmax u 2 1 vA
tan
vB
u H max
i.e., to triple the maximum height, ball should 3
1
= tan 37
be thrown with velocity 3u . 4

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 Spark Course/Phase-I/19-01-2020
37. Relative acceleration = 0, relative velocity is 40m/ u sin = 50m/s
s and relative separation is 100m.
Svel = urel × t u2 sin 2 (usin )2 50 50
100 = 40 × t t = 2.5 sec H = = 125m
2g 2g 2 10
38. Put y = 0,
42. Q = Number of ion × charge of each ion
3 2
0 12x x = (1 billion × 2) × (+e) (1 billion = 109)
4
= 2 × 109 × 1.6 × 10–19 = 3.2 × 10–10 C
x = 16m
43. Charge Q = Ne
vy gt –9
Q 3.5 10
39. tan60° = N= = 10
vx v0 –19 = 2.18 × 10
e 16
. 10
Q
44. N , if N is not an integer then Q is not pos-
e
3v0
t= sible.
g
45. Charge is quantized it always present in
40. 2 = 90° – or 3 = 90° or = 30° integral multiple of elementry charge.

2usin
41. T 10s
g

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