PRACTICE TEST 1

SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Question 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the other words.
A. official B. office C. species D. special
Question 2: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently
from that of the other words.
A. fertile B. rhinoceros C. river D. primary
Question 3: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that has the stress differently from that of the other
words.
A. preserve B. enact C. extinct D. drainage
Question 4: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that has the stress differently from that of the other
words
A. habitat B. endanger C. commercial D. destruction
Question 5: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
Many (A) plant and animal species (B) are now in (C) dangerous of (D) extinction.
Question 6: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction.
I’m (A) not working (B) tomorrow, so I (C) mustn’t get up (D) early.
Question 7: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
The ________ of one or several species may result in the loss of biodiversity.
A. appearance B. disappearance C. appear D. disappear
Question 8: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Thousands of animal and plant species are _________and the number increases each year.
A. danger B. dangerous C. endanger D. endangered
Question 9: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Various organizations publish _________ of endangered species to improve public awareness.
A. lists B. queues C. columns D. lines
Question 10: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Nina said that she ________ come over right after work, so she ________ be here by 6:00.
A. would/ should B. will/ can C. can/ will D. would / can
Question 11: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
That’s why I told my father that he _________start walking once a day.
A. can B. should C. must D. would
Question 12: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that have become extinct ______.
A. have increased B. has increased C. increases D. increase
Question 13: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
Species diversity has provided humans ______so many essential things.
A. to B. with C. for D. about
Question 14: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to complete the following sentence.
We saw a herd of giraffes containing 30 ________.
A. persons B. individuals C. animals D. characters
Question 15: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchange.
Tom : “Sorry, I forgot to phone you last night.”
Dennis : “__________”
A. I have nothing to tell you. B. Oh. Poor me!
C. Never mind . D. You were absent-minded.
Question 16: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchange.
A: “I think it is a good idea to have more national parks to protect rare and endangered animals.”
B: “_______.”
A. It’s not true. B. That’s wrong. C. I couldn’t agree more. D. I don’t agree.
Question 17: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.
Animals are at their most vulnerable when searching for food for their young.
A. strong B. susceptible C. powerful D. invincible
Question 18: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word.
The greatest danger to tigers now is through loss of habitat.
A. a thing that you do often and almost without thinking
B. the place where a particular type of animal or plant is normally found
C. subject that students don’t understand
 D. a theme that everyone likes to discuss
Question 19: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.
Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction.
A. Enriched B. Contaminated C. Purified D. Strengthened
Question 20: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word.
The new laws to conserve wildlife in the area will come into force next month.
A. eliminate B. protect C. pollute D. destroy
Question 21: Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the following
sentence.
Perhaps these are the keys.
A. These might be the keys. B. These won’t be the keys.
C. These must be the keys. D. These needn’t be the keys.
Question 22: Mark the letter A, B, C or D that correctly combines the following sentences.
The governments have established some wildlife reserves. They want to protect endangered species.
A. Whether the governments have established some wildlife reserves or not, endangered species are still
protected.
B. Endangered species can’t be protected although the governments have established some wildlife
reserves.
C. The governments have established some wildlife reserves so that endangered species can be protected.
D. If the governments established some wildlife reserves, they would be able to protect endangered
species.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
for each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Researchers have found out that the size of an animal is important when it comes to extinction. Scientists
have determined that the biggest and the smallest animals are more (23) ______risk of dying out than medium-
sized animals. Heavy animals are mostly endangered by hunting and poaching while the smallest creatures may
die out (24) ______their living area is being polluted. Among the most endangered animals are elephants, lions,
and rhinos. Public awareness is large and campaigns to save such animals have been around for a long time. It is
the smallest species that get the least (25) ______. Especially fish and frogs are in danger of dying out.
The species that are most at risk have a weight of over 1 kilogram. They are in danger of being (26)
______because we need food, skin and other items.
According to the study, animals that are (27) ______extinct affect large ecosystems, like forests, deserts
and oceans.
(Adapted fromwww.englishrgrammar.at)
Question 23: A. in B. of C. from D. at
Question 24: A. because B. although C. therefore D. but
Question 25: A. intention B. organization C. attention D. determination
Question 26: A. raised B. arrested C. killed D. purchased
Question 27: A. running B. reaching C. becoming D. involving

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
With 13,000 floral species and over 15,000 faunal species, three newly discovered big animal species, and
a ratio of country/world species of 6.3%. Vietnam has enormous tourism-particularly ecotourism-potential. In fact,
since 1986, when Renovation Reforms began the shift from a centrally planned to a socialist-oriented market, or
multi-sectoral economy, tourism has been a sector of primary concern to the government. In May 1995, the prime
minister of Vietnam approved a master plan of tourism development for the period 1995-2010. In February 1999,
the state decree on tourism was part of the socio-economic development strategy for the period 2001-2010
approved at the IX National Congress of the Party: “Tourism development has become a spearhead economic
industry indeed. It is necessary to improve the quality and effectiveness of tourism activities, bringing into full play
the natural conditions, and cultural and historical tradition to meet the domestic and international demand
for tourism and to catch up with tourism development in the region” (Document of the IX National
Congress 2001).
Tourism has so far brought great benefits to the economy, but it has also contributed to
environmental degradation, especially biodiversity deterioration. Thus, the concept of “sustainable
development”-development which meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs - must be factored into tourism development. This consideration is reflected
in the term “ecotourism,” which is referred to variously as ecological or environmental tourism, nature or green
tourism, sustainable or responsible tourism.
Ecotourism involves travel to relatively undisturbed natural areas with the specific object of studying,
admiring, and enjoying scenery, plants, and animals, as well as any cultural features found in these areas. It is
distinguished from mass or resort tourism by its lower impact on the environment, lower infrastructure
requirements, and its role in educating tourists about natural environments and cultural values.
Fully aware of its significance, the government of Vietnam has prioritized ecotourism in its strategy for
tourism development to ensure both sustainability and economic benefits. Though ecotourism in Vietnam is at a
beginning stage of development, it is expected to grow strongly through support from government and
international organizations.

Question 28: When has tourism officially contributed to socio-economic development?

A. Since 2010 B. Since 1995 C. Since 1999 D. Since 2001
Question 29: It can be inferred that in the late 20th century Vietnam’s tourism ______.
A. has never been a spearhead economic industry
B. was not as developed as that in other Asian countries
C. has always been effective and necessary for economy
D. did not need natural conditions or cultural traditions
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as “ecotourism”?
A. Environmental tourism B. Green tourism
C. Responsible tourism D. Resort tourism
Question 31: What is the word "degradation" closest in meaning to?
A. Creation B. Pollution C. Protection D. Decline
Question 32: According to the passage, who help ecotourism to develop in Vietnam?
A. Vietnam’s government and international organizations
B. Business people and environmental conservationists
C. Foreign tourists and local Vietnamese people
D. Business corporations and non-government organizations

SECTION B. WRITING
Complete the second sentence with the given words without changing its original meaning.
Question 1: The guests are not allowed to throw objects into the Zoo’s animals and their habitats. (mustn’t)
 …………………….……..……………………………………………………………………….….…
Question 2: It is not necessary for children to go to the kindergarten. (not have to)
 …………..………………..… ………………………………………………………………….….…..
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
Question 3: We/ should/ organize/ different activities/ raise people’s awareness/ the need/ protect these
animals.
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………….….……
Question 4: Many rare species/ animals/ drive/ the verge/ extinction/ by/ environmental pollution,
/deforestation/ other causes.
 …………………………………………………………………………………………………………
KEY
Question 1: The guests mustn’t throw objects into the Zoo’s animals and their habitats.
Question 2: Children don’t have to go to the kindergarten.
Question 3: We should organize different activities to raise people’s awareness of the need to protect these
animals.
Question 4: Many rare species of animals are driven to the verge of extinction by environmental pollution,
deforestation and other causes.
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PRACTICE TEST 2
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. attitude B. survive C. introduce D. human
Question 2: A. killed B. enjoyed C. described D. digested
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. entertainment B. information C. difficulty D. understanding

Question 4: A. survive B. destroy C. swallow D. maintain

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 5: Books (A) with (B) good stories (C) are often described (D) like ‘hard to put it down’.
Question 6: This book needs (A) to read (B) carefully before you (C) must make a report (D) on it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: This book is not really ________. It is a waste of money buying it.
A. inform B. information C. informative D. informatively
Question 8: If you ________ a book, you have a brief look at it without reading or studying it seriously.
A. dip into B. put away C. pick up D. put down
Question 9: The novel has had a tremendous impact on ________ and publishing markets.
A. entertain B. entertainer C. entertainment D. entertainingly
Question 10: __________ books are ones in which the story is told or illustrated with pictures.
A. Comic B. Thriller C. Romantic D. Science
Question 11: When a reader reads an interesting book slowly and carefully, he _________ it.
A. reviews B. chews and digests C. swallows D. dips into
Question 12: Things ________ clear to them so that they can do the work in the way that you have told them.
A. are making B. ought to be made C. have made D. needn't be made
Question 13: I would recommend the book __________anyone who likes animals.
A. for B. to C. with D. on
Question 14: A fax is a machine by which _________ over the telephone line.
A. written messages can be sent B. can send written messages
C. can be sent written messages D. written messages can send them
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Two students are talking after the test.
- Sue: "I love comic books." - Alice: "______________."
A. I do, too B. No, I won't C. Yes, I like it D. Neither do I
Question 16: - Jane :“The reference book you lent me last week is so helpful for my science report.”
- Janet:“_____________”
A. Keep your nose out of my business. B. Well, mind your words.
C. I’m very happy to hear that. D. You can’t believe it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: It is quite incredible to me that he participated in the party last night.
A. credible B. unbelievable C. trusted D. incapable
Question 18: Please give me some advice to buy suitable books for my ten-year-old girl.
A. recommendation B. information C. fiction D. interest
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 19: That was an impressive performance from such a young tennis player.
A. unimpressive B. dazzling C. spectacular D. unimpressed
Question 20: It's a great book. I couldn't put it down.
A. stop reading it B. pick it up C. feel like reading it D. take it over
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 21: They have to fix the air conditioner before the hot weather comes.
A. The air conditioner have to be fixed before the hot weather comes.
B. The air conditioner has to be fixed before the hot weather comes.
C. The air conditioner must fix before the hot weather comes.
D. The air conditioner need be fixed before the hot weather comes.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22: He will go to the dentist’s. He wants the dentist to pull his tooth out.
A. He needs to pull his tooth out, so he’ll go to the dentist’s.
B. He’ll go to the dentist’s so that he can pull his tooth out.
C. He’ll go to the dentist’s to have his tooth pulled out.
D. Going to the dentist’s, he’ll pull his tooth out.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
for each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Nearly all the discoveries that have been made through the ages can be found in books. The invention of
the book is one of humankind’s greatest achievements, the (23)_________of which cannot be overestimated.
Books are very adaptable providing us with both entertainment and information. The production (24)_____ books
began in Ancient Egypt, though not in a form that is recognizable to us today.
The books read by the Romans, however, have some similarities to the ones we (25) ______ now. Until the
middle of the 15th century, in Europe, all books were written by hand. They were often (26) ______ illustrated and
always rare and expensive. With printing came the possibility of cheap, large-scale publication and distribution of
books, making knowledge (27) ______ widespread and accessible.
Question 23. A. important B. importantly C. importance D. more important
Question 24. A. toward B. by C. with D. of
Question 25. A. buy B. sell C. read D. translate
Question 26. A. beautician B. beautifully C. beauty D. beautiful
Question 27. A. more B. less C. little D. few

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
Books which give instructions on how to do things are very popular in the United States today. Thousands
of these How-to books are useful. In fact, there are about four thousand books with titles that begin with the
words “How to”. One book may tell you how to earn more money. Another may tell you how to save or spend it
and another may explain how to give your money away.
Many How-to books give advice on careers. They tell you how to choose a career and how to succeed
in it. If you fail, however, you can buy the book “How to Turn Failure into Success”. If you would like to become
very rich, you can buy the book “How to Make a Millionaire”. If you never make any money at all, you may need a
book called “How to Live on Nothing”.
One of the most popular types of books is one that helps you with personal problems. If you want to have
a better love of life, you can read “How to Succeed in Love Every Minute of Your Life”. If you are tired of books on
happiness, you may prefer books which give step-by-step instructions on how to redecorate or enlarge a house.
Why have How-to books become so popular? Probably because life has become so complex. Today people
have far more free time to use, more choices to make, and more problems to solve. How-to books help people
deal with modern life.
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. How to succeed in love every minute of your life. B. How to turn failure into success.
C. How to make a millionaire. D. How-to books.
Question 29. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________.
A. advice B. instruction C. how-to books D. career
Question 30. Which of the following is NOT the type of book giving information on careers?
A. “How to Succeed in Love Every Minute of Your Life”.
B. “How to Live on Nothing”
C. “How to Make a Millionaire”.
D. “How to Turn Failure into Success”
Question 31. The word “step-by-step” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. side by side B. gradually C. slower and slower D. rapidly
Question 32. It can be inferred from the passage that ______________.
A. Today people are more bored with modern life B. Modern life is more difficult to deal with
C. Today people have fewer choices to make D. Today people are more interested in modern life

SECTION B. WRITING
Question 33: Use the words / phrases given to make a complete sentence.
a. Children/ should / warn/ not/ speak/ to strangers.
____________________________________________________________________________.
b. The book/first published/ three volumes/ October 1851
_____________________________________________________________________________.
Question 34: Rewrite the sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meanings stay the same.
a. Did Mr John teach them how to read books effectively ?
Were____________________________________________________________________ ?
b. No one can do anything unless someone gives us more information.
Nothing____________________________________________________________________ .
Keys
Question 33: Use the words / phrases given to make a complete sentence.
a. Children should be warned not to speak to strangers.
b. The book was first published in three volumes in October 1851.
Question 34: Rewrite the sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meanings stay the same.
a. Were they taught how to read books effectively by Mr John?
b. Nothing can be done unless we are given more information.

------The end-----

PRACTICE TEST 3
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 1.A.goal B. coach C. load D. broaden
Question 2.A. decision B.personal C. defensive D. windsurfing
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question 3.A.swallow B.eject C.digest D. survive
Question 4.A. referee B.Vietnamese C. gurantee D. committee
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following
questions.
Question 5. You should (A) rise money (B) to help the disadvantaged and (C) handicapped children in our (D)
neighbourhood.
Question 6. Something (A) strange(B) was happened(C) at this crossroads (D) yesterday morning.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7:In water polo, the _______ wears red cap with the number 1 in white.
A. referee B. coach C. player D. goalie
Question8: The word scuba stands for self-contained underwater_______ apparatus .
A. breaking B. bathing C. breathing D. building
Question 9 : I am worried about the contest tomorrow because my_______ has once won the championship.
A. player B. enemy C. partner D. opponent
Question 10 :They sent me the book which was _______ on the table over there.
A. lay B. lain C. lying D. laying
Question 11: The author_______ the scenes for most of his stories in faraway places.
A. lay B. lays C.lie D. lain
Question 12: The project _______ from an original idea by Stephen.
A. developing B. being developed C. has developed D. has been developed

Question 13: When a little boy, David _______ from going out at night by his mother.
A. stopped B. stops C. was stopped D. is stopped
Question 14: The myth that eating carrots improves your eyesight _______ years ago.
A. exploding B. exploded
C. being exploded D. was exploded
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Nam:“_________" Hung: " I won’t say no"
A. How are things with you, Hung? B. What about playing water polo this
afternoon?
C. Mike, do you know where the scissors are? D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee ?
Question 16: Tom and John are talking about their school curriculum.
Tom: "I think water polo should be a compulsory subject." John:"_________. Water helps develop both
physical and mental health.”
A.I quite agree. B. You must be kidding.
C. I’m of the opposite opinion D.I don’t think that’s a good idea.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in
the following questions.
Question 17:We’d better speed up if we want to get there on time.
A. slow down B. turn down C. put down D. lie down
Question 18.Susan lost her head when she didn’t win the rowing competition.
A. kicked herself B. changed her tune C. kept her head D. took her breath away
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: Suddenly, Julia jumped out of the car and sprinted for the front door.
A. walked hurriedly B. ran very fast C. moved slightly D. ran slowly
Question 20: In water polo, a player is ejected after committing 5 personal fouls.
A. punished B. criticized C. thrown out D. defeated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the following questions.
Question 21: He can’t practice scuba diving because he has a weak heart.
A. Scuba diving makes him suffer from having a weak heart.
B. He has a weak heart but he continues to practise scuba diving.
C. The reason why he can’t practise scuba diving is that he has a weak heart.
 D. The fact that he has a weak heart can’t stop him practicing scuba diving.
Question 22: The students are required to keep silent during the exam.
A. The student may keep silent during the exam.
B. The students must keep silent during the exam.
C. The student needn’t keep silent during the exam.
D. The students shouldn’t keep silent during the exam.

Read the open conversation and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of
the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
Marie: You’re the best swimmer in the school team, Janet.
Janet: Well, I’ve learned how to swim when I was a little girl. My father used to be an athlete who won
the gold medals in some swimming (23) ______. He’s advised me to take part in the synchronized swimming
club.
Marie: Oh! Synchronized swimming is (24) ______as one of the most interesting water sports. Is it a
new one?
Janet: Well. It’s a sport that dates to the early (25) ______century. In 1890 and 1891 the first
competitions were held in Berlin, and in 1892 in London. At that time, only (26) ______could compete. The first
mention of women participating in a competition was in 1907.
Marie: As far as I’ve known Katherine Curtis, a student at the university of Wisconsin, (27) ______ a
water ballet club. When did she start it?
Janet: In 1923. She started the club at the University of Chicago, called the Modern Mermaid

Question 23. A.examinations B. contests C. races D. competitions

Question 24. A. thought B. believed C.regarded D. named
Question 25. A. 17th B. 18th C. 19th D. 20th
Question 26. A. athteles B. youngsters C.men D. women
Question 27. A. found B. founded C. has founded D. has found
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
WATER SPORTS
Recreational diving or sport diving is a type of diving that uses scuba equipment for the purpose of leisure
and enjoyment. In some diving circles, the term “recreational diving” is used in contradistinction to “technical
diving”, a more demanding aspect of the sport which requires greater levels of training, experience and
equipment.
Recreational scuba diving grew out of related activities such as snorkeling and underwater hunting. For a long
time, recreational underwater excursions were limited by the amount of breath that could be held. However, the
invention of aqualung in 1943 by Jacques-Yves Couteau and its development over subsequent years led to a
revolution in recreational diving. However, for much of the 1950s and early 1960s, recreational scuba diving was a
sport limited to those who were able to afford or make their own kit, and prepared to undergo intensive training
to use it. As the sport became more popular, manufacturers became aware of the potential market, and
equipment began to appear that was easy to use, affordable and reliable. Continued advances in SCUBA
technology, such as buoyancy compensators, modern diving regulators, wet or dry suits, and dive computers,
increased the safety, comfort and convenience of the gear encouraging more people to train and use it.
Until the 1950s, navies and other organizations performing professional diving were the only providers of
diver training, but only for their own personnel and only using their own types of equipment. There were no
training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment. Professional instruction started in
1959 when the non-profit National Association of Underwater Instructors was formed.
Further developments in technology have reduced the cost of training and diving. Scuba-diving has become a
popular leisure activity, and many diving locations have some forms of dive shop presence that can offer air fills,
equipment and training. In tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world, there is a large market in holiday divers,
who train and dive while on holiday, but rarely dive close to home. Generally, recreational diving depths are
limited to a maximum of between 30 and 40 meters ( 100 and 130 feet), beyond which a variety of safety issues
make it unsafe to dive using recreational diving equipment and practices, and specialised training and equipment
for technical diving are needed.
Question 28 . What is the topic of the passage ?
A. The reason why people like scuba-diving B. The history of scuba-diving.
C. The equipment for scuba-diving. D. The reason why not many people take up scuba-diving.
Question 29. Recreational diving ______.
A. requires more equipment than technical diving
B. are taken up by many people for leisure and entertainment
C. needs no equipmentD. requires more experience than technical diving
Question 30. Recreational underwater excursions used to be limited ______ .
A. as underwater hunting was banned
B. because the necessary amount of breath was too expensive to afford.
C. because divers could not take enough amount of breath with them
D. because the necessary amount of breath was too heavy to bring
Question 31. These following sentences are true EXCEPT ______.
A. In the early 1950s anyone who wanted to dive could be professionally trained
B. In the early 1950s there were no training courses available to civilians who bought the first scuba equipment
C. As recreational diving became more popular, manufacturers have made more and more diving equipment
D. Advances in scuba technology encourage more and more people to train and use it.
Question 32. Holiday divers ______.
A. do not like to dive in tropical and sub-tropical parts
B. can dive as deep as they like because of the safety
C. are those who go away from home to dive D. are limited in tropical and sub-tropical parts

SECTION B. WRITING

Write a second sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the word in brackets.
1. They should gather rather than throw waste cans away. ( thrown )
 Waste cans should be gathered rather than thrown away.
2. The nun released the bird which they took to the market to sell. (was )
The nun released the bird which was taken to the market to be sold.
( The bird which was taken to the market to be sold was released by the nun. )
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
3. a game of water polo/ divide/ quarters/ range/ from 5 to 8 minutes / length.
A game of water polo is divided into quarters ( which /that range )ranging from 5 to 8 minutes in length.
4. rules/synchronised swimming/base on/score methods/ used/gymnastics and diving.
Rules for/of synchronised swimming are based on scoring methods ( which / that are ) used in gymnastics and
diving.

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PRACTICE TEST 4
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. host B. compete C. propose D. denote
Question 2: A. medal B. even C. complete D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. occur B. prefer C. vary D. deny
Question 4: A. dependent B. important C. potential D. excellent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 5: (A) Anyone rowing a boat in a (B) strong wind knows it is (C) much easy to go with the wind than
(D) against it.
Question 6: The harder he (A) tried, the (B) worst he (C) danced before the (D) large audience.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: The Vietnamese were very satisfied with excellent performances of the young and
__________athletes.
A. energy B. energetic C. energetically D. energize
Question 8: The ________ is the official who controls the game in some sports.
A. captain B. attacker C. defender D. referee
Question 9: The festival is ______ dependent on sponsorship for its success.
A. excellently B. respectively C. heavily D. recently
Question 10: Peter tried his best to win the gold medal ________he had a pain in his back.
A. moreover B. because C. although D. however
Question 11. Mike's very ______ – he always wants to come first when he plays a game.
A. outstanding B. competitive C. interested D. impressed
Question 12. Your English is improving. It’s getting ______.
A. better and better B. more and more C. worse and worse D. less and less
Question 13. The baby is crying! Will you look after him ______ I am preparing his meal?
A. since B. before C. after D. while
Question 14. The more she practises, ______ she becomes.
A. the greater confidence B. the more confident C. the more confidently D. the most confident
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable question/response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 15: Peter: “______________” - Mary: “No, I’ve never tried it.”
A. Have you ever gone skiing? B. How often do you go skiing?
C. Would you like to go skiing? D. Is this the first time you have gone skiing?
Question 16: An: “Let’s go to Egypt to see the Great Pyramid this summer.”
Linh: “______________. How far is it from here?”
A. It sounds well B. It sounds good C. Sounds nicely D. Sounds well

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: Over-tourism is still an outstanding problem that needs to be addressed.
A. sensational B. unrivaled C. unresolved D . fantastic
Question 18:The ASEAN Para-Games are hosted by the same country where the SEA Games took place.
A. participated B. impressed C. defended D. organized

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 19: Harry displays enthusiasm whenever he is posed with a problem.
A. eagerness B. weakness C. indifference D. softness

Question 20: The ring wasn’t worth very much but it had great sentimental value.
A. unworthy B. priceless C. precious D. valueless

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 21. We always find Robert’s stories amusing.
A. Robert’s amusing stories are found. B. Robert is interested in amusing stories.
C. We always find Robert reading amusing stories. D. We are always amused by Robert’s stories.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot.
A. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
for each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
The origins of baseball probably stretch back to 1839 when Abner Doubleday, a civil engineering student, laid
out a diamond-shaped field at Cooperstown, New York, and attempted to standardize the (23)_________
governing the playing of such games as town ball and four old cats, the ancestor of baseball. By the end of the
Civil war, interest in the game had grown rapidly. Over 200 teams or clubs existed, some of (24)_________
toured the country playing rivals; they belonged to a national association of "Baseball Players" that had
proclaimed a set of standard rules. These teams were amateurs or semi-professionals, but as the game waxed in
popularity, it offered opportunities for profit, and the first professional team, the Cincinnati Red Stockings,
(25)_________ in 1869. Other cities soon fielded professional teams, and in 1876 the present National League
was organized(26)_________ by Albert Spalding. Soon a rival league appeared, the American Association.
Competition between the two was intense, and in 1883 they played a post-season contest, the first "world's
series". The American Association eventually (27)_________, but in 1900 the American League was organized.
Question 23: A. roles B. rules C. equipment D. forms
Question 24: A. which B. that C. what D. who
Question 25: A. held B. born C. happened D. appeared
Question 26: A. annually B. apparently C. chiefly D. informally
Question 27: A. destroyed B. ruined C. collapsed D. hurt
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
 Kim Yeon-Ah looks like every other 18-year-old girl as she carries her skates to the ice rink. However, Kim
Yeon-Ah is no ordinary girl; she is a real class act. She is a four-time South Korean National Champion figure
skater, a World Junior Champion and the 2006-2007 Grand Prix Final Champion.
Kim Yeon-Ah was born in Bucheon, South Korea in 1990. When she was six, she moved to Gunpo, and then,
in 2006, she moved to Toronto, Canada for coaching. She started skating when she was seven. She skated at her
neighborhood rink with her older sister. She was so talented that, at twelve, she became the youngest skater ever
to win the Senior National Title.
Yeon-Ah is the first Korean skater to win the World Cup. She is currently ranked second in the world , and her
home country, Korea, is very proud of her. She is very small for her age and people call her the “skating elf”. But
dynamite comes in small packages. Yeon-Ah is very determined and has a strong fighting spirit. She exercises for
about 8 hours a day and has to follow a very strict diet. She may not eat candy or junk food. She has to do her
schoolwork, too. She works hard and practices every day. She is all heart, and her determination is what makes
her so successful.
Question 28. What did Yeon-Ah win when she was 12?
A. The World Cup B. The Olympic gold medal
C. The Senior National Title D. The Canadian Cup
Question 29. What is the main idea of the third paragraph?
A. Yeon-Ah is as small as an elf. B. Yeon-Ah doesn’t have any fun.
C. Yeon-Ah doesn’t enjoy exercising. D. Yeon-Ah succeeds as she works hard.
Question 30. Why is Yeon-Ah’s home country proud of her?
A. Because she exercises for eight hours a day. B. Because she is such a successful skater.
C. Because she travels all around the world. D. Because she is very beautiful.
Question 31. What kind of food does Yeon-Ah eat?
A. She follows a strict diet with no junk food. B. She eats food from all over the world.
C. She likes to eat pizzas and hamburgers. D. She likes to eat junk food.
Question 32. What do you think the author meant by “She is currently ranked second in the world”?
A. She is the second best skater in the world. B. She is the second youngest skater in the world.
C. She has the second highest number of points. D. She always comes in second in competitions.
SECTION B. WRITING
I. Rewrite the following sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one.
Question 1: She got nervous as the exam date came close.
The closer ______________________________ she got.
The closer the exam date came, the more nervous she got.
Question 2: If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner ……………………………,……………………………….... for all concerned.
The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
II. Complete each of the following sentences, using the words given.
Question 3: Though/ it/ be/ first time/ Viet Nam/ host / such/ big sports event/, the Games / be/ great success.
………………………………………………………………………….. .
Though it was the first time Viet Nam hosted such a big sports event, the Games were a great success.
Question 4: prepare/ the 22nd Sea Games, Viet Nam/ carry out/ intensive program/ its athletes.
….……………………………………………………………………………
To prepare for the 22nd Sea Games, Viet Nam carried out an intensive program for its athletes.

----The end----

PRACTICE TEST 5
(UNIT 14 INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS)

SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8ms)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 1.A. initiate B. impartial C. nation D. volunteer
Question 2.A. inspire B. provide C. comprise D.society
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question 3.A. dedicate B. establish C. resemble D. recover
Question 4.A. objective B. tsunami C. potential D. colony
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following
questions.
Question 5. (A) My mobile phone (B) didn’t ring (C) because I (D) switched off it.
Question 6. One of the (A) objectives of (B) UNICEF is to advocate (C) to the protection of (D) children’s
rights.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7: The government has declared a state of _______ following the tsunami.
A. disaster B. poverty C. tragedy D. emergency
Question8: Tsunami is an extremely large wave in the sea caused by a/an _______.
A. storm B. flood C. earthquake D. tide
Question 9: Inhabitants in the village depend on farming for their_______.
A. life B. living C. survival D. livelihood
Question 10: The building work has been _______ by bad weather.
A. given up B. lain down C. held up D. Turned off
Question 11: With that bad temper he certainly _______ after his father. He’s exactly the same.
A. looks B. takes C. goes D. runs
Question 12: We had never come _______ such a beautiful little village before.
A. off B. up C. along D. across
Question 13: One of the aims of the organization is to provide _______ aid to the refugees.
A. humanity B. humanized C. humanitarian D. human
Question 14: Up until the middle of the 19 th century, there were no _______ and well established army nursing
systems for casualties.
A. organize B. organizers C. organizational D. organized
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Nam: “Which organization was formed in 1965 as part of the UN?"
Hung: " _________."
A. I noted it B. I have no idea C. Check it again D. You made it
Question 16: Tom: "I’ve just known that the United Nations is an organization of most of the world’s countries."
John:"_________”
A. Really? B. How can you do it? C. You will get it. D. You should do it earlier.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in
the following questions.
Question 17: Henry is thinking of taking up golf but the equipment is too expensive.
A. giving up B. turning up C. putting up D. running up
Question 18. He has always looked up to his elder brother.
A. respected B. admired C. looked down on D. thought highly of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: The Red Cross gives medical aid and other help to help victims of major disasters such as floods,
earthquakes, ect.
A. catastrophes B. accidents C. injuries D. dangers
Question 20: All young people in the city are willing to raise money for famine relief.
A. aid B. reduction C. eradication D. destruction
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the following questions.
Question 21: It was in 1945 that UN was fully founded.
A. The UN founded its organization in 1945.
B. When the UN was founded was in 1945.
C. It was said that the UN gave birth to its organization.
D. The UN came into existence fully in 1945.
Question 22: I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t come.
A. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t arrive on time.
B. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t turn up
C. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he turned up late.
D. I waited half an hour for my friend, but he didn’t arrive early.
Read the passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks
from question 23 to question 27.

International organizations are formal (23) ______ that include multiple countries or entities that come together
to collaborate and address shared objectives or challenges. These organizations can have a range of goals, from
promoting peace and security to environmental conservation or economic development. Some well-known
international organizations include the United Nations, the World Health Organization, and the International
Monetary Fund.
International organizations are important (24) ______ they provide a platform for countries to coordinate and
work collaboratively, helping to overcome challenges that require global cooperation. Through these
organizations, different countries can come together to (25) ______ resources, share knowledge, and collaborate
on projects and initiatives that benefit all members. These organizations can also provide guidance for global
policies, which they then work to implement and enforce.
While international organizations have been successful in achieving many of their goals, they can face challenges,
including funding constraints, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and occasional resistance from member states. (26)
______, despite these challenges, international organizations remain a crucial part of the global governance
system, working to promote cooperation, collaboration, and progress (27) ______ shared objectives.
(Adapted from Council on Foreign Relations)
Question 23. A. parties B. bodies C. companies D. enterprises
Question 24. A. although B. because C. however D. therefore
Question 25. A. make B. earn C. target D. pool
Question 26. A. Despite B. Even C. Although D. However
Question 27. A. of B. about C. towards D. for

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
THE UNITED NATIONS
In one very long sentence, the introduction to the U.N Charter expresses the ideals and the common aims
of the peoples whose governments joined together to form the U.N
“We the people of the U.N determined to save succeeding generations from scourge of war, which twice
in our lifetime has brought untold sufferings to mankind, and to reaffirm faith in fundamental rights, in the dignity
and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women and of nations large and small , and to
establish conditions under which justice and respect for the obligations arising from treaties and other sources of
international law can be maintained , and to promote social progress and better standards of life in large freedom,
and for these ends, to practise tolerance and live together in peace with one another as good neighbours , and to
unite our strength to maintain international peace and security, and to ensure, by the acceptance of principles and
the instruction of methods , that armed force shall not be used, save in the common interest , and to employ
international machinery for the promotion of economic and social advancement of all peoples, have resolved to
combine our efforts to accomplish these aims.”
The name “United Nations” is accredited to U.S President Franklin D. Roosevelt, and the first group of
representatives of member states met and signed a declaration of common intent on New Year’s Day in 1942.
Representatives of five powers worked together to draw up proposals, competed at Dumbarton Oaks in 1944.
These proposals, modified after deliberation at the conference on International Organization in San Francisco
which began in April 1945, were finally agreed on and signed as the U.N Charter by 50 countries on 26 June 1945.
It was not until that autumn, however, after the Charter had been ratified by China, France, the U.S.S.R, the U.K
and the U.S and by a majority of the other participants that the U.N officially came into existence. The date was
24 October, now universally celebrated as United Nations Day.

Question 28 . The first stated aim of the U.N was to _______ .

supervise peace treaties B. prevent a third war
C. revise international laws D. assist the “third world” countries
Question 29. Under its Charter, the U.N guarantees ______.
A. never to use arms B. to promote economic and social advancement
C. to employ international machines D. better standards of life
Question 30. President Roosevelt ______.
A. was given the name “The United Nations” B. established “The United Nations”
C. probably devised the name “The United Nations” D. was credited to “The United Nations”
Question 31. Dumbarton Oaks was the place where ______ .
A. the representatives of five powers formulated basic suggestions
B. the U.N first met
C. the final proposals were agreed on and the Charter signed
D. 50 countries signed the U.N Charter
Question 32. The U.N came into existence fully in ______ .
A. 1944 B. 1942 C. 1945 D. 1940

SECTION B. WRITING (2ms)

Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first one. Use the given and
other words.
1. The meeting has been postponed until next Friday. (put)
 They have put off the meeting until the next Friday.
2. What was the reason for their late arrival? (turn)
 Why did they turn up so late?
Write complete sentences with the following clues.
3. WHO’s main activities/ carry out/ research/ medical development/ and/ improving international health care.
 WHO’s main activities are carrying out research on medical development and improving international health
care.
4. I’d like / work/ the World Wildlife Fund.
 I’d like to work for the World Wildlife Fund.
-------The end--------

PRACTICE TEST 6 (-UNIT 15)

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. discrimination B. civilization C. enlightenment D. pioneer
Question 2: A. divided B. controlled C. advocated D. added
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. improvement B. involvement C. employment D. pioneer
Question 4: A. agreement B. advantage C. advocate D. employment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 5: (A) Lack of an education (B) severely restricts a woman’s access (C) with information and (D)
opportunities.
Question 6: They (A) offered her the job (B) with a (C) high-paid salary, but she (D) turned down it.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 7: When a woman works outside the home and makes money herself, she is _____ independent from
her husband.
A. financially B. politically C. philosophically D. variously
Question 8: Birth control methods have ________ women from the endless cycle of childbearing and rearing.
A. free B. freely C. freedom D. freed
Question 9: In the past many people believed that women’s_______roles were as mothers and wives.
A. nature B. naturally C. natural D. naturalist
Question 10: Women nowadays are freed from doing the housework ______ labor-saving devices for the home.
A. because B. thanks to C. in spite of D. although
Question 11: Women nowadays are suited for __________ in the public life of business and politics.
A. co-operation B. abolishment C. involvement D. recognition
Question 12: This cold has lasted too long, I feel like I'll never get ______ it.
A. away B. back C. over D. with
Question 13: Discrimination __________ women should be prevented as soon as possible.
A. to B. on C. against D. of
Question 14: He tried to _____________ but she didn’t believe him at all.
A. explain the problem for his wife B. explain the problem to his wife
C. explain his wife about the problem D. explain his wife the problem
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Peter and Anny are talking about women’s role.
- Peter: “In my opinion, women should not go to work.” - Anny: “______________”
A. Yes, I do B. What nonsense! C. Yes, it was ever D. Yes, I don’t agree
Question 16: Fiona and Fallon are talking about the weather.
- Fiona: “Isn’t it going to rain tonight?” - Fallon: “_______________.”
A. Yes, it isn’t. B. I hope not C. I don’t hope so D. No, it is.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 17: Childbearing is the women's most wonderful role.
A. Giving birth to a baby B. Having no child C. Bringing up a child D. Educating a child
Question 18: I can't make out what he has talked about because I am not used to his accent.
A. stand B. write C. understand D. read
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s)
in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We should encourage women to join more social activities.
A. promote B. stimulate C. permit D. discourage
Question 20: She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study.
A. made room for B. got in touch with C. lost control of D. put in charge of
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 21: Women nowadays spend less time doing the housework.
A. It takes women nowadays more time to do the housework.
B. It took women nowadays less time to do the housework.
C. It took women more time to do the housework.
D. It takes women nowadays less time to do the housework
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 22: She was tired. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
A. Tired as she was, she still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
B. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family; however, she was tired.
C. Because she was not tired enough, she still had to cook the meal for the whole family.
D. She still had to cook the meal for the whole family but tired.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
for each of the blanks from question 23 to question 27.
The attitude against women had its (23) _______ from the beginning of mankind’s history when men lived
in caves and went hunting for food. The task of hunting needed great strength of body. (24) _______, the best
place for women was not in forests, but at home where they could satisfactorily do their job, such as doing
household chores and looking after children. In our modern time, there are more and more jobs which do not
need the strength of (25) _______. It is a consequence that women have played a/an (26) _______ important
role in the society. However, there are still many backward places, especially in Asian countries. Most illiterates
are females. A man often expects his wife and daughters to stay at home, serve him, and obey him in all things.
Women are considered as (27) _______ to men. Young girls are educated to tolerate and accept intimate
partner violence as a part of tradition.
Question 23: A. evolution B. origin C. organization D. effect
Question 24: A. Therefore B. But C. Nevertheless D. And
Question 25: A. brains B. heads C. will D. muscles
Question 26: A. increasingly B. extensively C. tiringly D. repeatedly
Question 27: A. inferior B. superior C. major D. higher

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions from 28 to 32.
In the late 19th century, the women’s movement occurred in many developed countries. It is said to begin
in Western societies and then quickly spread over the world. During the movement, women fought against
inequality in education, employment, reproductive rights, etc. Their uprising was the inevitable result of such a
long period of being subdued. The victims of the temporarily old society were not only women from poor families
but also from all the social classes not permitted to express their own ideas. To these people, life seemed to last
endlessly without freedom and joyfulness. Therefore, their reaction was considered as the revolution in
recognizing their contributions and narrowing the huge gender gap between males and females. The victory of
the feminist movement gave birth for the new era of independence, liberty, and happiness for all women globally.
Since then, women have legally gone to school, chosen their career, and been admitted to most social institutions
and organizations, which had been considered extremely luxurious things for them. Although gender inequality
has been substantially reduced over the past decades, there are still a few places where women do not have their
entitlement, young girl children are completely illiterate and mature ones cannot work and receive payment as
equally as men. How to help them to be released from the culturally regional oppression is a very tricky situation.
However, it is believed that this issue is going to be resolved soon.
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?
A. The violent war happened in the late 19th century to gain independence.
B. Women are maltreated int the world.
C. Women life has changed since their feminist movement.
D. Women were the victims of violent behaviour.
Question 29. Who were often repressed when expressing their own perspective?
A. Women from the lower, middle, and upper social status.
B. Women from poor rural families.
C. Women working in social groups.
D. Women in Western countries only.
Question 30: In the past, working for social groups or organizations was _______.
A. an honour for those having luxurious life B. severely limited for women
C. women’s regular choice D. encouraged by the wealthy
Question 31: According to the passage, what is one of the remaining drawbacks of gender
inequality in a few nations?
A. The low participation rate of women in politics
B. The high level of illiterate young girls
C. The decrease in the salary for working women
D. The law against reproductive rights
Question 32: The gender inequality problems in a few nations will be _______.
A. not solvable B. defined in a short time
C. eliminated in the near future D. considered by feminists soon
SECTION B. WRITING (2ms)
Use the words / phrases given to make a complete sentence.
Question 33: Women / believed / be / better / suited / childbearing / homemaking many years ago.
____________________________________________________________________________.
Question 34: They/promote/strategy/ prevent/ violence/ discrimination against girls, boys and women for the
past few years.
_____________________________________________________________________________.
Rewrite the sentence so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.
Question 35: They have postponed the meeting until next week (Use “PUT” to rewrite the sentence)
The meeting__________________________________________________________________________
Question 36: Because of the bad weather, our flight was delayed for several hours. (use “HELD” to rewrite the
sentence)
Because of __________________________________________________________________________

Keys
Question 33: Women were believed to be better suited for childbearing and homemaking many years ago
Question 34: They have promoted strategies to prevent violence and discrimination against girls, boys and
women for the past few years.
Question 35: The meeting has been put off until next week.
Question 36: Because of the bad weather, our flight was held up for several hours.
PRACTICE TEST 7

(UNIT 16)
SECTION A. MULTIPLE CHOICE (8ms)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 1. A. integration B. international C. immigration D. operation
Question 2. A. deal B. eagle C. instead D. eager
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
primary stress in the following questions.
Question 3. A. stability B. immensity C. advocacy D. capacity
Question 4. A. advice B. justice C. circus D. product
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the following
questions.
Question 5. The population of Singapore is approximately (A) 4.59 million. Though (B) Singapore is highly
cosmopolitan and diversity(C), ethnic Chinese forms (D) the majority of the population.
Question 6. Over the past(A) 24 years, Vietnam has consistently(B) considered ASEAN a(C) foundation and one
of top priority (D) of its foreign policy.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to the following questions.
Question 7:The major goal of ASEAN is to ____economic growth, social progress and cultural development.
A. cooperate B. accelerate C. communicate D. operate
Question8:The _______ is increasing faster and faster.
A. Gross Domestic Product B. Gross Domestic Production
C. Growth Domestic Product D. General Domestic Production
Question 9:We are trying to control the ________ of the dollar on the world’s money markets.
A. stable B. stabilize C. stability D. stabilizer
Question 10:Strategic alliances are being ________ with major European companies.
A. forced B. formulated C. forbidden D. forged
Question 11: _________ you finish typing that report, make five copies of it and give it to the officers.
A. While B. When C. If D. As long as
Question 12:_______ I visit him, we talk about politics a lot.
a. Up to B. As far as C. Whenever D. Until
Question 13:What did that man die ________? –A heart attack.
A. in B. for C. of D. about
Question 14:When the passenger ________, will you please give him this package?
A. will arrive B. arrives C. would arrive D. arriving
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete the following
exchanges.
Question 15: Rolls: “Would you like to go to the concert?” - Bob: “________. I’m very busy.”
A. All right, let me see B. I’d love to, but I can’t
C. No, not at all D. I don’t think so
Question 16: Tom: “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?”- Nam:
“________”
A. Yes, please. B. Sorry, I’m new here myself.
C. Sure, go ahead. D. OK. Here’s your ticket.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the words OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in
the following questions.
Question 17:ASEAN also works for the promotion of peace and stabilityin the region.
A. constancy B. equilibrium C. consistency D. unsteadiness
Question 18.The ASEAN Investment Area aims to enhance the competitiveness of the region for attracting
direct investment which flows into and within ASEAN.
A. boost B. intensify C. promote D. lessen
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in the
following questions.
Question 19: Southeast Asia is a region of diverse cultures.

A. same B. various C. identical D. similar

Question 20: There's nojusticein the world when people can be made to suffer like that.
A. fairness B. partiality C. injustice D. inequity
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to the following questions.
Question 21: When I picked up my book I found that the cover had been torn.
A. After I picked up my book, I tore the cover.
B. On picking up the book, I saw that the cover had been torn.
C. Before I picked up the book, I saw that the cover of the book was torn.
D. The cover was torn as soon as my book waspicked up.
Question 22:By the time we finished our work, Peter had already gone home.
A. Peter did not go home until we finished our work.
B. As soon as we finished our work, we would go home with Peter.
C. We finished our work before Peter went home.
D. Peter had gone home before we finished our work.
Read the passage and circle the best answer A, B, C, or D.
Singapore was one of the five original member countries that founded ASEAN in 1967. Since its independence in
1965, Singapore has become one of the world’s most prosperous countries, with per capita GDP equalling that of
the leading nations of Western Europe. Singapore is highly ranked for its economic competitiveness, and it was
the world’s most competitive country from 1997 to 1999 as ranked by the World Economic Forum.

Singapore’s strategic location at the entrance to the Strait of Malacca has helped it to become one of the most
important shipping centres in Asia. The Port of Singapore, the world’s busiest in terms of shipping tonnage, is a
key component of Singapore’s prosperity and economic health. Singapore is a leader in manufacturing of
computer components, petroleum refining, and business services.

Singapore has made an impressive recovery after the Asian financial crisis of 1997-1998. The government is
currently restructuring the economy by promoting higher-value-added activities in line with a “knowledge-based”
economy, and by opening up protected sectors such as financial services to increase overall efficiency. Various
bilateral free-trade agreements are also being negotiated to improve market access and encourage foreign
investment inflows.
23. Since when has Singapore become one of the world’s most prosperous countries?
A. 1965 B. 1967 C. 1997 D. 1999
24. What does the word “it” in the first paragraph refer to?
A. ASEAN C. Singapore
B. GDP D. the World Economic Forum
25. What is the important component of Singapore’s prosperity and economic health?
A. Singapore’s strategic location C. Singapore’s shipping
B. the Strait of Malacca D. the Port of Singapore
26. In what areas is Singapore leading?
A. manufacturing of computer components
B. petroleum refining
C. business services
D. A, B, and C
27. What happened in the period of 1997-1998?
A. Singapore made an impressive recovery.
B. The Asian financial crisis took place.
C. The Singaporean government promoted higher-value-added activities.
D. The Singaporean government opened up financial services.

Choose the word among A, B, C, or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

The 15th Asian Games (28) _______ from December 1st through December 15th, 2006, in Doha, Capital of Qatar.
More than 10,000 athletes, who represented 45 countries and regions, took part in 39 sports and 424 events of
the Games, the most important event in Asia. Some new events such as chess and triathlon were also
(29)_______ in the Games. The 15th Asian Games was (30) _______ at 34 sporting venues, including Khalifa
Stadium, (31) _______ hosted the opening and closing ceremonies. The Opening Ceremony of the 15 th Asian
Games, Doha 2006, at Khalifa Stadium, was the most spectacular opening of any Games with 50,000 people to
get into Khalifa Stadium and more than one billion television viewers. The Doha Asian Games Organizing
Committee (DAGOC) wanted to ensure that everybody who saw the ceremony would have a (32) _______ for life
as suggested in the slogan "The Games of Your Life."The 15 th Asian Games was a successful sporting event that
all the attendees would never forget.

28. A set up B. took part C. brought about D. took place

29. A. included B. contained C. insisted D. celebrated
 30. A. made B. organized C. symbolized D. opened
31. A. that B. who C. where D. which
32. A. match B. memory C. portrait D. partner

SECTION B

Rewrite the sentence so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.

1. After having met the movie star in person, I understand she was so popular. (Use adverbial clause of time to
replace the underlined phrase, beginning with “After”)

After ………………………………………….,

After I had met the movie star in person, I understood why she was so popular.

2. Before flying on a space mission, an astronaut will have undergone thousands of hours of training. (Use
adverbial clause of time to replace the underlined phrase, beginning with “Before”)

Before ………………………………………..,

Before an astronaut flies on a space mission, he will have undergone thousands of hours of training.

Write complete sentences with the following clues.

3. ASEAN leaders/ also adopt/ ASEAN Vision 2020/aim/ forge/ closer economic integration/ the region.

The ASEAN leaders have also adopted the ASEAN Vision 2020, which is aimed at forging closer economic
integration within the region.

4. ASEAN / actively/ contribute/ improve / socio- economic situations / solve / problems / the world.

ASEAN has actively contributed to improving the socioeconomic situations and solving the problems in the world.